CA Final

Supply under GST – CA Final IDT Study Material

Supply under GST – CA Final IDT Study Material is designed strictly as per the latest syllabus and exam pattern.

Supply under GST – CA Final IDT Study Material

Question 1.
How the tax liability on composite and mixed supplies is determined under GST law? Answer in single sentence each. [Nov. 2017, 2 Marks]
Answer:
As per section 8 of CGST Act, 2017:

Composite Sup­ply

  • As per Section 8(a), “Composite supply comprising two or more supplies, one of which is a principal supply, shall be treated as a supply of such principal supply.”
  • Thus, tax liability shall be on the basis of rate of GST Principal supply.

Mixed Supply

  • As per Section 8(b), “A mixed supply comprising of two or more supplies shall be treated as supply of that particular supply that attracts highest rate of tax.”
  • Thus, tax liability shall be on the basis of that supply that attracts highest rate of tax.

Question 2.
Sharma Carriers is a Good Transport Agency engaged in transportation of goods by road. As per the general business practice, Sharma carriers also provides intermediary and ancillary services like loading/ unloading, packing/ unpacking, transhipment and temporary warehousing in relation to transportation of goods by road.
With reference to the provisions of GST law, analyse whether such services are to be treated as part of the GTA services, being a composite supply or as mixed supply. [Nov. 2018 (Old), 5 Marks]
Answer:
Facts of the given Case Study

  • Sharma Carriers (Good Transport Agency) is engaged in transportation of goods by road.
  • It also provides intermediary and ancillary services.
  • Question arises whether such services are to be treated as part of the GTA services. (composite supply or mixed supply)

Related Provisions

(a) As per Section 2(30) of the CGST Act, 2017:

  • Composite supply means a supply made by a taxable person to a recipient
  • consisting of two or more taxable supplies of goods or services or both, or any combination thereof
  • which are naturally bundled and supplied in conjunction with each other in the ordinary course of business
  • one of which is a principal supply.

(b) As per Section 2(74) of the CGST Act, 2017 :

  • Mixed supply means two or more individual supplies of goods or services, or any combination thereof,
  • made in conjunction with each other
  • by a taxable person for a single price
  • where such supply does not constitute a composite supply.

Decision

Principal Service: Transportation of goods by road.
Other Service: intermediary and ancillary services.

  • The various Intermediary and ancillary services provided by GTA are not provided as independent services but as ancillary to the principal service, namely, transportation of goods by road.
  • The invoice issued by the GTA includes the value of intermediary and ancillary services.
  • Thus, any intermediary and ancillary service would form part of the GTA service, and thus will be composite supply.

Examiner’S Comment
Most of the examinees exhibited lack of knowledge of the provisions relating to composite and mixed supply and thus, failed to elaborate the conditions to be satisfied for a supply to be classified as a composite supply and mixed supply.

Supply under GST – CA Final IDT Study Material

Question 3.
A professional training institute gets its training material printed from a printing press. The content of the material is provided by the training institute who owns the usage rights of the same while the physical inputs including paper used for printing belong to the printer.
Ascertain whether supply of training material by the printing press constitutes supply of goods or supply of services. [MTP, May 2018, 5 Marks]/[RTP, Nov. 19, 5 Marks]
Answer:
Facts of the given Case Study

  • A printing press supplies printing services.
  • Content of the material is provided by the recipient of service.
  • Paper and other physical inputs belong to the printer.
  • The question is whether it is supply of goods or services.

Related Provisions

(a) As per Circular No. 11/11/2017 GST dated 20.10.2017:
The supply of books printed with contents supplied by the recipient of such printed goods is a composite supply and the question, whether such supplies constitute supply of goods or services would be determined on the basis of what constitutes the principal supply.

(b) As per section 2(90) of the CGST Act:
Principal supply is the supply of goods or services which constitutes the predominant element of a composite supply and to which any other supply forming part of that composite supply is ancillary.

Decision

  • Supply of printing (of the content supplied by the recipient of supply) is the principal supply.
  • Therefore, such supplies would constitute supply of service.

Question 4.
X, a registered dealer offers a Desktop Computer (for ₹ 50,000 before tax) and a wooden table (for ₹ 5,000 before tax) for a consolidated price of ₹ 52,500 plus tax. The rates of GST applicable on desktop computer and wooden table are 28% and 18% respectively.
(i) Determine whether the supply is a mixed supply or a composite supply.
(ii) Is it beneficial for the customer to avail the offer or buy them separately?
Answer:
(i) Mixed or Composite Supply: The two items “computer and table” can be supplied separately and is not dependent on each other. Hence, the offer of “computer and table” at consolidated price is not naturally bundled. Therefore, it is mixed supply.

(ii) Comparative Analysis: In order to compare the two alternatives, there is a need to calculate the total amount payable by the recipient under the same.
Supply under GST – CA Final IDT Study Material 1
Comment: It is beneficial to customer to avail the offer.

Question 5.
Mr. Rajesh Surana has a proprietorship firm in the name of Surana & Sons in Jaipur. The firm, registered under GST in the State of Rajasthan, manufactures taxable products. The firm also provides taxable consultancy services.

Mr. Rajesh Surana has provided the consultancy service to his brother – Mr. Akhilesh Surana (located in USA) without any consideration. The products manufactured by Mr. Akhilesh are similar to the ones manufactured by Mr. Rajesh Surana. Mr. Surana charges ₹ 3,00,000 for providing similar consultancy services to other independent customers located in USA.
Answer:
Facts of the given Case Study

  • “Surana and Sons” has provided the consultancy service to ’Mr. Akhilesh Surana” without any consideration.
  • Mr. Akhilesh Surana is located in USA and is the brother of proprietor.
  • The question is whether export of service will fall under Schedule I and liable to tax?

Related Provisions

As per Schedule I of the CGST Act, 2017: The activities to be treated as supply even if made without consideration. Accordingly, Para 2 of Schedule I treats supply of goods or services or both between related persons or between distinct persons as specified in section 25, when made in the course or furtherance of business as a supply even if made without consideration.

Decision

  • Consultancy service to Mr. Akhilesh Surana (located in USA) has been provided without any consideration.
  • However, a brother who is not dependent on the person supplying the service, does not come within the purview of term family as defined under section 2(49) of the CGST Act, 2017 and hence, is not a related person.
  • Therefore, the export of service to an independent brother without any consideration will not fall under Para 2 of the Schedule I to CGST Act, 2017.
  • Hence, the activity is not a supply and is thus, not liable to any tax.

Supply under GST – CA Final IDT Study Material

Question 6.
Mr. Z, a supplier registered in Hyderabad (Telangana), procures goods from China and directly supplies the same to a customer in US. With reference to the provisions of GST law, examine whether the said activity of supply of goods by Mr. Z to customer in US is taxable under GST. If yes, determine the place of supply of the same. [RTP, Nov. 19]
Answer:
Facts of the given Case Study

  • Mr. Z has procured goods from China and supplied directly to customer in USA.
  • The question is whether it is taxable under GST laws.

Related Provisions

  • The Schedule III specifies transactions/activities which shall be neither treated as supply of goods nor supply of services.
  • The Entry 7 of this Schedule includes supply of goods from a place in the non-taxable territory to another place in the non-taxable territory without such goods entering into India.

Decision

  • The activity given in question comes under purview of schedule III.
  • Therefore, the transaction is neither supply of goods nor services.
  • Thus, the question arises about place of supply.

Question 7.
Examine whether the following activities would amount to supply under section 7 of the CGST Act:
(а) Damodar Charitable Trust, a trust who gets the eye treatment of needy people done free of cost, donates clothes and toys to children living in slum area.
(b) Sulekha Manufacturers have a factory in Delhi and a depot in Mumbai. Both these establishments are registered in respective States. Finished goods are sent from factory in Delhi to the Mumbai depot without consideration so that the same can be sold.
(c) Raman is an Electronic Commerce Operator in Chennai. His brother who is settled in London is a well-known lawyer. Raman has taken legal advice from him free of cost with regard to his family dispute.
(d) Would your answer be different if in the above case, Raman has taken advice in respect of his business unit in Chennai?
Answer:

Activity given in ques­tionWhether supply under section 7Reason

(a) Free eye treatment of needy people and donation of clothes, toys, etc. No Since it is without consideration, NOT covered in section 7 and also does not come under the purview of Schedule I.
(b) Finished goods trans­ferred from factory to depot (Both are in different states) Yes ♦ Schedule I of CGST Act, inter alia, stipulates that supply of goods or services or both between related persons or between distinct persons as specified in section 25, is supply even without consideration provided it is made in the course or furtherance of business.

♦ Further, where a person who has obtained or is required to obtain registration in a State in respect of an establishment, has an establishment in another State, then such establishments shall be treated as establishments of distinct persons [Section 25 of the CGST Act],

♦  In view of the same, factory and depot of Sulekha Manufacturers are establishments of two distinct persons.

♦ Therefore, supply of goods from Delhi factory of Sulekha Manufacturers to Mumbai Depot without consideration, but in course/ furtherance of business, is supply under section 7 of the CGST Act.

(c) Legal advice received by Raman for per­sonal purposes from brother free of cost. No ♦ Schedule I of CGST Act, inter alia, stipulates that import of services by a taxable person from a related person located outside India, without consideration is treated as supply if it is provided in the course or furtherance of business.

♦ In the given case, Raman has received legal services from his brother free of cost in a personal matter and NOT in course or furtherance of business.

♦ Hence, services provided by Raman’s brother to him would not be treated as supply under section 7 of the CGST Act.

(d) Import of service by Raman for business purposes from broth­er free of cost. Yes ♦ In the above case, if Raman has taken advice with regard to his business unit, services provided by Raman’s brother to him would be treated as supply under section 7 of the CGST Act as the same are provided in course or furtherance of business though received from a related person.

Question 8.
Determine whether the following supplies amount to composite supplies/mixed supplies:
(a) A hotel provides 4 days-3 nights package wherein the facility of breakfast and dinner is provided along with the room accommodation.
(b) A toothpaste company has offered the scheme of free toothbrush along with the toothpaste.
Answer:
Activity Nature Reason

Activity Nature Reason
(a) 4 days-3 nights package with breakfast/Dinner along with room accom­modation Compos­ite The supply of breakfast and dinner with the accommodation in the hotel are naturally bundled.
(b) free toothbrush along with the toothpaste Mixed The supply of toothbrush along with the toothpaste is NOT naturally bundled.

Question 9.
Define the meaning of Related Parties and Distinct Person as per the CGST Act?
Answer:
Related Persons [Section 15 of CGST Act, 2017]

A person shall be deemed to be related if,
(a) such persons are officers or directors of one another’s businesses
(b) such persons are legally recognized partners in business
(c) such persons are employer and employee
(d) any person directly or indirectly owns, controls or holds twenty-five percent or more of the outstanding voting stock or shares of both of them
(e) one of them directly or indirectly controls the other
(f) both of them are directly or indirectly controlled by a third person
(g) together they directly or indirectly control a third person; or they are members of the same family
(h) persons who are associated in the business of one another in that one is the sole agent or sole distributor or sole concessionaire, howsoever described, of the other, shall be deemed to be related.

Distinct Persons Specified [SECTION 25 of CGST Act, 2017]

Separate Registration make Distinct Person u/s 25(4): A person who has obtained/is required to obtain more than one registration, whether in one State/Union territory or more than one State/Union territory shall, in respect of each such registration, be treated as distinct persons.

Separate Establishment u/s 25(5):- Separate establishment in another state/UT whether registered or unregistered, such Establishment shall be treated as DP.

Supply under GST – CA Final IDT Study Material

Question 10.
Can Priority Sector Lending Certificate (PSLCs) be termed as Supply of Service?
Answer:

  • PSLC are akin to freely tradable duty scrips, Renewable Energy Certificates, REP license or replenishment license, which earlier attracted VAT.
  • RBI’s FAQ on PSLCs have construed PSLCs to be in the nature of goods,
  • In GST, there is no exemption to trading in PSLCs.
  • Thus, PSLCs are taxable as goods.
  • GST payable on the certificates would be available as ITC to the bank buying the certificates [Circular No. 34/08/2018 GST dated 01.03.2018].

GST in India-An Introduction – CA Final IDT Study Material

GST in India-An Introduction – CA Final IDT Study Material is designed strictly as per the latest syllabus and exam pattern.

GST in India-An Introduction – CA Final IDT Study Material

Question 1.
Explain the concept of Dual GST. [Nov. 2017, 2 Marks]
Answer:
Under dual GST system, GST is levied by both the federal (i.e. Central Government) and State Government. In view of the federal structure of the country, India has adopted a Dual GST model.

Intra-State Supplies: The tax is imposed by the Centre and States simultaneously on taxable supply of goods/services which, takes place within a State or Union Territory, in the form of:

  • CentraI GST (CGST) and
  • State GST (SGST)

Inter-State Supplies: The Centre has the exclusive power to levy and collect GST on inter state supplies in the form of Integrated GST (IGST), which is shared between the Center and State.

Question 2.
Enumerate any five matters on which the GST Council may make recommendations under Article 279A
of the Constitution of India. [Nov 2019, 5 Marks]
Answer:
The GST Council shall make recommendation to the Union and the States on –

(a) Abolition of taxes The taxes, cesses and surcharges levied by the Union, the State and the local bodies which may be subsumed in the GST.
(b) Number of Goods or Ser­vices Exempted The goods and services that may be subjected to, or exempted from GST.
(c) Making of rules of levy and place of supply Model GST Laws, principles of levy, apportionment of Integrated Goods and Services Tax (IGST) and the principles that govern the place of supply.
(d) Threshold ex­emption The threshold limit of turnover below which goods and services may be exempted from GST.
(e) Rates of tax The rates including floor rates with bands of GST.

GST in India-An Introduction – CA Final IDT Study Material

Question 3.
What do you mean by GST Council? What is Its guiding principle? What are its functions?
Answer:

  • The GST Council is a joint forum of the Centre and States.
  • The Article 279A of the Constitution of India empowers the President to constitute Goods and Services Tax Council (GST Council) and was constituted on 15th September, 2016.
  • The GST Council consists of the following:

(i) Union Finance Minister as a Chairperson
(ii) Union Minister of State in-charge of Finance as a member
(iii) The State Finance Minister or State Revenue Minister or any other Minister nominated by each State as a member of the Council.

  • The GST Council shall select one of them as Vice Chairperson of Council.
  • The GST Council is to make recommendations to the Central Government and the State Governments on

(a) tax rates and classification of supply
(b) exemptions
(c) threshold limits for registration
(d) dispute resolution
(e) GST legislations including rules and notifications etc.

Question 4.
State the advantages of GST.
Answer:
The following are the advantages of GST:

(a) One Nation One Tax.
(b) Removal of many indirect taxes such as Central level Taxes like Excise Duty, Service Tax, CVD, CST and State Level Taxes like VAT, Entertainment Tax, Tax on Lottery, Betting and Gambling etc.
(c) Removal of cascading effect of taxes (i.e. removes burden of tax on tax).
(d) Increased ease of doing business;
(e) Lower cost of production, increases demand will lead to increase supply. Hence, this will ultimately lead to rise in the production of goods. Resultantly boost to make in India initiative.
(f) GST will boost export and manufacturing activity.
(g) Generate more employment.
(h) Uniformity of tax rates and structures
(i) Improved competitiveness
(j) Better control on revenue leakage

GST in India-An Introduction – CA Final IDT Study Material

Question 5.
State briefly the features of the GSTN, i.e., the role assigned to GSTN in India.
Answer:
Solution.
Functions of the GSTN are :

  • Filing of registration application
  • Filing of return & matching of input tax credit
  • Intimate to Registered person in case of Mismatch of ITC
  • Creation of challan for a tax payment
  • Settlement of GST payment (like a clearing house),
  • Generation of E-Way Bill.

All statutory functions to be performed by tax officials under GST like approval of registration, assessment, audit, appeal, enforcement etc. will remain with the respective tax departments.

Question 6.
Difference between Direct Tax & Indirect Tax?
Answer:

Basis Direct Tax Indirect Tax
1. Tax Burden The person paying the tax to the Gov­ernment directly bears the incidence of the tax The person paying the tax to the Gov­ernment collects the same from the ultimate consumer. Thus, incidence of the tax is shifted to the other person
2. Nature Progressive in nature – high rate of taxes for people having higher ability to pay Regressive in nature – All the consum­ers equally bear the burden, irrespec­tive of their ability to pay

Question 7.
Explain the concept of GST?
Answer:
GST IS A VALUE ADDED TAX
GST is a tax levied at multiple stages of production & distribution of goods & services in which tax paid on inputs are allowed as set-off against tax payable on output. In short, we can say that GST is charged on “Value Addition.”

CHAIN OF TAX CREDITS
GST offers comprehensive and continuous chain of tax credits from the producer’s point/service up to the retailer’s level/consumer’s level.

BURDEN ON FINAL CONSUMER
The final burden of GST is borne by the consumer as it is charged by the last supplier with set off benefits at all previous stages.

NO CASCADING EFFECT OF TAXES
The past tax structure of India has number of indirect taxed collected both by Central and State Government. Due to such multiple taxes, there had been cascading effect of taxes (tax on tax) and double taxation.
GST will subsume all these indirect taxes and will thus, facilitate seamless flow of credit resolving the problem of double taxation and cascading effect of taxes.

GST in India-An Introduction – CA Final IDT Study Material

Question 8.
Write a Short note on Legislations governing GST.
Answer:
Legislations governing GST:

(1) The UTGST Act has been passed for Union territories which do not have legislature. For the purpose of GST, each Union Territory shall be considered as a separate Union territory. For instance, the goods have been supplied by a trader from Chandigarh to Lakshadweep. Now, although both the UT’s are governed by the same UTGST Act but it will be treated as Inter-State Supply & is subject to IGST.

(2) Out of 8 Union Territories, the three Union territories “Delhi”, “Puducherrv” and “Jarnmu & Kashmir” have their own legislature and they have passed their own SGST Acts. That is why; Delhi, Puducherry and J&K are not covered by the list of UT for this purpose.

(3) All the 28 states have passed their own State GST Act in order to impose SGST on supply of Goods & Services within the State. It may be noted that all provisions of State GST Acts are identical with CGST Act.

The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 – CA Final Law Study Material

The Foreign Contribution Regulation Act, 2010 – CA Final Law Study Material is designed strictly as per the latest syllabus and exam pattern.

The Foreign Contribution Regulation Act, 2010 – CA Final Law Study Material

Question 1.
What are the alternate methods of dispute resolution. State the primary legislation dealing with alternate methods of dispute resolution.
Answer:
Alternative Methods of Dispute resolution:
Over a period of time, alternate methods of dispute resolution are evolved to resolve disputes outside the ordinary court system. Various alternative methods of dispute resolution may be listed as:

(a) Arbitration
(b) Conciliation
(c) Mediation
(d) Negotiation
(e) Ombudsperson etc.

Most common methods used as alternate dispute resolution are arbitration and mediation.

Primary Legislation dealing with alternative methods of dispute resolution:
In India the primary legislations dealing with alternate methods of dispute resolution are:
(a) The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
(b) Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987
(c) The Code of Civil Procedure, 1908

Question 2.
Distinguish between: Arbitration and Litigation. [MTP-Oct.18]
Answer:
Distinguish between Arbitration and Litigation:

Litigation Arbitration
Matter of litigation being decided in court. Place of arbitration is chosen by the parties.
Litigants has no right to decide the person who will judge their disputes. Arbitrator may be selected by the parties of their own.
Procedure followed by the court is fixed and governed by the Code of Civil procedure and rules applicable to the particular court. Parties have adequate flexibility to choose the proce­dures that would apply to their arbitration.
Litigation proceedings are generally open’ to public, i.e. there is no privacy and Con­fidentiality. Apart from the parties (including their lawyers) no other person is permitted to participate in the arbitral proceedings.                       ‘
Court decisions are subject to numerous appeals. Arbitral awards can be challenged on very limited grounds.
It is often difficult to enforce judgments of court of one country in a foreign country. Enforcing an arbitral award in foreign nations is com­paratively easier.

The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 – CA Final Law Study Material

Question 3.
How the term International Commercial Arbitration is been defined under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996.
Answer:
International Commercial Arbitration:
Sec. 2(1)(f) of The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 defines the term International Commercial Arbitration as It means an arbitration relating to disputes arising out of legal relationships, whether contractual or not, considered as commercial under the law in force in India and where at least one of the parties is:

  1. an individual who is a national of, or habitually resident in, any country other than India; or
  2. a body corporate which is incorporated in any country other than India; or
  3. an association or a body of individuals whose central management and control is exercised in any country other than India; or
  4. the Government of a foreign country.

Question 4.
Requirements of an arbitration agreement are prescribed by statutory provisions and decide case law. State those requirements.
Answer:
Requirements of Arbitration Agreement:
Requirements of an arbitration agreement as prescribed by statutory provisions and decide case law are:
(a) Writing: Arbitration agreement are required to be mandatorily in writing, though it may be stipulated through separate agreement.

(b) Clarity of consent: Parties to the contact must have given consent to arbitration agreement and that consent have not been withdrawn. The words used should disclose a determination and obligation on the part of parties to go to arbitration and not merely contemplate the possibility of going for arbitration.

(c) Defined Legal relationship: Any dispute that arises from a legal relationship can be submitted to arbitration unless it is expressly or impliedly barred by a Statute. Thus disputes concerning illegal activities cannot be submitted to arbitration.

(d) Final and binding award: Parties to the arbitration agreement must agree that the determination of their substantive rights by a neutral third person acting as the arbitral tribunal would be final and binding upon them.

(e) Specific words: Mere use of words like ‘arbitration’ or ‘arbitrator’ in a clause will not make it an arbitration agreement. Consent of the parties to refer their disputes to arbitration must be reflected.

(f) Dispute: There must be a present or a future dispute/difference in connection with some contemplated affairs that is proposed to be submitted to arbitration.

(g) Arbitrability: The disputes submitted/proposed to be submitted to arbitration must be arbitrable. There are certain disputes that the law retains exclusively for the court, and the same cannot be submitted for arbitration. Examples of the disputes that cannot be arbitrated are criminal offences, matrimonial disputes, guardianship matters, testamentary matters, mortgage suit for sale of a mortgaged property, etc. cannot be arbitrated.

(h) Signature: Signature is required when the arbitration agreement is contained in a contract i.e. in one set of documents. However, no signature is required if the arbitration agreement is contained in correspondence or exchange of pleadings.

The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 – CA Final Law Study Material

Question 5.
ABC Pvt Ltd. is a construction company. Mr. Builder is a Chief Engineer of the ABC Pvt. Ltd. A common arbitration agreement was framed by ABC Pvt. Ltd. in case of disputes if arises under any contract. According to the term of an agreement, any question, claim, right, matter, thing, whatsoever, in any way arising out of or relating to the contract designs, drawings, specifications estimates, instructions, or orders, or those conditions or failure to execute the same whether arising during the progress of the work, or after the completion, termination or abandonment thereof, the dispute shall, in the first place, be referred to the Chief Engineer who has jurisdiction over the work specified in the contract.

The Chief Engineer shall within a period of ninety days from the date of dispute bought into notice, give written notice of his decision to the contractor. Chief Engineer’s decision shall be final. Examine on the validity of such arbitration agreement. [MTP-Aug. 18]
Answer:
Determination of Validity of Arbitration Agreement:

  • Parties to the arbitration agreement must agree that the determination of their substantive rights by a neutral third person acting as the arbitral tribunal would be final and binding upon them.
  • In the instant case, Chief Engineer is not a neutral party and has a control over the work specified in the contract.

Conclusion: This is not a valid arbitration agreement.

Question 6.
Mr. R, the respondent had placed an order of purchase of various quantities of phosphoric acid from the Mr. P, the petitioner. The purchase order noted that the terms and conditions were to be as per the Fertilizer Association of India (FAI). Terms and Conditions for Sale and Purchase of Phosphoric Acid were as per Clause 15 of the FAI which also provided terms for settlement of disputes by arbitration. Enumerate in the light of the given circumstances as to existence of a valid arbitration agreement between the parties as per the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996. [RTP-May 20]
Answer:
Determination of Validity of Arbitration Agreement:

The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 envisages a possibility of an arbitration agreement coming into being through incorporation. In other words, parties to an agreement could agree to arbitrate by referring to another contract containing an arbitration agreement. The requirement is that the reference must leave no doubt in the mind of the reader that the parties indeed wanted to incorporate the arbitration agreement into the agreement between them.

In the instant case Mr. R had placed an order of purchase of various quantities of phosphoric acid from Mr. R The purchase order noted that the terms and conditions were to be as per the Fertilizer Association of India (FAI) Terms and Conditions for Sale and Purchase of Phosphoric Acid. Clause 15 of the terms provided for settlement of disputes by arbitration.

Facts of this case are similar to Groupe Chimique Tunisien v. Southern Petrochemicals Industries Corpn. Ltd. wherein it was held by the Supreme Court of India that for a reference to constitute an arbitration agreement the contract should be writing and reference should be such as to make that arbitration clause a part of the contract. Both the conditions were held to be fulfilled in the present.

Conclusion: For a reference to constitute an arbitration agreement the contract should be in writing and reference should be such as to make that arbitration clause a part of the contract. Both the conditions were held to be fulfilled in the present instance, hence this is a valid reference for an arbitration agreement.

Question 7.
In 2018, Company Amar, food process or manufacturing unit entered into a joint venture agreement ; with Company IJSHA, the largest manufacturer of Food processors for supply of parts of mixer & grinder for manufacturing its latest model. Both the companies are registered under the Companies Act, 2013. Agreement carries the term that all disputes shall he arbitrated in Mumbai. State the type of arbitration agreement made between them.
What will happen if the agreement does not have any clause relating to arbitration? Disputes arose between them concerning quality of material supplied in 2019. [MTP-April 18, April 19; RTP-May 18, May 19]
Or
On 1st day of April, 2018, Arnold Food Processors Limited, a company engaged in food processor manufacturing unit entered into a joint venture agreement with Ronnie and Coleman Company Limited, the largest manufacturer of Food processors for supply of parts of mixer and grinder for manufacturing its latest model. Both the companies are registered under the Companies Act, 2013. Agreement carries the term that all disputes shall be arbitrated in Delhi. In the light of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, .1996, discuss:

  1. The type of arbitration agreement made between them.
  2. Examine what will happen if the agreement does not have any clause relating to arbitration where disputes arose between them concerning quality of material supplied in 2018. [RTP-Nov. 18]

Answer:
Determination of Type of Arbitration Agreement:
There are two basic types of arbitration agreement are:

(a) Arbitration clause: Arbitration clause is contained within a principal contract. The parties undertake to submit disputes in relation to or in connection with the principal contract that may arise in future to arbitration.

(b) Submission agreement: An agreement to refer disputes that already exist to arbitration. Such an agreement is entered into after the disputes have arisen.

If the agreement already carries the term that all disputes shall be arbitrated in Mumbai at the time of entering into joint venture agreement, it would be an arbitration clause as it is contained in the principal contract (JVA) and no disputes have arisen till yet. It concerns future disputes that may arise.

However, if the agreement does not have any clause relating to arbitration and disputes arise between the parties concerning quality of supplied goods in 2017. To resolve this dispute, parties may entered into an agreement through Submission Agreement. Following clause may be agreed upon: “That all disputes including quality of goods supplied by Company USHA to Company Amar shall be submitted to arbitration. The parties here by agree to abide by the decision of the arbitrator.”

Question 8.
Mr. X wants to start a bakery and so he contacts Mr. Y Confectioners & Bakers for supply of cakes and biscuits. The communication between the parties were over email. On e-mail, there was a term of service between the parties containing that “any disputes regarding quality or delivery shall be submitted to arbitration conducted under the guidance of Indian Confectionery Manufacturers Association. Please place your order if the above terms and conditions are agreeable to you.” X placed an order. State the legal position as the validity of the arbitration agreement.
Or
Ms. Rajkumari launch her boutique. She contacted with M/s Shyamlal merchants for supply of dress materials. The communication between the parties were over e-mail. There was a term of service between the parties containing that “any disputes regarding quality or delivery shall be submitted to arbitration conducted under the guidance of Indian Clothes Manufacturers Association. Please place your order if the above terms and conditions are agreeable to you.” Ms. Rajkumari placed an order. Comment on the validity of the such arbitration agreement according to the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996. – [MTP-March 19, Oct. 19, May 20]
Answer:
Determination of Validity of Arbitration Agreement:
As per the arbitration and Conciliation Act, an agreement must be in writing. There is however no requirement for the same to be in writing in one .document. There is also no particular form or template for an arbitration agreement. The communication over e-mail of the term of services is a proper valid agreement and the same have been stood affirmed by reason of their conduct.

This would be an arbitration agreement in writing contained in correspondence between the parties. Raman garments manufacturer entered into an arbitration agreement with its regular customers on the supply of dress material on demand in advance. At the same time, also hold the term that in case of disputes they may refer to the arbitration for the settlement of the matter. Raman garments manufacturer fail to make delivery of supply of dress material to Mr. X, a regular customer. Mr. X already made

Question 9.
Raman garments manufacturer aware of this important order in advance. Since Raman garments manufacturer was not able to meet the said the order well in time, he took the pica of theft and setting of fire to the property in the manufacturing unit.
The said matter was referred to the arbitration. State the validity as to the submission of the said dispute to the arbitration in the light of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996. [MTP-March 18]
Answer:
Determination of Validity of Arbitration Agreement:

As per the requirements of arbitration agreement, the disputes submitted/ proposed to be submitted to arbitration must be arbitrable. In other words that law must permit arbitration in that matter only which are capable of arbitration. There are certain disputes that the law retains exclusively for the court, and the same cannot be submitted for arbitration. The rationale is that given the nature of disputes, the courts are the only appropriate forum for adjudicating the matter.

In the given matter, it clearly reveals of non-performance of the duties of the Raman garments manufacturer within the specified timelines. To safeguard himself from the non-performance of the contract, took the cause of theft and setting of fires in the manufacturing unit.

Conclusion: Submitted disputes before arbitration is not arbitrable as the offences are of criminal natures. Such types of disputes are to be tried by the court of proper jurisdiction. Therefore, the submission of the dispute in the situation to arbitration is invalid.

The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 – CA Final Law Study Material

Question 10.
Smart Automobiles Limited and Apex Four wheelers Limited entered into an agreement regarding annual maintenance services to be provided by Smart Automobiles for all vehicles within the state of Uttar Pradesh for five years. The agreement was containing a clause that in the event of a dispute between the parties the matter would be submitted to arbitration. At the end of the fifth year, the service agreement was not renewed.
Decide whether the arbitration agreement should not be treated as terminated. Also describe the other grounds of termination of an arbitration agreement. [May 18 – New Syllabus (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Termination of Arbitration Agreement:

An arbitration agreement may be in the form of an arbitration clause in a contract or in the form of a separate agreement.

An arbitration agreement always operates in relation to a principal contract. If the principal contract is terminated through discharge or novation, the arbitration agreement terminates with the contract. However, if the principal contract is breached, then the arbitration agreement survives because of the operation of the doctrine of separability.

In the present case, at the end of existing contract, service agreement was not renewed. It results in discharge of existing agreement and hence, the arbitration agreement.
Conclusion: Arbitration agreement should be treated as terminated.

Other Grounds of Termination: Arbitration agreement may be terminated on following grounds:

  1. Mutual consent: Parties to the contract can jointly agree to put an end to a particular arbitration agreement.
  2. Death of parties: Arbitration agreement is not discharged by the death of any party. It shall be enforceable by or against the legal representatives of the deceased.
  3. Operation of Law: Arbitration agreement can be extinguished by the operation of law by virtue of which any right of action is extinguished.

Question 11.
Examine the validity of the following statements with reference to the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996:
(i) Every Court would be a Judicial Authority but every Judicial Authority would not be a court.
(ii) The disputes submitted to arbitration must be arbitrable. [Nov. 18 – New Syllabus (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Validity of statements under Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996:
(i) Statement is valid. A judicial authority as such is not defined in the Act. It would certainly include the court as defined in Section 2(1)(e) of the Act and would also include special tribunals and quasi judicial authorities.

(ii) Statement is valid. The disputes submitted/proposed to be submitted to arbitration must be arbitrable. There are certain disputes that the law retains exclusively for the court, and the same cannot be submitted for arbitration. Examples of the disputes that cannot be arbitrated are criminal offences, matrimonial disputes, guardianship matters, testamentary matters, mortgage suit for sale of a mortgaged property, etc. cannot be arbitrated.

Question 12.
Shyam started a fresh juice shop and contacted Naresh for supply of fruits and vegetables. Most of the communication between them happened over email. Oil the email, they decided the payment, terms and other conditions of service. For initial 5 months, Shyam was regular in making payment to Naresh for the fruits bought, but later on stopped making payments. Naresh filed a suit against Shyam in a Magisterial Court but Shyam contended that the matter should be settled through Arbitration. Referring to provision of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, state whether the contention of Shyam is correct. [Nov. 20 – New Syllabus (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Validity of Arbitration Agreement:

As per the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, an agreement must be in writing. There is however no requirement for the same to be in writing in one document. There is also no particular form or template for an arbitration agreement. The communication over email of the term of services is a proper valid agreement and the same have been stood affirmed by reason of their conduct.

  • However, it is essential that the terms of the agreement must clearly mention the resolution of disputes through arbitration.
  • In the given case, there is no specific fact provided whether the terms include intention of parties to resolve disputes through arbitration.

Conclusion: Contention of the Shyam is not correct. Based on the facts of the case, it appears that there is no agreement among the parties as to resolution of disputes through arbitration.
Note: Alternate answer possible with different assumption.

Arbitral Tribunal

Question 13.
How important are the ideas of independence and impartiality in arbitration?
(a) Is the arbitrator required to disclose anything to the parties?
(b) Is membership of the same sports club as one of the parties problematic?
Answer:
Requirement of Independence and impartiality in Arbitration:
(a) The arbitrators are under a duty of disclose any relations with parties or their lawyer that might give rise to justifiable doubts as to their independence and impartiality.
(b) Membership of the same sports club is too remote to count as a relation that might lead to doubts of bias.

Question 14.
Arbitrator should remain neutral, unbiased and should not favour any party in arbitration. An arbitral tribunal should at all times impartial. State the instance when the arbitrator may be said to be biased.
Answer:
Instance in which arbitrator may be said to be biased:

  • Arbitrator should remain neutral, unbiased and should not favour any party in arbitration. An arbitral tribunal should at all times remain independent and impartial.
  • Independence is presence of certain relationship between the arbitrator and a party such as previous employment, creditor, etc.

Impartiality is the state of mind of the arbitrator i.e. by his/her behaviour the arbitrator gives an impression that they are favouring one party over the other. It can be understood as a preconceived notion to decide a case or an issue in a particular manner.

Instances as to existence of biasness

  • Arbitrator is an employee, consultant, advisor or has any other past or present business relationship with a party
  • Arbitrator currently represents the lawyer or law firm acting as counsel for one of the parties
  • Arbitrator has given legal advice or provided an expert opinion on the dispute to a party or an affiliate of one of the parties
  • A close family member of the arbitrator has a significant financial interest in one of the parties
    or an affiliate of one of the parties
  • Arbitrator is a legal representative of an entity that is a party in the arbitration
  • Arbitrator has a significant financial interest in one of the parties or the outcome of the case
  • Arbitrator has previous involvement in the case.

Question 15.
Can an arbitrator resign on their own account? Do they have to give reasons for their resignation? Could an award be challenged on the ground that the arbitrator had resigned without giving any proper justifications?
Answer:
Resignation by Arbitrator:
An arbitrator can resign when they want, without giving reasons for their resignation. It does not affect the validity either of the arbitration proceedings or the arbitral award.

The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 – CA Final Law Study Material

Question 16.
State the grounds on which an arbitrator may be terminated or removed.
Answer:
Grounds on which arbitrator may be terminated or removed:
Arbitrator that has been chosen by the parties or appointed by the court may be removed in following instances:

(1) Arbitrator leaves voluntarily: Arbitrator may for any reason, which he may or may not disclose to the parties, decides to no longer act as the arbitrator. Being a private consent based arrangement arbitrator cannot be forced against their will to act or continue acting as an arbitrator.

(2) On mutual consent of all parties: The parties through a unanimous decision, may decide to have another person as arbitrator. This could be for many reasons including that the parties realise that the arbitrator does not have the particular expertise they had desired.

(3) Operation of law:

(A) Failure or impossibility to act (Sec. 14): The mandate of an arbitrator shall terminate and he shall be substituted by another arbitrator, if

(a) he becomes unable to perform his functions or for other reasons fails to act without
undue delay; and
(b) he withdraws from his office or the parties agree to the termination of his mandate.

(B) When the arbitration process ends: The mandate of the arbitrator ends when the arbitration process ends. Arbitration process can end in multiple ways:

  • When the parties decide to no longer continue with arbitration (Sec. 25)
  • Failure to make the award within 12 months (Sec. 29A) or
  • When final award has been made (Sec. 32).

(4) On application of any party court so decides: If a party feels that the arbitrator should not continue (on grounds of bias), then it can approach the court to remove the arbitrator.

Question 17.
Write a short note on different types of arbitral awards.
Answer:
Types of arbitral award:

(1) Final Award: An award that finally adjudicates on the issues submitted to arbitration and made in accordance with the requirements of the law (including signature, reason and delivery) would be a final award.

(2) Interim Award: There can be two types of interim awards, one which remains in force till the final award is rendered, and another is final as regards the matters it deals with. The latter is referred to as interim, because when it was rendered there were still other pending issues.

(3) Settlement Award: If, during arbitral proceedings, the parties settle the dispute, the arbitral tribunal shall terminate the proceedings and, if requested by the parties and not objected to by the arbitral tribunal, record the settlement in the form of an arbitral award on agreed terms. This is referred to as a settlement award.

(4) Additional Award: In a situation, when a final award has been rendered, but certain claims that had been submitted to the arbitral tribunal were omitted to be adjudicated, a party with notice to the other party, may request, within 30 days from the receipt of the arbitral award, the arbitral tribunal to make an additional arbitral award as to claims presented in the arbitral proceedings but omitted from the arbitral award.

Question 18.
Mention the grounds under which arbitral award may be challenged before the court under the provisions of Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996.
Answer:
Grounds under which arbitral award may be challenged:

(1) Challenge of bias against the arbitral tribunal (Sec. 13): The parties can challenge an arbitral tribunal on the ground that the arbitral tribunal is favouring or is biased in favour of one of the parties. Such a challenge should be first raised before the arbitral tribunal u/s 13. If the challenge is not accepted by the arbitral tribunal then the award rendered by that arbitral tribunal can be challenged.

(2) Overstepping of jurisdiction by the arbitral tribunal (Sec. 16): If during the arbitral proceedings one of the parties challenges the arbitral tribunal stating that the arbitral tribunal does not have jurisdiction, the arbitral tribunal will decide on this challenge. If, however the arbitral tribunal does not agree with the parties, the arbitral tribunal will render the award. That award can later be challenged by the parties for review.

(3) Specific grounds for reviewing an award (Sec. 34): An arbitral award may be set aside by the Court only if ’

(a) the party making the application establishes that on the basis of records of Arbitral Tribunal:

(i) the party was under some incapacity; or
(ii) the arbitration agreement is not valid under the law to which the parties have subjected it or, failing any indication thereon, under the law for the time being in force; or
(iii) the party making the application was not given proper notice of the appointment of an arbitrator or of the arbitral proceedings or was otherwise unable to present his case; or

(iv) the arbitral award deals with a dispute not contemplated by or not falling within the terms of the submission to arbitration, or it contains decisions on matters beyond the scope of the submission to arbitration; or

(v) the composition of the arbitral tribunal or the arbitral procedure was not in accordance with the agreement of the parties, unless such agreement was in conflict with a provision of this Part from which the parties cannot derogate, or, failing such agreement, was not in accordance with this Part; or

(b) the Court finds that:

  1. the subject-matter of the dispute is not capable of settlement by arbitration under the law for the time being in force, or
  2. the arbitral award is in conflict with the public policy of India.

Question 19.
Madhav prefers an appeal for setting aside the arbitral award on the ground that he was not given a proper notice of arbitral proceedings and thereby not being able to present his case. He also furnishes sufficient proof and pleads before the court that he received the arbitral award just 15 days back. Decide with reasons whether Madhav will succeed is his prayer.
Answer:
Grounds under which arbitral award may be challenged:
As per Sec. 34 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, an arbitral award may be set aside by the Court only if the party making the application establishes that on the basis of records of Arbitral Tribunal:

1. the party was under some incapacity; or

2. the arbitration agreement is not valid under the law to which the parties have subjected it or, failing any indication thereon, under the law for the time being in force; or

3. the party making the application was not given proper notice of the appointment of an arbitrator or of the arbitral proceedings or was otherwise unable to present his case; or

4. the arbitral award deals with a dispute not contemplated by or not falling within the terms of the submission to arbitration, or it contains decisions on matters beyond the scope of the submission to arbitration; or

5. the composition of the arbitral tribunal or the arbitral procedure was not in accordance with the agreement of the parties, unless such agreement was in conflict with a provision of this Part from which the parties cannot derogate, or, failing such agreement, was not in accordance with this Part.

In the instant case, Madhav prefers an appeal for setting aside the arbitral award on the ground that he was not given a proper notice of arbitral proceedings and thereby not being able to present his case. He also furnishes sufficient proof and pleads before the court that he received the arbitral award just 15 days back.

Question 20.
Distinguish between: Conciliation and Mediation.
Answer:
Conciliation vs. Mediation:

Mediation Conciliation
Mediator plays only a facilitative role and guide the parties towards a solution. Parties to the mediation have to find the solution themselves. Conciliator plays role of a facilitator, evaluator and intervener, thereby, he can also along with the parties suggest solutions.
Outcome of mediation is an agreement between the parties. Outcome of settlement is a settlement agreement.
Agreement reached by the parties being a con­tract, enforceable by law. Settlement agreement between the parties has the status of an arbitral award on agreed terms, hence, executable as a decree of the civil court.
Mediation is governed by Sec. 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. Conciliation is governed by the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996.
Mediation is governed by confidentiality, which is based on trust. Conciliation is bound by confidentially. Breach of confidentially could be fatal to the entire process.
In case of breach of agreement, the parties would have to proceed in the usual process adopted for breach of contract. Breach of the settlement agreement has the same effect as that of breach of an arbitral award.

The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 – CA Final Law Study Material

Question 21.
Explain the process of settlement agreement in case of conciliation as per the provisions of Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996.
Answer:
Process of Settlement agreement in case of conciliation:

(1) Making proposal for settlement- Sec. 67(4): The conciliator may, at any stage of the conciliation proceedings, make proposals for a settlement of the dispute. Such proposals need not be writing and need not be accompanied by a statement of the reasons therefor.

(2) Suggestions by parties for settlement of dispute – Sec. 72: Each party may, on his own initiative or at the invitation of the conciliator, submit to the conciliator suggestions for the settlement of the dispute.

(3) Settlement Agreement – Sec. 73: When it appears to the conciliator that there exist elements of a settlement which may be acceptable to the parties, he shall formulate the terms of a possible settlement and submit them to the parties for their observations. After receiving the observations of the parties, the conciliator may reformulate the terms of a possible settlement in the light of such observations. If the parties reach agreement on a settlement of the dispute, they may draw up and sign a written settlement agreement.

If requested by the parties, the conciliator may draw up, or assist the parties in drawing up, the settlement agreement. When the parties sign the settlement agreement, it shall be final and binding on the parties and persons claiming under them respectively. The conciliator shall authenticate the settlement agreement and furnish a copy thereof to each of the parties.

(4) Status and effect of settlement agreement – Sec. 74: The settlement agreement shall have the same status and effect as if it is an arbitral award on agreed terms on the substance of the dispute rendered by an arbitral tribunal.

The Foreign Contribution Regulation Act, 2010 – CA Final Law Study Material

The Foreign Contribution Regulation Act, 2010 – CA Final Law Study Material is designed strictly as per the latest syllabus and exam pattern.

The Foreign Contribution Regulation Act, 2010 – CA Final Law Study Material

Question 1.
State the persons who are prohibited from accepting foreign contribution under the FCRA, 2010.
Answer:
Persons prohibited from accepting foreign contribution:
As per Sec. 3 of FCRA, 2010, no foreign contribution shall be accepted by any:

(a) candidate for election;
(b) correspondent, columnist, cartoonist, editor, owner, printer or publisher of a registered newspaper;
(c) Public servant, Judge, Government servant or employee of any corporation or any other body controlled or owned by the Government;
Corporation means a corporation owned or controlled by the Govt, and includes a Govt, company;

(d) member of any Legislature;
(e) political party or office-bearer thereof;
(f) organisation of a political nature as may be specified u/s 5 by the C.G.;
(g) association or company engaged in the production or broadcast of audio news or audio-visual news or current affairs programmers’ through any electronic mode, or any other electronic form as defined in the IT Act, 2000 or any other mode of mass communication;
(h) correspondent or columnist, cartoonist, editor, owner of the association or company referred to in clause (g).

Question 2.
Whether foreign remittances received from a relative are to be treated as foreign contribution as per FCRA, 2010? [RTP-May 18]
Answer:
Foreign remittances received from a relative:

As per Sec. 4(e) of the Foreign Contribution Regulation Act, 2010 and Rule 6 of Foreign Contribution Regulation Rules, 2011, even the persons prohibited u/s 3, i.e., persons not permitted to accept foreign contribution, are allowed to accept foreign contribution from their relatives.

However, in terms of Rule 6 of Foreign Contribution Regulation Rules, 2011, any person receiving foreign contribution in excess of ₹ 1 lakh or equivalent thereto in a financial year from any of his relatives shall inform the C.G. in prescribed Form within 30 days from the date of receipt of such contribution.
Conclusion: Foreign remittances received from a relative is not treated as foreign contribution.

The Foreign Contribution Regulation Act, 2010 – CA Final Law Study Material

Question 3.
Mr. Indian received foreign contribution of amount 1.10 lakh from his relative residing abroad. Examine whether Mr. Indian can accept foreign remittances as per provisions of the FCRA, 2010.
[MTP-March 18, Oct. 19]
Answer:
Foreign contribution from relative :

As per Sec. 4(e) of FCRA, 2010 read with Rule 6 of FCRR, 2011, even the persons prohibited under section 3, i.e., persons not permitted to accept foreign contribution, are allowed to accept foreign contribution from their relatives.

However, in terms of Rule 6 of FCRR, 2011, any person receiving foreign contribution in excess of ₹ 1 lakh or equivalent thereto in a financial year from any of his relatives shall inform the C.G. in prescribed Form within 30 days from the date of receipt of such contribution.
Conclusion: Mr. Indian can accept the foreign remittance from relative but he shall inform the C.G. of his receiving the foreign contribution of amount 1.10 lakh as foreign contribution is in excess of 1 lakh rupees.

Question 4.
X, is an association having certificate of registration transfers the Foreign Contribution received by it to another organization? Whether X can validly transfer the foreign contribution. If yes, then what is the process to do so? Is there any restriction on transfer of funds to other organisations? [RTP-May 19]
Answer:
Transfer of Foreign Contribution:

As per Sec. 7 of FCRA, 2010 (as amended by FCR (Amendment) Act, 2020 w.e.f. 29.09.2020), no person who is registered and granted a certificate or has obtained prior permission under this Act; and receives any foreign contribution, shall transfer such foreign contribution to any other person.
Conclusion: X cannot transfer the Foreign Contribution received by it to another organization.

Question 5.
Mr. Satish, General Secretary of a political party received an invitation from the American Labour Party. He wants to avail foreign hospitality. Define the term “foreign hospitality”. In the light of the provisions of the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010, decide whether he can avail it. Discuss also the exception, if any, under which the provisions of the said Act may be relaxed. [May 18 – New Syllabus (6 Marks)]
Answer:
Meaning of Foreign Hospitality:
Section 2(i) of Foreign Contribution Regulation Act, 2010 defines the term “foreign hospitality” as any offer, not being a purely casual one, made in cash or kind by a foreign source for providing a person with the costs of travel to any foreign country or territory or with free boarding, lodging, transport or medical treatment.

Restriction on acceptance of foreign hospitality:

As per Section 6, no member of a Legislature or office-bearer of a political party or Judge or Government servant or employee of any corporation or any other body owned or controlled by the Government shall, while visiting any country or territory outside India, accept, except with the prior permission of the Central Government, any foreign hospitality.

Conclusion: Mr. Satish is not allowed to avail foreign hospitality without the prior permission of Central Government (Ministry of Home Affairs).

Exceptions:

Section 6 provides that it shall not be necessary to obtain any such permission for an emergent medical aid needed on account of sudden illness contracted during a visit outside India.

But, where such foreign hospitality has been received, the person receiving such hospitality shall give an intimation to the C.G. as to the receipt of such hospitality within one month from the date of receipt of such hospitality, and the source from which, and the manner in which, such hospitality was received.

The Foreign Contribution Regulation Act, 2010 – CA Final Law Study Material

Question 6.
Mr. Peter, a Member of the Legislature in India, visited Sydney, Australia to attend World Trade Con-ference as a representative of Government of India after obtaining due permission of the Central Government as per the provisions of Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010. His expenditure on foreign travel was borne by Bret Lee Limited, a foreign company. While attending the conference, Mr. Peter suddenly encountered chest pain and he was immediately admitted in the nearby hospital for medical care and treatment.

The medical expenses of ₹ 2,00,000 was borne by Bret Lee Limited. Mr. Peter seeks your advice about the procedure to be followed in the above situation under the provisions of Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010. Please advise suitably.
[MTP-Oct. 18, RTP-Nov. 18]
Answer:
Restrictions on Acceptance of foreign hospitality:

As per Sec. 6 of the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010, no member of a Legislature or office-bearer of a political party or Judge or Government servant or employee of any corporation or any other body owned or controlled by the Government shall, while visiting any country or territory outside India, accept, except with the prior permission of the Central Government, any foreign hospitality.

It is also provided that it shall not be necessary to obtain any such permission for an emergent medical aid needed on account of sudden illness contracted during a visit outside India, but, where such foreign hospitality has been received, the person receiving such hospitality shall give an intimation to the C.G. as to the receipt of such hospitality within 1 month from the date of receipt of such hospitality, and the source from which, and the manner in which, such hospitality was received by him.

As per Rule 7 of Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Rules, 2011, in case of emergent medical aid needed on account of sudden illness during a visit abroad, the acceptance of foreign hospitality shall be required to be intimated to the Central Government within 60 days of such receipt giving full details including the source, approximate value in Indian Rupees, and the purpose for which and the manner in which it was utilized.
Conclusion: Mr. Peter need to comply with the requirements as stated in Sec. 6 and Rule 7.

Question 7.
An Association registered under the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010 (the act) received donation from a club registered in Singapore. The Association proposes:
(i) To transfer 10% of the donation to “Home for Aged Society”, an unregistered person and 15% to “Welfare Club” a registered person under the Act,
(ii) To invest portion of the donation in Chits promising high returns.
In the light of provisions of the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010 decide whether the association can carryout the above proposals and if so, state the procedures to be followed under the said Act?’ [Nov. 18-New Syllabus (6 Marks))
Answer:
Transfer of Foreign Contribution to Others:

As per Sec. 7 of FCRA, 2010 (as amended by FCR (Amendment) Act, 2020 w.e.f. 29.09.2020), no person who is registered and granted a certificate or has obtained prior permission under this Act; and receives any foreign contribution, shall transfer such foreign contribution to any other person.

As per Sec. 8 of FCRA, 2010, any foreign contribution or any income arising out of it shall not be used for speculative business. As per Rule 4 of Foreign Contribution (Regulations) Rules, 2011, participation in any scheme that promises high returns like investment in chits or land or similar assets not directly linked to the declared aims and objectives of the organization or association is considered as speculative activity.

Conclusion:

  1. Transfer of 10% of the donation to “Home for Aged Society”, an unregistered person cannot be made after obtaining approval of Central Government as per Rule 24.
  2. Transfer of 15% to “Welfare Club” a registered person under the Act, cannot be made.
  3. Investment of the donation in Chits promising high returns is not allowed.

Question 8.
A foreign co., Srikripa Ltd. established by few Indians in Singapore. Being a strong believer of Sai, the management of the company used to donate a huge amount to the sai trust, in Mumbai, India. Enumerate in the given situation whether the donation so made by Srikripa Ltd. is a foreign contribution. Is the acceptance of such donation by the Sai trust is valid. [MTP-March 19]
Answer:
Acceptance of Foreign contribution from foreign source:

As per Sec. 2(1 )(h) of FCRA, 2010, “Foreign contribution” means the donation, delivery or transfer made by any foreign source:

  1. of any article, (except given as a gift for personal use), if the market value, in India, of such article, on the date of such gift, is not more than such sum as may be specified from time to time, by the Central Government by the rules made by it in this behalf;
  2. of any currency, whether Indian or foreign;
  3. security and includes any foreign security under the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999.

As per explanation to the section, a donation, delivery or transfer of any article, currency or foreign security referred to in this clause by any person who has received it from any foreign source, either directly or through one or more persons, shall also be deemed to be foreign contribution within the meaning of this clause.

  • As per Sec. 2(1)(j), foreign source includes a foreign company.
  • In the given case, management of a foreign co., Srikripa Ltd. established by few Indians in Singapore, used to donate a huge amount to the sai trust, in Mumbai, India. Since the Srikripa Ltd. is a foreign company, so donation made by the Srikripa Ltd. is a foreign contribution for the religious and charitable purpose.

Conclusion: Sai Trust can accept foreign contribution with prior permission of C.G., if it is not registered under the FCRA. If the Sai trust is registered under the FCRA, it may accept the foreign contribution within the limit without seeking prior permission.

The Foreign Contribution Regulation Act, 2010 – CA Final Law Study Material

Question 9.
In the light of the provisions of the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010 examine and decide whether the following persons in India are permitted to receive the amount/articles in the following situations:
(i) M/s KG & Co., a partnership firm obtained loan from a club registered in London for its business purpose.
(ii) Hello FM, a registered association, received funds from a foreign company for establishing Frequency Model Radio Station to broadcast audio news.
(iii) Mr. Happy received a wrist watch as marriage anniversary gift from his uncle, a citizen of USA. The market value of the wrist watch is ₹ 25,000. [Nov. 19 (6 Marks)]
Answer:
Acceptance of Foreign contribution:
(i) M/s KG & Co., a partnership firm obtained loan from a club registered in London for its business purpose. Sec. 3 of FCRA, 2010 imposes restrictions on certain persons to accept foreign contribution from foreign source. As per Sec. 2(1)(j), a club registered outside India is a foreign source. As per Sec. 2(1)(h), donation, delivery or transfer made by any foreign source of any currency, whether Indian or foreign is a foreign contribution. However, partnership firm is not covered under the provisions of Sec. 3. Hence, M/s KG & Co., a partnership firm is permitted to obtained loan from a club registered in London for its business purpose.

(ii) As per Sec. 3 of FCRA, 2010, an association or company engaged in the production or broadcast of audio news or audio-visual news or current affairs programmers’ through any electronic mode, or any other electronic form as defined in the IT Act, 2000 or any other mode of mass communication is not allowed to accept foreign contribution. Hello FM, a registered association, is not permitted to receive funds from a foreign company for establishing Frequency Model Radio Station to broadcast audio news.

(iii) As per Sec. 2(1)(h), donation, delivery or transfer made by any foreign source of any article is a foreign contribution. However, if the article is given to a person as a gift for his personal use, if the market value, in India, of such article, on the date of such gift, is not more than such sum as may be specified from time to time, by the C.G. by the rules made by it in this behalf (Amount specified is ₹ 1,00,000), it will not amount to foreign contribution. As the value of wrist watch is ₹ 25,000 only, it will not be treated as a foreign contribution. Mr. Happy is permitted to receive wrist watch as marriage anniversary gift from his uncle, a citizen of USA.

Question 10.
XYZ Foundation, a society registered under the Societies Registration Act, 1860, has received foreign contribution from a Mala Company LLC, a company incorporated in Singapore. XYZ Foundation deposited the amount of foreign contribution in a bank and earned interest on it. XYZ Foundation desires to invest maturity proceeds from deposits in mutual funds. You arc required to advise : whether XYZ Foundation is allowed to make such investment considering the provisions of the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010 (Note: XYZ Foundation has obtained certificate of registration under section 11 of the Act). [RTP-Nov. 20]
Answer:
Investment of Foreign contribution for speculative purposes:

As per Sec. 8 of FCRA, 2010, every person, who is registered and granted a certificate or given prior permission under this Act and receives any foreign contribution, shall utilise such contribution for the purpose for which the contribution has been received. Any foreign contribution or any income arising out of it shall not be used for speculative business. As per Rule 4 of Foreign Contribution (Regulations) Rules, 2011, investment in mutual funds or in shares is considered as speculative activity.

As per the explanation to the definition of the Foreign Contribution under the Act, the interest accrued on the foreign contribution deposited in any bank referred to in Sec. 17(1) or any other income derived from the foreign contribution or interest thereon shall also be deemed to be foreign contribution.
Conclusion: XYZ Foundation cannot use the contribution as well as the interest component for the Investment in Mutual Fund.

Question 11.
Mr. Soumak is an editor of a daily business news on BNN TV. He received a salary of US $ 1,80,000 from Mr. Bob. Mr. Bob is a US citizen resident’in India and operates BNN TV business operations in India. Mr. Bob received such payment i.e. salary given to Mr. Soumak from his parent Company BNN Inc. of USA. Examine under the provisions of the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010. Whether receipt of salary by Mr. Soumak is prohibited? [Nov. 20 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Acceptance of Foreign contribution:

As per Sec. 3 (1) of FCRA, 2 010, no foreign contribution shall be accepted by any correspondent, columnist, cartoonist, editor, owner, printer or publisher of a registered newspaper.

However, Sec. 4 of FRCA, 2010 provides that nothing contained in Sec. 3 shall apply to the acceptance, by any person specified in that section, of any foreign contribution where such contribution is accepted by him, by way of salary, wages or other remuneration due to him or to any group of persons working under him, from any foreign source or by way of payment in the ordinary course of business transacted in India by such foreign source.

In the given case, Mr. Soumak is an editor of a daily business news on BNN TV. He received a salary of US $ 1,80,000 from Mr. Bob. Mr. Bob is a US citizen resident in India and operates BNN TV business operations in India. Mr. Bob received such payment i.e. salary given to Mr. Soumak from his parent Company BNN Inc. of USA.
Conclusion: As the amount received by Mr. Soumak is in nature of salary, hence the receipt of salary by Mr. Soumak is not prohibited.
Note: Alternate answer possible with different assumption.

Question 12.
Answer the following:
(a) Can a private limited company or a partnership firm get registration or prior permission under FCRA, 2010?
(b) Whether an individual or a Hindu Undivided Family (HUF) can be given registration or prior permission to accept foreign contribution in terms of section 11 of FCRA, 2010?
(c) Whether organisations under Central/State Governments are required to obtain registration or prior permission under FCRA, 2010 for accepting foreign contribution?
Answer:
Registration of certain persons with the Central Government:
Section 11 of the FCRA, 2010 provides the provisions in relation to requirement of registration for the purpose of accepting foreign contribution. In accordance with the provisions of Sec. 11, following conclusions may be drawn:
(a) Yes, a private limited company too may seek prior permission/registration for receiving foreign funds in case they wish to do some charitable work at some point of time.
(b) Yes, definition of the ‘person’ in the FCRA includes any individual and HUF among others. As such an Individual or an HUF is also eligible to apply for prior permission to accept foreign contribution.
(c) Yes, however, all bodies constituted or established by or under a Central Act or a State Act requiring to have their accounts compulsorily audited by CAG of India are exempted from the operations of all the provisions of FCRA, 2010.

The Foreign Contribution Regulation Act, 2010 – CA Final Law Study Material

Question 13.
List the restrictions marked for the grant of the registration and grant of prior permission for acceptance of foreign contribution according to FCRA, 2010. [MTP-Aug. 18]
Answer:
Restrictions marked for the grant of the registration and grant of prior permission for acceptance of foreign contribution:
In terms of Sec. 12(4) ofFCRA, 2010, the following restrictions/conditions have been marked for the grant of registration and prior permission for acceptance of foreign contribution:

(a) The ‘person’ making an application for registration or grant of prior permission

  1. is not fictitious or benami;
  2. has not been prosecuted or convicted for indulging in activities aimed at conversion through inducement or force, either directly or indirectly, from one religious faith to another;
  3. has not been prosecuted or convicted for creating communal tension or disharmony in any specified district or any other part of the country;
  4. has not been found guilty of diversion or mis-utilisation of its funds;
  5. is not engaged or likely to engage in propagation of sedition or advocate violent methods to achieve its ends;
  6. is not likely to use the foreign contribution for personal gains or divert it for undesirable purposes;
  7. has not contravened any of the provisions of this Act;
  8. has not been prohibited from accepting foreign contribution.

(b) The person making an application for registration has undertaken reasonable activity in its chosen field for the benefit of the society for which the foreign contribution is proposed to be utilized.

(c) The person making an application for giving prior permission has prepared a reasonable project for the benefit of the society for which the foreign contribution is proposed to be utilised.

(d) In case, the applicant is an individual, he has neither been convicted under any law for the time being in force nor any prosecution for any offence is pending against him.

(e) In case the applicant is a person other than an individual, any of its directors or office bearers has neither been convicted under any law for the time being in force nor any prosecution for any offence is pending against him.

(f) The acceptance of foreign contribution by the association/ person is not likely to affect prejudicially –

  1. the sovereignty and integrity of India;
  2. the security, strategic, scientific or economic interest of the State;
  3. the public interest;
  4. freedom or fairness of election to any Legislature;
  5. friendly relation with any foreign State;
  6. harmony between religious, racial, social, linguistic, regional groups, castes or communities.

(g) The acceptance of foreign contribution

  1. shall not lead to incitement of an offence;
  2. shall not endanger the life or physical safety of any person.

Question 14.
State under what circumstances Government can cancel the certificate of registration granted to a person under FCRA?
Answer:
Cancellation of Certificate of registration granted under FCRA:
Sec. 14 of Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010 deals with the situations under which certificate of registration may be cancelled. Accordingly, the C.G. may, by an order, cancel the certificate if —

(a) the holder of the certificate has made a statement in, or in relation to, the application for the grant of registration or renewal thereof, which is incorrect or false; or
(b) the holder of the certificate has violated any of the terms and conditions of the certificate or renewal thereof; or
(c) in the opinion of the Central Government, it is necessary in the public interest to cancel the certificate; or
(d) the holder of certificate has violated any of the provisions of this Act or rules or order made thereunder; or
(e) if the holder of the certificate has not been engaged in any reasonable activity in its chosen field for the benefit of the society for two consecutive years or has become defunct.

Question 15.
After giving a reasonable opportunity of being heard, Central Government cancelled the certification of registration of Toastea Ltd., a company registered under FCRA on the ground of public interest. 2.5 years have passed since such cancellation.

Company has submitted its written declaration not to involve in such activity again and request to restore the registration. Advise Toastea Ltd. on its eligibility for re-registration or grant of prior permission. Also state the circumstance under which Government can cancel the certificate of registration granted to a person under the Foreign Contribution (Regulations) Act, 2010. [May 19 (6 Marks)]
Answer:
Eligibility of re- registration or grant of prior permission under FCRA:
Sec. 14 of Foreign Contribution (Regulations) Act, 2010 deals with the situations under which certificate of registration may be cancelled and re-registration. Accordingly, any person whose certificate has been cancelled under this section shall not be eligible for registration or grant of prior permission for a period of 3 years from the date of cancellation of such certificate.

Hence Toastea Ltd. will be eligible to apply only after expiry of three years from the date of cancellation of such certificate.
Circumstance under which Government can cancel the certificate of registration:

Cancellation of Certificate of registration granted under FCRA:
Sec. 14 of Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010 deals with the situations under which certificate of registration may be cancelled. Accordingly, the C.G. may, by an order, cancel the certificate if —
(a) the holder of the certificate has made a statement in, or in relation to, the application for the grant of registration or renewal thereof, which is incorrect or false; or
(b) the holder of the certificate has violated any of the terms and conditions of the certificate or renewal thereof; or
(c) in the opinion of the Central Government, it is necessary in the public interest to cancel the certificate; or
(d) the holder of certificate has violated any of the provisions of this Act or rules or order made thereunder; or
(e) if the holder of the certificate has not been engaged in any reasonable activity in its chosen field for the benefit of the society for two consecutive years or has become defunct.

Question 16.
Can foreign contribution be received in and utilised from multiple Bank Accounts? [MTP-AprH 18, RTP-May 18]
Answer:
Foreign contribution through scheduled bank:
Sec. 17 of FCRA, 2010 (as amended by FCR (Amendment) Act, 2020 w.e.f. 29.09.2020), deals with the provisions relating to receipt of foreign contribution. Accordingly:

Every person who has been granted certificate or prior permission u/s 12 shall receive foreign contribution only in an account designated as “FCRA Account” by the bank, which shall be opened by him for the purpose of remittances of foreign contribution in such branch of the State Bank of India at New Delhi, as the C.G. may, by notification, specify in this behalf:

Provided that such person may also open another “FCRA Account” in any of the scheduled bank of his choice for the purpose of keeping or utilising the foreign contribution which has been received from his “FCRA Account” in the specified branch of State Bank of India at New Delhi:

Provided further that such person may also open one or more accounts in one or more scheduled banks of his choice to which he may«transfer for utilising any foreign contribution received by him in his “FCRA Account” in the specified branch of the State Bank of India at New Delhi or kept by him in another “FCRA Account” in a scheduled bank of his choice:

Provided also that no funds other than foreign contribution shall be received or deposited in any such account.
Conclusion: The foreign contribution should be received only in an account designated as “FCRA Account” which shall be opened in specified branch of SBI. However, for utilisation purpose, more than one bank account may be opened.

The Foreign Contribution Regulation Act, 2010 – CA Final Law Study Material

Question 17.
Bharat Ltd. is a subsidiary of Global Ltd., which is a MNC registered in Hongkong. The Bharat Ltd. had obtained the permission to receive foreign contribution in a designated account in the SBI. Later it was discovered that the obtained foreign contribution were deposited in other account for its functioning. Advise on the given situation as to depositing of the amount of foreign contribution from designated account to any other account. And state the duty of the bankon the said transactions made? [RTP-May 20]
Answer:
Foreign contribution through scheduled bank:
Sec. 17 of FCRA, 2010 (as amended by FCR (Amendment) Act, 2020 w.e.f. 29.09.2020), deals with the provisions relating to receipt of foreign contribution. Accordingly:

Every person who has been granted certificate or prior permission u/s 12 shall receive foreign contribution only in an account designated as “FCRA Account” by the bank, which shall be opened by him for the purpose of remittances of foreign contribution in such branch of the State Bank of India at New Delhi, as the C.G. may, by notification, specify in this behalf:

Provided that such person may also open another “FCRA Account” in any of the scheduled bank of his choice for the purpose of keeping or utilising the foreign contribution which has been received from his “FCRA Account” in the specified branch of State Bank of India at New Delhi:

Provided further that such person may also open one or more accounts in one or more scheduled banks of his choice to which he may transfer for utilising any foreign contribution received by him in his “FCRA Account” in the specified branch of the State Bank of India at New Delhi or kept by him in another “FCRA Account” in a scheduled bank of his choice:

Provided also that no funds other than foreign contribution shall be received or deposited in any such account.

Conclusion:The foreign contribution should be received only in an account designated as “FCRA Account” which shall be opened in specified branch of SBI. However, for utilisation purpose, more than one bank account may be opened.

Obligations of the Bank receiving foreign contribution of its customers:
As per Rule 16 of Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Rules, 2011, the bank shall report to the C.G. within 48 hours any transaction in respect of receipt or utilisation of any foreign contribution by any person whether or not such person is registered or granted prior permission under the Act.

CA Final Direct Tax Laws and International Taxation Study Material

CA Final Direct Tax Laws and International Taxation Study Material – CA Final DT Question Bank Study Material Notes Pdf

CA Final Direct Tax Laws and International Taxation Question Bank PDF: Registered students can get the Direct Tax Laws and International Taxation CA Final DT Study Material, practice manual, question book, new syllabus, chapter wise weightage, CA Final DT Books Chapter Wise Important Questions and Answers all at one place.

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CA Final DT Question Bank Study Material – CA Final Direct Tax Study Material Summary Notes

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CA Final DT Question Bank Study Material

International Taxation CA Final Question Bank

CA Final International Taxation Question bank has quick links to download important questions of International Taxation topics.

International Taxation CA Final Question Bank

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CA Final Direct Tax Laws and International Taxation Chapter Wise Weightage

CA Final DT Chapterwise Weightage

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CA Final Direct Tax Practice Manual Summary Charts

Part I: Direct Tax Laws
Module 1

Module 2

Module 3

Part II: International Taxation
Module 4

CA Final DT Syllabus

CA Final Direct Tax and International Taxation New Syllabus is updated here. The subject contains 2 parts i.e Direct Tax Laws and International Taxation. The topics covered under each section are given below.

CA Final Direct Tax Syllabus

Paper 7: Direct Tax Laws and International Taxation
(One Paper – Three hours -100 Marks)

Part I: Direct Tax Laws (70 Marks)

Objective:
To acquire the ability to analyze and interpret the provisions of direct tax laws and recommend solutions to practical problems.

Contents:
Law and Procedures under the Income-tax Act, 1961,
1. Basis of charge, residential status, income which does not form part of total income, heads of income, the income of other persons included in assessee’s total income, aggregation of income, set-off and carry forward of losses, deductions from gross total income, rebates and reliefs (Including firms, LLPs, Trusts, AOPs, BOIs, Securitisation Trusts, Business Trusts, Investment Fund, etc.)

2. Special provisions relating to companies and certain persons other than a company¹
3. Provisions relating to charitable and religious trusts and institutions, political parties, and electoral trusts
4. Tax Planning, Tax Avoidance & Tax Evasion
5. Collection & Recovery of Tax, Refunds
6. Income-tax Authorities, Procedure for assessment, Appeals, and Revision
7. Settlement of Tax Cases, Penalties, Offences & Prosecution
8. Liability in Special Cases² (Representative assessees, Executors, etc.)
9. Miscellaneous Provisions and Other Provisions³
__________________________
1. Including firms, LLPs, Trusts, AOPs, BOIs, Securitsation Trusts, Business Trusts, Investment Fund etc.
2. Representative assessees, Executors etc.
3. The entire income-tax law is included at the Final level. Any residuary provision under the Income-tax Act, 1961, not covered under any of the above specific provisions or under Part II: International Taxation would be covered under “Other Provisions”. Further, if any new Chapter is included in the Income-tax Act, 1961, the syllabus will accordingly include the provisions relating thereto.

Part II: International Taxation (30 Marks)

Objective:
To develop an understanding of the concepts, principles, and provisions of International Taxation and acquire the ability to apply such knowledge to make computations and to address application-oriented issues.

Contents:
1. Taxation of international transactions and Non-resident taxation
(i) The provisions under the Income-tax Act, 1961, including Specific provisions relating to Non-residents, Double Taxation Relief, Transfer Pricing & Other Anti-Avoidance Measures, Advance Rulings. (ii) Equalisation levy

2. Overview of Model Tax Conventions – OECD & UN
3. Application and interpretation of Tax Treaties
4. Fundamentals of Base Erosion and Profit Shifting

Note: If any new legislation(s) are enacted in place of existing legislation(s), the syllabus will accordingly include the corresponding provisions of such new legislation(s) in the place of the existing legislation(s) with effect from the date to be notified by the Institute. Similarly, if any existing legislation(s)on direct tax laws ceases to be in force, the syllabus will accordingly exclude such legislation(s)with effect from the date to be notified by the Institute.

Further, the specific inclusions/exclusions in any topic covered in the syllabus will be affected by way of Study Guidelines every year, if required. Specific inclusions/exclusions in a topic may also arise due to additions/deletions made every year by the Annual Finance Act.

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2. How to score good marks in dt ca final?

To score good marks in the exam, concentrate on the more weightage topics during the test preparation. Try to score a minimum of 70 marks in theory and 20+ marks in the objective paper.

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Yes, we can self-study for the CA Final DT exams. When you don’t have time to attend the classes, then finish the syllabus via self-study.

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CA / CMA Final Direct Tax Full Course By CA Bhanwar Borana For May and Nov 24 is the best book for CA Final DT.

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The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 – CA Final Law Study Material

The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 – CA Final Law Study Material is designed strictly as per the latest syllabus and exam pattern.

The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 – CA Final Law Study Material

Question 1.
“Money Laundering does not mean just siphoning of fund.” Comment on this statement explaining the significance and aim of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002. [May 13 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Significance and Aim of PMLA, 2002:
Money Laundering is a moving of illegally acquired cash through financial systems so that it appears to be legally acquired. Thus, money laundering is not just the siphoning of fund but it is the conversion of money which is illegally obtained.

Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 has been enacted with aim for combating channelising of money into illegal activities.
Significance and Aim of Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002: The preamble to the Act
provides that it aims
(a) to prevent money-laundering and
(b) to provide for confiscation of property derived from, or involved in, money-laundering and
(c) for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.

The goal of a large number of criminal activities is to generate profit for an individual or a group. Money laundering is the processing of these criminal proceeds to disguise their illegal origin.

illegal arms sales, smuggling, and other organized crime, including drug trafficking and prostitution rings, can generate huge amounts of money. Embezzlement, insider trading, bribery and computer fraud schemes can also produce large profits and create the incentive to “legitimize” the ill-gotten gains through money laundering. The money so generated is tainted and is in the nature of ‘dirty money’. Money Laundering is the process of conversion of such proceeds of crime, the ‘dirty money’, to make it appear as ‘legitimate’ money.

In the PMLA, 2002, money laundering has been defined as “any process or activity connected with proceeds of crime including its concealment, possession, acquisition or use and projecting or claiming it as untainted property”.

Question 2.
Explain the meaning of the term “Property” under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002. [May 18 – Old Syllabus (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Meaning of the Property:
As per Sec. 2(l)(v) of PMLA, 2002, the term property means any property or assets of every description, whether

  • corporeal or incorporeal,
  • movable or immovable,
  • tangible or intangible,
    and includes deeds and instruments evidencing title to, or interest in, such property or assets, wherever located.

The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 – CA Final Law Study Material

Question 3.
Define the term, “Payment System” under the provisions of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002. [May 18 – New Syllabus (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Payment System:

  • As per Sec. 2(1)(rb) of PMLA, 2002, Payment System means a system that enables payment to be effected between a payer and a beneficiary, involving clearing, payment or settlement service or all of them.
  • It includes the systems enabling credit card operations, debit card operations, smart card operations, money transfer operations or similar operations.

Question 4.
What is a Scheduled Offence under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA)? An Exporthouse has committed an offence under Section 135 of the Customs Act, 1962 by undervaluing the exported item. The declared value of the export item is Rs. 50 lakhs. Under which part of the Schedule of the PML Act, will this violation be classified as an offence? [Nov. 20 – Old Syllabus (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Scheduled Offence:
As per Sec. 2(1 )(y) of PMLA, 2002, Scheduled offence means:

(a) the offences specified under Part A of the Schedule; or
(b) the offences specified under Part B of the Schedule if the total value involved in such offences is ₹ 1 Crore or more; or
(c) the offences specified under Part C of the Schedule.

As the total value involved in offence u/s 135 of the Customs Act, 1961 exceeds ₹ 1 Crore, this offence will fall under Part B of Schedule.

Question 5.
Explain the term “Offence of Money Laundering” within the meaning of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002. State the punishment for the offence of money laundering.
[May 12 (4 Marks)]
Or
Explain the meaning of the term “Money Laundering”. Z, a known smuggler was caught in transfer of funds illegally exporting narcotic drugs from India to some countries in Africa. State the maximum punishment that can be awarded to him under Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002. [May 14 (4 Marks), MTP-April 18, May 20, RTP-Nov.18]
Answer:
Meaning of Money Laundering:
As per Sec. 3 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002, money laundering has been defined as “any process or activity connected with proceeds of crime including its concealment, possession, acquisition or use and projecting or claiming it as untainted property”.

Punishment for Money laundering:

Section 4 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 provides for the punishment for Money-Laundering. In accordance with the provisions of Sec. 4, whoever commits the offence of money-laundering shall be punishable with rigorous imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than 3 years but which may extend to 7 years and shall also be liable to fine.

But where the proceeds of crime involved in money-laundering relate to any offence specified under paragraph 2 of Part A of the Schedule, the maximum punishment may extend to 10 years instead of 7 years.

Paragraph 2 of Part A of the Schedule to the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002, covers Offences under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985.

The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 – CA Final Law Study Material

Question 6.
Raghu, a clerical staff in the Power Board, was assigned with the task of inspection of the file with the requisite documents of the applicants who have applied for the new connections. Mr. Rajiv Shah, for his new flat, applied for the power connection as per the required usage with all the supportive documents. Raghu, conveyed Mr. Rajiv Shah, that his file has been rejected due to discrepancies in the compliances.

Indirectly he communicated that, if required, he may clear his file and put into process. Mr. Rajiv Shah give him cash amount of ₹ 2 lacs to clear his file. State in the light of the above situation, the liability of Raghu and Mr. Rajiv Shah in the commission of an offence as per the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002. [MTP-March 18, April 19]
Answer:
Punishment for Money laundering:

As per the section 3 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002, offence of money laundering is said to be committed when whosoever directly or indirectly attempts to indulge or knowingly assists or knowingly is a party or is actually involved in any process or activity connected with the proceeds of crime including its concealment, possession, acquisition or use and projecting or claiming it as untainted property shall be guilty of offence of money-laundering.

In the given case, Mr. Rajiv Shah and Raghu, is knowingly a party to an offence of lending and accepting of a bribe to move the file of applicant, which was prima facie rejected by the authority.

Conclusion: Both Mr. Rajiv Shah and Raghu, are guilty of offence of money laundering. As per Sec. 4, whoever commits the offence of money-laundering shall be punishable with rigorous imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than 3 years but which may extend to 7 years and shall also be liable to fine. Accordingly, Mr. Rajiv Shah and Raghu are punishable in compliance with the above provisions.

Question 7.
Sohan Lai, a farmer, was found involved in embezzlement of opium cultivated by him. State the punishment that can be awarded to him under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002. [May 17 (4 Marks), RTP-April 18]
Or
Mr. Raja was arrested for Counterfeiting Two Thousand Rupees Notes. State the maximum punishment that can be awarded to him under Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002. [May 18 – Old Syllabus (4 Marks)]
Or
Mr. Honest, a notorious, was caught in possession of Counterfeit Currency Notes, an offence specified under Part A – Paragraph 1 of the schedule of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002. State the punishment that can be awarded to him under the above Act. Also identify the punishment for the offence specified under part – A paragraph 2 of the Schedule of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002. [May 18 – New Syllabus (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Punishment awarded under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002:
(a) Sec. 4 of PMLA, 2002 provides that whoever commits the offence of money-laundering shall be punishable with

  • rigorous imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than,3 years but which may extend to 7 years and
  • shall also be liable to fine.

(b) However, in case where the proceeds of crime involved in money-laundering relates to any offence specified under paragraph 2 of Part A of the Schedule, the person whoever commits shall be punishable with

  • rigorous imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than 3 years but which may extend to 10 years and
  • shall also be liable to fine.

Note: Paragraph 2 of Part A of the Schedule to the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002, covers Offences under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985. Embezzlement of Opium is covered in this category hence imprisonment upto 10 years may be imposed.
Counterfeiting of Currency Notes being covered under Paragraph 1 of PART A of the Schedule, imprisonment from 3 years to 7 years may be imposed.

Question 8.
Ali was assigned by Mr. X to deliver counterfeit currency-notes to one of his close friends to Hongkong for which hefty commission was fixed by the Mr. X. Advise, whether the said act can be considered as money laundering. Who shall be liable for the commission of the money Laundering? [MTP-Aug. 18]
Answer:
Money Laundering:

As per Sec. 3 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002, whosoever directly or indirectly attempts to indulge or knowingly assists or knowingly is a party or is actually involved in any process or activity connected with the proceeds of crime including its concealment, possession, acquisition or use and projecting or claiming itas untainted property shall be guilty of offence of money laundering.

Proceeds of crime means any property derived or obtained, directly or indirectly, by any person as a result of criminal activity relating to a scheduled offence or where such property is taken or help outside the country, then the property equivalent in value held within the country or abroad

In the given case, Mr. X assigned All to deliver counterfeit currency notes to be given to his friends in Hongkong, which is an offence falling within the purview of scheduled offence in Part A of the Schedule to the PM LA, 2002.

Conclusion: All, Mr. X and his friends in Hongkong, all are said to be liable under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act.

Question 9.
Mr. Dawood Moosa, a known smuggler was caught in transfer of funds illegally exporting narcotic drugs from india to some countries in Africa. State the maximum punishment that can be awarded to him under Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002. [May 19- New Syllabus (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Punishment awarded under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002:

(a) Sec. 4 of PMLA, 2002 provides that whoever commits the offence of money-laundering shall be punishable with rigorous imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than 3 years but which may extend to 7 years and shall also be liable to fine.

(b) However, in case where the proceeds of crime involved in money-laundering relates to any offence specified under paragraph 2 Part A of the Schedule (Offences under the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985). the person whoever commits shall be punishable with rigorous imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than 3 years but which may extend to 10 years and shall also be liable to fine.
Conclusion: Maximum punishment that can be awarded is rigorous imprisonment upto 10 years and fine.

The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 – CA Final Law Study Material

Question 10.
Mr. ‘B’ purchased a flat out of the proceeds earned by Drug Trafficking. The flat was attached by the Director, Director of Enforcement after complying the procedures under Section 5 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA, 2002). Mr. ‘B’ got a stay from the High Court for any proceedings under the said Act. The stay was subsequently vacated.

State the relevant provisions of the PMLA, 2002 for computing the period of provisional attachment including extension, If any.
Whether Mr. ‘C’, son of Mr. ‘B’ can occupy the flat during the period of provisional attachment? [Nov. 19- New Syllabus (6 Marks), MTP Oct. 20]
Answer:
Attachment of property involved in money laundering:

Sec. 5 of PMLA, 2002 deals with the provisions related to attachment of property involved in money laundering. Accordingly, where the Director or any other officer not below the rank of Deputy Director authorised by the Director, has reason to believe (to be recorded in writing), that:

(a) any person is in possession of any proceeds of crime; and
(b) such proceeds of crime are likely to be concealed, transferred or dealt with in any manner which may result in frustrating any proceedings relating to confiscation of such proceeds of crime, he may, by order in writing, provisionally attach such property for a period not exceeding 180 days from the date of the order, in prescribed manner.

For the purposes of computing the period of 180 days, the period during which the proceedings under this section is stayed by the High Court, shall be excluded and a further period not exceeding 30 days from the date of order of vacation of such stay order shall be counted.

Rights of persons interested in the property:

  • As per Sec. 5(4) of PMLA, 2002, this section shall not prevent the person interested in the enjoyment of the immovable property attached under this section, from such enjoyment.
  • Person Interested, in relation to any immovable property, includes all persons claiming or entitled to claim any interest in the property.
    Conclusion: Mr. ‘C’, son of Mr. ‘B’ can occupy the flat during the period of provisional attachment.

Question 11.
Mr. ’K’ used his car for smuggling cash and the Special Court found on conclusion of trial that an offence of money laundering was committed by Mr. ‘K’ under the provisions of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA, 2002). The car was under hypothecation to a Nationalized Bank for the car loan obtained. Referring to provisions of the PMLA, 2002, examine whether the car can be confiscated despite the existence of encumbrance? [Nov. 19 – New Syllabus (3 Marks), RTP-Nov. 20]
Answer:
Confiscation of property:

As per Sec. 8(5) of the PMLA, 2002, where on conclusion of a trial of an offence under this Act, the Special Court finds that the offence of money-laundering has been committed, it shall order that such property involved in the money laundering or which has been used for commission of the offence of money laundering shall stand confiscated to the C.G.

As per Sec. 9 of the PMLA, 2002, where an order of confiscation has been made u/s 8 in respect of any property of a person, all the rights and title in such property shall vest absolutely in the C.G. free from all encumbrances.

In the present case, Mr. ‘K’ used his car for smuggling cash and the Special Court found on conclusion of trial that an offence of money laundering was committed by Mr. ‘K’ under the provisions of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA, 2002). The car was under hypothecation to a Nationalized Bank for the car loan obtained.

Conclusion: Applying the provisions of Secs. 8(5) and 9, it can be concluded that car can be confiscated
despite the existence of encumbrance.

Question 12.
Mr. X was found to be guilty of offence of money-laundering by being involved in an activity connected with proceeds of crime. Adjudicating Authority (AA) as per findings confirmed the attachment of the property and ordered for the investigation. The investigation was initiated by the AA on 1st February, 2019. The attachment of the property of Mr. X was still to be continued by 31st January 2020. Enumerate in the given situation the validity of the attachment period. [RTP-May 20]
Answer:
Order for attachment/retention of property etc.:
As per Sec. 8(3) of the PMLA, 2002, where the Adjudicating Authority decides that any property is involved in money-laundering, he shall, by an order in writing, confirm the attachment of the property or retention of property or record seized or frozen u/s 17 or 18 and record a finding to that effect.

Period for attachment, retention, or freezing of the seized or frozen property or record:

Whereupon such attachment, retention, or freezing of the seized or frozen property or record, AA shall—

(a) continue during investigation, for a period not exceeding 365 days or the pendency of the proceedings relating to any offence under this Act before a court or under the corresponding law of any other country, before the competent court of criminal jurisdiction outside India, as the case may be; and

(b) become final after an order of confiscation is passed.
For the purposes of computing the period of 365 days, the period during which the investigation is stayed by any court under any law for the time being in force shall be excluded.

Conclusion: The attachment of the property of Mr. X to be continued by 31st January 2020 is valid as it is within 365 days from the date of order of the investigation by the Adjudicating Authority.

The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 – CA Final Law Study Material

Question 13.
Mr. Ramesh Kulkarni conducts private tuition classes from his residence. It was alleged by the Enforcement Directorate that Mr. Kulkarni has under reported his income and collected income in tax and used the proceeds to purchase a house property in Marol, Mumbai. The ED officers through written orders provisionally attached the properties on suspicion of it being derived from the proceeds of crime. Comment on the validity of the provisional attachment on the order issued by the ED officers. [RTP-Nov. 20]
Answer:
Provisional Attachment:

As per Sec. 5(5) of the PMLA, 2002, the Director or any other officer who provisionally attaches any property shall, within a period of 30 days from such attachment, file a complaint stating the facts of such attachment before the Adjudicating Authority.

As per Sec. 8(4) of the PMLA, 2002, where the provisional order of attachment made u/s 5 has been confirmed, the Director or any other officer authorised by him in this behalf shall forthwith take the possession of the property attached u/s 5, in prescribed manner.

Conclusion : Director is required to file a petition with the Adjudicating Authority within 30 days of attachment. After order of attachment is confirmed; the Director take possession of the attached property.

Question 14.
Enumerate the obligations of banking companies under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002. [Nov. 08 (6 Marks)]
Or
The Banking Companies, Financial Institutions and Intermediaries of securities market are under some obligations under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002. State, in brief, these obligations. [Nov. 11 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Obligation of Banking Companies, Financial institutions etc:
Secs. 11A and 12 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 provides for the obligation of Banking Companies, Financial Institutions and Intermediaries of securities market. Such Obligations are:

(i) Verification of identity by reporting entity (Sec. 11A):
Every reporting entity shall verify the identity of its clients and the beneficial owner, by—
(a) authentication under the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016 if the reporting entity is a banking company; or
(b) offline verification under the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016; or
(c) use of passport issued u/s 4 of the Passports Act, 1967; or
(d) use of any other officially valid document or modes of identification as may be notified by the Central Government in this behalf:

(ii) Maintenance of records (Sec. 12): Every reporting entity shall –
(a) maintain a record of all transactions, including information relating to transactions covered under clause (b), in such manner as to enable it to reconstruct individual transactions;
(b) furnish to the Director within such time as may be prescribed, information relating to such transactions, whether attempted or executed, the nature and value of which may be prescribed;
(c) Maintain record of documents evidencing identity of its clients and beneficial owners as well as account files and business correspondence relating to its clients.

(iii) Confidentiality: Every information maintained, furnished or verified, save as otherwise provided under any law for the time being in force shall be kept confidential.

(iv) Maintenance of records: The records referred to in clause (a) shall be maintained for a period of 5 years from the date of transaction between a client and the reporting entity. The records referred to in clause (e) shall be maintained for a period of 5 years after the business relationship between a client and the reporting entity has ended or the account has been closed, whichever is later.

Question 15.
PTM Limited, a banking company maintained the record of all transactions for a period of 5 years from the date of cessation of the transactions between the clients and the company. Decide whether the Company has fulfilled its obligation under the provisions of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002. [Nov. 13 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Obligation of Banking Companies etc.:
Sec. 12 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 provides for the obligation of Banking Companies, Financial Institutions and Intermediaries of securities market. Such Obligations are:

(1) Maintenance of records: Every reporting entity shall –
(a) maintain a record of all transactions, including information relating to transactions covered under clause (b), in such manner as to enable it to reconstruct individual transactions;
(b) furnish to the Director within such time as may be prescribed, information relating to such transactions, whether attempted or executed, the nature and value of which may be prescribed;
(c) maintain record of documents evidencing identity of its clients and beneficial owners as well as account files and business correspondence relating to its clients.

(2) Maintenance of records: The records referred to in clause (a) shall be maintained for a period of 5 years from the date of transaction between a client and the reporting entity. The records referred to in clause (e) shall be maintained for a period of 5 years after the business relationship between a client and the reporting entity has ended or the account has been closed, whichever is later.

In the given case, PTM Limited, a banking company maintained the record of all transactions for a period of 5 years from the date of cessation of the transactions between the clients and the company.
Conclusion: The company has fulfilled its obligations as records are maintained for 5 years as required by law.

Question 16.
“Manav Kalyan”, a charitable organization, opened a current account with M/s ABZ Bank on 1st July, 2015. This account was closed on 30th June, 2019. Referring to the obligations of banking companies under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002, specify the period upto which the said bank has to maintain records elating to the account of “Manav Kalyan”. [Nov. 17 (4 Marks), MTP-April 18]
Answer:
Obligation of Banking Companies etc.:
Sec. 12 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 provides for the obligation of Banking Companies, Financial Institutions and Intermediaries of securities market. Such Obligations are:

(1) Maintenance of records: Every reporting entity shall –
(a) maintain a record of all transactions, including information relating to transactions covered under clause (b), in such manner as to enable it to reconstruct individual transactions;
(b) furnish to the Director within such time as may be prescribed, information relating to such transactions, whether attempted or executed, the nature and value of which may be prescribed;
(c) maintain record of documents evidencing identity of its clients and beneficial owners as well as account files and business correspondence relating to its clients.

(2) Maintenance of records: The records referred to in clause (a) shall be maintained for a period of 5 years from the date of transaction between a client and the reporting entity. The records referred to in clause (e) shall be maintained for a period of 5 years after the business relationship between a client and the reporting entity has ended or the account has been closed, whichever is later.

In the given case, Manav Kalyan, a charitable organization opened current account with ABZ Bank on 1st July, 2015 and closed the account on 30th June 2019.

As per the above provisions, ABZ Bank shall maintain record of documents evidencing identity of its clients and beneficial owners as well as account files and business correspondence relating to its clients for a period of five years after the business relationship between a client and the reporting entity has ended or the account has been closed, whichever is later.
Conclusion: ABZ Bank has to maintain the records relating to the account of “Manav Kalyan” till 30th June, 2024.

The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 – CA Final Law Study Material

Question 17.
Who is a “Reporting Entity” under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 and what are the obligations cast on them under Sec. 12 of the Act? The Bank account of Amar has been attached by the order of an Assistant Director for a period of 180 days. The lawyer of Amar objected to this attachment. Decide the validity of the attachment. [May 19 – New Syllabus (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Reporting Authority:
As per Sec. 2 (1) (wa) of PMLA, 2002, Reporting entity means a banking company, financial institution, intermediary or a person carrying on a designated business or profession.

Obligations cast over Reporting Entity:

Obligation of Banking Companies, Financial institutions etc:
Secs. 11A and 12 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 provides for the obligation of Banking Companies, Financial Institutions and Intermediaries of securities market. Such Obligations are:

(i) Verification of identity by reporting entity (Sec. 11A):
Every reporting entity shall verify the identity of its clients and the beneficial owner, by-

(a) authentication under the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016 if the reporting entity is a banking company; or
(b) offline verification under the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016; or
(c) use of passport issued u/s 4 of the Passports Act, 1967; or
(d) use of any other officially valid document or modes of identification as may be notified by the Central Government in this behalf:

(ii) Maintenance of records (Sec. 12): Every reporting entity shall –
(a) maintain a record of all transactions, including information relating to transactions covered under clause (b), in such manner as to enable it to reconstruct individual transactions;
(b) furnish to the Director within such time as may be prescribed, information relating to such transactions, whether attempted or executed, the nature and value of which may be prescribed;
(c) Maintain record of documents evidencing identity of its clients and beneficial owners as well as account files and business correspondence relating to its clients.

(iii) Confidentiality: Every information maintained, furnished or verified, save as otherwise provided under any law for the time being in force shall be kept confidential.

(iv) Maintenance of records: The records referred to in clause (a) shall be maintained for a period of 5 years from the date of transaction between a client and the reporting entity. The records referred to in clause (e) shall be maintained for a period of 5 years after the business relationship between a client and the reporting entity has ended or the account has been closed, whichever is later.

Attachment of property involved in money laundering: As per Sec. 5 of PMLA, 2002, where the Director or any other officer not below the rank of Deputy Director authorised by the Director, has reason to believe (to be recorded in writing), that:
(a) any person is in possession of any proceeds of crime; and
(b) such proceeds of crime are likely to be concealed, transferred or dealt with in any manner which may result in frustrating any proceedings relating to confiscation of such proceeds of crime,
he may, by order in writing, provisionally attach such property for a period not exceeding 180 days from the date of the order, in prescribed manner.

Conclusion: Order of Attachment is not valid as order can be made only by Director or any other officer not below the rank of Deputy Director, authorised by Director.

Question 18.
The Adjudicating Authority appointed under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 issued an order attaching certain properties of XYZ Limited alleged to be involved in money laundering or a specified period. The company aggrieved by the order of the Adjudicating Authority seeks your advice about the remedy that is available under the Act. Advise explaining the relevant provisions of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002. [May 16 (4 Marks), MTP-March 18, RTP-April 18, MTP-Oct. 18, RTP – May 19, MTP-Oct. 20]
Or
The Adjudicating Authority appointed the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 issued an order attaching certain properties of SVG Limited, alleging to be involved in money laundering for a specified period. The Company, aggrieved by the Order of the Adjudicating Authority, seeks your advice about the remedy that is available under the Act. Analyse and apply the relevant provisions of the Act in relation to the above situation and advise. [May 19 – Old Syllabus (4 Marks), MTP-Oct. 19]
Or
The Adjudicating Authority appointed under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002, issued an order attaching certain properties of Green Resorts Limited alleged to be involved in money laundering for a specified period. Referring to the provisions of Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002, advise the Company about the remedy that is available under the Act. Also state further relief available to the company to recover the attached property in case it failed in the first instance. [Nov. 19 – Old Syllabus (6 Marks)]
Answer:
Appeal to Appellate Tribunal:

Sec. 26 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 deals with the rights of a person to make an appeal to the Appellate Tribunal. Accordingly, any person aggrieved by an order made by the Adjudicating Authority may prefer an appeal to the Appellate Tribunal within a period of 45 days from the date on which a copy of the order is received by him.

  • The appeal shall be in such form and be accompanied by such fee as may be prescribed. The Appellate Tribunal may extend the period if it is satisfied that there was sufficient cause for not filing it within the period of 45 days.
  • The Appellate Tribunal may after giving the parties to the appeal an opportunity of being heard, pass such order as it thinks fit, confirming, modifying or setting aside the order appealed against.

Appeal to High Court:
As per Sec. 42 any person aggrieved by any decision or order of the Appellate Tribunal may file an appeal to the High Court within 60 days from the date of communication of the order of the Appellate Tribunal.
Conclusion: Company may prefer an appeal to Appellate Tribunal in the first instance.

Question 19.
An Appellate Tribunal consisting of two members was formed to bear the appeal preferred by Mr. Hari, being aggrieved by an order made by the Adjudicating Authority under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002. Two members of the Bench differ in their opinion on a particular point referred in the appeal.
Explain the next course of action to be followed by the Bench members under the said Act. [Nov. 18-New Syllabus (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Decisions of Appellate Tribunal:
As per Section 38 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002, if the Members of a Bench consisting of 2 Members differ in opinion on any point, they shall state the point or points on which they differ, and make a reference to the Chairman who shall either hear the point or points himself or refer the case for hearing on such point or points by 3rd Member of the Appellate Tribunal and such point or points shall be decided according to the opinion of the majority of the Members of the Appellate Tribunal who have heard the case, including those who first heard it.
Hence the next course of action will be to state the points of differences to the chairman, who will act in accordance with the Section 38.

Question 20.
The Adjudicating Authority under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (the Act) made an order under Section 8(3), confirming the provisional attachment of property made under Section 5(1) of the said Act. Mr. Rana, owner of the attached property, aggrieved by the order, wanted to make an appeal to the Appellate Tribunal.

However, before making an appeal Mr. Rana is adjudicated as an insolvent. Explain, with reference to the relevant provisions of the said Act, whether appeal could be made to Appellate Tribunal in the present case? [Nov. 20 – New Syllabus (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Appeal to Appellate Tribunal:

Sec. 26 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 deals with the rights of a person to make an appeal to the Appellate Tribunal. Accordingly, any person aggrieved by an order made by the Adjudicating Authority may prefer an appeal to the Appellate Tribunal within a period of 45 days from the date on which a copy of the order is received by him.

The appeal shall be in such form and be accompanied by such fee as may be prescribed. The Appellate Tribunal may extend the period if it is satisfied that there was sufficient cause for not filing it within the period of 45 days.

The Appellate Tribunal may after giving the parties to the appeal an opportunity of being heard, pass such order as it thinks fit, confirming, modifying or setting aside the order appealed against.
Conclusion: Appeal can be lodged within 45 days from the date on which a copy of the order made by the Adjudicating Authority.

Question 21.
How a trial under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 is conducted in Special Courts? (May 15 (4 Marks))
Answer:
Conduct of a trial in Special Court:
Sec. 44 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 deals with the provisions relating to offences triable by Special Courts. Accordingly, notwithstanding anything contained in the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973:

(a) an offence punishable u/s 4 and any scheduled offence connected to the offence under that section shall be triable by the Special Court constituted for the area in which the offence has been committed; or

(b) a Special Court may, upon a complaint made by an authority authorised in this behalf under this Act take cognizance of offence u/s 3, without the accused being committed to it for trial;

Provided that after conclusion of investigation, if no offence of money laundering is made out requiring filing of such complaint, the said authority shall submit a closure report before the Special Court; or

(c) if the court which has taken cognizance of the scheduled offence is other than the Special Court which has taken cognizance of the complaint of the offence of money-laundering under subclause (b), it shall, on an application by the authority authorised to file a complaint under this Act, commit the case relating to the scheduled offence to the Special Court and the Special Court shall, on receipt of such case proceed to deal with it from the stage at which it is committed; or

(d) a Special Court while trying the scheduled offence or the offence of money-laundering shall hold trial in accordance with the provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, as it applies to a trial before a Court of Session.

Question 22.
Mr. Gambler, a 16 year old had been arrested for a cognizable and non-bailable offence punishable for a term of imprisonment for more than 3 years under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002. Advise, as to how can he be released on bad m this case? [Nov. 12, Nov. 15 (4 Marks) MTP-Oct. 18, May 20]
Or
Mr. Robert has been arrested for a cognizable and non-bailable offence under Part A of the Schedule punishable for a term of imprisonment for more than three years under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002. He seeks your advice as to how can he be released on bail. Advise him. [May 19 – New Syllabus (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Granting Bail in case of cognizable and non-bailable offence:

As per Sec. 45 of the Money Laundering Act, 2 002, the offences under the Act shall be cognizable and non-bailable. It is provided that notwithstanding anything contained in the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, no person accused of an offence under this Act shall be released on bail or on his,own bond unless:
(a) The public Prosecutor has been given an opportunity to oppose the application for such release and
(b) Where the Public Prosecutor opposes the application, the court is satisfied that there are reasonable grounds for believing that he is not guilty of such offence and that he is not likely to commit any offence while on bail.

In case of any person who is under the age of 16 years or in case of a woman or in case of a sick or infirm person or is accused either on his own or along with other co-accused of money laundering a sum of less than ₹ 1 cr, the Special Court can direct the release of such person on bail.

In the instant case, Mr. Gambler/Mr. Robert has been arrested for a cognizable and non-bailable offence punishable for a term of imprisonment for more than 3 years under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002.
Conclusion: Mr. Gambler/Mr. Robert can be released on bail in accordance with the provisions of Sec. 45 as stated above.

The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 – CA Final Law Study Material

Question 23.
Ms. Farida with an intent to deceive the public, personated herself as a public servant and misused his position and gained monetary benefits. She was arrested for the said cognizable and non-bailable offence for a term of Imprisonment for 2 years and with fine. Discuss in the light of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002, liability of Ms. Farida in the said situation. [MTP-Aug. 18]
Answer:
Offences under PMLA:

As per Sec. 45 of the Money Laundering Act, 2002, the offences under the Act shall be cognizable and non-bailable. It is provided that notwithstanding anything contained in the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, no person accused of an offence punishable for a term of imprisonment of more than 3 years under Part A of the Schedule shall be released on bail or on his own bond except on the conditions stated therein the said section.

In the instant case, offence as stated in the question is out of the purview of the predicate offence as given in the Schedule under the PMLA, 2002.
Conclusion: Ms. Farida shall not be liable for liable for arrest under the PMLA. Ms. Farida shall be liable for personating herself as a public servant in other law.

Question 24.
Mr. Manoranjan, an officer investigating a case of money laundering, is of the view that important evidence relating to the case is available in a foreign country (Contracting State) with which agreement for exchange of information has already been entered into.

Advise Mr. Manoranjan, referring to the provisions of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act,2002, about the procedure to be followed for collecting such evidence. How a trial under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 is conducted in Special Courts? [May 19 – Old Syllabus (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Procedure to be followed for collecting such evidence under reciprocal arrangement:

As per Sec. 57 of PMLA, 2002, if, in the course of an investigation into an offence or other proceedings under this Act, an application is made to a Special Court by the Investigating Officer that any evidence is required in connection with investigation and he is of the opinion that such evidence may be available in any place in a contracting State, and the Special Court, on being satisfied that such evidence is required in connection with the investigation into an offence or proceedings under this Act, may issue a letter of request to a court or an authority in the contracting State competent to deal with such request to:

  1. examine facts and circumstances of the case,
  2. ‘take such steps as the Special Court may specify in such letter of request, and
  3. forward all the evidence so taken or collected to the Special Court issuing such letter of request.
    • The letter of request shall be transmitted in such manner as the C.G. may specify in this behalf.
    • Every statement recorded or document of thing received shall be deemed to be the evidence collected during the course of investigation.

Trial in Special Courts: Sec. 44 of PMLA, 2002 provides that notwithstanding anything contained in the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973:

(a) an offence punishable u/s 4 and any scheduled offence connected to the offence under that section shall be triable by the Special Court constituted for the area in which the offence has been committed; or

(b) a Special Court may, upon a complaint made by an authority authorised in this behalf under this Act take cognizance of offence u/s 3, without the accused being committed to it for trial; or

(c) if the court which has taken cognizance of the scheduled offence is other than the Special Court which has taken cognizance of the complaint of the offence of money-laundering under subclause (b), it shall, on an application by the authority authorised to file a complaint under this Act, commit the case relating to the scheduled offence to the Special Court and the Special Court shall, on receipt of such case proceed to deal with it from the stage at which it is committed; or

(d) a Special Court while trying the scheduled offence or the offence of money-laundering shall hold trial in accordance with the provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, as it applies to a trial before a Court of Session.

Question 25.
Mr. Narayan wilfully gives false information, refuses to give evidence and to sign statement made by him in the course of proceedings under the provisions of Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002. Explain the penal provisions and mode of recovery of fine or penalty enumerated under the said Act. [Nov. 18-New Syllabus (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Penal provisions under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002:
Sec.63 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 deals with the penalty provisions. Accordingly:

  1. Any person wilfully and maliciously give false information shall on conviction be liable for imprisonment for a term which may extend to 2 or with fine which may extend to ₹ 50,000 or both.
  2. If any person
    • refuses to sign any statement made by him in the course of any proceedings under this Act, which an authority may legally require to sign; or
    • to whom a summon is issued either to attend to give evidence, omits to attend, he shall pay, by way of penalty, a sum which shall not be less than ₹ 500 but which may extend to ₹ 10,000 for each such default or failure.

Recovery of Fine or Penalty:
Sec. 69 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 deals with the provisions relating to recovery of fine or pen alty.

Accordingly, where any fine or penalty imposed on any person u/s 13 or 63 is not paid within 6 months from the day of imposition of fine or penalty, the Director or any other officer authorised by him in this behalf may proceed to recover the amount from the said person in the same manner as prescribed in Schedule 11 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for the recovery of arrears and he or any officer authorised by him in this behalf shall have all the powers of the Tax Recovery Officer mentioned in the said Schedule for the said purpose.

Question 26.
Mr. JJ was found guilty by the authorities under Section 13 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 and monetary penalty was levied on Mr.JJ. But Mr.JJ could not pay the penalty amount. What is the mechanism to recover the fine or monetary penalty imposed on any person by the authorities under Section 13 or section 63 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002? [Nov. 18-Old Syllabus (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Recovery of Fine or Penalty:
Sec. 69 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 deals with the provisions relating to recovery of fine or penalty.

Accordingly, where any fine or penalty imposed on any person u/s 13 or 63 is not paid within 6 months from the day of imposition of fine or penalty, the Director or any other officer authorised by him in this behalf may proceed to recover the amount from the said person in the same manner as prescribed in Schedule II of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for the recovery of arrears and he or any officer authorised by him in this behalf shall have all the powers of the Tax Recovery Officer mentioned in the said Schedule for the said purpose.

Question 27.
What are the possible actions which can be taken against persons/properties involved in Money Laundering? [MTP-April 19, Oct. 19]
Answer:
Possible actions which can be taken against persons/properties involved in Money Laundering:
(a) As per Sec. 4, persons found guilty of an offence of Money Laundering are punishable with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than 3 years but may extend up to 7 years and shall also be liable to fine.

(b) As per Sec. 4, when the scheduled offence committed is under the Narcotics and Psychotropic substances Act, 1985 the punishment shall be imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than 3 years but which may extend up to 10 years and shall also be liable to fine.

(c) As per Sec. 5, property of accused may be attached. As per Secs. 17 and 18, property and records may be seized/freezed. Property also includes property of any kind used in the commission of an offence under PMLA, 2002 or any of the scheduled offences.

(d) The prosecution or conviction of any legal juridical person is not contingent on the prosecution or conviction of any individual.

The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 – CA Final Law Study Material

Question 28.
Three Companies belong to Gopal group based out of Bengaluru. Each of the three companies are into businesses as under;

Company A Chit Funds
Company B Housing Finance
Company C Payment System Operator

(i) Who is a “beneficial owner” under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002?
(ii) Whether each of the above businesses fall within the definition of “Financial Institution”?
(iii) What are the obligations of a financial institution regarding maintenance of records?
(iv) Whether a Civil Court have jurisdiction to entertain any suit or proceeding in respect of any matter which the Appellate Tribunal is empowered by or under this Act?
(v) Can an injunction be granted by any Court or other Authority in respect of any action taken or to be taken in pursuance of any power conferred on the Appellate Tribunal? [Nov. 20 – New Syllabus (6 Marks)
Answer:
Misc. Provisions of PMLA, 2002

(i) Beneficial Owner: Beneficial owner means an individual who ultimately owns or controls a client of a reporting entity or the person on whose behalf a transaction is being conducted and includes a person who exercises ultimate effective control over a juridical person.

(ii) Financial Institution: Financial institution includes a chit fund company, a housing finance institution, an authorised person, a payment system operator, a non-banking financial company and the Department of Posts in the Government of India.
Hence, all business as specified in the questions falls within the definition of financial institution.

(iii) Obligations of financial institution regarding maintenance of records:

Obligation of Banking Companies, Financial institutions etc:
Secs. 11A and 12 of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 provides for the obligation of Banking Companies, Financial Institutions and Intermediaries of securities market. Such Obligations are:

(i) Verification of identity by reporting entity (Sec. 11A):
Every reporting entity shall verify the identity of its clients and the beneficial owner, by—
(a) authentication under the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016 if the reporting entity is a banking company; or
(b) offline verification under the Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Act, 2016; or
(c) use of passport issued u/s 4 of the Passports Act, 1967; or
(d) use of any other officially valid document or modes of identification as may be notified by the Central Government in this behalf:

(ii) Maintenance of records (Sec. 12): Every reporting entity shall –
(a) maintain a record of all transactions, including information relating to transactions covered under clause (b), in such manner as to enable it to reconstruct individual transactions;
(b) furnish to the Director within such time as may be prescribed, information relating to such transactions, whether attempted or executed, the nature and value of which may be prescribed;
(c) Maintain record of documents evidencing identity of its clients and beneficial owners as well as account files and business correspondence relating to its clients.

(iii) Confidentiality: Every information maintained, furnished or verified, save as otherwise provided under any law for the time being in force shall be kept confidential.

(iv) Maintenance of records: The records referred to in clause (a) shall be maintained for a period of 5 years from the date of transaction between a client and the reporting entity. The records referred to in clause (e) shall be maintained for a period of 5 years after the business relationship between a client and the reporting entity has ended or the account has been closed, whichever is later.

(iv) As per Sec. 41 of PMLA, 2002, no civil court shall have jurisdiction to entertain any suit or proceeding in respect of any matter which the Director, an Adjudicating Authority or the Appellate Tribunal is empowered by or under this Act to determine.

(v) As per Sec. 41 of PMLA, 2002, no injunction shall be granted by any court or other authority in respect of any action taken or to be taken in pursuance of any power conferred by or under this Act.

CA Final Financial Reporting Study Material Notes Pdf – CA Final FR Study Material Question Bank New Syllabus

CA Final Financial Reporting Study Material Notes Pdf – CA Final FR Study Material Question Bank New Syllabus

CA Final FR Study Material Download PDF: CA final exam appearing students might need CA Final Financial Reporting Study Notes during their preparation. The ICAI official portal has provided the final exam study material for all subjects in different PDFs. Check the latest ICAI CA Final Financial Reporting FR Study Material Question Bank Notes Pdf to get clarity on the latest syllabus and topics.

This CA Final FR Study Material covers the practice manual, chapter-wise weightage, new syllabus, important questions and answers and so on.

ICAI CA Final Financial Reporting FR Study Material Question Bank Notes Pdf, CA Final Financial Reporting Practice Manual, CA Final FR New Syllabus Chapter Wise Important Questions and Answers.

CA Final FR Study Material New Syllabus – Financial Reporting CA Final Study Material Notes Practice Manual

CA Final Financial Reporting FR Study Material is a must-required reference for exam preparing students. CA Final FR Study Notes contains the important questions and answers of all concepts from the Financial Reporting paper. Candidates who feel that it is a difficult paper can download these CA Final FR New Syllabus Chapter Wise Important Questions and Answers and study well.

CA Final FR Study Material Question Bank Notes Pdf plays a crucial role in scoring the highest marks. Without having proper knowledge about the CA Final Financial Reporting New Syllabus and Practice Manual, no one can clear the examination.

CA Final FR Question Bank Study Material – CA Final Financial Reporting Notes Practice Manual

CA Final Financial Reporting FR Study Material

CA Final FR Chapter Wise Weightage New Syllabus

The below tabulate shows the marking scheme of the CA Final FR New Syllabus. It contains the weightage of different concepts of Financial Reporting subject in different years. By observing the CA Financial Reporting Chapter wise Weightage, one can identify the important concepts and focus on them during the preparation.

CA Final Financial Reporting Chapter Wise Weightage
CA Final FR Chapter Wise Weightage New Syllabus
CA Final Financial Reporting Chapter Wise Weightage

CA Final Financial Reporting Practice Manual

CA Final FR Financial Reporting Practice Manual is another important material that contains important questions and answers. Individuals can easily score the best marks in the exam by studying from the CA Final Financial Reporting Practice Manual.

Module 1

Module 2

Module 3

Module 4

CA Final FR New Syllabus

CA Final Financial Reporting FR New Syllabus is here. The paper has both objective and subjective questions. The exam is held for 100 marks for 3 hours. The latest CA Final FR Syllabus for May 2023 has the modules and subtopics.

Financial Reporting CA Final New Syllabus

Paper 1: Financial Reporting
(One paper – Three hours – 100 Marks)

Objectives:
(a) To acquire the ability to integrate and solve problems in practical scenarios on Indian Accounting Standards for deciding the appropriate accounting treatment and formulating suitable accounting policies.
(b) To gain the prowess to recognize and apply disclosure requirements specified in Indian Accounting Standards while preparing and presenting financial statements.
(c) To develop the skill to prepare financial statements of group entities which include subsidiaries, associates, and joint arrangements based on Indian Accounting Standards.
(d) To develop an understanding of the various forms of reporting (other than financial statements) and accounting for special transactions, and apply such knowledge in problem-solving.

Contents:
1. Framework for Preparation and Presentation of Financial Statements in accordance with Indian Accounting Standards (Ind AS).

2. Application of Indian Accounting Standards (Ind AS) with reference to General Purpose Financial Statements
(i) Ind AS on First-time adoption of Indian Accounting Standards (ii) Ind AS on Presentation of Items in the Financial Statements (iii) Ind AS on Measurement based on Accounting Policies (iv) Ind AS on Income Statement (v) Ind AS on Assets and Liabilities of the Financial Statements including Industry specific Ind AS (vi) Ind AS on Items impacting the Financial Statements (vii) Ind AS on Disclosures in the Financial Statements (viii) Other Ind AS.

3. Indian Accounting Standards on Group Accounting
(i) Business Combinations and Accounting for Corporate Restructuring (including demerger) (as per Ind AS)
(ii) Consolidated and Separate Financial Statements (as per Ind AS)

4. Accounting and Reporting of Financial Instruments (as per Ind AS)
5. Analysis of Financial Statements
6. Integrated Reporting
7. Corporate Social Responsibility Reporting

Notes:
1. If either a new Indian Accounting Standard (Ind AS) or Announcements and Limited Revisions to Ind AS are issued or the earlier one is withdrawn or new Ind AS, Announcements and Limited Revisions to Ind AS are issued in place of existing Ind AS, Announcements and Limited Revisions to Ind AS, the syllabus will accordingly include/exclude such new developments in the place of the existing ones with effect from the date to be notified by the Institute.

2. The specific inclusions/exclusions in any topic covered in the syllabus will be effected every year by way of Study Guidelines.

Why One Should Refer CA Final FR Study Notes?

Individuals will have plenty of benefits by checking the CA Final Study Material. They are listed here:

  • Develop your level of understanding by practising from the CA Final FR Financial Reporting Study Notes PDF.
  • All the concepts are as per the latest CA Final New Syllabus.
  • ICAI CA Financial Reporting FR Study Material makes it easy for you to know important questions.

FAQs on CA Final Financial Reporting Study Material

1. Is CA study material sufficient?

Yes, CA study material is sufficient to score qualifying marks in the exam.

2. Is it OK to fail the CA exam?

No, it is not okay to fail in the CA exam. As, if you fail in one subject, then you are not considered a qualified student.

3. Where can I get the direct link to download CA Final Study Material for FR?

You can get the direct download link of ICAI Final FR Study Material link at the official website as well as at our site i.e GSTGuntur.com.

Final Outcome

We are thinking that the data provided here about CA Final FR Study Material and New Syllabus is enough for you to score the maximum marks in the exam. Go through the module wise important questions and prepare well. Stay in touch with our site to know more about CA Foundation, Intermediate, and Final Study Materials.

ICAI CA Final Study Material

CA Final Study Material for May Nov 2023 – ICAI CA Final Study Material Notes Subjects New Syllabus

ICAI CA Final Study Material for May Nov 2023: The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI) has released new study material for the May 2023 exams at their official portal. CA Final May Study Material 2023 contains the topics, subtopics the syllabus, chapter-wise weightage, practice manual and comparison between the new syllabus and the old syllabus.

Candidates with qualified foundation and intermediate exams can get the detailed CA Final Important Questions with Answers and prepare for the exam.

ICAI CA Final Study Material – CA Final New Syllabus Study Material

Here provided ICA Chartered Accountant Final Exam Study Material is as per the BoS knowledge portal of ICAI. The study notes are available in both languages Hindi and English. Anyone can download the CA Final Exam Study Material free of cost from this page. Candidates who have applied for CA Final Exams are advised to refer to the study material to get a clear idea of the list of topics in the exam.

Also, know the latest CA Final Syllabus 2023 to know what different topics are changed. As it is not easy to clear the CA Final Exam without proper preparation, we suggest the applicants begin the preparation and score the best marks.

CA Final New Syllabus

Latest ICAI CA Final Exam Syllabus for May 2023 is mentioned here. The new syllabus has two groups and each group has 4 papers. Know the complete details of the CA Final New Syllabus and check the new syllabus vs old syllabus concepts.

Groups Papers Details
CA Final Group 1 Subjects Paper-1 Financial Reporting
Paper-2 Strategic Financial Management
Paper-3 Advanced Auditing and Professional Ethics
Paper-4 Corporate and Economic Laws
CA Final Group 2 Subjects Paper-5 Strategic Cost Management and Performance Evaluation
Paper-6 Paper-6A: Risk Management
Paper-6B: Financial Services and Capital Markets
Paper-6C: International Taxation
Paper-6D: Economic Laws
Paper-6E: Global Financial Reporting Standards
Paper-6F: Multidisciplinary Case Study
Paper-7 Direct Tax Laws and International Taxation
Paper-8 Indirect Tax Laws

CA Final New Syllabus vs Old Syllabus

CA Final New syllabus CA Final old syllabus
Financial reporting Financial reporting
Strategic financial management Strategic financial management
Advanced auditing and professional ethics Advanced auditing and professional ethics
Corporate and economic laws Corporate and allied laws
Strategic cost management and performance evaluation Advanced management accounting
  • Risk management
  • Financial services and capital markets
  • International taxation
  • Economic laws
  • Global financial reporting standards
  • Multidisciplinary case study
Information systems control and audit
Direct tax laws and international taxation

  • Direct tax laws
  • International taxation
Direct tax laws
Indirect tax laws

  • Goods and services tax
  • Customs and FTPs

CA Final New Syllabus

CA Final Books

Book is an important thing for every person who wants to improve their knowledge. Every student needs proper CA Final Exam Books for starting their exam preparation. So here we have given the best reference book sto prepare for CA final exams. Get the subjectwise books.

CA Final Books New Syllabus

CA Final Subjects New Syllabus

In this section, we cover the detailed paper-wise, subject-wise CA Final Subjects Syllabus for May 2023. Tap on the links and know the subtopics of all subjects of CA Final Study Plan Notes.

CA Final Group 1 & Group 2 Subjects

Paper Details
Paper-1: Financial Reporting Click Here
Paper-2: Strategic Financial Management Click Here
Paper-3: Advanced Auditing and Professional Ethics Click Here
Paper-4: Corporate & Economic Laws Click Here
Paper-5: Strategic Cost Management and Performance Evaluation Click Here
Paper-6A: Risk Management Click Here
Paper-6B: Financial Services and Capital Markets Click Here
Paper-6C: International Taxation ( To be read along with Supplementary Study Paper 2022 ) Click Here
Paper-6C: International Taxation (Supplementary Study Paper For May 2023 and November 2023 Examination – English Medium) Click Here
Paper-6C: International Taxation (Supplementary Study Paper For May 2023 and November 2023 Examination – Hindi Medium) Click Here
Paper-6D: Economic Laws Click Here
Paper-6D: Economic Laws (Booklet on Significant Case Laws (Relevant for May,2022 examinations and onwards)) Click Here
Paper-6E: Global Financial Reporting Standards Click Here
Paper-7: Direct Tax Laws and International Taxation ( To be read along with Supplementary Study Paper 2022 ) Click Here
Paper-7: Direct Tax Laws and International Taxation (Supplementary Study Paper For May 2023 and November 2023 Examination – English Medium) Click Here
Paper-7: Direct Tax Laws and International Taxation (Supplementary Study Paper For May 2023 and November 2023 Examination – Hindi Medium) Click Here
Paper-8: Indirect Tax Laws Click Here
Paper-8: Indirect Tax Laws (Supplementary Study Paper for May and November, 2023 examination) Click Here
Paper-8: Indirect Tax Laws(Supplementary Study Paper for May, 2023 examination – Hindi Medium) Click Here

How to Download CA Final New Study Material?

We already know that ICAI has updated the new study notes for CA Final exams in 2023 May. Many people are looking for the downloaded paper-wise syllabus. So here we are giving the simple steps to download the latest CA

  • Go to the ICAI official website.
  • Search for the student’s section that is available at the top of the page.
  • Now click on the BOS knowledge portal.
  • Follow these steps, tap on what we offer, next study materials links.
  • Finally, select your final section to see the subject-wise syllabus.
  • At every subject, tap on the click here button.
  • The new CA ICAI Final Study Material with important questions will get displayed on the screen.
  • Download all subject’s study materials and save them for future usage.

ICAI CA Final Exam Preparation Tips

After registering for the CA Final Examination 2023, every student has to begin their exam preparation to qualify for the exam and become a Chartered Accountant. The best preparation plan helps you in scoring the best marks on the first attempt itself. Here is the list of instructions to follow while preparing for the exam.

  • To clear the final exam, you must have a clear idea of the chapter-wise weightage and CA Final Latest Syllabus.
  • Every student has to begin the exam preparation immediately after the completion of the registration process.
  • Based on the topic weightage, you need to identify the important concepts.
  • Try to concentrate more on difficult topics and less on easy topics.
  • Collect the subject-wise CA Final Previous Papers and books.
  • You can even choose to go for the coaching.
  • Prepare every subject with 100% confidence.
  • Solve the previous question papers after solving every single topic.
  • Make the CA Final Study Notes that help with last-minute preparation.
  • Make sure that you have the best time management skills.
  • Go for the test and write well.

FAQs on CA Final Study Notes

1. How can I get CA Final Study Material?

You can download the ICAI Final CA Study Material either from the official website or from this page.

2. Is ICAI study material free?

Yes, ICAI provides CA study material for free.

3. Which is the toughest paper in CA final?

Advanced management accounting is considered the toughest paper in CA final as per my knowledge.

Conclusion

Hoping that the information and download links shared here regarding CA Final Study Material for May 2023 is enough to start the test preparation. And we have provided the new syllabus and study notes. Get the links nad download CA Final Study Notes in both English and Hindi languages. For more CA articles, stay tuned to our gstguntur.com website.

The Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002 – CA Final Law Study Material

The Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002 – CA Final Law Study Material is designed strictly as per the latest syllabus and exam pattern.

The Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002 – CA Final Law Study Material

Question 1.
Explain Asset Reconstruction, Financial Assets under the Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Securities Interest Act, 2002. [Nov. 10(4 Marks)]
Answer:
Meaning of Assets Reconstruction and Financial Asset:
(a) Asset Reconstruction: Sec. 2 (b) of SARFAESI Act, 2 002, asset reconstruction means acquisition by any asset reconstruction company (RC) of any right or interest of any bank or financial institution in any financial assistance for the purpose of realisation of such financial assistance.

(b) Financial Asset: Financial asset means debt or receivables and includes:

(i) a claim to any debt or receivables or part thereof, whether secured or unsecured; or
(ii) any debt or receivables secured by, mortgage of, or charge on, immovable property; or

(iii) a mortgage, charge, hypothecation or pledge of movable property; or
(iv) any right or interest in the security, whether full or part underlying such debt or receivables; or
(v) any beneficial interest in property, whether movable or immovable, or in such debt, receivables, whether such interest is existing, future, accruing, conditional or contingent; or

(vi) any beneficial right, title or interest in any tangible asset given on hire or financial lease or conditional sale or under any other contract which secures the obligation to pay any unpaid portion of the purchase price of such asset or an obligation incurred or credit otherwise provided to enable the borrower to acquire such tangible asset;

or

(vii) any right, title or interest on any intangible asset or licence or assignment of such intangible asset, which secures the obligation to pay any unpaid portion of the purchase price of such intangible asset or an obligation incurred or credit otherwise extended to enable the borrower to acquire such intangible asset hr obtain licence of the intangible asset; or
(viii) any financial assistance.

Question 2.
Explain briefly the concept of “Securitization” under the provisions of the Securitisation and Recon-struction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Securities Interest Act, 2002. [May 13 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Concept of Securitisation:

As per Sec. 2(z) of SARFAESI Act, 2002 Securitisation means acquisition of financial assets by any asset reconstruction company from any originator, whether by raising of funds by such asset reconstruction company from qualified buyers or issue of security receipts representing undivided interest in such financial assets or otherwise.

The process of securitisation helps the Asset Reconstruction Company to acquire financial assets like Loans from banks due to which the ARC shall be deemed to be the lender and all the rights of such bank or financial institution shall vest in such company in relation to such financial assets.

The Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002 – CA Final Law Study Material

Question 3.
Explain the meaning of the terms “non-performing asset” and “asset reconstruction” used in the SARFAESI Act, 2002. [May 14 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Non-Performing Asset: Sec. 2(o] of SARFAESI Act, 2002 defines the term NPA means an asset or account of a borrower, which has been classified by a bank or financial institution as sub-standard, doubtful or loss asset,

(a) in case such bank or financial institution is administered or regulated by an authority or body established, constituted or appointed by any law for the time being in force, in accordance with the directions or guidelines relating to assets classifications issued by such authority or body;

(b) in any other case, in accordance with the directions or guidelines relating to assets classifications issued by the Reserve Bank.

Asset reconstruction:

Meaning of Assets Reconstruction and Financial Asset:
(a) Asset Reconstruction: Sec. 2 (b) of SARFAESI Act, 2 002, asset reconstruction means acquisition by any asset reconstruction company (RC) of any right or interest of any bank or financial institution in any financial assistance for the purpose of realisation of such financial assistance.

(b) Financial Asset: Financial asset means debt or receivables and includes:

(i) a claim to any debt or receivables or part thereof, whether secured or unsecured; or
(ii) any debt or receivables secured by, mortgage of, or charge on, immovable property; or
(iii) a mortgage, charge, hypothecation or pledge of movable property; or

(iv) any right or interest in the security, whether full or part underlying such debt or receivables; or
(v) any beneficial interest in property, whether movable or immovable, or in such debt, receivables, whether such interest is existing, future, accruing, conditional or contingent; or

(vi) any beneficial right, title or interest in any tangible asset given on hire or financial lease or conditional sale or under any other contract which secures the obligation to pay any unpaid portion of the purchase price of such asset or an obligation incurred or credit otherwise provided to enable the borrower to acquire such tangible asset;

or

(vii) any right, title or interest on any intangible asset or licence or assignment of such intangible asset, which secures the obligation to pay any unpaid portion of the purchase price of such intangible asset or an obligation incurred or credit otherwise extended to enable the borrower to acquire such intangible asset hr obtain licence of the intangible asset; or
(viii) any financial assistance.

Question 4.
ABC limited has issued listed bonds five years ago, which is due to be redeemed in the current year worth 50 crore. Market analyst feels that the projected cash flows and profitability seems inadequate to repay the bond value. The single largest bond holder BH Ltd. holds bonds worth 20 crore, and wants to explore its options under SARFAESI law, in case ABC limited fails to repay the debt.
Please advise whether BH Ltd. can have recourse to the SARFAESI Act. [MTP-Aug.18]
Answer:
Determination of Recourse availability under SARFAESI Act:

As per Sec. 2(zd) of SARFAESI Act, 2002, debenture trustee registered with the Board appointed by any company for secured debt securities in whose favour security interest is created by any borrower for due repayment of any financial assistance are covered within the definition of secured creditor.

Unlike NBFC for which a threshold of assets of 500 Crore is put for applicability of the SARFAESI Act, there is no such limit for debenture holders.
Accordingly, BH Ltd. can have recourse to SARFAESI Act.

Question 5.
RST Ltd. is a securitization and reconstruction company under SARFAESI Act, 2002. The certificate of registration granted to it was cancelled. State the authority which can cancel the registration and the right of RST Ltd. against such cancellation. [May 11 (4 Marks), MTP – Oct. 18]
Answer:
Cancellation of Certificate of Registration under SARFAESI Act, 2002:
As per Sec. 4 of SARFAESI Act, 2002, the Authority which can cancel certificate of registration is the Reserve Bank of India. Certificate may be cancelled in any of the circumstances mentioned u/s 4.

Rights of RST Limited against cancellation:

  • RST Ltd., can prefer an appeal to the C.G. (Secretary, Ministry of Finance, Government of India) within a period of 30 days from the date on which order of cancellation was communicated to it.
  • The C.G. must also give such company a reasonable opportunity of being heard before rejecting the appeal.

The Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002 – CA Final Law Study Material

Question 6.
Referring to the provisions of the Securitisation & Reconstruction of Financial Assets & Enforcement of Securities Interest Act, 2002 state the circumstances under which the Reserve Bank of India may cancel the certificate of registration granted to a Securitisation Company. [Nov. 14 (4 Marks), MTP-Oct.18]
Or
On what grounds the Reserve Bank of India can cancel a certificate of registration granted to an Asset Reconstruction Company? [RTP – May 19]
Answer:
Circumstances under which the Reserve Bank may cancel Certificate of Registration:

As per Sec. 4 of SARFAESI Act, 2002, RBI may cancel a certificate of registration granted to an ARC, if such company-

(a) ceases to carry on the business of securitisation or asset reconstruction; or
(b) ceases to receive or hold any investment from a qualified buyer; or
(c) has failed to comply with any conditions subject to which the certificate of registration has been granted to it; or
(d) at any time fails to fulfil any of the conditions referred to in Sec. 3; or
(e) fails to-

  1. comply with any direction issued by the RBI; or
  2. maintain accounts in accordance with the requirements of any law or any direction or order issued by the RBI; or
  3. submit or offer for inspection its books of account or other relevant documents when so demanded by the RBI; or
  4. obtain prior approval of the Reserve Bank in situations specified u/s 3 for substantial change in management, change of location and change of name.

Question 7.
Zebra Limited failed to repay the amount borrowed from Genuine Bank, which is, holding a charge on all the assets of the Company. Now, the Bank wants to acquire the Financial Assets of Zebra Limited, is the Bank bound to give notice of acquisition of financial assets to the obligor? State the Provisions in this regard with reference to the Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Securities interest Act. 2002. [Nov. 19 – Old Syllabus (3 Marks)!
Answer:
Notice to obligor and discharge of obligation of such obligor:
Sec. 6 of SARFAESI Act, 2002 deals with the provisions related to notice to obligor and discharge of obligation of such obligor. Accordingly,

The bank or financial institution may, if it considers appropriate, give a notice of acquisition of financial assets by any ARC, to the concerned obligor and any other concerned person and to the concerned registering authority (including Registrar of Companies) in whose jurisdiction the mortgage, charge, hypothecation, assignment or other interest created on the financial assets had been registered.

Where a notice of acquisition of financial asset is given by a bank or financial institution, the obligor, on receipt of such notice, shall make payment to the concerned ARC in discharge of any of the obligations in relation to the financial asset specified in the notice.

Where no notice of acquisition of financial asset is given by the bank or financial institution, any money or other properties subsequently received by the bank or financial institution, shall constitute monies or properties held in trust for the benefit of and on behalf of the ARC.

Conclusion: Bank is not bound to give notice, however, if bank or financial institution may, if it considers appropriate, give a notice of acquisition of financial assets by any ARC, to the concerned obligor.

Note 1: It is assumed that the asset reconstruction company is acquiring the secured asset from the Bank. Answer may differ if other assumption is being taken.
Note 2: Answer given in suggested answer of ICAI is different. As per the suggested answer, Genuine Bank is bound to give notice to the Zebra limited.

Question 8.
High Growth Housing and Finance Limited is incorporated as a Public Limited company in 2012 and its net owned fund as on 31.3.2021 was ₹ 250 crore. The Board of Directors have decided to commence a business of securitisation and to apply to Reserve Bank of India. From the financial statements of the company it is seen that the company had incurred a net loss of f 2.00 crore in 2016 and posted good profits in the subsequent years till 2021.
The Board seeks your advice with regard to the conditions to be fulfilled for grant of approval by RBI as an ARC. [Nov. 20 – Old Syllabus (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Conditions to be fulfilled for grant of approval by RBI as an ARC:

Sec. 3 of SARFAESI Act, 2002 deals with the provisions relating to Registration of ARC. Accordingly, no ARC shall commence or carry on the business of securitisation or asset reconstruction without
(a) obtaining a certificate of registration granted under this section; and
(b) having the owned fund of not less than f 100 crores.

Every reconstruction company shall make an application for registration to the RBI in such form and manner as it may specify.

RBI may, for the purpose of considering to grant its approval for the application for registration of an ARC, require to be satisfied, by an inspection of records or books of such ARC, or otherwise, that the following conditions are fulfilled, namely:

(a) that the ARC has not incurred losses in any of the 3 preceding financial years;

(b) that such ARC has made adequate arrangements for realisation of the financial assets acquired for the purpose of securitisation or asset reconstruction and shall be able to pay periodical returns and redeem on respective due dates on the investments made in the company by the qualified buyers or other persons;

(c) that the directors of ARC have adequate professional experience in matters related to finance, securitisation and reconstruction;

(d) that any of its directors has not been convicted of any offence involving moral turpitude;

(e) that a sponsor of an ARC is a fit and proper person in accordance with the criteria as may be specified in the guidelines issued by the Reserve Bank for such persons;

(f) that ARC has complied with or is in a position to comply with prudential norms specified by the Reserve Bank.

(g) that ARC has complied with one or more conditions specified in the guidelines issued-by
the Reserve Bank for the said purpose.

The Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002 – CA Final Law Study Material

Question 9.
A newly formed ARC has acquired secured interest on few assets in steel sector. The sector is undergoing cyclical recession due to global meltdown and increase in raw material price. The management is now contemplating various options through which it can realise its assets.
What are the measures with the ARC management under the SARFAESI law?
Answer:
Measures available with ARC Management: –
As per Sec. 9 of SARFAESI Act, 2002, Asset Reconstruction company may, for the purposes of asset reconstruction, having regard to the guidelines framed by the RBI in this behalf, provide for any one or more of the following measures, namely:

(a) the proper management of the business of the borrower, by change in, or takeover of, the management of the business of the borrower;
(b) the sale or lease of a part or whole of the business of the borrower;
(c) rescheduling of payment of debts payable by the borrower;
(d) enforcement of security interest in accordance with the provisions of this Act;
(e) settlement of dues payable by the borrower;
(f) taking possession of secured assets in accordance with the provisions of this Act;
(g) to convert any portion of debt into shares of a borrower company.

Question 10.
Explain briefly the procedure relating to enforcement of security interest under SARFAESI Act, 2002. [Nov. 11 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Procedure relating to enforcement of security interest:
Procedure relating to enforcement of security interest is contained in Sec. 13 of SARFAESI Act, 2002. Accordingly, any security interest created in favour of any secured creditor may be enforced, without the intervention of the court or tribunal, by such creditor in accordance with the provisions of this Act. Steps involved are:

Issuing Notice to borrower: Where any borrower, who is under a liability to a secured creditor under a security agreement, makes any default in repayment of secured debt or any instalment thereof, and his account in respect of such debt is classified by the secured creditor as NPA, then, the secured creditor may require the borrower by notice in writing to discharge in full his liabilities to the secured creditor within 60 days from the date of notice failing which the secured creditor shall be entitled to exercise all or any of the rights conferred by Sec. 13(4).

Contents of Notice: Notice shall give details of the amount payable by the borrower and the secured assets intended to be enforced by the secured creditor in the event of non-payment of secured debts by the borrower.

Consideration of borrower representations by secured creditors: If, on receipt of the notice, the borrower makes any representation or raises any objection, the secured creditor shall consider such representation or objection and if the secured creditor comes to the conclusion that such representation or objection is not acceptable or tenable, he shall communicate within 15 days of receipt of such representation or objection the reasons for non-acceptance of the representation or objection to the borrower.

Secured creditors right to recover his secured debt: If the borrower fails to discharge his . liability in full within the above specified period, the secured creditor may take recourse to one or more of the following measures to recover his secured debt:

(a) take possession of the secured assets of the borrower including the right to transfer by way of lease, assignment or sale for realising the secured asset;
(b) take over the management of the business of the borrower including the right to transfer by way of lease, assignment or sale for realising the secured asset:
(c) appoint any person (as manager), to manage the secured assets the possession of which has been taken over by the secured creditor;
(d) require at any time by notice in writing, any person who has acquired any of the secured assets from the borrower and from whom any money is due or may become due to the borrower, to pay the secured creditor, so much of the money as is sufficient to pay the secured debt.

Question 11.
Popular Limited defaulted in the repayment of term loan taken from a Bank against security created as a first charge on some of its assets. The bank issued notice pursuant to Sec. 13 of the SARFAESI Act, 2002 to the Company to discharge its liabilities within a period of 60 days from the date of the notice. The company failed to discharge its liabilities within the time limit specified.
Explain the measures to be taken by the Bank to enforce its security interest under the said Act. [May 17 (4 Marks), RTP-May 18]
Answer:
Measures to be taken by Bank to enforce its security:
Sec. 13(4) of SARFAESI Act, 2002, if the borrower fails to discharge his liability in full within the 60 days of serving notice, the secured creditor may take recourse to one or more of the following
measures to recover his secured debt:

(a) take possession of the secured assets of the borrower including the right to transfer by way of lease, assignment or sale for realising the secured asset;
(b) take over the management of the business of the borrower including the right to transfer by way of lease, assignment or sale for realising the secured asset;
(c) appoint any person (as manager), to manage the secured assets the possession of which has been taken over by the secured creditor;
(d) require at any time by notice in writing, any person who has acquired any of the secured assets from the borrower and from whom any money is due or may become due to the borrower, to pay the secured creditor, so much of the money as is sufficient to pay the secured debt.

The Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002 – CA Final Law Study Material

Question 12.
Beta Ltd. failed to repay the amount borrowed from KMP Bank Ltd. in accordance with the terms of lending. The loan was granted against the mortgage of its building. The Bank issued notice as required u/s 13 of the SARFAESI Act, 2002. It was decided by the bank to take possession of the building after getting necessary assistance from the judicial authority. State the provisions enumerated u/s 14 of the SARFAESI Act, 2002 in this regard. [May 18 – New Syllabus (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Chief Metropolitan Magistrate or District Magistrate to assist secured creditor in taking possession of secured asset (Sec. 14):
Sec. 14 of SARFAESI Act, 2002 provides the following:

The secured creditor may, for the purpose of taking possession or control of any such secured assets, request, in writing, the Chief Metropolitan Magistrate or the District Magistrate within whose jurisdiction any such secured asset or other documents relating thereto may be situated or found, to take possession thereof, and the Chief Metropolitan Magistrate or as the case may be, the District Magistrate shall, on such request being made to him-

  1. take possession of such asset and documents relating thereto; and
  2. forward such asset and documents to the secured creditor, within a period of thirty days from the date of application.

If no order is passed by the Chief Metropolitan Magistrate or District Magistrate within the said period of 30 days for reasons beyond his control, he may, after recording reasons in writing for the same, pass the order within such further period but not exceeding in aggregate 60 days.

Question 13.
M/s AWP Limited defaulted in repayment of a term loan taken from Nationalized Bank against the security created as first charge on its Land & Buildings. The Bank classified the debt from M/S AWP Limited as Non-Performing Asset. The Bank issued Notice pursuant to Section 13 of the SARFAESI Act, 2002 to the Company to discharge its liabilities in full within a period of 60 days from the date of Notice. The Company objected for full settlement and the time limit for settlement. The Bank did not respond to the objection of the Company. In the light of the provisions of the SARFAESI Act, 2002 decide:

  1. Whether the objection of the Company is valid?
  2. Whether the Bank has to respond to the objection of the Company?
  3. Whether the Bank has right to enforce the security interest without the intervention of the Court? [Nov. 19 – New Syllabus (6 Marks), MTP-Oct. 20]

Answer:
Provisions relating to enforcement of security interest:
Procedure relating to enforcement of security interest is contained in Sec. 13 of SARFAESI Act, 2002. Accordingly,

Sec. 13(1) – Any security interest created in favour of any secured creditor may be enforced, without the intervention of the court or tribunal, by such creditor in accordance with the provisions of this Act.

Sec. 13(2)- Where any borrower, who is under a liability to a secured creditor under a security agreement, makes any default in repayment of secured debt or any instalment thereof, and his account in respect of such debt is classified by the secured creditor as NPA, then, the secured creditor may require the borrower by notice in writing to discharge in full his liabilities to the secured creditor within 60 days from the date of notice failing which the secured creditor shall be entitled to exercise all or any of the rights conferred by Sec. 13(4).

Sec. 13(3) – Notice shall give details of the amount payable by the borrower and the secured assets intended to be enforced by the secured creditor in the event of non-payment of secured debts by the borrower.

Sec. 13 (3A) – If, on receipt of the notice, the borrower makes any representation or raises any objection, the secured creditor shall consider such representation or objection and if the secured creditor comes to the conclusion that such representation or objection is not acceptable or tenable, he shall communicate within 15 days of receipt of such representation or objection the reasons for non-acceptance of the representation or objection to the borrower.

Conclusions: Based on the provisions of Sec. 13 as stated above, following conclusions may be drawn:

  1. Objection of the company is not valid.
  2. Bank is required to respond to objection of the company within 15 days of receipt of representation.
  3. Bank has right to enforce the security interest without the intervention of the Court.

Question 14.
Glow Bright Limited, engaged in business of printing of advertisement material, took a term loan of ₹ 5 Crores from a Bank against security created as first charge on its printing machines. Glow Bright Limited made default in repayment of term loan to the Bank. Consequently, the Bank issued notice to the Company under SARFAESI Act, 2002 to discharge its liabilities. Answer the following with reference to provisions of SARFAESI Act, 2002

(i) What is the maximum period within which Glow Bright Limited must pay its liabilities?
(ii) What if Glow Bright Limited failed to discharge its liabilities within the specified time limit? [Nov. 20 – New Syllabus (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Enforcement of Security Interest:

(i) Period within which borrower must pay its liabilities:
As per Sec. 13(2) of SARFAESI Act, 2002, where any borrower, who is under a liability to a secured creditor under a security agreement, makes any default in repayment of secured debt or any instalment thereof, and his account in respect of such debt is classified by the secured creditor as NPA, then, the secured creditor may require the borrower by notice in writing to discharge in full his liabilities to the secured creditor within 60 days from the date of notice failing which the secured creditor shall be entitled to exercise all or any of the rights conferred by Sec. 13(4).

(ii) Consequences if borrower fails to discharge his liability:
As per Sec. 13(4) of SARFAESI Act, 2002, if the borrower fails to discharge his liability in full within the 60 days of serving notice, the secured creditor may take recourse to one or more of the following measures to recover his secured debt:

(a) take possession of the secured assets of the borrower including the right to transfer by way of lease, assignment or sale for realising the secured asset;

(b) take over the management of the business of the borrower including the right to transfer by way of lease, assignment or sale for realising the secured asset:

(c) appoint any person (as manager), to manage the secured assets the possession of which has been taken over by the secured creditor;

(d) require at any time by notice in writing, any person who has acquired any of the secured assets from the borrower and from whom any money is due or may become due to the borrower, to pay the secured creditor, so much of the money as is sufficient to pay the secured debt.

The Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002 – CA Final Law Study Material

Question 15.
Apex Limited failed to repay the amount borrowed from the bankers, ACE Bank Limited, which is holding a charge on all the assets of the company. The Bank took over management of the company in accordance with the provisions of the Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002 by appointing four persons as directors.

The company is managed by a Managing Director. Mr. X. Referring to the provisions of the said Act, examine whether Mr. X is entitled to compensation for loss of office and also explain the effect of such takeover on certain rights of the shareholders of the company. [MTP-April 18, Oct. 19]
Or
Rockfort Limited failed to repay the loan borrowed from Nest Bank, which is holding a charge on all the assets of the company. The Bank took over management of the company in accordance with the provisions of the Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002 by appointing four persons as directors. The company is managed by Director Mr. Pawn, who has been now removed, referring to the provisions of the said Act, examine whether Mr. Pawn is entitled to compensation for loss of office. [MTP-Aug. 18, Nov. 18-Old Syllabus (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Compensation to Managing Director for loss of Office:

As per Sec. 16 of the SARFAESI Act, 2002, notwithstanding anything contained in any contract or in any other law for the time being in force, no managing director or any other director or a manager or any person in charge of management of the business of the borrower shall be entitled to any compensation for the loss of office or for the premature termination under this Act.

However, any such managing director or any other director or manager or any such person in charge of management has the right to recover from the business of the borrower, moneys recoverable otherwise than by way of such compensation.
Conclusion: Managing director is not entitled for any compensation for loss of office in the given case.

Effect of takeover on rights of the shareholders:
As per Sec. 15(3) of SARFAESI Act, 2002, where the management of the business of a borrower, being a company is taken over by the secured creditor, then, not withstanding anything contained in the company law or in the memorandum or articles of association of such company:

  1. it shall not be lawful for the shareholders of such company or any other person to nominate or appoint any person to be a director of the company;
  2. no resolution passed at any meeting of the shareholders of such company shall be given effect to unless approved by the secured creditor;
  3. no proceeding for the winding up of such company or for the appointment of a receiver in respect thereof shall lie in any court, except with the consent of the secured creditor.

As per Sec. 15(4) of SARFAESI Act, 2002, the secured creditor is under an obligation to restore the management of the business of the borrower, on realisation of his debt in full, in case of takeover of the management of the business of a borrower by such secured creditor.

However, if any secured creditor jointly with other secured creditors or any asset reconstruction company or financial institution or any other assignee has converted part of its debt into shares of a borrower company and thereby acquired controlling interest in the borrower company, such secured creditors shall not be liable to restore the management of the business to such borrower.

Question 16.
The management of Gangotri Ltd. was taken by LBV Bank Ltd. (Secured Creditor) complying the provisions of SARFAESI Act, 2002 and appointed two directors. The Board of Director of Gangotri Ltd. duly authorized by its Articles, appointed two alternate directors and the majority of the directors made a declaration required for voluntary liquidation proceedings.

A special resolution requiring the company to be liquidated voluntarily by appointing an insolvency professional to act as the liquidator was passed at the general meeting of the company. The Board of Directors and the shareholders passed the resolutions without the approval/consent of Directors appointed by LBV Bank Ltd. discuss the validity of the above resolutions under SARFAESI Act, 2002. Does an unsecured Creditor have recourse to this Act? |Nov. 18-New Syllabus (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Effect of Takeover of Management:

As per Sec. 15 of SARFAESI Act, 2002, when the management of business of a borrower is taken over by a secured creditor, the new directors or administrator appointed by secured creditors shall alone be entitled to exercise all powers of superintendence, direction and control of business of borrower.

Existing directors or authorized person of borrower shall cease to hold office and following consequence will follow:

(a) it shall not be lawful for the shareholders of such company or any other person to nominate or appoint any person to be a director of the company;
(b) no resolution passed at any meeting of the shareholders of such company shall be given effect to unless approved by the secured creditor;
(c) no proceeding for the winding up of such company or for the appointment of a receiver in respect thereof shall lie in any court, except with the consent of the secured creditor.

Conclusion: Resolutions passed by the Board of Directors and the Shareholders are not valid.
Provisions of SARFAESI Act are not applicable to unsecured creditors, hence unsecured creditor does not have recourse to this Act.

Question 17.
Sharp Health Clinic Limited had availed the credit facilities from the United Bank Limited. The company made repayment of loan to some extent but not entirely and accordingly the Bank took recourse under the provisions of Sec. 13 (2) the SARFAESI Act, 2002. Consequently, possession of the mortgaged property was taken up and it was duly advertised.

The company also filed an application u/s 17(1) of the SARFAESI Act, 2002 before the Debts Recovery Tribunal, which was dismissed by the impugned order. Being aggrieved, the company approached court. Will the company succeed in its petition referring to in the SARFAESI Act, 2002? [Nov. 17 (4 Marks), RTP-Nov. 18]
Answer:
Appeal to Appellate Tribunal:

As per Sec. 18(1) of the SARFAESI Act, 2002, any person aggrieved, by any order made by the Debts Recovery Tribunal (DRT) u/s 17, may prefer an appeal along with prescribed fees to the Appellate Tribunal within 30 days from the date of receipt of the order of DRT.

No appeal shall be entertained unless the borrower has deposited with the Appellate Tribunal 50% of the amount of debt due from him, as claimed by the secured creditors or determined by the DRT, whichever is less. However, the Appellate Tribunal may, for the reasons to be recorded in writing, reduce the amount to not less than 25% of debt.

In the instant case, Sharp Health Clinic Limited filed an application u/s 17(1) of the SARFAESI Act, 2002 before the DRT, which was dismissed by the impugned order. Being aggrieved, the company approached court.

Conclusion: Sharp Health Clinic Limited can appeal to the Appellate Tribunal (Now NCLAT) by following the above provisions.

Question 18.
Under Section 31 of the Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Securities Interest Act, 2002, certain situations have been specified in which the provisions of this Act are not applicable. You are required to mention any four of such situations. [Nov. 15 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Situations in which provisions of SARFAESI Act not applicable:
As per Sec. 31 of SARFAESI Act, 2002, the provisions of this Act shall not apply to:

(a) a lien on any goods, money or security given by or under the Indian Contract Act, 1872 or the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 or any other law for the time being in force;
(b) a pledge of movables within the meaning of section 172 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872;
(c) creation of any security in any aircraft as defined in clause (1) of section 2 of the Aircraft Act, 1934;

(d) creation of security interest in any vessel as defined in clause (55) of section 3 of the Merchant Shipping Act, 1958;
(e) any rights of unpaid seller under section 47 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930;
(f) any properties not liable to attachment (excluding the properties specifically charged with the debt recoverable under this Act) or sale under the first proviso to sub-section (1) of section 60 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908;

(g) any security interest for securing repayment of any financial asset not exceeding one lakh rupees;
(h) any security interest created in agricultural land;
(i) any case in which the amount due is less than 20% of the principal amount and interest thereon.

The Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002 – CA Final Law Study Material

Question 19.
Mr. AA, a farmer mortgaged his agriculture land and obtained a term loan for cultivation purpose from a Nationalized Bank. Due to continuous drought, Mr. AA could not honour the repayment schedule. Identify whether the Bank can initiate action invoking the provisions of the SARFAESI Act, 2002. [May 18 – New Syllabus (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Applicability of SARFAESI Act, 2002:

  • Section 31 of SARFAESI Act, 2002 provides the situations in which provisions of this Act are not applicable. One of such situations is any security interest created in agricultural land.
  • In the present case, security interest is created in agricultural land, hence, bank cannot initiate action invoking the provisions of SARFAESI Act, 2002.

Question 20.
A Bank issued a notice pursuant to Section 13 of the SARFAESI Act, 2002 to a company to discharge its loan which has already become time barred under the Limitation Act, 1963. The company did not settle the loan beyond the prescribed notice period. The Bank took recourse under section 13(4) of the SARFAESI Act, 2002 to take possession of the building to enforce its security interest. Discuss whether the Bank will succeed in its attempt. State whether the provision of SARFAESI Act, 2002 can over ride any other law? [Nov. 18 – New Syllabus (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Enforcement of Security Interest:

As per Sec. 36 of SARFAESI Act, 2002, no secured creditor shall be entitled to take all or any of the measures u/s 13(4), unless his claim in respect of the financial asset is made within the period of limitation prescribed under the Limitation Act, 1963.

In the present case, a Bank issued a notice pursuant to Section 13 of the SARFAESI Act, 2002 to a company to discharge its loan which has already become time barred under the Limitation Act, 1963. The company did not settle the loan beyond the prescribed notice period. The Bank took recourse under section 13(4) of the SARFAESI Act, 2002 to take possession of the building to enforce its security interest.

Conclusion: Bank will not succeed in its attempt as claim was not made within the period of limitation.
Overriding effect of SARFAESI Act, 2002: As per Sec. 35 of SARFAESI Act, 2002, the provisions of this Act shall have effect, notwithstanding anything inconsistent therewith contained in any other law for the time being in force or any instrument having effect by virtue of any such law.

Question 21.
ABC Bank has provided term loan of ₹ 10 crores to XYZ Ltd., a steel manufacturing company at an interest rate of 10% p.a. and principal amount is to be payable in equal quarterly instalments within 5 years from the date of disbursement of loan. The loan is fully secured against plant & machinery.

The company successfully repaid 4 instalments along with interest during the first year. From the start of second year, the EBITDA of the company fell drastically due to multiple factors including crash in steel prices, rise of coal and iron ore prices, and plant shut down. The company therefore couldn’t repay the 5th instalment but it paid the interest amount as and when due.

After the end of 60 days from the due date of the 5th instalment the credit manager of the bank decided to sell the loan to LMN Ltd., an asset reconstruction company, along with the overdue loan of 2 crore to another textile company, which was classified as NPA six months ago, and a loan of ₹ 2 crore to a farmer Mr. JKL, secured against agriculture land.
Please analyse and advise the manager whether he can do so?
Answer:
Analysis: Determination of Loan Amounts that can be sold:

(a) Loan to XYZ Ltd.: Outstanding balance of the loan amount is ₹ 8 Cr. Loan to XYZ Ltd. is a financial asset and bank has security interest. But security interest cannot be enforced as asset has not yet classified as NPA, (NPA classification shall happen after 90 days).
(b) Facts about loan to textile company has not been provided, so it cannot be decided whether or not such loan can be sold to ARC.
(c) Loan given to Mr. JKL being secured against agricultural land, cannot be sold as the provisions of SARFAESI act is not applicable to such assets (Sec. 31).

Question 22.
XYZ Finance Ltd. is an NBFC company with total assets of ₹ 550 crore, and an NPA of ₹ 50 crores in its balance sheet. The ₹ 50 crores loan consists of 9 cases of ₹ 5 crore each and 10 cases of ₹ 50 lakhs each. The management of the company wants to sell bad loans worth ₹ 50 crore to an ARC. Of the ₹ 50 crore, 45 crores is secured against various properties, while one case of 5 crore is unsecured.

During detailed discussion with the in-house legal counsel, it came to light that 1 case of ₹ 5 crores of the secured bad loan has not been registered with the central registry CERSAI, however this was not informed to the buyer in the preliminary discussion.
Please analyse and advise the CEO of XYZ Finance Ltd. how much bad loan can he sell to the ARC. (MTP-March 18)
Answer:
Determination of Quantum of Bad loan that can be sold:

SARFAESI Act, 2002 is applicable to only those notified NBFC which has an asset base of ₹ 500 crore or above. In the instant case, XYZ Finance Ltd. an NBFC company has total assets of ₹ 550 Cr., hence, it shall be able to sell the bad loans to ARCs through SARFAESI.

  • NBFCs can invoke provisions of SARFAESI Act, 2002 for only those cases which are over ₹ 1 crore.
  • SARFAESI is applicable to secured loans only.
  • As per section 2 6D, no secured creditor shall be entitled to exercise the rights of enforcement of securities unless the security interest created in its favour by the borrower has been registered with the Central Registry.
  • In the instant case, management of the company wants to sell bad loans worth ₹ 50 Crore to an ARC. Of the ₹ 50 crore, ₹ 5 crores are unsecured, hence cannot be sold.
  • Amount of 10 cases is below ₹ 1 Crore, hence 10 cases of ₹ 50 lacs each cannot be sold to ARC under SARFAESI.
  • One case of ₹ 5 Cr. is not registered with Central registry, hence cannot be sold.

Conclusion: XYZ Finance Ltd. are left with 7 cases of ₹ 5 crore each which can be sold to ARC subject to meeting all other conditions of the law.

The Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002 – CA Final Law Study Material

Question 23.
A Nationalized Bank had provided a term loan of Rs. 20 crores to All Well Pharma Limited at an interest rate of 12% p.a. and principal amount is payable in equal half yearly instalments of Rs. 2 crores in 5 years from the date of disbursement of loan. The loan is fully secured against the plant and machinery of the company.

The company was regular in paying 3 half yearly instalments along with the interest during the first two years. Due to recession in the market and increased competition from multinational companies, the price of the goods manufactured by the company had fallen down and consequently the company has to close down the plant.

Hence, the company failed to pay the 4th instalment but it paid the interest amount as and when due. After a period of 2 months (60 days) from the due date of the 4th instalment, the Bank decided to sell the loan to an Asset Reconstruction company. It has also decided to sell a loan of Rs. 50 lakhs given to a farmer which is secured against the agricultural lands. The Manager seeks your advice on the above proposals in the light of the Provisions of the SARFAESI Act, 2002. [May 19 – New Syllabus (6 Marks)]
Answer:
Situations in which provisions of SARFAESI Act not applicable:
As per Sec. 31 of SARFAESI Act, 2002, the provisions of this Act shall not apply in certain situations including therein are:
(a) any security interest created in agricultural land;
(b) any case in which the amount due is less than 20% of the principal amount and interest thereon.
In the present case, company has paid 3 instalments i.e. ₹ 6 Crore. Outstanding balance is ₹ 14 Crore which is more than 20% of the principal amount and interest thereon. Hence, loan to All Well Pharma Ltd. is a financial asset and bank has security interest.

For enforcement of security interest under this Act, there has to be a default u/s 2 (1)(j) which requires the classification of asset as NPA. In the given case, the debts of bank are overdue by only 60 days, and asset is not classified as NPA.

Conclusion: Based on the discussion as given above, following conclusions can be drawn:
(a) Security interest in All Well Pharma Ltd. cannot be enforced as asset has not yet classified as NPA. (NPA classification shall happen after 90 days).
(b) Loan given to a farmer secured against agricultural land, cannot be sold as the provisions of SARFAESI act is not applicable to such assets.

CA Final Strategic Financial Management Study Material Notes – CA Final SFM Study Material Notes Pdf

CA Final Strategic Financial Management Study Material Notes – CA Final SFM Study Material Notes Pdf

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CA Final Strategic Financial Management Study Material – CA Final SFM Practice Manual

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SFM CA Final New Syllabus

ICAI has updated the new syllabus for CA Final exam. Here we are providing the chapter-wise concepts as per the CA Final SFM New Syllabus.

CA Final SFM Syllabus – CA Final Strategic Financial Management Syllabus

Paper 2: Strategic Financial Management
(One Paper – Three hours – 100 marks)

Objective:
To acquire the ability to apply financial management theories and techniques in strategic decision-making.

Contents:
1. Financial Policy and Corporate Strategy
(i) Strategic decision-making framework (ii) Interface of Financial Policy and strategic management (iii) Balancing financial goals vis-a-vis sustainable growth.

2. Risk Management
(i) Identification of types of Risk faced by an organisation (ii) Evaluation of Financial Risks (iii) Value at Risk (VAR) (iv) Evaluation of appropriate methods for the identification and management of financial risk.

3. Security Analysis
(i) Fundamental Analysis (ii) Technical Analysis- Meaning, Assumptions, Theories and Principles, Charting Techniques, Efficient Market Hypothesis (EMH) Analysis.

4. Security Valuation
(i) Theory of Valuation (ii) Return Concepts (iii) Equity Risk Premium (iv) Required Return on Equity (v) Discount Rate Selection in Relation to Cash Flows (vi) Approaches to Valuation of Equity Shares (vii) Valuation of Preference Shares
(viii) Valuation of Debentures/Bonds.

5. Portfolio Management
(i) Portfolio Analysis (ii) Portfolio Selection (iii) Capital Market Theory (iv) Portfolio Revision (v) Portfolio Evaluation (vi) Asset Allocation (vii) Fixed Income Portfolio (viii) Risk Analysis of Investment in Distressed Securities (ix) Alternative Investment Strategies in the context of Portfolio Management.

6. Securitization
(i) Introduction (ii) Concept and Definition (iii) Benefits of Securitization (iv) Participants in Securitization (v) Mechanism of Securitization (vi) Problems in Securitization (vii) Securitization Instruments (viii) Pricing of Securitization Instruments (ix) Securitization in India.

7. Mutual Fund
(i) Meaning (ii) Evolution (iii) Types (iv) Advantages and Disadvantages of Mutual Funds.

8. Derivatives Analysis and Valuation
(i) Forward/Future Contract (ii) Options (iii) Swaps (iv) Commodity Derivatives.

9. Foreign Exchange Exposure and Risk Management
(i) Exchange rate determination (ii) Foreign currency market (iii) Management of transaction, translation, and economic exposures (iv) Hedging currency risk (v) Foreign exchange derivatives – Forward, futures, options, and swaps.

10. International Financial Management
(i) International Capital Budgeting (ii) International Working Capital Management- Multinational Cash Management, Objectives of Effective Cash Management, Optimization of Cash Flows/Needs, Investment of Surplus Cash, Multinational, Receivable Management, Multinational Inventory Management.

11. Interest Rate Risk Management
(i) Interest Rate Risk (ii) Hedging Interest Rate Risk- Traditional Methods, Modern Methods including Interest Rate Derivatives.

12. Corporate Valuation
(i) Conceptual Framework of Valuation (ii) Approaches/Methods of Valuation- Assets-Based Valuation Model, Earning-Based Models, Cash Flow-Based Models, Measuring Cost of Equity, Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM), Arbitrage Pricing Theory, Estimating the Beta of an unlisted company, Relative Valuation, Steps involved in Relative Valuation, Equity Valuation Multiples, Enterprise Valuation Multiple, Other Approaches to Value Measurement, Economic Value Added (EVA), Market Value Added (MVA), Shareholder Value Analysis (SVA), Arriving at Fair Value.

13. Mergers, Acquisitions and Corporate Restructuring
(i) Conceptual Framework, (ii) Rationale, (iii) Forms, (iv) Mergers and Acquisitions- Financial Framework, Takeover Defensive Tactics, Reverse Merger (v) Divestitures- Partial Sell off, Demerger, Equity Carveouts (vi) Ownership Restructuring- Going Private, Management/Leveraged Buyouts (vii) Cross-Border Mergers.

14. Startup Finance
(i) Introduction including Pitch Presentation (ii) Sources of Funding (iii) Start-up India Initiative.

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The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 – CA Final Law Study Material

The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 – CA Final Law Study Material is designed strictly as per the latest syllabus and exam pattern.

The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 – CA Final Law Study Material

Question 1.
Mr. Ram, citizen of India, left India for employment in U.S.A. on 1st June, 2019. Mr. Ram purchased a flat at New Delhi for ₹ 15 lakhs in September, 2020. His brother, Mr. Gopal employed in New Delhi, also purchased a flat in the same building in September, 2020 for ₹ 15 lakhs. Mr. Gopal’s flat was financed by a loan from a Housing Finance Company and the loan was guaranteed by Mr. Ram.
Examine with reference to the provisions of the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 whether purchase of flat and guarantee by Mr. Ram are Capital Account transactions and whether these transactions are permissible. [RTP-Nov.181]
Answer:
Determination of Nature of Foreign Exchange Transactions:

As per Sec. 2(e) of FEMA Act, 1999 ‘capital account transactions’ means (a) a transaction which alters the assets or liabilities, including contingent liabilities, outside India of person’s resident in India (b) a transaction which alters assets or liabilities in India of persons resident outside India and includes transactions referred to in section 6(3).

As per Sec. 6(3), acquisition of immovable property in India, by a person resident outside India is a capital account transaction. Guarantee will be considered as a capital account transaction in the following cases:

  1. Guarantee in respect of any debt, obligation or other liability incurred by a person resident in India and owed to a person resident outside India.
  2. Guarantee in respect of any liability, debt or other obligation incurred by a person resident outside India.

Conclusion: Applying the provisions of Sections 2 (e) and 6(3), following conclusions may be drawn:

Purchase of Flat by Mr. Ram in India is a capital account transaction.

Guarantee given by Mr. Ram cannot be considered as a capital account transaction within the meaning of Section 2(e), particularly because it is a contingent liability. A transaction which alters the contingent liability will be considered as capital account transaction in the case of person resident in India, but it is not so in the case of person resident outside India.

Permissibility of Transactions:
All capital account transactions are prohibited unless specifically permitted. Permissible capital account transactions by persons resident outside India are given in Schedule II to the Foreign Exchange Management (Permissible Capital Account Transactions) Regulations, 2000. As per the said regulations both the purchase of Flat by Mr. Ram and guarantee by Mr. Ram are permissible.

Question 2.
Enumerate the given situations in the light of the term defined as Current Account Transaction under FEMA.
(a) An Indian resident imports machinery from a vendor in UK for installing in his factory.
(b) An Indian resident imports machinery from a vendor in UK for installing in his factory on a credit period of 3 months.
(c) An Indian resident transfers US$ 1,000 to his NRI brother in New York as “gift”. The funds are sent from resident’s Indian bank account to the NRI brother’s bank account in New York. [RTP-May 20]
Or
Under the auspicious of the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999, (the Act) examine whether the given situations fall under “Current Account Transactions” or not as defined in the Act?

(i) Mr. S, a resident in India, imports machinery from a vendor in UK for installing in his factory.
(ii) An Indian resident imports machinery from a vendor in US for installing in his factory on a credit period of 3 months.
(iii) An Indian resident transfers US$ 1,000 to his NRI brother in New York as “gift”. The funds are sent from resident’s Indian Bank account to the NRI brother’s Bank account in New York. [Nov. 20 – New Syllabus (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Determination of Nature of Foreign Exchange Transactions:

(a) Machinery in general is a “capital expenditure”. However, under the provisions of FEMA, 1999, it does not alter (create) an asset in India for the UK vendor. It does not create any liability to a UK vendor for the Indian importer. Once the payment is made, the Indian resident or the UK vendor neither owns nor owes anything in the other country. Hence, the said transaction, is a Current Account Transaction.

(b) As per provisions of Sec. 2 (j)(i) of FEMA, 1999 “short-term banking and credit facilities in the ordinary course of business” are considered as a Current Account Transaction. Hence import of machinery on credit terms is Current Account Transaction.

(c) Under the provisions of FEMA, 1999, once the gift is accepted by the NRI, no one owns or owes anything to anyone in India or USA. The transaction is over. Hence it is a Current Account Transaction.

The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 – CA Final Law Study Material

Question 3.
A Company incorporated in United Kingdom established a branch at Chennai. What is the residential status of the Chennai branch? The Chennai branch proposes the purchase of some immovable property at Chennai for the purpose of its business. Is it a ‘Capital Account Transaction’ within the meaning of Section 2 (e) of the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999? Are there any restrictions under the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 in respect of such acquisition?
Answer:
Determination of Resident status of a Indian branch of a foreign company:

As per Sec. 2(u), the term ‘person’ includes any agency, office or branch owned or controlled by such person. The term such person appears to refer to a person who is included in clause (i) to (vii) defined under the section.

As per Sec. 2(v) an office, branch or agency in India is considered to be “resident in India” even though these units are owned or controlled by a person resident outside India,
In the instant case, a company incorporated in United Kingdom established a branch at Chennai.

Conclusion: Company being incorporated in United Kingdom would be a person resident outside India. However, branch established in Chennai would be a ‘person resident in India’.

Capital account transaction.

As per Sec. 2(e) of FEMA Act, 1999 ‘capital account transactions’ means

(a) a transaction which alters the assets or liabilities, including contingent liabilities, outside India of person’s resident in India

(b) a transaction which alters assets or liabilities in India of persons resident outside India and includes transactions referred to in section 6(3).
The Chennai branch (resident in India) acquires immovable properly at Chennai.

Conclusion: This transaction is not a capital account transaction within the meaning of Sec. 2(e) of FEMA. Sec. 6(3) empowers RBI to restrict or regulate the acquisition of immovable property in India by a person resident outside India. Hence there is no restriction in acquisition of immovable property in India by Chennai branch.

Question 4.
Examine whether the following branches can be considered as a ‘Person resident in India’ under Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999:
(i) ABC Limited, a company incorporated in India established a branch at London on 1st Jan., 2021.
(ii) M/s XYZ, a foreign company, established a branch at New Delhi on 1st January, 2021. The branch at New Delhi controls a branch at Colombo.
Answer:
Determination of resident status of a person:
(i) foreign Branch of an Indian company

As per Sec. 2 (u) of FEMA, 1999, the term person includes a company. As per Sec. 2 (v), any person or body corporate registered or incorporated in India is a resident in India. Also, an office, branch or agency outside India owned or controlled by a person resident in India is a person resident in India.

In the instant case, ABC Limited, a company incorporated in India established a branch at London on 1st Jan., 2021.
Conclusion: In view of the provisions as stated above, it can be concluded that London branch established by ABC Ltd., a company incorporated in India, is a ‘person resident in India’.

(ii) Indian branch of a foreign company:

As per Sec. 2(v) of FEMA, 1999 an office, branch or agency in India owned or controlled by a person resident outside India is a ‘person resident in India’.

Only a body corporate registered or incorporated in India is a ‘person resident in India’. Hence, XYZ Ltd. is a ‘person resident outside India’, being a foreign company. However, branch of XYZ Ltd. in Delhi is a ‘resident in India’. Colombo Branch though not owned, but is controlled by XYZ unit in Delhi which is a person resident in India. Hence prima facie, it may be possible to hold a view that the Colombo Branch is a person resident in India.

The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 – CA Final Law Study Material

Question 5.
Toy Ltd. is a Japanese company having several business units all over the world. It has a robotic unit with its head quarter in Mumbai and has a branch in Singapore. Headquarter at Mumbai controls the branch of robotic unit. What would be the residential status of robotic unit in Mumbai and that of the Singapore branch? [MTP-Oct. 19, May 20]
Answer:
Determination of resident status of a person:

As per Sec. 2(u), the term ‘person’ includes any agency, office or branch owned or controlled by such person. The term such person appears to refer to a person who is included in clauses (i) to (vii) defined under the section.

As per Sec. 2 (v), an office, branch or agency in India is considered to be “resident in India” even though these units are owned or controlled by a person resident outside India.

In the instant case, Toy Ltd. is a Japanese company having several business units all over the world. It has a robotic unit with its head quarter in Mumbai and has a branch in Singapore. Headquarter at Mumbai controls the branch of robotic unit.

Conclusion: Toy Ltd. being a Japanese company would be a person resident outside India. Robotic unit in Mumbai would be a ‘person resident in India’. Singapore branch though not owned, but is controlled by Robotic unit in Mumbai, which is a person resident in India. Hence prima facie, it may be possible to hold a view that the Singapore Branch is a person resident in India.

Question 6.
‘Printex Computer’ is a Singapore based company having several business units all over the world. It has a unit for manufacturing computer printers with its Headquarters in Pune. It has a Branch in Dubai which is controlled by the Headquarters in Pune. What would be the residential status under the FEMA, 1999 of printer units in Pune and that of Dubai branch?
Or
Pamtop is a London based Company having several business units all over the world. It has manufacturing unit called Laptop with headquarters in Bengaluru. It has a branch in Seoul, South Korea which is controlled by the headquarters in Bengaluru. What would be the residential status under the FEMA, 1999 of Laptop in Bengaluru and that of Seoul branch?
Answer:
Determination of resident status of a person:

As per Sec. 2(u), the term ‘person’ includes any agency, office or branch owned or controlled by such person. The term such person appears to refer to a person who is included in clauses (i) to (vii) defined under the section.

As per Sec. 2(v), an office, branch or agency in India is considered to be “resident in India” even though these units are owned or controlled by a person resident outside India.

In the instant case, ‘Printex Computer’ is a Singapore based company having several business units all over the world. It has a unit for manufacturing computer printers with its Headquarters in Pune. It has a Branch in Dubai which is controlled by the Headquarters in Pune.

Conclusion: Printex Computer being a Singapore based company would be person resident outside India. Printex unit in Pune would be a ‘person resident in India’. However, Dubai Branch though not owned, but is controlled by Printex unit in Pune which is a person resident in India. Hence prima facie, it may be possible to hold a view that the Dubai Branch is a person resident in India.

Question 7.
How will you determine whether a particular business unit like a factory or office is a ‘person resident in India’ under the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999?
Answer:
Person resident in India
As per Sec. 2 (v) of FEMA, 1999, an office, branch or agency in India is considered to be “resident in India” even though these units are owned or controlled by a person resident outside India.

Also, an office, branch or agency outside India will be considered as resident in India provided these units are owned or controlled by a person resident in India.

The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 – CA Final Law Study Material

Question 8.
Mr. A had resided in India during the financial year 2019-2020 for less than 183 days. He had come to India on April 1,2020 for employment. What would be his residential status during the financial year 2020-2021?
Answer:
Determination of resident Status of a person:
As per Sec. 2(v) of FEMA, 1999, a person residing in India for more than 182 days during the course of the preceding financial year is considered as person resident in India. However, a person who has s gone out of India or who stays outside India, in either case

(a) for or on taking up employment outside India, or
(b) for carrying on outside India a business or vocation outside India, or
(c) for any other purpose, in such circumstances as would indicate his intention to stay outside India for an uncertain period;
is not considered as resident in India.
Residential status is not for a year. It is from a particular date that a person will be a resident or a non-resident.

It implies that if a person arrives in India during a year for the purpose of employment, business or vocation or for any other purpose, in such circumstances as would indicate his intention to stay in India for an uncertain period will be considered as resident in India from the date of arrival in India, irrespective of his stay in India during the preceding financial year.

In the present case, Mr. A had resided in India during the financial year 2019-2020 for less than 183 days. He had come to India on April 1, 2020 for employment.

Conclusion: Mr. A has not fulfilled the condition of staying in India for more than 182 days in preceding financial year, hence he cannot be considered as person resident in India during the financial year 2020-2021. But as he arrives in India on 01.04.2020 for the purpose of employment, he will be considered as resident in India w.e.f. April 1, 2020.

Question 9.
Mr. X had resided in India during the financial year 2018-2019 for less than 183 days. He had come to India on April 1,2019 for business. He intends to leave the business on April 30,2020 and leave India on June 30,2020. What would be his residential status during the financial year 2019-2020 and during 2020-2021 up to the date of his departure?
Answer:
Determination of resident Status of a person:
As per Sec. 2(y) of FEMA, 1999, a person residing in India for more than 182 days during the course of the preceding financial year is considered as person resident in India.

However, a person who has gone out of India or who stays outside India, in either case
(a) for or on taking up employment outside India, or
(b) for carrying on outside India a business or vocation outside India, or
(c) for any other purpose, in such circumstances as would indicate his intention to stay outside India for an uncertain period; is not considered as resident in India.

Further, a person who has come to or stays in India, in either case, otherwise than:
(a) for or on taking up employment in India, or
(b) for carrying on in India a business or vocation in India, or
(c) for any other purpose, in such circumstances as would indicate his intention to stay in India for an uncertain period;
is not considered as resident in India.
Residential status is not for a year. It is from a particular date that a person will be a resident or a non-resident.

It implies that if a person arrives in India during a year for the purpose of employment, business or vocation or for any other purpose, in such circumstances as would indicate his intention to stay in India for an uncertain period will be considered as resident in India from the date of arrival in India, irrespective of his stay in India during the preceding financial year.

In the present case, Mr. X had resided in India during the financial year 2018-2019 for less than 183 days. He had come to India on April 1, 2019 for business. He intends to leave the business on April 30, 2020 and leave India on June 30, 2020.

Conclusion: Mr. X has not fulfilled the condition of staying in India for more than 182 days in preceding financial year, hence he cannot be considered as person resident in India during the financial year 2019-2020. But as he arrives in India on 01.04.2019 for the purpose of business, he will be considered as resident in India w.e.f. April 1, 2019.

For financial year 2020-2021, Mr. X will be ‘resident in India’ as he resides in India in the preceding financial year (2019-2020) for a period exceeding 1(32 days. However,-he would cease to be person resident in India from the date of his departure, as he is having an intention to leave the business in India and leave India which indicates his intention to stay outside India for an uncertain period.

The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 – CA Final Law Study Material

Question 10.
Mr. Z had resided in India during the financial year 2018-2019. He left India on 1st August, 2018 for United States for pursuing higher studies for 3 years. What would be his residential status during financial year 2019-2020 and during 2020-2021?
Answer:
Determination of resident Status of a person:
As per Sec. 2(v) of FEMA, 1999, a person residing in India for more than 182 days during the course of the preceding financial year is considered as person resident in India. However, a person who has gone out of India or who stays outside India, in either case

(a) for or on taking up employment outside India, or
(b) for carrying on outside India a business or vocation outside India, or
(c) for any other purpose, in such circumstances as would indicate his intention to stay outside India for an uncertain period;
is not considered as resident in India.

In the present case, Mr. Z had resided in India during the financial year 2018-2019. He left India on 1st August, 2019 for United States for pursuing higher studies for 3 years. It means that, he has not gone out of, or stayed outside India for or on taking up employment, or for carrying a business or any other purpose, in not circumstances as would indicate his intention to stay outside India for an uncertain period.

Conclusion: For financial year 2019-20, Mr. Z would be ‘person resident in India’ as he resides in India during the preceding Financial year (2018-19) for a period more than 182 days. For the financial year 2020-2021, he would not be person resident in India’ as he does not reside in India in the preceding financial year (2019-2020) for period exceeding 182 days.

Note: RBI has however clarified in its Circular No. 45 dated 2nd Dec. 2003, that students will be considered as non-residents, this is because usually students start working outside India to take care of their stay and cost of studies.

Question 11.
Miss Alia is an airhostess with the British Airways. She flies for 12 days in a month and thereafter takes a break for 18 days. During the break, she is accommodated of ‘base’, which is normally the city where the airways arc headquartered. However, for security considerations, she was based on Mumbai. During the financial year, she was accommodated at Mumbai for more than 182 days. What would be her residential status under FEMA?
Answer:
Determination of resident Status of a person:
As per Sec 2(v) of FEMA, 1999, a person residing in India for more than 182 days during the course of the preceding financial year is considered as person resident in India. However, a person who has come to or stays in India, in either case, otherwise than:

(a) for or on taking up employment in India, or
(b) for carrying on in India a business or vocation in India, or
(c) for any other purpose, in such circumstances as would indicate his intention to stay in India for
an uncertain period; „
is not considered as resident in India.

In the present case, Miss Alia is an airhostess with the British Airways. She flies for 12 days in a month and thereafter takes a break for 18 days. During the break, she is accommodated of ‘base’, which is normally the city where the airways are headquartered. However, for security considerations, she was based on Mumbai. During the financial year, she was accommodated at Mumbai for more than 182 days. She is however employed in UK. She has not come to India for employment, business or circumstances which indicate her intention to stay for uncertain period.

Conclusion: Considering the provisions of Sec. 2 (v) (B) as stated above, Miss Alia cannot be considered to be an Indian resident, even if her stay exceeds 182 days in the preceding year. If however she has been employed in Mumbai branch of British Airways, then she will be considered as Indian resident.

The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 – CA Final Law Study Material

Question 12.
Mr. Ram had resided in India during the Financial Year 2019-2020 for less than 183 days. He again came to India on 1st May, 2020 for higher studies and business and stayed upto 15th July, 2020.
State under the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999.
(i) Weather Mr. Ram can be considered ‘person Resident in India’ during the Financial year 20202021 and
(ii) Is citizenship relevant for determining such a status?
Answer:
Determination of resident Status of a person:
As per Sec. 2(v) of FEMA, 1999, a person residing in India for more than 182 days during the course of the preceding financial year is considered as person resident in India.
However, a person who has come to or stays in India, in either case, otherwise than:

(a) for or on taking up employment in India, or
(b) for carrying on in India a business or vocation in India, or
(c) for any other purpose, in such circumstances as would indicate his intention to stay in India for an uncertain period;
is not considered as resident in India.

Residential status is not for a year. It is from a particular date that a person will be a resident or a non-resident.

It implies that if a person arrives in India during a year for the purpose of employment, business or vocation or for any other purpose, in such circumstances as would indicate his intention to stay in India for an uncertain period will be considered as resident in India from the date of arrival in India, irrespective of his stay in India during the preceding financial year.

In the present case, Mr. Ram had resided in India during the Financial Year 2019-2020 for less than 183 days. He again came to India on 1st May, 2020 for higher studies and business and stayed upto 15th July, 2021.

Conclusion:

(i) Mr. Ram has not fulfilled the condition of staying in India for more than 182 days in preceding financial year, hence he cannot be considered as person resident in India during the financial year 2020-2021. But as he arrives in India on 01.05.2020 for the purpose of business, he will be considered as resident in India w.e.f. May 1, 2020.
(ii) Citizenship is not relevant for determining the status.

Question 13.
Mr. Ruchir resided for a period of 170 days in India during the financial year 2019-20 and thereafter went abroad. He came back to India on 1st April, 2020 as an employee of a business organization. What would be his residential status during financial year 2020-21 under the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999?
Answer:
Determination of resident Status of a person:
As per Sec. 2(v) of FEMA, 1999, a person residing in India for more than 182 days duringthe course of the preceding financial year is considered as person resident in India.

However, a person who has come to or stays in India, in either case, otherwise than:
(a) for or on taking up employment in India, or
(b) for carrying on in India a business or vocation in India, or
(c) for any other purpose, in such circumstances as would indicate his intention to stay in India for an uncertain period;
is not considered as resident in India.
Residential status is not for a year. It is from a particular date that a person will be a resident or a non-resident.

It implies that if a person arrives in India during a year for the purpose of employment, business or vocation or for any other purpose, in such circumstances as would indicate his intention to stay in India for an uncertain period will be considered as resident in India from the date of arrival in India, irrespective of his stay in India during the preceding financial year.

In the instant case, Mr. Ruchir resided in India for less than 183 days in the financial year 2019-20.
Conclusion: Mr. Ruchir has not fulfilled the condition of staying in India for more than 182 days in preceding financial year, hence he cannot be considered as person resident in India during the financial year 2020-2021. But as he arrives in India on 01.04.2020 for the purpose of employment, he will be considered as resident in India w.e.f, April 1, 2020.

Question 14.
During the financial year 2019-20 Mr. Bhattacharyya resided in India for a period of 180 days and thereafter went abroad. On 1st April, 2020 Mr. Bhattacharyya came back to India as an employee of a business organization. Decide the residential status of Mr. Bhattacharyya during the financial year 2019-20 under the provisions of the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999. [May 11 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Determination of resident Status of a person:
As per Sec. 2(v) of FEMA, 1999, a person residing in India for more than 182 days during the course of the preceding financial year is considered as person resident in India.

However, a person who has come to or stays in India, in either case, otherwise than:
(a) for or on taking up employment in India, or
(b) for carrying on in India a business or vocation in India, or
(c) for any other purpose, in such circumstances as would indicate his intention to stay in India for an uncertain period;
is not considered as resident in India.
Residential status is not for a year. It is from a particular date that a person will be a resident or a non-resident.

It implies that if a person arrives in India during a year for the purpose of employment, business or vocation or for any other purpose, in such circumstances as would indicate his intention to stay in India for an uncertain period will be considered as resident in India from the date of arrival in India, irrespective of his stay in India during the preceding financial year.

In the given case, Mr. Bhattacharyya has not fulfilled the condition of staying in India for more than 182 days in preceding financial year, hence he cannot be considered as person resident in India during the financial year 2020-2021. But as he arrives in India on 01.04.2020 for the purpose of employment, he will be considered as resident in India w.e.f. April 1, 2020.

Conclusion: Residential status for 2019-2020 cannot be ascertained as his stay in India during the previous year 2018-2019 is not known.

The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 – CA Final Law Study Material

Question 15.
Mr. Kishore resided in India during the Financial Year 2018-2019 for less than 182 days. He came to India on 1st April, 2019 for business. He closed down his business on 30th April, 2020 and left India on 30th June, 2020 for the purpose of employment outside India. Decide the residential status of Mr. Kishore during the Financial Years 2019-2020 and 2020-2021 under the provisions of the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999. [May 13 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Determination of resident Status of a person:
As per Sec. 2(y) of FEMA, 1999, a person residing in India for more than 182 days during the course of the preceding financial year is considered as person resident in India.

However, a person who has gone out of India or who stays outside India, in either case
(a) for or on taking up employment outside India, or
(b) for carrying on outside India a business or vocation outside India, or
(c) for any other purpose, in such circumstances as would indicate his intention to stay outside India for an uncertain period is not considered as resident in India.

Further, a person who has come to or stays in India, in either case, otherwise than:
(a) for or on taking up employment in India, or
(b) for carrying on in India a business or vocation in India, or
(c) for any other purpose, in such circumstances as would indicate his intention to stay in India for an uncertain period;
is not considered as resident in India.

Residential status is not for a year. It is from a particular date that a person will be a resident or a non-resident.

It implies that if a person arrives in India during a year for the purpose of employment, business or vocation or for any other purpose, in such circumstances as would indicate his intention to stay in India for an uncertain period will be considered as resident in India from the date of arrival in India, irrespective of his stay in India during the preceding financial year.

In the present case, Mr. X had resided in India during the financial year 2018-2019 for less than 183 days. He had come to India on April 1, 2019 for business. He intends to leave the business on April 30, 2020 and leave India on June 30, 2020.

Conclusion: Mr. X has not fulfilled the condition of staying in India for more than 182 days in preceding financial year, hence he cannot be considered as person resident in India during the financial year 2019-2020. But as he arrives in India on 01.04.2019 for the purpose of business, he will be considered as resident in India w.e.f. April 1, 2019.

For financial year 2020-2021, Mr. X will be ‘resident in India’ as he resides in India in the preceding financial year (2019-2020) for a period exceeding 1(32 days. However,-he would cease to be person resident in India from the date of his departure, as he is having an intention to leave the business in India and leave India which indicates his intention to stay outside India for an uncertain period.

Conclusion:
Mr. Kishore has not fulfilled the condition of staying in India for more than 182 days in preceding financial year, hence he cannot be considered as person resident in India during the financial year 2019-2020. But as he arrives in India on 01.04.2019 for the purpose of business, he will be considered as resident in India w.e.f. April 1, 2019.

For financial year 2020-2021, Mr. X will be ‘resident in India’ as he resides in India in the preceding financial year (2019-2020) for a period exceeding 182 days. However, he would cease to be person resident in India from the date of his departure, as he is having an intention to leave the business in India and leave India which indicates his intention to stay outside India for an uncertain period.

Question 16.
Explain the meaning of the term “Current Account Transaction” and the right of a citizen to obtain Foreign Exchange under the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999. [MTP-Oct.18]
Answer:
Current Account Transaction:
Sec. 2(j) of FEMA, 1999 defines the term “current account transaction” as a transaction other than a capital account transaction and includes:

  1. payments due in connection with foreign trade, other current business, services, and short – term banking and credit facilities in the ordinary course of business.
  2. payments due as interest on loans and as net income from investments.
  3. remittances for living expenses of parents, spouse and children residing abroad and
  4. expenses in connection with foreign travel education and medical care of parents, spouse and children.

Rights of a Citizen to obtain foreign exchange:

As per Sec. 5 of FEMA, 1999 any person may sell or draw foreign exchange to or from an authorised person if such sale or drawal is a current account transaction. Provided that the C.G. may in public interest and in consultation with the RBI, impose such reasonable restrictions for current account transactions as may be prescribed.

As per Sec. 6 of FEMA, 1999, any person may sell or draw foreign exchange to or from an authorised person for a capital account transaction subject to the conditions.

Question 17.
Mr. Ramesh of Nagpur wants to travel to Nepal and for this purpose proposes to draw Foreign Exchange. Specify
(i) Can Mr. Ramesh draw any Foreign Exchange for his journey?
(ii) What are the purposes for which Foreign Exchange drawal is not allowed for Current Account Transaction?
Answer:
Drawal of Foreign Exchange:

(i) Drawal for Visit to Nepal: As per Rules issued by C.G., drawal of foreign exchange is not allowed for travel to Nepal or Bhutan.
(ii) Purposes for which Foreign Exchange drawal is not allowed for Current Account Transaction:

  1. Remittance out of lottery winnings.
  2. Remittance of income from racing/riding, etc., or any other hobby.
  3. Remittance for purchase of lottery tickets, banned/prescribed magazines, football pools, sweepstakes etc.
  4. Payment of commission on exports made towards equity investment in Joint Ventures/ Wholly Owned Subsidiaries abroad of Indian companies.
  5. Remittance of dividend by any company to which the requirement of dividend balancing is applicable.
  6. Payment of commission on exports under Rupee State Credit Route, except commission up to 10% of invoice value of exports of tea and tobacco.
  7. Payment related to “Call Back Services” of telephones.
  8. Remittance of interest income on funds held in Non-resident Special Rupee Scheme a/c.

Question 18.
Mr. Sane, an Indian National desires to obtain Foreign Exchange for the following purposes:
(i) Remittance of US Dollar 50,000 out of winnings on a lottery ticket.
(ii) US Dollar 1,00,000 for sending a cultural troupe on a tour of U.S.A.
Advise him whether he can get Foreign Exchange and if so, under what conditions?
Or
Mr. P has won a big lottery and wants to remit US Dollar 20,000 out of his winnings to his son who is in USA. Advise whether such remittance is possible under the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999. [Nov. 14 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Current Account Transactions:
Section 5 of Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 read with Foreign Exchange Management [Current Account Transactions) Rules, 2000 set out the provisions as to permissible, prohibited and restricted transaction on current account. Accordingly,

(i) Remittance out of lottery winnings, is prohibited and the same is included in First Schedule to the Foreign Exchange Management (Current Account Transactions) Rules, 2000. Hence, Mr. Sane cannot withdraw Foreign Exchange for this purpose.

(ii) Foreign Exchange for meeting expenses of cultural tour can be withdrawn by any person after obtaining permission from Government of India, Ministry of HRD, (Department of Education and Culture) as prescribed in Second Schedule to the Foreign Exchange Management (Current Account Transactions) Rules, 2000.

In all the cases, where remittance of Foreign Exchange is allowed, either by general or specific permission, the remitter has to obtain the Foreign Exchange from an Authorised Person.

The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 – CA Final Law Study Material

Question 19.
State which kind of approval is required for the following transactions under the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999:

(i) X, a Film Star, wants to perform along with associates in New York on the occasion of Diwali for Indians residing at New York. Foreign Exchange drawal to the extent of US dollars 20,000 is required for this purpose.
(ii) R wants to get his heart surgery done at United Kingdom. Up to what limit Foreign Exchange can be drawn by him and what are the approvals required?
Or
State the kind of approval required for the following transaction under the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999: L, a famous playback singer of India wants to perform a musical night in Paris for Indians residing there. Foreign exchange to the extent of USD 20,000 is required for this purpose.
Or
Mr. Z is unwell and would like to have a kidney transplant done in USA. He would like to know the formalities required and the amount that can be drawn as foreign exchange for the medical treatment abroad. [Nov. 14 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Approval required for Current Account Transactions:
(i) Cultural Tours: Foreign Exchange drawls for cultural tours require approval of the Ministry of HRD, (Department of Education and Culture) as prescribed in Second Schedule to the Foreign Exchange Management (Current Account Transactions) Rules, 2000 irrespective of the amount of foreign exchange required.

(ii) Medical Treatments: Individuals can avail of foreign exchange facility within the limit of USD 2,50,000 only. Any additional remittance in excess of the said limit for the expenses in connection with medical treatment abroad, shall require prior approval of the RBI.

Question 20.
Referring to the provisions of the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999, state the kind of approval required for the following transactions:
(i) M requires U.S. $ 5,000 for remittance towards hire charges of transponders.
(ii) P requires U.S. $ 2,000 for payment related to call back services of telephones.
Answer:
Approval required for Current Account Transactions:

Section 5 of Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 read with Foreign Exchange Management (Current Account Transactions] Rules, 2000 set out the provisions as to permissible, prohibited and restricted transaction on current account. Accordingly,

(i) Remittance towards hire charges of transponders requires approval of the Central Government. In case of remittance of hiring charges of transponders by TV Channels requires approval from Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, whereas in case of remittance of hiring charges of transponders by Internet Service Providers, approval from Ministry of Communication and IT will be required.

(ii) Payment related to Call Back Services of Telephones: Withdrawal of foreign exchange for payment related to call back services of telephone is a prohibited transaction.

Question 21.
Mr. Suresh resided in India during the Financial Year 2018-19. He left India on 15th July, 2019 for Switzerland for pursuing higher studies in Biotechnology for 2 years. What would be his residential status under the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 during the Financial Years 2019-20 and 2020-217

Mr. Suresh requires every year USD 25,000 towards tuition fees and USD 30,000 for incidental and stay expenses for studying abroad. Is it possible for Mr. Suresh to get the required Foreign Exchange and, if so, under what conditions? [MTP-April 19]
Answer:
Determination of Resident Status of a person:

As per Sec. 2(v) of FEMA, 1999, a person residing in India for more than 182 days during the course of the preceding financial year is considered as person resident in India. However, a person who has gone out of India or who stays outside India, in either case
(a) for or on taking up employment outside India, or
(b) for carrying on outside India a business or vocation outside India, or
(c) for any other purpose, in such circumstances as would indicate his intention to stay outside India for an uncertain period;
is not considered as resident in India.

In this case, Mr. Suresh who resided in India during the financial year 2018-19 left on 15.7.2019 for Switzerland for pursuing higher studies in Biotechnology for 2 years, he will be resident for 2019-20, as he has gone to stay outside India for a ‘certain period’. However, if he goes abroad with intention to stay outside India for an ‘uncertain period’ he will not be resident with effect from 15-7-2019.
For financial year 2020-21, Mr. Suresh will not be resident as he did not stay in India during the relevant previous financial year i.e. 2019-20 for a period exceeding 182 days.

Drawal of Foreign Exchange for studies abroad:
Individuals can avail of foreign exchange facility for the studies abroad within the limit of USD 2,50,000 only. Any additional remittance in excess of the said limit shall require prior approval of the RBI. It is also provided that individual may be allowed remittances (without seeking prior approval of the RBI) exceeding USD 2,50,000 based on the estimate received from the institution abroad.

In this case the foreign exchange required is only USD 55,000 per academic year and hence approval of RBI is not required.

Question 22.
Mr. G., an Indian national desire to obtain Foreign Exchange on current account transactions for the following purposes:
(i) Payment of commission on exports made towards equity investment In wholly owned subsidiary abroad of an Indian Company.
(ii) Remittance of hiring charges of transponder by TV channels
Advise G whether he can obtain Foreign Exchange and, if so, under what conditions?
Answer:
Current Account Transactions:
Section 5 of Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 read with Foreign Exchange Management
(Current account Transactions) Rules, 2000 set out the provisions as to permissible, prohibited
and restricted transaction on current account. Accordingly,

(i) Payment of Commission on exports made towards equity investment in wholly owned subsidiary abroad of an Indian company is prohibited.

(ii) Drawal of foreign exchange for remittance of hiring charges of transponder by TV Channels, can be made with the prior approval of the Central Government (Ministry of Information and Broadcasting). However, approval will not be required if the payment is made out of funds held in Resident Foreign Currency (RFC) ccount or Exchange Earner’s Foreign Currency (EEFC) Account of the remitter.

The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 – CA Final Law Study Material

Question 23.
Examine under the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 whether Payment of remuneration to foreign technicians0 is a permissible transaction under the provisions of the said Act
Answer:
Payment of remuneration to foreign technicians:
Salary payable to a foreign technician is a current account transaction. As per Sec. 5 of the FEMA, 1999 any person can sell or draw foreign exchange to or from authorized person if such sale or
drawal is a current account transaction.

Reasonable restrictions on current account transactions can be imposed by the C.C. No restriction is being imposed by C.C. on hiring of foreign nations as technicians.

Conclusion: Salary to Foreign technician can be remitted abroad after tax deductions, contribution to provident fund and other deductions at source.

Question 24.
Mr F, an Indian National desire to obtain foreign exchange for the following purposes:
(i) Payment of US $10,000 as commission on exports under Rupee State Credit Route.
(ii) US $30,000 for a business trip to U.K.
(iii) Remittance of US $ 2,00,000 for payment as prize money to the winning team in a Hockey Tournament to be held in Australia.
Advise him, If he can get the Foreign Exchange and under what condition.
Answer:
Drawal of foreign exchange for current account transactions:
Sec. 5 of Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 read with Foreign Exchange Management (Current AccountTransactions) Rules. 2000 set out the provisions as to permissible, prohibited and restricted transaction on current account. Accordingly,

(i) Payment of Commission on exports: Payment of commission on exports under Rupee State Credit Route, is prohibited.

(ii) Business Trips: Foreign Exchange for business trip upto US$ 2,50,000 can be obtained by any individual. If a person wants to exceed this limit, then prior permission of RBI is required. As the amount required is less than US $ 2,50,000, Mr. F can obtain the foreign exchange without obtaining the permission of RBI.

(iii) Remittance for payment as prize money: Remittance of prize money exceeding US$ 1,00,000 for sports activity abroad other than International, National or State level body will require the prior permission of the C.G. (Ministry of HRD – Department of Youth Affairs and Sports). As the amount involved is more than US$ 1,00,000 and Mr. F is not an International, National or State level body, he has to obtain the permission of the C.G. before remitting the prize money of US$ 2,00,000.

In all the cases, where remittance of Foreign Exchange is allowed, either by general or specific permission, the remitter has to obtain the Foreign Exchange from an Authorised Person.

Question 25.
M/s A Ltd., an Indian company desire to obtain Foreign Exchange for the following purposes:
(а) Remittance of US Dollar 10,000 for payment for goods purchased from a party situated in Nepal. ”
(b) US Dollar 10,000 for remitting as commission to its agent in U.S.A. for sale of commercial plot situated near Bangalore, consideration in respect of which was received by A Ltd. by way of foreign currency inward remittance amounting to US Dollar 1,00,000.
Advise whether company can get the Foreign Exchange and under what conditions.
Answer:
Drawal of foreign exchange for current account transactions:
Sec. 5 of Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 read with Foreign Exchange Management (Current Account Transactions) Rules, 2 000 set out the provisions as to permissible, prohibited and restricted transaction on current account. Accordingly,

(a) Remittance to Nepal is a prohibited transaction. Hence A Ltd. cannot withdraw Foreign Exchange for this purpose.
(b) Commission to agent abroad for sale of commercial plots in India in excess of USD 25,000 or 5% of inward remittance whichever is more, by persons other than individual requires prior approval of RBI.

In this case, the amount of inward remittance is USD 1,00,000. Hence the permitted amount of commission is higher of USD 25,000 or 5% of USD 1,00,000, i.e. USD 25,000. Foreign exchange to be remitted is USD 10,000 which is lower than USD 25,000 hence, payment is permitted and no approval is required.

Question 26.
Examine with reference to the Provisions of the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 and the rules made thereunder whether foreign exchange can be drawn for the following purposes:
(i) Mr. Gopai, a cine artist in India proposes to organize a cultural programme at Dubai and requires to draw foreign exchange US $ 1,00,000 for this purpose.
(ii) Mr. Shah proposes to visit United States on a business tour and for this purpose he wants to draw foreign exchange US$ 40,000 for meeting expenses. [Nov. 13 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Drawal of foreign exchange for current account transactions:
Sec. 5 of Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 read with Foreign Exchange Management (Current Account Transactions) Rules, 2000 set out the provisions as to permissible, prohibited and restricted transaction on current account. Accordingly,

(i) Cultural Tours: Foreign Exchange drawls for cultural tours require approval of the Ministry of HRD, (Department of Education and Culture) as prescribed in Second Schedule to the Foreign Exchange Management (Current Account Transactions) Rules, 2000 irrespective of the amount of foreign exchange required.

(ii) Business Trips: Foreign Exchange for business trip upto US$ 2,50,000 can be obtained by any individual. If a person wants to exceed this limit, then prior permission of RBI is required. As the amount required is less than US $ 2,50,000, Mr. Shah can obtain the foreign exchange without obtaining the permission of RBI.

Question 27.
Mr. Rohan, an Indian Resident individual desires to obtain Foreign Exchange for the following purposes:
A. US$ 1,20,000 for studies abroad on the basis of estimates given by the foreign university.
B. Gift Remittance amounting US$ 10,000.
Advise him whether he can get Foreign Exchange and if so, under what condition(s)? [May 15 (4 Marks), MTP-Oct.18]
Answer:
Remittances on current account transactions:

(A) Remittance of Foreign Exchange for studies abroad: Individuals can avail of foreign exchange facility for the studies abroad within the limit of USD 2,50,000 only. Any additional remittance in excess of the said limit shall require prior approval of the RBI. It is also provided that individual may be allowed remittances (without seeking prior approval of the RBI) exceedingUS$ 2,50,000 based on the estimate received from the institution abroad. In this case since US $ 1,20,000 is the drawal of foreign exchange, so permission of the RBI is not required.

(B) Gift remittance exceeding US$ 10,000: Gift remittance exceeding US$ 2,50,000 can be made after obtaining prior approval of the RBI. In the present case, since the amount to be gifted by an individual, Mr. Rohan is USD 10,000, so there is no need for any permission from the RBI.

Question 28.
Lifesys Limited, a billion dollar, Indian company wishes to create a chair in a reputed university in the U.S. This chair is for the department of computer science. The company wishes to obtain your advise in regard to the following with reference to the FEMA, 1999.
(i) Is such “chair” creation permissible?
(ii) What is the maximum amount that can be denoted for such chair?
(iii) Any formalities to be complied with? [Nov. 16 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Provisions as to Transactions relating to donation for creation of chair:

As per Schedule III of the Foreign Exchange Management (Current Account Transactions) Rules, 2000, read with Sec. 5 of the FEMA, 1999 donations exceeding 1% of their foreign exchange earnings during the previous 3 financial years or USD 50,00,000, whichever is less, can be remitted by persons other than individuals for creation of Chairs in reputed educational institutes with the prior approval of the RBI.

Conclusions: Considering the above-mentioned provisions, following conclusions may be drawn:
(i) “Chair” creation for the department of computer science in reputed university in the U.S. is permissible.
(ii) Maximum amount that can be donated for such chair will be 1% of their foreign exchange earnings during the previous 3 financial years or USD 50,00,000, whichever is less without prior approval of the RBI.
(iii) In case where donations exceeds 1% of their foreign exchange earnings during the previous 3 financial years or USD 50,00,000, whichever is less, it shall require prior approval of Reserve Bank of India.

The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 – CA Final Law Study Material

Question 29.
Mr. T. Raghava has secured admission in a reputed and recognized university in Germany, for the study of higher and technical education, outside India. After arrival in Germany, he has gone ill and wants medical treatment facility in a reputed German hospital.

He desires to apply to the Government of India for availing the additional remittance beyond the limit approved for foreign currency exchange facility. He has already enjoyed the permitted facility of foreign exchange for studies abroad, for the said financial year. Decide the following as to the facts given in the question . as per the provisions of the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999:

(i) As an individual, to what extent Mr. T. Raghava may avail foreign exchange facilities for higher and technical study in Germany.
(ii) Can Mr. T. Raghava avail the facility of additional remittance in foreign exchange, beyond the limit, for the medical treatment. [Nov. 17 (4 Marks))
Answer:
Remittances on current account transactions:

(i) Remittance of Foreign Exchange for studies abroad: Individuals can avail of foreign exchange
facility for the studies abroad within the limit of USD 2,50,000 only. Any additional remittance in excess of the said limit shall require prior approval of the RBI. It is also provided that individual may be allowed remittances (without seeking prior approval of the RBI) exceeding US $ 2,50,000 based on the estimate received from the institution abroad.

(ii) Remittance for Medical Treatment: Remittance of foreign exchange for medical treatment abroad requires prior permission or approval of RBI where the individual requires withdrawal of foreign exchange exceeding USD 2,50,000. It is also provided that for the purpose of expenses in connection with medical treatment, individual may avail of exchange facility for an amount in excess of the limit prescribed under the Liberalized Remittance Scheme, if so required by a medical institute offering treatment.

Question 30.
Mr. Manthan, is deputed to India by his company to develop a software programme for a period of 3 years from 1st January, 2018. He is paid salary to his Indian bank account. On 1st May, 2020 he wants to remit his entire salaries ended till 30th April, 2020 to his home country USA. State in the light of relevant provision, the way the remittance of the salary may be done as per the Foreign Exchange of Management Act, 1999. [MTP-Aug.18]
Answer:
Remittance of Salary outside India by a person who is resident but not permanently resident in India:
As per Schedule III of the Foreign Exchange Management (Current Account Transactions) Rules, 2000, a person who is resident but not permanently resident in India, who is on deputation to the office or branch of a foreign company or subsidiary or joint venture in India of such foreign company, may make remittance up to his net salary, after deduction of taxes, contribution to provident fund and other deductions.

For this purpose, a person resident in India on account of his employment or deputation of a specified duration (irrespective of length thereof) or for a specific job or assignments, the duration of which does not exceed 3 years, is a resident but not permanently resident.
Conclusion: Mr. Manthan can remit his net salary, after deduction of taxes, contribution to provident fund and other deductions.

Question 31.
ABC Limited hired the services of Mr. Taylor, a technician from Germany for the installation of a machinery. The comp SD 40,000 for the services rendered by Mr. Taylor. Examine of the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999, whether payment of remuneration to foreign technician Mr. Taylor is a permissible transaction under the provisions of the said Act. [Nov. 19 – Old Syllabus (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Payment of remuneration to foreign technicians:

Salary payable to a foreign technician is a current account transaction. As per Sec. 5 of the FEMA, 1999 any person can sell or draw foreign exchange to or from authorized person if such sale or drawal is a current account transaction.

Reasonable restrictions on current account transactions can be imposed by the C.G. No restriction is being imposed by C.G. on hiring of foreign nations as technicians.
Conclusion: Payment of remuneration to Foreign technician is a permissible transaction.

The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 – CA Final Law Study Material

Question 32.
Milap Limited, a company incorporated in India, has obtained consultancy services from an entity based in France for settingup the software programme in their company. The consideration for such services is required to be paid in foreign currency. The compliance officer of Milap Limited requires your advice regarding threshold limit of remittance that can be made without prior approval of RBI. You as a qualified Chartered Accountant are required to advise the compliance officer considering the provisions of Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 and regulations thereunder. [MTP-Oct. 20]
Answer:
Remittance on Current Account Transactions:

As per Rule 5 of the Foreign Exchange Management (Current Account Transactions) Rules, 2000 read with Schedule III thereunder, in case of persons other than individuals, prior approval of RBI will be required for drawl of foreign exchange for remittances exceeding USD 10,00,000 per project for consultancy services in respect of projects other than infrastructure projects procured from outside India.

In the given case, Milap Limited obtaining such service from outside India. The consideration for such services is required to be paid in foreign currency.
Conclusion: If the remittance exceeds USD 10,00,000, Milap Limited will be required to seek prior approval of RBI for drawl of such foreign exchange.

Question 33.
Explain the meaning of “Capital Account Transactions” under the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999. Examine whether an Investment by person resident in India in Foreign Securities is permissible or not under the above Act as Capital Account transactions. [MTP-March 18]
Answer:
Capital Account Transactions:

As per Sec. 2(e) of FEMA Act, 1999 ‘capital account transactions’ means
(a) a transaction which alters the assets or liabilities, including contingent liabilities, outside India of person’s resident in India
(b) a transaction which alters assets or liabilities in India of persons resident outside India and includes transactions referred to in section 6(3).

The Reserve Bank of India has formed the Foreign Exchange Management (Permissible Capital Account Transactions) Regulations, 2000. As per these regulations, capital account transactions may be classified under the following heads.

  1. Permissible capital account transaction of persons resident in India (Schedule I)
  2. Permissible Capital transactions of persons resident outside India (Schedule II).
  3. Prohibited capital account transactions.

As per Schedule I of Foreign Exchange Management (Permissible Capital Account Transactions) Regulations, 2000, a person resident in India is permitted to make investment in Foreign Securities.

Question 34.
Explain the meaning of “Capital Account Transactions” under the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999. State its categories and also examine whether the following transactions are permissible or not under the above Act as Capital Account transactions:
(i) investment by person resident in India in Foreign Securities.
(ii) Foreign currency loans raised in India and abroad by a person resident in India.
(iii) Export, import and holding of currency/currency notes.
(iv) Investment in a Nidhi Company.
(v) Trading in transferable development rights.
Answer:
Capital Account Transactions:

As per Sec. 2(e) of FEMA Act, 1999 ‘capital account transactions means
(a) a transaction which alters the assets or liabilities, including contingent liabilities, outside India of person’s resident in India
(b) a transaction which alters assets or liabilities in India of persons resident outside India and includes transactions referred to in section 6(3).

The Reserve Bank of India has formed the Foreign Exchange Management (Permissible Capital Account Transactions) Regulations, 2000. As per these regulations, capital account transactions fnay be classified under the following heads.

  1. Permissible capital account transaction of persons resident in India (Schedule I)
  2. Permissible Capital transactions of persons resident outside India (Schedule II).
  3. Prohibited capital account transactions.

In accordance with the provisions mentioned above, following transactions are permitted transactions:

  1. Investment by person resident in India in Foreign Securities.
  2. Foreign currency loans raised in India arid abroad by a person resident in India.
  3. Export, import and holding of currency/currency notes.

Prohibited transactions are:

  1. Investment in a Nidhi Company.
  2. Trading in transferable development rights.

Question 35.
Examine with reference to the provisions of the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 whether there are any restrictions in respect of the following:

(i) Drawal of Foreign Exchange for payments due on account of Amortization of loans in the ordinary course of business.
(ii) A person, who is resident of U.S.A. for several years, is planning to return to India permanently. Can he continue to hold the investment made by him in the securities issued by the companies in U.S.A.?
(iii) A person resident outside India proposes to invest in the shares of an Indian company engaged in plantation activities.
Answer:
Capital Account Transactions:

(i) Amortization of Loan: As per provisions of Sec. 6(2), the Reserve bank or the C.G. shall not impose any restriction on the drawal of foreign exchange for payment due on account of amortization of loans in the ordinary course of business. Hence this transaction is permissible without any restrictions.

(ii) Person resident in USA returning permanently to India: When the person returns to India permanently, he becomes a resident in India. Sec. 6(4) provides that a person resident in India may hold, own, transfer or invest in foreign currency, foreign security, etc. if such currency, security or property was acquired, held or owned by such person when he was resident outside India or inherited from a person who was resident outside India. Hence, the person who returned to India permanently can continue to hold the foreign security acquired by him whenhewasresidentinU.SA.

(iii) Investment in shares of Indian company by non-resident: Reserve Bank issued Foreign Exchange Management (Permissible Capital Account Transactions) Regulations, 2000. In accordance with these regulations a person resident outside India is prohibited from making investment in India, in any form, in any Company or partnership firm or proprietary concern or any entity, whether incorporated or not, which is engaged or proposes to engage in agricultural or plantation activities. Hence, it is not possible for a person resident outside India to invest in the shares of a plantation company as such investment is prohibited.

Question 36.
Referring to the provisions of the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999, examine whether V, an exporter is bound to make declaration on gift exported from India to United Kingdom a jewellery valued at ₹ 20,000 to his friend in Australia.
Answer:
Declaration of Gift exported from India:

Sec. 7 of FEMA, 1999, imposes obligation on an exporter to make appropriate declaration of the value of the goods being exported and he is also required to repatriate the foreign exchange due to India in respect of such exports to India in the manner within the time as may be prescribed.

However, certain exemption has been provided under the Regulation 4 of the Foreign Exchange Management (Export of Goods & Services) Regulations, 2 015. According to the regulation, export of goods may be made without furnishing the declaration to RBI if export of goods by way of gift shall be accompanied by a declaration by the exporter that they are not more than ₹ 5 lakh in value.

Conclusion: Since the value of gift of jewellery to V’s friend in Australia is less than ₹ 5 lac in value, the gift does not need any declaration to be furnished by exporter to the RBI. However, Goods exported shall be accompanied by a declaration by the exporter that they are not more than ₹ 5 lakh in value.

Question 37.
Indian Software Ltd. seeks to export software to its client in Indonesia. In this regard
(a) Explain the procedure to be adopted for export of software under the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 and also state the period within which export value is to he realised.
(b) Explain the position in case of delay in receipt of payment from its client. [May 16 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
(a) Procedure for the export of the software under the FEMA, 1999:
Procedure for the export of the goods and services are contained in the Foreign Exchange Management
(Export of Goods and Services) Regulations, 2015. Steps involved as per Regulation 3 will be:

1. Furnishing of declaration- In case of exports taking place through Customs manual ports, every exporter of goods or software in physical form or through any other form, either directly or indirectly, to any place outside India, other than Nepal and Bhutan, shall furnish to the specified authority, a declaration in one of the forms set out in the Schedule and supported by such evidence as may be specified, containing true and correct material particulars including the amount representing the full export value of the goods or software; or

2. Execution of declaration: Declarations shall be executed in sets of such number as specified.

3. Export of services without furnishing any declaration: In respect of export of services to which none of the Forms specified in these Regulations apply, the exporter may export such services without furnishing any declaration, but shall be liable to realise the amount of foreign exchange which becomes due or accrues on account of such export, and to repatriate the same to India in accordance with the provisions of the Act, and these Regulations, as also other rules and regulations made under the Act.

4. Realization of export proceeds: Realization of export proceeds in respect of export of goods / software from third party should be duly declared by the exporter in the appropriate declaration form.

Period within which export value of goods/software to be realised (Regulation 9):

(1) The amount representing the full export value of goods/software/services exported shall be realised and repatriated to India within 9 months or within such period as may be specified by RBI in consultation with Government, from time to time from the date of export, provided

(a) that where the goods are exported to a warehouse established outside India with the permission of the Reserve Bank, the amount representing the full export value of goods exported shall be paid to the authorised dealer as soon as it is realised and in any case within fifteen months or within such period as may be specified by RBI in consultation with Government, from time to time from the date of shipment of goods;

(b) further that the Reserve Bank, or subject to the directions issued by that Bank in this behalf, the authorised dealer may, for a sufficient and reasonable cause shown, extend the said period.

(2) Where the export of goods/softwafb/services has been made by Units in Special Economic Zones (SEZ)/Status Holder exporter/Export Oriented Units (EOUs) and units in Electronics Hardware Technology Parks (EHTPs), Software Technology Parks (STPs) and Bio-Technology Parks (BTPs) as defined in the Foreign Trade Policy in force, then notwithstanding anything contained in sub-regulation (1), the amount representing the full export value of goods or software shall be realised and repatriated to India within nine months from the date of export.

However, the RBI, or subject to the directions issued by the Bank in this behalf, the authorised dealer may, for a sufficient and reasonable cause shown, extend the said period.

(b) Delay in Receipt of Payment (Regulation 14):
Where in relation to goods or software export of which is required to be declared on the specified form and export of services, in respect of which no declaration forms has been made applicable, the specified period has expired and the payment therefor has not been made as aforesaid, the Reserve Bank may give to any person who has sold the goods or software or who is entitled to sell the goods or software or procure the sale thereof, such directions as appear to it to be expedient, for the purpose of securing,

(a) the payment therefor if the goods or software has been sold and
(b) the sale of goods and payment thereof, if goods or software has not been sold or reimport thereof into India as the circumstances permit, within such period as the Reserve Bank may specify in this behalf.

The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 – CA Final Law Study Material

Question 38.
Ms. Ashima daughter of Mr. Mittal (an exporter), is residing in Australia since long. She wants to buy a flat in Australia. Since she is unmarried, she wants to make her father Mr. Mittal a joint holder in that flat, for which entire proceeds are to be paid by her.
(i) What are the provisions of FEMA governing such type of transaction?
(ii) Can Mr. Mittal join her daughter in acquiring such a flat in Australia?
Mr. Mittal, wants to receive advance payments against his exports from a buyer outside India. What are the relevant provisions? [May 17 (4 Marks), RTP-May 18]
Answer:
(i) Provisions regarding acquisition and transfer of immovable property outside India:

(1) A person resident in India may acquire immovable property outside India:

(a) by way of gift or inheritance from a person referred to in Sec. 6(4) of the FEMA or from a person resident in India who acquired property on or before 8th July, 1947 and continued to be held by him with the permission of Reserve Bank.

(b) by way of purchase out of foreign exchange held in Resident Foreign Currency (RFC) account maintained in accordance with the Foreign Exchange Management (Foreign Currency Accounts by a Person Resident in India) Regulations, 2015.

(c) Jointly with a relative who is a person resident outside India, provided there is no outflow of funds from India.

(2) A person resident in India may acquire immovable property outside India, by way of Inheritance or gift from a person resident in India who has acquired such property in accordance with the foreign exchange provision in force at the time of such acquisition.

(3) A Company incorporated in India having overseas offices, may acquire immovable property outside India for its business and for residential purposes of its staff, in accordance with the direction issued by the Reserve Bank of India from time to time.

(ii) Mr. Mittal, a resident in India, can join his daughter who is a resident outside India, in acquiring
a Flat at Australia.

(iii) Advance payment against export: Provisions governing the advance payments against exports are provided by Regulation 15 of Foreign Exchange Management (Export of Goods and Services) Regulations, 2015. Accordingly, where an exporter receives advance payments (with or without interest) from a buyer/third party named in the export declaration made by the Exporter, outside India, the exporter shall be under the obligation to ensure that:

(a) The shipment of goods is made within one year from the date of receipt of advance payment.
(b) The rate of interest, if any, payable on the advance payment does not exceed the rate of interest London Inter-Bank Offered Rate (LIBOR) + 100 basis points and
(c) The documents covering the shipment are routed through the authorised dealer through whom advance payment is received.

Provided that in the event of the exporter’s inability to make the shipment, partly or fully, within one year from the date of receipt of advance payment or towards, no remittance towards refund of un-utilised portions of advance payment or towards payment of interest, shall be made after the expiry of the period of one year, without the prior approval of the Reserve bank of India.

The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 – CA Final Law Study Material

Question 39.
Bharat Computer Hardware Ltd. received an advance payment for export of high-tech hardware to a business concern in Singapore by entering into an export agreement to supply the hardware within 6 months from the date of receipt of advance payment. The shipment of hardware was made after 9 months and the documents covering the shipment were routed through an authorized dealer through whom the advance payment was received.

Examine whether Bharat Computer Hardware Ltd. has discharged its obligation in accordance with the provisions of The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999?

Is it possible to receive advance payment where the export agreement provides for shipment of goods within 15 months from the date of receipt of advance payment? Also identify the maximum rate of interest payable on the advance payment under the said Act. [Nov. 18 – New Syllabus (6 Marks)]
Answer:
Advance payment against export:
Provisions governing the advance payments against exports are provided by Regulation 15 of Foreign Exchange Management (Export of Goods and Services) Regulations, 2015. Accordingly, where an exporter receives advance payments (with or without interest) from a buyer/ third party named in the export declaration made by the Exporter, outside India, the exporter shall be under the obligation to ensure that:

(a) The shipment of goods is made within one year from the date of receipt of advance payment, and
(b) The documents covering the shipment are routed through the authorised dealer through whom advance payment is received.

Conclusion: Bharat Computer Hardware Ltd. has discharged its obligation as shipment is made within one year from the date of receipt of advance payment and documents covering the shipment are routed through the authorised dealer through whom advance payment was received.

Provisions as to shipment beyond a period of one year: An exporter may receive advance payment where the export agreement itself duly provides for shipment of goods extending beyond the period of 1 year from the date of receipt of advance payment.

Maximum rate of interest payable in advance payment: The rate of interest, if any, payable on the advance payment does not exceed the rate of interest London Inter-Bank Offered Rate (LIBOR) + 100 basis points.

Question 40.
Sunita Garments Limited is engaged in the business of exporting leather garments. The company is neither located in a Special Economic Zone, nor has availed any special status like Status Holder Exporter, Export Oriented Unit or a unit under Bio – Technology Park.

The company seeks your advice regarding the time limit within which the company is required to realise and import into India the foreign exchange arising out of export of goods by them. Referring to the provisions of the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 advise the company.
[May 19 – Old Syllabus (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Period within which export value of goods/software to be realised (Regulation 9):
As per Regulation 9 of Foreign Exchange Management (Export of Goods and Services) Regulations, 2015, the amount representing the full export value of goods/software/services exported shall be realised and repatriated to India within 9 months from the date of export, provided

(a) that where the goods are exported to a warehouse established outside India with the permission of the Reserve Bank, the amount representing the full export value of goods exported shall be paid to the authorised dealer as soon as it is realised and in any case within fifteen months from the date of shipment of goods;

(b) further that the Reserve Bank, or subject to the directions issued by that Bank in this behalf, the authorised dealer may, for a sufficient and reasonable cause shown, extend the period of nine months or fifteen months, as the case may be.

Question 41.
Mr. Ramesh is an exporter of goods and services. Explain briefly his duties under Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 with regard to the following:
(a) Furnishing of information relating to such exports.
(b) Realisation and repatriation of foreign exchange on such exports.
Answer:
(a) Furnishing of Information relating to Exports:
Sec. 7 of FEMA deals with the provisions relating to furnishing of information w.r.t. exports to RBI. Accordingly,

Every exporter of goods is required to furnish to RBI or other prescribed authority, a declaration containing true and correct material particulars, including the amount representing full export value. If full exportable value is not ascertainable at the time of export due to prevailing market conditions, the exporter shall indicate the amount he expects to receive on sale of goods in a market outside India.

  • The exporter of goods shall also furnish to RBI such other information as may be required by RBI for the purpose of ensuring realization of export proceeds by such exporter.
  • RBI can direct any exporter to comply with prescribed requirements to ensure that full export value of the goods or such reduced value of the goods as RBI determines, is received without delay.
  • Every exporter of services shall furnish to RBI or other prescribed authority a declaration containing true and correct material particulars in relation to payment of such services.

(b) Realisation and Repatriation of foreign exchange:
Sec. 8 of FEMA, 1999 provides that where any amount of foreign exchange is due or has accrued to any resident in India, such person shall take all reasonable steps to realize and repatriate to India the foreign exchange within such period and in such manner as may be specified by RBI.

Question 42.
According to Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999, a person resident in India shall take all reasonable steps to repatriate to India any amount of foreign exchange earned and accrued to him. What is meant by the expression ‘Repatriate to India’? State the cases where foreign exchange can be held or need not be repatriated to India by a resident in India.
Answer:
Meaning of Repatriate to India:
As per Sec. 2(y) of FEMA, 1999, the term ‘repatriate to India’ means bringing into India the realised foreign exchange and

  1. the selling of such foreign exchange to an authorised person in India in exchange for rupees, or
  2. the holding of realised amount in an account with an authorised person in India to the extent notified by the RBI.

It includes use of the realised amount for discharge of a debt or liability denominated in foreign
exchange and the expression “repatriation” shall be construed accordingly

Cases where foreign exchange need not be repatriated to India:
As per Sec. 9 of FEMA, 1999, foreign exchange can be held or need not be repatriated to India by a
resident in India in the following cases:

(a) possession of foreign currency or foreign coins by any person up to such limit as the Reserve Bank may specify;

(b) foreign currency account held or operated by such person or class of persons and the limit up to which the Reserve Bank may specify;

(c) foreign exchange acquired or received before the 8th day of July, 1947 or any income arising or accruing there on which is held outside India by any person in pursuance of a general or special permission granted by the Reserve Bank;

(d) foreign exchange held by a person resident in India up to such limit as the Reserve Bank may specify, if such foreign exchange was acquired by way of gift or inheritance from a person referred to in clause (c), including any income arising there from;

(e) foreign exchange acquired from employment, business, trade, vocation, service, honorarium, gifts, inheritance or any other legitimate means up to such limit as the Reserve Bank may specify; and

(f) such other receipts in foreign exchange as the Reserve Bank may specify.

Question 43.
Mr. Raman is a software engineer of Armtek Ltd. The company sent him to Japan to develop a software programme there on deputation for 2 years. He earned a sum of US $ 3,000 as a honorarium there. On his return to India he wants to hold this foreign currency with him. Whether Mr. Raman will be allowed to keep the foreign currency with him. [MTP-April 18]
Answer:
Holding foreign currency by a person resident in India:

As per Sec. 8 of the FEMA Act, 1999 where any amount of foreign exchange is due or has accrued to any person resident in India, such person shall take all reasonable steps to realize and repatriate to India such foreign exchange within such period and in such manner as may be specified by Reserve Bank of India.

As per Sec. 9(e) of the FEMA, 1999, provisions of Sec. 8 shall not apply to foreign exchange acquired from employment, business trade, vocation, service honorarium, gifts, inheritance or any other legitimate means up to such limit as the Reserve Bank of India may specify.

The Reserve Bank of India has specified the following persons with the limits for possession and retention of foreign currency by a person resident in India:

(a) Any person may possess foreign coins without any restriction to the amount.
(b) Any person resident in India is permitted to retain in aggregate foreign currency not exceeding USD 2,000 or its equivalent in the form of currency notes/bank notes or travellers cheques acquired by him;
(c) Any person resident in India but not permanently resident therein is permitted to hold the foreign currency without limit, if the foreign currency was acquired when he was resident outside India and was brought into India and declared to the custom authorities.

Conclusion: Mr. Raman earned a sum of US$ 3000 as a honorarium when he was in employment in Japan. Considering the provisions as stated above, it can be concluded that he can retain foreign exchange up to US$ 2000 only and not more than that.

The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 – CA Final Law Study Material

Question 44.
The RBI issued certain directions to Dream Construction Limited, an authorised person under the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 to file certain returns. The Company failed to file the said returns. Decide, as to what penal provisions are applicable against the said authorised person under the said Act. [May 10 (3 MaTks)]
Answer:
Penalty provisions against authorised person:

As per Sec. 11 of FEMA, 1999, the Reserve Bank may, for the purpose of securing compliance with the provisions of this Act and of any rules, regulations, notifications or directions made thereunder, give to the authorised persons any direction in regard to making of payment or the doing or desist from doing any act relating to foreign exchange or foreign security.

Where any authorised person contravenes any direction given by the Reserve Bank under this Act or fails to file any return as directed by the Reserve Bank, the Reserve Bank may, after giving reasonable opportunity of being heard, impose on the authorised person a penalty which may extend to ₹ 10,000 and in the case of continuing contravention with an additional penalty which may extend to ₹ 2,000 for every day during which such contravention continues.

Question 45.
The Reserve Bank of India receives a complaint that an authorized person has submitted incorrect statements and information to the Reserve Bank of India in respect of receipt and utilization of Foreign Exchange. Explain the powers of the Reserve Bank of India with regard to inspection of records of the above authorized person in respect of the above complaint.
Referring to the provisions of Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999, state the duties of the above authorized person.
Answer:
Power of Reserve Bank to inspect authorised person:
As per Sec. 12 of FEMA, 1999, RBI may, at anytime, cause an inspection to be made by any officer of the RBI specially authorised in writing by the RBI in this behalf, of the business of any authorised person as may appear to it to be necessary or expedient for the purpose of:

(a) verifying the correctness of any statement, information or particulars furnished to the Reserve Bank;
(b) obtaining any information or particulars which such authorised person has failed to furnish on being called upon to do so;
(c) securing compliance with the provisions of this Act or of any rules, regulations, directions or orders made thereunder.

Duties of Authorised person:
It shall be the duty of every authorised person, and where such person is a company or a firm, every director, partner or other officer of such company or firm, as the case may be,

  • to produce to any officer making an inspection such books, accounts and other documents in his custody or power and
  • to famish any statement or information relating to the affairs of such person, company or firm as the said officer may require within such time and in such manner as the said officer may direct.

Question 46.
Explainthenieaningoftheterm”AdjudicatingAuthority”under Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999, the powers available with the said authority to pass orders imposing penalty and enforce the same in relation to violation of any provision of FEMA by Mr. Dubious, a resident in India.
Answer:
Adjudicating authority:
As per Sec. 2(a) of FEMA, 1999, ‘Adjudicating Authority’ means an officer authorised u/s 16.

Power of adjudicating authority (Sec. 16 and Sec. 13):

An adjudicating authority appointed by the C.G. can impose any penalty for violation of any provision of FEMA or contravention of any rule, regulation, directions or orders issued under the powers conferred by the Act. The Adjudicating Authority can hold inquiry only on receiving a complaint from an authorised officer.

The adjudicating authority should endeavour to dispose off the complaint within one year from the date of receipt of the complaint.

The adjudicating authority can impose penalty upto thrice the sum involved in such contravention where the amount is quantifiable. If the amount is not quantifiable, penalty upto ₹ 2 lakhs can be imposed. If contravention is of continuing nature, further penalty upto ₹ 5,000 per day during which the default continues can be imposed.

Enforcement of orders of adjudicating authority (Sec. 14):

  • Person on whom penalty is imposed is required to make payment within 90 days of receipt of notice. If such payment is not made, he is liable to civil imprisonment.
  • Such civil imprisonment can be upto 6 months, if demand is for less than ₹ 1 crore. If demand exceeds ₹ 1 crore, civil imprisonment can be upto 3 years. If he pays the amount, he shall be released.

Order for arrest and detention cannot be made unless a show cause notice is issued to the defaulter. However, arrest can be made without show cause notice, if adjudicating authority is satisfied

(a) that the defaulter has dishonesty transferred, concealed or removed his property or he is refusing or neglecting to pay even if he has means to pay and
(b) he is likely to abscond the local limits.

If a person to whom show cause notice is issued does not appear before Adjudicating authority, warrant of arrest can be issued.

Question 47.
Mr. X, an Indian national has failed to realise and repatriate foreign exchange worth more than ₹ 2 crores. Mr. X having realised that he had committed a contravention of the provisions of the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999, desires to compound the said offence. Advise Mr. X.
Answer:
Compounding of Offence related to failure to realise and repatriate foreign exchange:

Failure to realise and repatriate foreign exchange, is a contravention of the provisions of Sec. 8 of FEMA and hence a penalty will be imposed u/s 13, followed by adjudication proceedings.

As per Sec. 15 of FEMA, 1999, any contravention u/s 13 may, on an application made by the person committing such contravention, be compounded within 180 days from the date of receipt of application by the Director of Enforcement or such other officers of the Directorate of Enforcement and Officers of the RBI as may be authorised in this behalf by the C.G. in such manner as may be prescribed.

Where a contravention has been compounded, no proceeding or further proceeding, as the case may be, shall be initiated or continued, as the case may be, against the person committing such contravention under that section, in respect of the contravention so compounded.

Question 48.
Mr. D has been arrested at the Chennai Airport in connection with certain offences under the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999. The Adjudicating Authority (AA) imposed a fine of ₹ 5 lakhs on him. In order to secure the penalty, AA directs the officials to confiscate the deposit of ₹ 10 lakhs lying in the account of D maintained at a nationalized Bank in New Delhi. Comment upon the validity of the confiscation proposal of the Adjudicating Authority for the levy of penalty under the relevant provisions of FEMA, 1999. [Nov. 20 – Old Syllabus (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Confiscation of currency, security, or property

As per Sec. 13(2) of FEMA, 1999, any Adjudicating Authority adjudging any contravention u/s 13, may, if he thinks fit in addition to any penalty which he may impose for such contravention direct that any currency, security or any other money or property in respect of which the contravention has taken place shall be confiscated to the C.G.

In the present case, Mr. D has been arrested at the Chennai Airport in connection with certain offences under the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999. The Adjudicating Authority (AA) imposed a fine of ₹ 5 lakhs on him. In order to secure the penalty, AA directs the officials to confiscate the deposit of ₹ 10 lakhs lying in the account of D maintained at a nationalized Bank in New Delhi.

Conclusion: Adjudicating Authority can direct confiscation of any currency, security or any other money or property.

The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 – CA Final Law Study Material

Question 49.
A person aggrieved by an order made by the Special Director (Appeals) desires to file an appeal against the said order to the Appellate Tribunal but the period of limitation of 45 days as prescribed in Section 19(2) of the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 has expired. Advise.
Answer:
Appeal to Appellate Tribunal:

As per Sec. 19, appeal against the order of Adjudicating Authority being senior to Assistant Director of Enforcement or Deputy Director of Enforcement or against the order of Special Director (Appeals) can be made to the Appellate Tribunal within 45 days from the date on which the copy of the order was made by such Adjudicating Authority or Special Director (Appeals) is received by the aggrieved person. The delay can be condoned by the Appellate Tribunal.

In case of an appeal against the order imposing penalty, the applicant has to deposit the amount of such penalty with the authority prescribed by the C.G. However, the Appellate Tribunal may waive such deposit to mitigate the likely hardship that may be caused to the appellant. After hearing of the appeal, the Appellate Tribunal shall pass the order.

Conclusion: Appellate Tribunal may entertain an appeal after the expiry of 45 days if it is satisfied that there was sufficient cause for not filing it within that period.

Question 50.
India Exports Limited engaged in the export of software products to U.S. One party in U.S. to whom the company exported certain products failed to pay the amount due for these exports resulting into non-repatriation of amount to India. The Adjudicating Authority on coming to know about this, levied a penalty on India Exports Limited under the provisions of the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999. The company seeks your advice as to which authority, to whom it can make an appeal against the decision of Adjudicating Authority. State also, the time limit within which the appeal can be lodged. [Nov. 15 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Authority to whom appeal can be made:

Provisions related to appeal are covered in Sections 17 & 19 of the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999. In case, the Adjudicating Authority is Assistant Director of the Enforcement or Deputy Director of Enforcement, appeal will lie to Special Director (Appeals).

Further appeal shall lie with Appellate Tribunal against the order of Adjudicating Authority and the Special Director (Appeals). However, if the Adjudicating Authority is senior to the Assistant Director of Enforcement or Deputy Director of Enforcement, then the appeal shall lie directly to the Appellate Tribunal.

(a) Appeal to Special Director (Appeals):
As per Sec. 17, appeal against order of Assistant Director of Enforcement or Deputy Director of Enforcement can be filed with Special Director (Appeals) within 45 days from the date on which the copy of the order made by the Adjudicating Authority is received by the aggrieved person.

  • The Special Director (Appeals) can condone the delay in filing the appeal if he is satisfied that there was sufficient cause for not filing the appeal within the stipulated time.
  • Special Director (Appeals) will hear the parties and then pass the order. Copy of the order shall be sent to the concerned parties and the Adjudicating Authority.

(b) Appeal to Appellate Tribunal:

As per Sec. 19, appeal against the order of Adjudicating Authority being senior to Assistant Director of Enforcement or Deputy Director of Enforcement or against the order of Special Director (Appeals) can be made to the Appellate Tribunal within 45 days from the date on which the copy of the order was made by such Adjudicating Authority or Special Director (Appeals) is received by the aggrieved person. The delay can be condoned by the Appellate Tribunal.

In case of an appeal against the order imposing penalty, the applicant has to deposit the amount of such penalty with the authority prescribed by the C.G. However, the Appellate Tribunal may waive such deposit to mitigate the likely hardship that may be caused to the appellant. After hearing of the appeal, the Appellate Tribunal shall pass the order.
Tribunal is the final fact finding authority and no appeal lies against the facts determined by the Tribunal.

Question 51.
Mr. Bandha, a software engineer, Indian Origin took employment in USA. He is a resident of USA for a long time. He desires.
(i) To acquire a farm house in Munar (Kerala)
(ii) To make investment in KLJ (Nidhi) Ltd., registered as Nidhi Company.
(iii) To make investment in Rose Real Estate Ltd., an Indian company formed for the development of township.
Mr. Unsatisfactory, brother of Mr. Bandha residing at Chennai is aggrieved by an order made by Appellate Tribunal established under Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999, desires to file further appeal.

With references to the provisions of Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999, analyse whether there are any restrictions in respect of the transactions desired by Mr. Bandha. Also determine the appeal procedure to Mr. Unsatisfactory on the order of appellate tribunal under the said Act. [May 18 – New Syllabus (6 Marks)]
Answer:
Restrictions of Capital transactions:
Section 6 of FEMA, 1999 read with Foreign Exchange Management (Permissible Capital Account Transactions) Regulations, 2000 provides the following:

(a) A person resident outside India who is a citizen of India may acquire immovable property in India other than an agricultural property, plantation, or a farm house.

(b) The person resident outside India is prohibited from making investments in India in any form, in any company, or partnership firm or proprietary concern or any entity whether incorporated or not which is engaged or proposes to engage:

  • In the business of chit fund;
  • As Nidhi company;
  • In agricultural or plantation activities;
  • In real estate business, or construction of farm houses or
  • In trading in Transferable Development Rights (TDRs)

Explanation: In “real estate business” the term shall not include development of townships, construction of residential/commercial premises, roads or bridges.

Conclusion:

  1. Mr. Bandha cannot acquire Farm House.
  2. Investment in a Nidhi company is prohibited transaction; hence Mr. Bandha cannot invest.
  3. Investment in Rose Real Estate Ltd., an Indian company is allowed as it is formed for the development of township which is excluded from the definition of real estate business.

Procedure for filing appeal against the order of Appellate Tribunal:

Section 35 of FEMA, 1999 provides that any person aggrieved by any decision or order of the Appellate Tribunal may file an appeal to the High Court within 60 days from the date of com-munication of the decision or order of the Appellate Tribunal on any question of law arising out of such order.

High Court may, if it is satisfied that the appellant was prevented by sufficient cause from filing the appeal within the said period, allow it to be filed within a further period not exceeding 60 days.

The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 – CA Final Law Study Material

Question 52.
A French Manufacturing Company desirous of setting up its branch office at Pune seeks your advice on the objects for which the company may be allowed to set up the desired branch office. Advise the company about the procedure as required under the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 to be followed in this regard.
Answer:
Setting up a branch office at Pune by a French company – Objects and the procedure under the FEMA, 1999:

Since setting up a branch office by a foreign company in India involves foreign exchange, permission of RBI is required. Following are the objects for which RBI permits companies engaged in manufacturing and trading activities abroad to set up Branch Office in India:

  1. To represent the parent company/other foreign companies in various matters in India e.g. acting as buying/selling agents in India.
  2. To conduct research work in the area in which the parent company is engaged.
  3. To undertake export and import trading activities.
  4. To promote possible technical and financial collaborations between the Indian companies and overseas companies.
  5. Rendering professional or consultancy services.
  6. Rendering services in information technology and development of software in India.
  7. Rendering technical support to the products supplied by the partner/group companies.

Steps/procedure:

1. Foreign company can set up Branch Offices in India after obtaining approval from RBI.

2. The office can act as a channel of communication-between Head Office abroad and parties in India. It is not allowed to undertake any business activity in India and cannot earn any income in India. Expenses of such offices are to be met entirely through inward remittances of foreign exchange from the Head Office abroad.

3. Permission to set up such office is initially granted for a period of 3 years and this may be extended from time to time by the Regional Office in whose jurisdiction the office is set up.

4. The representative office will have to file an annual activity certificate etc. from a Chartered Accountant to the concerned Regional Office of the RBI.

5. Application is required to be made in Form FNC-1.