CA Inter Advanced Accounts Paper Nov 2019

CA Inter Advanced Accounts Paper Nov 2019 – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material is designed strictly as per the latest syllabus and exam pattern.

CA Inter Advanced Accounting Question Paper Nov 2019

Question 1.
(a) A Ltd. provides after sales warranty for two years to its customers.
Based on past experience, the company has the following policy for making provision for warranties on the invoice amount, on the remaining balance warranty period.
Less than 1 year: 2% provision
More than 1 year: 3% provision The company has raised invoices as under:
CA Inter Advanced Accounts Paper Nov 2019 1
Calculate the provision to be made for warranty under AS-29 as at 31st March, 2018 and 31st March, 2019. Also compute amount to be debited to P & L account for the year ended 31st March, 2019. [5 Marks]
Answer:
31st March, 2018 = 1,00,000 × 2% = 2,000
31st March, 2019 = 40,000 × 2% + 1,35,000 × 3% = 4,850

(b) As per provision of AS-26, how would you deal to the following situations:

(1) ₹ 23,00,000 paid by a manufacturing company to the legal advisor de-fending the patent of a product is treated as a capital expenditure.

(2) During the year 2018-19, a company spent ₹ 7,00,000 for publicity and research expenses on one of its new consumer product which was marketed in the same accounting year but proved to be a failure.

(3) A company spent ₹ 25,00,000 in the past three years to develop a product, these expenses were charged to profit and loss account since they did not meet AS-26 criteria for capitalization. In the current year approval of the concerned authority has been received. The company wishes to capitalize ₹ 25,00,000 by disclosing it as a prior period item.

(4) A company with a turnover of ₹ 200 crores and an annual advertising budget of ₹ 50,00,000 had taken up for the marketing of a new product by a company. It was estimated that the company would have a turnover of ₹ 20 crore from the new product. The company had debited to its Profit & Loss Account the total expenditure of ₹ 50,00,000 incurred on extensive special initial advertisement campaign for the new product. [5 Marks]
Answer:
(1) Revenue
(2) Revenue
(3) Incorrect
(4) Correct

CA Inter Advanced Accounts Paper Nov 2019

(c) Indicate in each case whether revenue can be recognized and when it will be recognized as per AS-9.
(1) Trade discount and volume rebate received.
(2) Where goods are sold to distributor or others for resale.
(3) Where seller concurrently agrees to repurchase the same goods at a later date.
(4) Insurance agency commission for rendering services.
(5) On 11-3-2019 cloths worth ₹ 50,000 were sold to X mart, but due to re-furbishing of their showroom being underway, on their request cloths were delivered on 12-4-2019. [5 Marks]
Answer:
(1) Deducted from sales
(2) When ultimate sale is made (However depends upon terms of agreement)
(3) Not a sale (Financing arrangement)
(4) Policy is reversed
(5) Revenue for FY 2018-19

(d) Following information is supplied by K Ltd.
Number of shares outstanding prior to right issue – 2,50,000 shares.
Right issue – two new share for each 5 outstanding shares (i.e. 1,00,000 new shares)
Right issue price – ₹ 98
Last date of exercising rights – 30-6-2018.
Fair value of one equity share immediately prior to exercise of right on 30-6-2018 is ₹ 102.
Net Profit to equity shareholders:
2017- 18 – ₹ 50,00,000
2018- 19 – ₹ 75,00,000
You are required to calculate the basic earnings per share as per AS-20 Earning per Share. [5 Marks]
Answer:
Step 1: Theoretical Ex Right FV per share
= \(\frac{250000 \times 102+100000 \times 98}{350000}\)
= 100.86
Step 2: Adjustment Factor
= \(\frac{102}{100.86}\) = 1.011 100.86
Step 3: EPS Computation
CA Inter Advanced Accounts Paper Nov 2019 2

CA Inter Advanced Accounts Paper Nov 2019

Question 2.
(a) X Ltd. furnishes the following summarized Balance Sheet as at 31-3-2018:
CA Inter Advanced Accounts Paper Nov 2019 3
The shareholders adopted the resolution on the date of the abovementioned Balance Sheet to:

(1) Buy back 25% of the paid up capital and it was decided to offer a price of 20% over market price. The prevailing market value of the company’s share is ₹ 30 per share.

(2) To finance the buy back of share company:
(a) Issue 3000, 14% debenture of ₹ 100 each at a premium of 20%.
(b) Issue 2500, 10% preference share of ₹ 100 each

(3) Sell investment worth ₹ 1,00,000 for ₹ 1,50,000.
(4) Maintain a balance of ₹ 2,00,000 in Revenue Reserve.

(5) Later the company issue three fully paid up equity share of ₹ 20 each by way of bonus share for every 15 equity share held by the equity shareholder.
You are required to pass the necessary journal entries to record the above transactions and prepare Balance Sheet after buy back. [15 Marks]
Answer:

2 VIEW POINTS
CA Inter Advanced Accounts Paper Nov 2019 4
Accordingly amount of journal entries will charge.

(b) On 1st April, 2018, XYZ Ltd., offered 150 shares to each of its 750 employees at ₹ 60 per share. The employees are given a year to accept the offer. The shares issued under the plan shall be subject to lock-in period on transfer for three years from the grant date. The market price of shares of the company on the grant date is ₹ 72 per share. Due to post-vesting restrictions on transfer, the fair value of shares issued under the plan is estimated at ₹ 67 per share.

On 31st March, 2019, 600 employees accepted the offer and paid ₹ 60 per share purchased. Nominal value of each share is ₹ 10.
You are required to record the issue of shares in the books of the XYZ Ltd., under the aforesaid plan. [5 Marks]
Answer:
CA Inter Advanced Accounts Paper Nov 2019 5
CA Inter Advanced Accounts Paper Nov 2019 6

CA Inter Advanced Accounts Paper Nov 2019

Question 3.
(a) Following is the summarized Balance Sheet of Fortunate Ltd. as on 31st March, 2019.
CA Inter Advanced Accounts Paper Nov 2019 7
(Note: Preference shares dividend is in arrear for last five years).

The Company is running with the shortage of working capital and not earn-ings profits. A scheme of reconstruction has been approved by both the classes of shareholders. The summarized scheme of reconstruction is as follows:

(i) The equity shareholders have agreed that their ₹ 50 shares should be reduced to ₹ 5 by cancellation of ₹ 45.00 per share. They have also agreed to subscribe for three new equity shares of ₹ 5.00 each for each equity share held.

(ii) The preference shareholders have agreed to forego the arrears of dividends and to accept for each ₹ 50 preference share, 4 new 6% preference shares of ₹ 10 each, plus 3 new equity shares of ₹ 5.00 each, all credited as fully paid.

(iii) Lenders to the company for ₹ 1,87,500 have agreed to convert their loan into shares and for this purpose they will be allotted 15,000 new preference shares of ₹ 10 each and 7,500 new equity shares of ₹ 5.00 each.

(iv) The directors have agreed to subscribe in cash for 25,000 new equity shares of ₹ 5.00 each in addition to any shares to be subscribed by them under (i) above.

(v) Of the cash received by the issue of new shares, ₹ 2,50,000 is to be used to reduce the loan due by the company.

(vi) The equity share capital cancelled is to be applied :
(a) To write off the debit balance in the Profit and Loss A/c, and
(b) To write off ₹ 43,750 from the value of plant.

Any balance remaining is to be used to write down the value of trade-marks and goodwill. The nominal capital as reduced is to be increased to ₹ 8,12,500 for preference share capital and t 9,37,500 for equity share capital.

You are required to pass journal entries to show the effect of above scheme and prepare the Balance Sheet of the Company after recon-struction. [15 Marks]
Answer:
Journal Entries
CA Inter Advanced Accounts Paper Nov 2019 8

(b) A liquidator is entitled to receive remuneration at 5%, of the assets realised and 8% of the amount distributed among the unsecured creditors. The assets realised ₹ 13,75,000. Payment was made from realised amount as follows:

Liquidation expenses ₹ 13,000
Preferential creditors (treated as unsecured creditors) ₹ 88,500
Secured creditors ₹ 1,00,000
You are required to calculate remuneration payable to the liquidator. [5 Marks]
Answer:
5% of 1375000 + 8% of (1375000 – 13000 – 88500 – 100000) = 162630

CA Inter Advanced Accounts Paper Nov 2019

Question 4.
(a) From the following information, you are required to prepare Profit and Loss Account of Simple Bank for the year ended as on 31st March, 2019:

2017-18 (₹ in ‘000) Item 2018-19 (₹ in ‘000)
71,35 Interest and Discount 1,02,25
5,70 Income from investment 5,60
7,75 Interest on Balances with RBI 8,85
36,10 Commission, Exchange and Brokerage 35,60
60 Profit on sale of investments 6,10
30,60 Interest on Deposits 41,10
6,35 Interest to RBI 7,35
36,35 Payment to and provision for employees 42,75
7,90 Rent, taxes and lighting 8,95
7,35 Printing and Stationery 10,60
5,60 Advertising and publicity 4,90
4,90 Depreciation 4,90
7,40 Director’s fees 10,60
5,50 Auditor’s fees 5,50
2,50 Law Charges 7,60
2,40 Postage, telegrams and telephones 3,10
2,10 Insurance 2,60
2,85 Repair and maintenance 3,30

Other Information:

(i) The following items are alreadv adjusted with Interest and Discount (Cr.)
Tax Provision (₹ ‘000) 7,40
Provision for Doubtful Debts (₹ ‘000) 4,60
Loss on sale of investments (₹ ‘000) 60
Rebate on Bills discounted (₹ ‘000) 2,75

(ii) Appropriations:
25% of profit is transferred to Statutory Reserves.
5% of profit is transferred to Revenue Reserve
You are required to give necessary Schedules also.

(b) The investment portfolio of a mutual fund scheme includes 4,000 shares of P Ltd. and 3,200 shares of Q Ltd. acquired on 31-12-2017. The cost of P Ltd.’s share is ₹ 50 and Q Ltd.’s share is ₹ 75. The market value of these shares at the end of 2017-18 were ₹ 47 and ₹ 80 respectively. On 30th June, 2018 shares of both companies were disposed of realising:
P Ltd.’s share at ₹ 40 and
Q Ltd.’s share at ₹ 82
Show important accounting entries in the books of the fund for the accounting years 2017-18 and 2018-19. [5 Marks]
Answer:
Chapter deleted from course

(c) The following information is furnished by ALFA Bank Ltd.

Margins held against letter of credit ₹ in Lakhs 200
Recurring accounts deposits 100
Current accounts deposits 375
Demand deposit 125
Unclaimed deposit 75
Gold deposit 235
Demand liabilities portion of saving bank deposit 1325
Time liabilities portion of saving bank deposit 722

Explain CRR and you are required to calculate the amount of Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) as per the direction of Reserve Bank of India. [5 Marks]

Question 5.
(a) Consider the following summarized Balance Sheets of subsidiary MNT Ltd.:

Liabilities 2017-18 Amount in ₹ 2018-19 Amount in ₹
Share Capital
Issued and subscribed 7500 Equity Shares of ₹ 100 each 7,50,000 7,50,000
Reserve and Surplus
Revenue Reserve 2,14,000 5,05,000
Securities Premium 72,000 2,07,000
Current Liabilities and Provisions
Trade Payables 2,90,000 2,46,000
Bank Overdraft 1,70,000
Provision for Taxation 2,62,000 4,30,000
15,88,000 23,08,000
Liabilities 2017-18 Amount in ₹ 2018-19 Amount in ₹
Assets
Fixed Assets (Cost) 9,20,000 9,20,000
Less: Accumulated Depreciation (1,70,000) (2,82,500)
7,50,000 6,37,500
Investment at Cost 5,30,000
Current Assets
Inventory 4,12,300 6,90,000
Trade Receivable 2,95,000 3,43,000
Prepaid expenses 78,000 65,000
Cash at Bank 52,700 42,500
15,88,000 23,08,000

Other Information :

  1. MNT Ltd. is a subsidiary of LTC Ltd.
  2. LTC Ltd. values inventory on FIFO basis, while MNT Ltd. used LIFO basis. To bring MNT Ltd.’s inventories values in line with those of LTC Ltd., its value of inventory is required to be reduced by ₹ 5,000 at the end of 2017-2018 and increased by ₹ 12,000 at the end of 2018-2019. (Inventory of 2017-18 has been sold out during the year 2018-19)
  3. MNT Ltd. deducts 2% from Trade Receivables as a general provision against doubtful debts.
  4. Prepaid expenses in MNT Ltd. include Sales Promotion expenditure carried forward of ₹ 25,000 in 2017-18 and ₹ 12,500 in 2018-19 being part of initial Sales Promotion expenditure of ₹ 37,500 in 2017-18, which is being written off over three years. Similar nature of Sales Promotion expenditure of LTC Ltd. has been fully written off in 2017-18.

Restate the balance sheet of MNT Ltd. as on 31st March, 2019 after consider-ing the above information for the purpose of consolidation. Such restatement is necessary to make the accounting policies adopted by LTC Ltd. and MNT Ltd. uniform. [10 Marks]

Answer:

Balance Sheet (Extract)
[only changes have been reflected]
CA Inter Advanced Accounts Paper Nov 2019 10

(b) On the basis of the following information, calculate the value of goodwill of Star Ltd. at, 5 years’ purchase of super profits, if any, earned by the com-pany in the previous three completed accounting years.
Summarised Balance Sheet of Star Ltd. as at 31st March, 2019

₹ in Lakhs
Liabilities
Share Capital
Issued and subscribed
3 Crore Equity Shares of ₹ 10 each, fully paid up 3,000
Capital Reserve 200
General Reserve 5,293
Profit & Loss Account 517
Trade Payables 522
Provision for Taxation (net) 68
9,600
Assets
Goodwill 510
Land & Building 1,650
Plant & Machinery 2,715
Furniture & Fixtures 2,062
Patent and Trade Marks 30
Investments 800
Inventory 673
Trade Receivables 546
Cash and Cash equivalents 614
9,600

The profits before tax of three years are as follows:

Year ended 31st March Profit before tax in lakhs of (₹) Weights
2015-16 1,910 1
2016-17 2,050 3
2017-18 2,950 5

Other information:

  1. Assume that the rate of income tax for all the year is 35%,
  2. In the accounting year 2015-16 the company sold its land at a profit of ₹ 75.2 Lakhs, which is included in the profits of the same year.
  3. In December, 2016 there was a fire occurred in factory due to which the company lost property worth of ₹ 25 lakhs and the loss was not covered under the insurance policy.
  4. In November, 2017 the company earned an extraordinary income of ₹ 48.88 Lakhs due to a special contract.
  5. 40% of total investments were, 8% Non-trading investments (Purchased at par on 1st April, 2014).
  6. Company values inventory on FIFO basis. On 31 st March, 2018 inventory was undervalued by ₹ 6 Lakhs inventory of 2017-18 sold during the year 2018-19)
  7. Future maintainable profits to be ascertained considering weighted average.
  8. The normal rate of return for the industry in which company is engaged is 15%.
  9. Capital employed as on 31st March, 2018 was ₹ 5,820 Lakhs.
  10. In Shareholders’ general meeting a resolution was passed to sanction the directors additional remuneration of ₹ 15 lakhs every year beginning from the accounting year 2018-19. [10 Marks]

Answer:
Step 1: Average Capital Employed

CA Inter Advanced Accounts Paper Nov 2019 11

Step 2:

Note:
Current year profits are missing. Thus, FMP has been computed on the basis of past 3 years profits.

Future Maintainable Profits
CA Inter Advanced Accounts Paper Nov 2019 12
CA Inter Advanced Accounts Paper Nov 2019 13

Step 3

NRR= 15%

Goodwill
= 1583.075 – 7000 × 15% × 5 = 2665.375

CA Inter Advanced Accounts Paper Nov 2019

Question 6.
Answer any four of the following:
(a) X Ltd. is a group engaged in manufacture and sale of industrial and FMCG products. One of their division also deals in Leasing of proper-ties – Mobile Towers. The accountant showed the rent arising from the leasing of such properties as other income in the Statement of Profit and Loss.
Comment whether the classification of the rent income made by the accountant is correct or not in the light of Schedule III to the Companies Act, 2013. [5 Marks]
Answer:
Incorrect

(b) Darshan Ltd. incorporated on 1st January, 2018 issued a prospectus in-viting application for 40,000 Equity Shares of ₹ 10 each. The whole issue was fully underwritten by Arun, Babu and Chandran as follows:
Arun 20,000 shares
Babu 12,000 shares
Chandran 8,000 shares
Applications were received for 32,000 shares, of which marked applications were as follows:
Arun 16,000 shares
Babu 5,700 shares
Chandran 8,300 shares
You are required to find out the liabilities of individual underwriters viz. Arun, Babu & Chandran. [5 Marks]
Answer:
Statement Showing Net Liability of Underwriters

A B C
Gross Liability 20000 12000 8000
Marked Application 16000 5700 8300
Unmarked Application [2000] 1000 600 400
3000 5700 (700)
Surplus Transferred (2012) (438) (262) 700
Net Liability 2562 5438 Nil

(c) From the following data determine in each case:
CA Inter Advanced Accounts Paper Nov 2019 14
[5 Marks]
Answer:
Minority Interest

Case Subsidiary

Company

% of Share Owned Cost Date of Acquisition

01-01-2018

Consolidation date

31-12-2018

Share

Capital

Profit and Loss a/c Share

Capital

Profit and Loss a/c
7 7 7 7
Case-A X 90% 2,00,000 1,50,000 75,000 1,50,000 85,000
Case-B Y 75% 1,75,000 1,40,000 60,000 1,40,000 20,000
Case-C Z 70% 98,000 40,000 20,000 40,000 20,000
Case-D M 95% 75,000 60,000 35,000 60,000 55,000
Case-E N 100% 1,00,000 40,000 40,000 40,000 65,000

(d) Explain the criterion of income recognition in the case of Non Banking Financial Companies [5 Marks]

(e) Classify the following into either operating lease or finance lease with rea-son:
(1) Economic life of asset is 10 years, lease term is 9 years, but asset is not acquired at the end of lease term.
(2) Lessee has option to purchase the asset at lower than fair value at the end of lease term.
(3) Lease payments should be recognized as an expense in the statement of Profit & Loss of a lessee.
(4) Present Value (PV) of Minimum Lease Payment (MLP) = “X”. Fair value of the asset is “Y”. And X = Y.
(5) Economic life of the asset is 5 years, lease term is 2 years, but the asset is of special nature and has been procured only for use of the lessee. [5 Marks]
Answer:
(1) Finance lease
(2) Finance lease
(3) Operating lease
(4) Finance lease
(5) Finance lease

Analytical Procedures – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Students should practice these Analytical Procedures – CA Inter Audit MCQ based on the latest syllabus.

Analytical Procedures – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 1.
What are analytical procedures?
(a) Substantive tests designed to assess control risk
(b) Substantive tests designed to evaluate the validity of management’s representation letter
(c) Substantive tests designed to study relationships between financial and non-financial information
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Substantive tests designed to study relationships between financial and non-financial information

Question 2.
Which of the following is not an analytical procedure?
(a) Tracing of purchases recorded in the purchase book to purchase invoices
(b) Comparing aggregate wages paid to number of employees
(c) Comparing the actual costs with standard costs
(d) All of them are analytical procedures
Answer:
(a) Tracing of purchases recorded in the purchase book to purchase invoices

Question 3.
Analytical procedures issued in the planning stage of an audit, generally:
(a) helps to determine the nature, timing and extent of other audit procedures
(b) directs attention to potential risk areas
(c) indicates important aspects of business
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(d) all of the above

Question 4.
The basic assumption underlying the use of analytical procedures is:
(a) It helps the auditor to study relationship among elements of financial information
(b) Relationship among data exist and continue in the absence of known condition to the contrary
(c) Analytical procedures will not be able to detect unusual relationships
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Relationship among data exist and continue in the absence of known condition to the contrary

Analytical Procedures – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 5.
What is the primary objective of analytical procedures used in the overall review stage of an audit?
(a) To help to corroborate the conclusions drawn from individual components of financial statements
(b) To reduce specific detection risk
(c) To direct attention to potential risk areas
(d) To satisfy doubts when questions arise about a client’s ability to continue
Answer:
(a) To help to corroborate the conclusions drawn from individual components of financial statements

Question 6.
Which of the following is true?
(a) Substantive Analytical Procedures are generally more applicable to large volume of transactions that tend to be more predictable over time.
(b) Different types of analytical procedures provide same levels of assurance.
(c) Determination of suitability of Substantive Analytical procedures is not influenced by the nature of assertion
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) Substantive Analytical Procedures are generally more applicable to large volume of transactions that tend to be more predictable over time.

Question 7.
Analytical procedures compare one result to another. These comparisons may be with all the following except:
(a) Similar information about top-performing subsidiaries
(b) Anticipated results (such as budgets and forecasts, or auditor expectations)
(c) Comparable information for prior periods
(d) Non-financial information
Answer:
(a) Similar information about top-performing subsidiaries

Question 8.
Performing analytical procedures may be thought of as a four-phase process. The first phase is:
(a) compare the expected value to the recorded amount
(b) formulate expectations
(c) evaluate the impact of the differences between expectation and recorded amounts on the audit | and the financial statements
(d) investigate possible explanations for a difference between expected and recorded values
Answer:
(b) formulate expectations

Question 9.
Which of the following is correct:
(a) As per the Standard on Auditing (SA) 520 “Analytical Procedure” the term “analytical procedures” means evaluations of financial information through analysis of financial data.
(b) As per the Standard on Auditing (SA) 520 “Analytical Procedure” the term “analytical procedures” means evaluations of financial information through analysis of non-financial data.
(c) As per the Standard on Auditing (SA) 520 “Analytical Procedure” the term “analytical procedures” means evaluations of financial information through analysis of plausible relationships among both financial and non-financial data.
(d) As per the Standard on Auditing (SA) 520 “Analytical Procedure” the term “analytical procedures” means evaluations of financial information through ratio analysis
Answer:
(c) As per the Standard on Auditing (SA) 520 “Analytical Procedure” the term “analytical procedures” means evaluations of financial information through analysis of plausible relationships among both financial and non-financial data.

Question 10.
Which of the following statement is correct:
(a) Substantive analytical procedures are generally more applicable to large volumes of transactions that tend to be predictable over time
(b) Substantive analytical procedures are generally less applicable to large volumes of transactions that tend to be predictable over time
(c) Substantive analytical procedures are generally more applicable to small volumes of transactions that tend to be predictable over time
(d) All statements are correct
Answer:
(a) Substantive analytical procedures are generally more applicable to large volumes of transactions that tend to be predictable over time

Question 11.
A basic premise of using analytical procedures is that:
(a) there exist plausible relationships among data that is highly accurate
(b) there exist plausible relationships among data that can reasonably be expected to continue
(c) they are a good indicator of fraud and error
(d) they are essential in the planning process
Answer:
(b) there exist plausible relationships among data that can reasonably be expected to continue

Analytical Procedures – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 12.
Trend analysis is:
(a) the analysis of account balances or changes in account balances within an accounting period in terms of their reasonableness
(b) the analysis of changes in an account balance over time
(c) use of sophisticated statistical analysis, including artificial intelligence techniques, to examine large volumes of data with the objective of indicating hidden or unexpected information or patterns
(d) the comparison of relationships between firms in an industry
Answer:
(b) the analysis of changes in an account balance over time

Question 13.
Expectations are developed by identifying plausible relationships that are reasonably expected to exist based on the auditor’s understanding of the client and of the industry. These relationships may be determined by comparisons with the following sources:
(a) Data from various company divisions
(b) Non-financial information
(c) Data from national cross-industry surveys
(d) Comparable information for future periods
Answer:
(b) Non-financial information

Question 14.
Which of the following statements is not true of analytical procedures as substantive tests?
(a) are used as a confirmation of an account
(b) include tests of details (either of balances or of transactions) and analytical procedures
(c) identify situations that require increased use of other procedures (i.e. tests of control, substantive audit procedures),but seldom to reduce audit effort
(d) are designed to reduce detection risk relating to specific financial statement assertions
Answer:
(a) are used as a confirmation of an account

Question 15.
Substantive analytical procedures have certain advantages. Which of the following is an advantage of substantive analytical procedures?
(a) analytical procedures are effective when applied to the financial statements of the entity as a whole rather than when applied to financial statements of components of a diversified entity
(b) obtaining data used to develop an expectation and ensuring the reliability of that data at an appropriate level of disaggregation can account for a substantial amount of the time
(c) substantive analytical procedures deliver the desired results every year
(d) substantive analytical procedures often enable auditors to focus on a few key factors that affect the account balance
Answer:
(d) substantive analytical procedures often enable auditors to focus on a few key factors that affect the account balance

Question 16.
Which of the following would NOT be considered an analytical procedure?
(a) Computing accounts receivable turnover by dividing credit sales by the average net receivables
(b) Estimating payroll expense by multiplying the number of employees by the average hourly wage rate and the total hours worked
(c) Projecting an error rate by comparing the results of a statistical sample with the actual population characteristics
(d) Developing the expected current year sales based on the sales trend of the prior 5 years
Answer:
(c) Projecting an error rate by comparing the results of a statistical sample with the actual population characteristics

Analytical Procedures – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 17.
For all audits of financial statements made in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards, the use of analytical procedures is required to some extent:

In the plan­ning stage As a substan­tive test In the review stage
(a) No Yes Yes
(b) No Yes No
(c) Yes No Yes
(d) Yes No No

Answer:
(c)

Question 18.
Which of the following procedures do general analytical procedures not include?
(a) Sequence tests
(b) Trend analysis
(c) Statistical analysis
(d) Reasonableness tests
Answer:
(a) Sequence tests

Question 19.
Of the following types of analytical procedure, which one uses the most variables?
(a) Reasonableness test
(b) Trend analysis
(c) Ratio analysis
(d) Data mining
Answer:
(d) Data mining

Question 20.
Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Substantive analytical procedures are generally more applicable to large volumes of transactions that tend to be predictable over time.
(b) Substantive analytical procedures are generally less applicable to large volumes of transactions that tend to be predictable over time.
(c) Substantive analytical procedures are generally more applicable to small volumes of transactions that tend to be predictable over time.
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) Substantive analytical procedures are generally more applicable to large volumes of transactions that tend to be predictable over time.

Question 21.
Which of the following is not an analytical procedure?
(a) Tracing of purchases recurred in the purchase book to purchase invoices.
(b) Comparing aggregate wages paid to number of employees
(c) Comparing the actual costs with standard costs
(d) All of them are analytical procedures
Answer:
(a) Tracing of purchases recurred in the purchase book to purchase invoices.

Analytical Procedures – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 22.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) Different types of analytical procedures provide different levels of assurance.
(b) Different types of analytical procedures provide similar levels of assurance.
(c) Similar type of analytical procedures provides different levels of assurance.
(d) All are correct
Answer:
(a) Different types of analytical procedures provide different levels of assurance.

Question 23.
Statement I: As per the Standard on Auditing (SA) 520 “Analytical Procedures”, the term “analytical procedures” means evaluations of financial information through analysis of plausible relationships among financial data.
Statement II: Analytical procedures also encompass such investigation as is necessary of identified fluctuations or relationships that are inconsistent with other relevant information or that differ from expected values by a significant amount.
(a) Only Statement I is correct
(b) Only Statement II is correct
(c) Both statements are correct
(d) Both Statements are incorrect
Answer:
(b) Only Statement II is correct

Question 24.
Which of the following is not an example of Analytical Procedures having consideration of comparisons of the entity’s financial information:
(a) Comparable information for prior periods.
(b) Anticipated results of the entity, such as budgets or forecasts, or expectations of the auditor, such as an estimation of depreciation.
(c) Similar industry information, such as a comparison of the entity’s ratio of sales to accounts receivable with industry averages or with other entities of comparable size in the same industry.
(d) Among elements of financial information that would be expected to conform to a predictable pattern based on the entity’s experience, such as gross margin percentages.
Answer:
(d) Among elements of financial information that would be expected to conform to a predictable pattern based on the entity’s experience, such as gross margin percentages.

Analytical Procedures – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 25.
Auditor Compares Gross Profit Ratio with that of Previous year and it is discovered that there has been a fall in the ratio. This is an example of:
(a) Analytical Procedure
(b) Test of Controls
(c) Walk-Through Test
(d) Audit Sampling
Answer:
(a) Analytical Procedure

Audit Sampling – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Students should practice these Audit Sampling – CA Inter Audit MCQ based on the latest syllabus.

Audit Sampling – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 1.
Which of the following is more scientific?
(a) Statistical
(b) Non-statistical
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Statistical

Question 2.
Which of the following is source of Non-Sampling risk?
(a) Human Mistakes
(b) Applying audit procedures not appropriate to the objectives of audit
(c) Misinterpreting the sample results
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 3.
The main advantage of using statistical sampling techniques is that such techniques:
(a) Mathematically measure risk
(b) Eliminate the need for judgmental sampling
(c) Defines the values of tolerable error
(d) all of the them
Answer:
(a) Mathematically measure risk

Question 4.
A monetary amount set by the auditor in respect of which the auditor seeks to obtain an appropriate level of assurance that the monetary amount set by the auditor is not exceeded by the actual misstatement in the population is known as:
(a) Tolerable Misstatement
(b) Tolerable Rate of Deviation
(c) Performance Materiality
(d) Value Weighted Selection
Answer:
(a) Tolerable Misstatement

Audit Sampling – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 5.
As per the requirement of SA 530, if the audit procedure is not applicable to the selected item, the auditor
(a) shall perform the procedure on a replacement item
(b) shall treat that item as a deviation from the prescribed control, in the case of tests of controls
(c) shall treat that item as a misstatement, in the case of tests of details
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) shall perform the procedure on a replacement item

Question 6.
As per the requirement of SA 530, if the auditor is unable to apply the designed audit procedures, or suitable alternative procedures, to a selected item, the auditor
(a) shall treat that item as a deviation from the prescribed control, in the case of tests of details, or a misstatement, in the case of tests of controls.
(fa) shall treat that item as a deviation from the prescribed control/in the case of tests of controls and tests of details.
(c) shall treat that item as a misstatement in the case of tests of controls and tests of details.
(d) shall treat that item as a deviation from the pre¬scribed control, in the case of tests of controls, or a misstatement, in the case of tests of details
Answer:
(d) shall treat that item as a deviation from the pre¬scribed control, in the case of tests of controls, or a misstatement, in the case of tests of details

Question 7.
Which of the following factors is (are) considered in determining the sample size for tests of control?
(a) Projected error
(b) Tolerable error
(c) Expected error
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Question 8.
In the case of tests of details
(a) the projected misstatement plus anomalous mis¬statement, if any, is the auditor’s best estimate of misstatement in the population.
(b) the projected misstatement is the auditor’s best estimate of misstatement in the population.
(c) the anomalous misstatement is the auditor’s best estimate of misstatement in the population.
(d) the projected misstatement plus anomalous misstatement, if any, cannot be the auditor’s best estimate of misstatement in the population.
Answer:
(a) the projected misstatement plus anomalous mis¬statement, if any, is the auditor’s best estimate of misstatement in the population.

Question 9.
Which of the following is correct:
(a) When the projected misstatement exceeds tolerable misstatement, the sample does not provide a reasonable basis for conclusions about the population that has been tested.
(b) When the projected misstatement plus anomalous misstatement, if any, exceeds tolerable misstatement, the sample does not provide a reasonable basis for conclusions about the population that has been tested.
(c) When the anomalous misstatement exceeds tolerable misstatement, the sample does not provide a reasonable basis for conclusions about the population that has been tested.
(d) When the projected misstatement plus anomalous misstatement, if any, exceeds tolerable misstatement, the sample provides a reasonable basis for conclusions about the population that has been tested.
Answer:
(b) When the projected misstatement plus anomalous misstatement, if any, exceeds tolerable misstatement, the sample does not provide a reasonable basis for conclusions about the population that has been tested.

Audit Sampling – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 10.
Value-weighted selection in which sample size, selection and evaluation results in a conclusion in monetary amounts, is known as:
(a) Haphazard sampling
(b) Monetary Unit Sampling
(c) Stratified Sampling
(d) Interval sampling
Answer:
(b) Monetary Unit Sampling

Question 11.
Tolerable error, is the maximum monetary error that the auditor is prepared to accept in the population and still conclude that audit objective has been achieved, is directly related to
(a) Sample size
(b) Audit risk
(c) Materiality
(d) Expected error
Answer:
(c) Materiality

Question 12.
While determining the sample size for tests of controls, an increase in the auditor’s desired level of assurance that the tolerable rate of deviation is not exceeded by the actual rate of deviation in the population will:
(a) require the auditor to increase the sample size
(b) allow the auditor to decrease the sample size
(c) have negligible effect
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) require the auditor to increase the sample size

Question 13.
Which of the following is false?
(a) Audit sampling can be applied using either non-statistical or statistical sampling approaches.
(b) The level of sampling risk that the auditor is willing to accept affects the sample size required
(c) Example of sampling risk include use of inappropriate audit procedures or misinterpretation of audit evidence and failure to recognise a misstatement.
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Example of sampling risk include use of inappropriate audit procedures or misinterpretation of audit evidence and failure to recognise a misstatement.

Question 14.
While auditing TEN Ltd., CA. Porky divided the whole population of trade receivables balances to be tested in a few separate groups called ‘strata’ and started taking a sample from each of them. He treated each stratum as if it was a separate population. He divided the trade receivables balances of TEN Ltd. for the Financial Year 2017-18 into groups on the basis of personal judgment as follows:

S. No. Particulars
1 Balances in excess of ₹ 10,00,000
2 Balances in the range of ₹ 7,75,001 to ₹ 10,00,000
3 Balances in the range of ₹ 5,50,001 to ₹ 7,75,000
4 Balances in the range of ₹ 2,25,001 to ₹ 5,50,000
5 Balances ₹ 2,25,000 and below

From the above mentioned groups, CA. Porky picked up different percentage of items for examination from each of the groups, for example, from the top group i.e. balances in excess of ₹ 10,00,000, he selected all the items to be examined; from the second group, he opted for 25% of the items to be examined; from the lowest group, he selected 2% of the items for examination; and so on from rest of the groups. Which one of the following methods of sample selection is he following?
(a) Systematic sampling.
(b) Stratified sampling.
(c) Section sampling.
(d) Selection sampling
Answer:
(b) Stratified sampling.

Audit Sampling – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 15.
While determining the sample size for tests of details, an increase in the auditor’s assessment of the risk of material misstatement will:
(a) require the auditor to increase the sample size
(b) allow the auditor to decrease the sample size
(c) have negligible effect
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) require the auditor to increase the sample size

Question 16.
Which among the following will have negligible effect on determination of sample size in case of tests of details?
(a) The number of sampling units in the population
(b) Stratification of the population when appropriate
(c) An increase in the auditor’s desired level of assurance that tolerable misstatement is not exceeded by actual misstatement in the population
(d) An increase in the use of other substantive procedures directed at the same assertion
Answer:
(a) The number of sampling units in the population

Question 17.
Which among the following will have effect of decrease in sample size in case of tests of details?
(a) The number of sampling units in the population
(b) Stratification of the population when appropriate
(c) An increase in the auditor’s desired level of assurance that tolerable misstatement is not exceeded by actual misstatement in the population
(d) An increase in the use of other substantive procedures directed at the same assertion
Answer:
(b) Stratification of the population when appropriate

Audit in an Automated Environment – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Students should practice these Audit in an Automated Environment – CA Inter Audit MCQ based on the latest syllabus.

Audit in an Automated Environment – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 1.
Type of automated environment in which business operations and transactions are initiated, processed and recorded immediately on their occurrence
(a) Real Time processing
(b) Batch processing
(c) Time Sharing processing
(d) Service Bureau processing
Answer:
(a) Real Time processing

Question 2.
As required by SA 315, auditor is required to obtain an understanding of the entity and its environment as a part of Risk Assessment procedure to identify and assess Risk of Material Misstatements. Given below is list of certain areas for which auditor generally required understanding:
(i) Applications being used by the entity.
(ii) IT infrastructure components for each of the application.
(iii) Organisation structure and governance.
(iv) Policies, procedures and processes followed,
(v) IT risks and controls.
In an automated environment, auditor is required to obtain an understating of:
(a) (i), (ii) and (v)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) (ii) (iii) and (v)
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) and (v)
Answer:
(d) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) and (v)

Question 3.
Which of the following are not general IT controls?
(a) Controls over data centre and network operations
(b) Back-up and recovery
(c) Edit checks of input data
(d) System software acquisition
Answer:
(c) Edit checks of input data

Audit in an Automated Environment – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 4.
Which of the following are not application controls?
(a) Access security
(b) Numerical sequence checks
(c) Edit Checks of Input Data
(d) Reasonable Checks
Answer:
(a) Access security

Question 5.
Policies and procedures that relate to many applications and support the effective functioning of application controls are known as
(a) General IT Controls
(b) Application Controls
(c) IT Dependent Controls
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) General IT Controls

Question 6.
Which of the following is a General IT control?
(a) IT Environment
(b) Application Control
(c) Access Security
(d) IT Dependent Control
Answer:
(c) Access Security

Question 7.
Which of the following is an automated control?
(a) Program change
(b) System-generated report
(c) Application control
(d) Configurations
Answer:
(d) Configurations

Question 8.
Application controls are that typically operate at a business process level and apply to the processing of individual applications
(a) Manual procedures
(b) Automated procedures
(c) Manual or Automated procedures
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Manual or Automated procedures

Question 9.
Manual controls that make use of some form of data or information or report produced from IT systems and applications are known as:
(a) General IT Controls
(b) Automated Application Controls
(c) IT Dependent Controls
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) IT Dependent Controls

Audit in an Automated Environment – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 10.
Identify the automated controls from below mentioned cases:
(a) All changes to the credit limit are approved manually by sales manager
(b) Price master configured in the sales master can only be edited by authorised personnel in the system
(c) Inventory ageing report is pulled out from the system based on which provisioning is calculated after analysing the future demand by the inventory personnel and approved by the controller
(d) All invoices are signed by warehouse personnel before the goods are dispatched to the customer
Answer:
(b) Price master configured in the sales master can only be edited by authorised personnel in the system

Question 11.
Identify the IT Dependent controls:
1. Price master configured in the sales master can only be edited by authorised personnel in the system
2. Invoice can not be booked in SAP in case Purchase orders are not approved
3. All invoices are signed by warehouse personnel before the goods are dispatched to the customer
4. Inventory ageing report is pulled out from the system based on which provisioning is calculated after analysing the future demand by the inventory personnel and approved by the controller
5. Credit limit is assigned to the customer and goods cannot be sold in excess of credit limit configured in the system
6. Ageing report is pulled out from SAP based on which provisioning is calculated by accounting personnel and approved by financial controller
Correct Answer is:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 4 and 6
(d) 4, 5 and 6
Answer:
(c) 4 and 6

Question 12.
Identify the Automated controls:
1. Price master configured in the sales master can only be edited by authorised personnel in the system
2. Invoice cannotbe booked in SAP in case Purchase orders are not approved
3. Inventory ageing report is pulled out from the system based on which provisioning is calcu-lated after analysing the future demand by
the inventory personnel and approved by the controller
4. All invoices are signed by warehouse personnel before the goods are dispatched to the customer
5. Credit limit is assigned to the customer and goods cannot be sold in excess of credit limit configured in the system
6. All changes to the credit limit are approved manually by sales manager
Correct Answer is:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 5
(d) 1, 2 and 6
Answer:
(c) 1, 2 and 5

Question 13.
Which controls help ensure that transactions occurred are authorised and are completely and accurately recorded and processed?
(a) General IT Controls
(b) Application Controls
(c) IT Dependent Controls
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Application Controls

Question 14.
IT dependent controls are:
(a) Manual Controls
(b) Automated Controls
(c) Manual or Automated Controls
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Manual Controls

Question 15.
Examples of Application controls include the following:
1. Edit checks and Validation of input data
2. Sequence Number checks
3. Limit Checks
4. Access security
5. Application system acquisition, development, and maintenance
Correct Answer is:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 4 and 5
(d) 1,2, 3 and 5
Answer:
(a) 1, 2 and 3

Audit in an Automated Environment – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 16.
Examples of General IT controls include the following:
1. Edit checks and Validation of input data
2. Sequence Number checks
3. Limit Checks
4. Access security
5. Application system acquisition, development, and maintenance
Correct Answer is:
(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 4 and 5
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5
Answer:
(c) 4 and 5

Question 17.
Who is mainly responsible for implementation of internal financial controls in a company?
(a) Auditors
(b) Directors
(c) Employees
(d) Regulators
Answer:
(b) Directors

Question 18.
Analytical process by which meaning information is generated and prepared from raw system data using processes, tools and techniques is known as:
(a) Substantive Analytical Procedures
(b) Data Analytics
(c) Data Monitoring
(d) Modelling tool
Answer:
(b) Data Analytics

Question 19.
The data analytics methods used in an audit are known as
(o) Test Data
(b) Integrated Test Facility
(c) Computer Assisted Auditing Techniques or CAATs
(d) Data Base Management System
Answer:
(c) Computer Assisted Auditing Techniques or CAATs

Question 20.
Arrange the steps involved in using Data Analytics:

Arrange the steps involved in using Data Analytics:
A Document the results &Report the conclu­sions. E Understand Business Environment includ­ing IT.
B Apply Criteria on data extracted. F Extract Data
C Validate and Confirm results G Identify Source and Format of Data
D Verily, Completeness, accuracy and Validity of extracted Data H Defines the Objectives and Criteria against which subject matter will be evaluated.

(a) E, H, F, G, B, D, A and C
(b) E, H,G, F, D, B.C and A
(c) H, G, F, B, E, D, A and C
(d) H, G, F, B, E, D, C and A
Answer:
(b) E, H,G, F, D, B.C and A

Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – CA Inter Advanced Accounting Study Material is designed strictly as per the latest syllabus and exam pattern.

Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – CA Inter Advanced Accounting Study Material

Theory Questions

Question 1.
Explain ‘Employee’s stock option plan. (Nov. 2009) (2 Marks)
Answer:
‘Employee Stock Option Plan’ is a plan in which option is given for a specified period, to employees of a company, which gives such directors, officers or employees the right, but not the obligation, to purchase or subscribe, the shares of the enterprise at a fixed or determinable price.

Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Basic Questions On Esop – Expense Computation

Question 2.
PQ Ltd. grants 100 stock options to each of its 1,000 employees on 1-4-2015, conditional upon the employee remaining in the company for 2 years. The fair value of the option is ₹ 18 on the grant date and the exercise price is ₹ 55 per share. The other information is given as under:

  1. Number of employees expected to satisfy service condition are 930 in the 1st year and 850 in the 2nd year.
  2. 40 employees left the company in the 1st year of service and 880 employees have actually completed 2 year vesting period.

You are required to compute ESOP cost to be amortized by PQ Ltd. in the years 2015-2016 and 2016-2017.
Answer:
Calculation of ESOP cost to be amortized
Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 1

Question 3.
At the beginning of year 1, the enterprise grants 1,000 stock options to each member of its sales team, conditional upon the employees remaining in the employment of the enterprise for three years, and the team selling more than 50,000 units of a particular product over the three-year period. The fair value of the stock options is ₹ 15 per option at the date of grant.

During year 2, the enterprise increases the sales target to 1,00,000 units. By the end of year 3, the enterprise has sold 55,000 units, and the stock options do not vest.

Twelve members of the sales team have remained in service for the three-year period. You are required to examine and give comment in light of the relevant Guidance Note that whether the company should recognise the expenses on the base of options granted or not.

Also state will your answer differ if, instead of modifying the performance target, the enterprise had increased the number of years of service required for the stock options to vest from three years to ten years.
Answer:
Paragraph 19 of the Guidance Note on Share Based Payments

Analysis:
For a performance condition that is not a market condition, the en-terprise to recognize the services received during the vesting period based on the best available estimate of the number of shares or stock options expected to vest and to revise that estimate, if necessary, if subsequent information indicates that the number of shares or stock options expected to vest differs from previous estimates. On vesting date, the enterprise revises the estimate to equal the number of instruments that ultimately vested.

Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

However, paragraph 24 of the Guidance Note requires, irrespective of any modifications to the terms and conditions on which the instruments were granted, or a cancellation or settlement of that grant of instruments, the enterprise to recognize, as a minimum, the services received, measured at the grant date fair value of the instruments granted, unless those instruments do not vest because of failure to satisfy a vesting condition (other than a market condition) that was specified at grant date.

Furthermore, paragraph 26(c) of the Guidance Note
If the enterprise modifies the vesting conditions in a manner that is not beneficial to the employee, the enterprise does not take the modified vesting conditions into account when applying the requirements for treatment of vesting conditions as specified in Guidance Note.

Conclusion:
Therefore, because the modification to the performance condition made it less likely that the stock options will vest, which was not beneficial to the employee, the enterprise takes no account of the modified performance condition when recognizing the services received. Instead, it continues to recognize the services received over the three-year period based on the original vesting conditions. Hence, the enterprise ultimately recognizes cumulative remuneration expense of ₹ 1,80,000 over the three-year period (12 employees × 1,000 options × ₹ 15).

The same result would have occurred if, instead of modifying the performance target, the enterprise had increased the number of years of service required for the stock options to vest from three years to ten years.

Because such a modification would make it less likely that the options will vest, which would not be beneficial to the employees, the enterprise would take no account of the modified service condition when recognizing the services received. Instead, it would recognize the services received from the twelve employees who remained in service over the original three-year vesting period.

Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Basic Questions on Esop – Journal Entries

Question 4.
X Co. Ltd. has its share capital divided into equity shares of ₹ 10 each. On 1.1.20X1 it granted 20,000 employees’ stock option at ₹ 50 per share when the market price was ₹ 120 per share. The options were to be exercised between 15th March, 20X2 and 31st March, 20X2. The employees exercised their options for 16,000 shares only and the remaining options lapsed. The company closes its books on 31st March every year. Show Journal entries (with narration) as would appear in the books of the company up to 31st March, 20X2.
Answer:
In the books of X Co. Ltd. Journal Entries
Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 2

Working Notes:

  1. No entry is passed when Stock Options are granted to employees. Hence, no entry will be passed on 1st April 20X1;
  2. Market Price = ₹ 120 per share whereas stock option price = ₹ 50, Hence, the difference ₹ 120 . ₹ 50 = ₹ 70 per share is equivalent to employee cost or employee compensation expense and will be charged to P/L Account as such for the number of options exercised i.e., 16,000 shares.

Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Question 5.
On 1st April, 20X1, a company offered 100 shares to each of its 500 employees at ₹ 50 per share. The employees are given a year to accept the offer. The shares issued under the plan shall be subject to lock-in on transfer for three years from the grant date. The market price of shares of the company on the pant date is ₹ 60 per share. Due to post-vesting restrictions on transfer, the fair value of shares issued under the plan is estimated at ₹ 56 per share.

On 31st March, 20X2, 400 employees accepted the offer and paid ₹ 50 per share purchased. Nominal value of each share is ₹ 10.
Record the issue of share in the books of the company under the aforesaid plan.
Answer:
Fair value of an option = ₹ 56 – ₹ 50 = ₹ 6
Number of shares issued = 400 employees × 100 shares/employee = 40,000 shares
Fair value of ESOP = 40,000 shares × ₹ 6 = ₹ 2,40,000
Vesting period = 1 month
Expenses recognized in 20X1 – X2 = ₹ 2,40,000
Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 3

Question 6.
A company has its share capital divided into shares of ₹ 10 each. On 1-1-20X1, it granted 5,000 employees stock options at ₹ 50, when the market price was ₹ 140. The options were to be exercised between 1-3-20X2 to 31-03- 20X2. The employees exercised their options for 4,800 shares only; remaining options lapsed. Pass the necessary journal entries for the year ended 31-3- 20X2, with regard to employees’ stock options.
Answer:
Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 21

Working Note:

  1. Employee Compensation Expenses = Discount between Market Price and option price = ₹ 140 – ₹ 50 = ₹ 90 per share = ₹ 90 × 4,800 = ₹ 4,32,000 in total.
  2. Securities Premium Account = ₹ 50 – ₹ 10 = ₹ 40 per share + ₹ 90 per share on account of discount of option price over market price = ₹ 130 per share = ₹ 130 × 4,800 = ₹ 6,24,000 in total.

Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Question 7.
A Company has its share capital divided into shares of ₹ 70 each. On 1st April 2010, it granted 20,000 employees’ stock options at ₹ 40, when the market price was ₹ 730. The options were to be exercised between 1st January 2011 to 15th March 2011. The employees exercised their options for 18,000 shares only; the remaining options lapsed. The company closes its books on 31st March every year. Pass Journal entries with regard to employees’ stock options. (May 2011) (5 Marks)
Answer:
Journal Entries
Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 4

Question 8.
A company has its share capital divided into shares of ₹ 10 each. On 1-4-2010, it granted 5,000 employees stock option at ? 50, when the market price was ₹ 140. The options were to be exercised between 1-12-2010 to 28-22011. The employees exercised their options for 4,800 shares only; remaining options lapsed. Pass the necessary journal entries for the year ended 31-3-2011, with regard to employees’ stock option. (Nov. 2011) (4 Marks)
Answer:
In the books of Company Journal Entries
Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 5

Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Question 9.
On 1st April, 2012, a company offered 100 shares to each of its 400 employees at ₹ 25 per share. The employees are given a month to accept the shares. The shares issued under the plan shall be subject to lock-in to transfer for three years from the grant date i.e. 30th April, 2012. The market price of shares of the company on the grant date is ₹ 30 per share. Due to post-vesting restrictions on transfer, the fair value of shares issued under the plan is estimated at ₹ 28 per share. (May 2012) (4 Marks)
Answer:
Fair value of an option = ₹ 28 – ₹ 25 = ₹ 3
Number of employees accepting the offer = 400 employees × 50% = 200 employees
Number of shares issued = 200 employees × 100 shares/employee = 20,000 shares
Fair value of ESPP = 20,000 shares × ₹ 3 = ₹ 60,000
Expenses recognized in 2012-13 = ₹ 60,000
Journal Entry
Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 22

Question 10.
Arihant Limited has its share capital divided into equity shares of ₹ 10 each. On 1-10-2012, it granted 20,000 employees stock option at ₹ 50 per share, when the market price was ₹ 120 per share. The options were to be exercised between 10th December, 2012 and 31st March, 2013. The employees exercised their options for 16,000 shares only and the remaining options lapsed. The company closes its books on 31st March every year. Show Journal Entries (with narration) as would appear in the books of the company upto 31st March, 2013. (May 2013) (4 Marks)
Answer:
Journal Entries in the books of Arihant Ltd.
Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 6

Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Question 11.
J Ltd. has its share capital divided into equity shares of ₹ 10 each. On 1.1.2018 it granted 5,000 employee stock options at ₹ 30 per share, when the market price was ₹ 50 per share. The options were to be exercised between 15th March, 2018 and 31st March, 2018. The employees exercised their options for 3,600 shares only and the remaining options lapsed. The company closes its books on 31st March every year. You are required to prepare journal entries (with narration) as would appear in the books of the company up to 31st March, 2018.
Answer:
Journal Entries in the books of J Ltd.
Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 7

Working Notes:

  1. No entry is passed when stock options are granted to employees. Hence, no entry will be passed on 1st January 2018;
  2. Market Price = ₹ 50 per share and stock option price = ₹ 30, Hence, the difference ₹ 50 – ₹ 30 = ₹ 20 per share is equivalent to employee cost or employee compensation expense and will be charged to P&L Account as such for the number of options exercised i.c. 3,600 shares.

Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Question 12.
Suvidhi Ltd. offered 50 shares to each of its 1500 employees on 1st April 2017 for ₹ 30. Option would be exercisable within a year it is vested. The shares issued under the plan shall be subject to lock-in on transfer for three years from the grant date. The market price of shares of the company is ₹ 50 per share on grant date. Due to post vesting restrictions on transfer, the fair value of shares issued under the plan is estimated at ₹ 38 per share.

On 31st March, 2018, 1200 employees accepted the offer and paid ₹ 30 per share purchased. Nominal value of each share is ₹ 10.
Record the issue of shares in the books of the company under the aforesaid plan. (May 2018 – New Course) (5 Marks)
Answer:
Journal Entries in the books of Suvidhi Ltd.
Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 8

Working Note:
Fair value of an option = ₹ 38 – ₹ 30 = ₹ 8
Number of shares issued = 1,200 employees × 50 shares/employee = 60,000 shares
Fair value of ESOP which will be recognized as expenses in the year 2017-2018
= 60,000 shares × ₹ 8 = ₹ 4,80,000
Vesting period = 1 year
Expenses recognized in 2017-2018 = ₹ 4,80,000

Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Question 13.
A company has its share capital divided into shares of ₹ 10 each. On 1-1-20X1, it granted 5,000 employees stock options at ₹ 50, when the market price was ₹ 140. The options were to be exercised between 1-3-20X2 to 31-03-20X2. The employees exercised their options for 4,800 shares only; remaining options lapsed. You are required to prepare the necessary journal entries for the year ended 31-3-20X2, with regard to employees’ stock options.
Answer:
In the books of Company Journal Entries
Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 9

Working Note:

  1. Employee Compensation Expenses = Discount between Market Price and option price = ₹ 140 – ₹ 50 = ₹ 90 per share = ₹ 90 × 4,800 = ₹ 4,32,000 in total.
  2. Securities Premium Account = ₹ 50 – ₹ 10 = ₹ 40 per share + ₹ 90 per share on account of discount of option price over market price = ₹ 130 per share = ₹ 130 × 4,800 = ₹ 6,24,000 in total.

Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Question 14.
A company has its share capital divided into shares of ₹ 10 each. On 1-1-20X1, it granted 5,000 employees stock options at ₹ 50, when the market price was ₹ 140. The options were to be exercised between 1-3-20X2 to 31-03-20X2. The employees exercised their options for 4,800 shares only; remaining options lapsed. Pass the necessary journal entries for the year ended 31-3-20X2, with regard to employees’ stock options.
Answer:
Journal Entries in the books of company
Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 10

Working Note:

  1. Employee Compensation Expenses = Discount between Market Price and option price = ₹ 140 – ₹ 50 = ₹ 90 per share = ₹ 90 × 4,800 = ₹ 4,32,000/- in total.
  2. Securities Premium Account = ₹ 50 – ₹ 10 = ₹ 40 per share + ₹ 90 per share on account of discount of option price over market price = ₹ 130 per share = ₹ 130 × 4,800 = ₹ 6,24,000/- in total.

Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Question 15.
Lucky Ltd. grants 100 stock options to each of its 1,500 employees on 1-4-2014 for ₹ 40, depending upon the employees at the time of vesting of options. Options would be exercisable within a year it is vested. The market price of the share is ₹? 70 each. These options will vest at the end of year 1 if the earning of Lucky Ltd. is 15%, or it will vest at the end of the year 2 if the average earning of two years is 13% or lastly it will vest at the end of the third year if the average earning of 3 years will be 10% 8,000, unvested options lapsed on 31-3-2015. 6,000 unvested options lapsed on 31-3-2016 and finally 4,000 unvested options lapsed on 31-3-2017.

The earnings of Lucky Ltd. for the three financial years ended on 31st March, 2015; 2016 and 2017 are 14%, 10% and 8% respectively.

1,250 employees exercised their vested options within a year and remaining options were unexercised at the end of the contractual life.

You are required to give the necessary journal entries for the above and also prepare the statement showing compensation expense to be recognized at the end of each year. (November 2018 – New Course) (10 Marks)
Answer:
Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 11
Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 12

Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Working Note:
Statement showing compensation expense to be recognized at the end of:
Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 13
*It is assumed that each share is of ₹ 10 each and Lucky Ltd. expects all the options to be vested after deducting actual lapses during the year.

Questions On Espp

Question 16.
On 1st April, 2013, a company offered 100 shares to each of its 500 employees at ₹ 50 per share. The employees are given a month to accept the offer. The shares issued under the plan shall be subject to lock-in on transfer for three years from the grant date. The market price of shares of the company on the grant date is ₹ 60 per share. Due to post-vesting restrictions on transfer, the fair value of shares issued under the plan is estimated at ₹ 56 per share. On 30th April, 2013,400 employees accepted the offer and paid ₹ 50 per share purchased. Nominal value of each share is ₹ 10.

Record the issue of shares in the books of the company under the aforesaid plan.
Answer:
Fair value of an option = ₹ 56 – ₹ 50 = ₹ 6
Number of shares issued = 400 employees × 100 shares/employee = 40,000 shares
Fair value of ESPP = 40,000 shares × ₹ 6 = ₹ 2,40,000
Vesting period = 1 month
Expenses recognized in 2013-14 = ₹ 2,40,000
Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 14

Advanced Questions on Esop

Question 17.
The following particulars in respect of stock options granted by a company are available:

Grant date April 1,2008
Number of employees covered 300
Vesting condition: Continuous employment upto 31/03/11 100
Nominal value per share (₹) 10
Exercise price per share (₹) 40
Fair value of option per share on grant date (₹) 20
Exercise date July 31, 2011

The number of options to vest per employee shall depend on company’s average annual earning after tax during vesting period as per the table below:

Average annual earning after tax Number of options per employee
Less than ₹ 100 crores Nil
₹ 100 crores to less than ? 120 crores 30
₹ 120 crores to less than ? 150 crores 45
Above ₹ 150 crores 60

Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Position on 31/03/09
(a) The company expects to earn ₹ 115 crores after tax on an average per year during vesting period.
(b) Number of employees expected to be entitled to option = 280
Position on 31 /03/10
(a) The company expects to earn ₹ 130 crores after tax on an average per year during vesting period.
(b) Number of employees expected to be entitled to option = 270
Position on 31 /03/11
(a) The company earned ₹ 128 crores after tax on an average per year during vesting period.
(b) Number of employees entitled to option = 275
Position on July 31, 2011
Number of employees exercising option = 265
Compute expenses to be recognised in each year and value of options forfeited.
Answer:
(A) Computation of expenses to be recognized in each year

Year Calculation Expense for Period (₹) Cumulative expense (₹)
2008-09 (280 × 30) options × ₹ 20 × 1/3 56,000 56,000
2009-10 [(270 × 45) options × ₹ 20 × 2/3] – 56,000 1,06,000 1,62,000
2010-11 [(275 × 45) options × ₹ 20 × 3/3] – 1,62,000 85,500 2,47,500

(B) Value of option forfeited as on July 31, 2011
Fair value of option per share = ₹ 20
Number of shares not subscribed = (275 – 265) × 45 = 450
Value of options forfeited = 450 × ₹ 20 = ₹ 9,000.

Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Question 18.
The following particulars in respect of stock options granted by a company are available:
tableee
The options will vest to employees serving continuously for 3 years from vesting date, provided the share price is ₹ 70 or above at the end of 2013-14.

The estimates of number of employees satisfying the condition of continuous employment were 48 on 31 /03/12,47 on 31 / 03/13. The number of employees actually satisfying the condition of continuous employment was 45.

The share price at the end of 2013-14 was ₹ 68.

Compute expenses to recognise in each year and show important accounts in books of the company.
Answer:
The vesting of options is subject to satisfaction of two conditions viz. service condition of continuous employment for 3 years and market condition that the share price at the end of 2013-14 is not less than ₹ 70. Since the share price on 31 /03 /14 was ₹ 68, the actual vesting shall be nil. Despite this, the company should recognise value of option over 3-vear vesting period from 2011-12 to 2013-14.

Year 2011-12
Fair value of option per share = ₹ 9
Number of shares expected to vest under the scheme = 48 × 1,000 = 48,000
Fair value = 48,000 × ₹ 9 = ₹ 4,32,000
Expected vesting period = 3 years
Value of option recognised as expense in 2011-12 = ₹ 4,32,000/3 = ₹ 1,44,000

Year 2012-13
Fair value of option per share = ₹ 9
Number of shares expected to vest under the scheme = 47 × 1,000 = 47,000
Fair value = 47,000 × ₹ 9 = 2 4,23,000 Expected vesting period = 3 years
Cumulative value of option to recognise as expense in 2011-12 and 2012-13 = (₹ 4,23,000/3) × 2 = ₹ 2,82,000
Value of option recognised as expense in 2011-12 = ₹ 1,44,000
Value of option recognised as expense in 2012-13 = ₹ 2,82,000 – ₹ 1,44,000 = ₹ 1,38,000

Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Year 2013-14
Fair value of option per share = ₹ 9
Number of shares actually vested under the scheme = 45 × 1,000 = 45,000
Fair value = 45,000 × ₹ 9 = 2 4,05,000
Vesting period = 3 years
Cumulative value of option to recognise as expense in 2011-12, 2012-13 and 2013-14 = ₹ 4,05,000
Value of option recognised as expense in 2011-12 and 2012-13 = ₹ 2,82,000
Value of option recognised as expense in 2013-14 =₹ 4,05,000 – ₹ 2,82,000 = ₹ 1,23,000

Employees’ Compensation A/c
Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 15

ESOP Outstanding A/c
Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 16

Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Question 19.
X Ltd. granted 500 stock options to its employees on 1.4.2011 at ₹ 50 per share. The vesting period is 2 years and the maximum exercise period is one year. Market price on that date is ₹ 140 per share. All the options were exercised on 30.06.2014. Pass journal entries giving suitable narrations, if the face value of equity share is t 10 per share. (Nov. 2014) (8 Marks)
Answer:
Journal entries in the books of X Ltd.
Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 17
Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 18

Working. Note:
1. Total employees compensation expenses
= 500 × (₹ 140 – ₹ 50) = ₹ 45,000

2. Employees compensation expense has been written off during 21/2 years on straight line basis as under:
Ist Year = ₹ 18,000 (for full year)
IInd Year = ₹ 18,000 (for full year)
IIIrd Year = ₹ 9,000 (for half year)

Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Question 20.
You are provided with the following details in respect of ABC Limited:

  1. 10,000 equity shares of nominal value of ₹ 10 each (under ESOP) were issued on 31st March, 2014;
  2. Exercise price of equity shares granted under ESOP was ₹ 160 per share;
  3. Market price of share was ₹ 400 each on the date of the grant;
  4. Vesting of shares was in the ratio of 30%, 60% and 100% after 1 year, 2 year and 3 year respectively from the date of grant;
  5. Vested options can be exercised up to 1 year from the date of vesting;
  6. The number of shares expired and exercised are as under:
Years ended
Particulars 31.03.2015 31.03.2016 31.03.2017
Vested Options Lapsed during the year 200 600
Unvested Options Lapsed during the year 400 600 1,000
Options Exercised during the year 2,500 2,000

From the above details you are required to calculate:

  1. Employee Compensation Expense for the year ending 31 st March, 2015, 31st March, 2016 and 31st March, 2017
  2. Balance of Employee Stock Option Outstanding Account as on 31st March, 2015, 31st March, 2016 and 31st March, 2017
    Entries relating to ESOP lapsed and options exercised were passed at the end of the respective financial year. (Nov. 2017) (8 Marks)

Answer:
(i) Computation of Employee Compensation Expense (Refer Working Note)

Vesting Date as on 31st March Cost to be recognized in the year ending on 31st March
2015 2016 2017
Grade I (30%) 6,24,000
Grade II (30%) 2,88,000 2,88,000
Grade III (40%) 2,40,000 2,40,000 2,40,000
Cost for the year 11,52,000 5,28,000 2,40,000
Cumulative cost 11,52,000 16,80,000 19,20,000

Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

(ii) Balance of ESOP Outstanding Account
Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 19

Working Note:
Determination of number of options expected to vest under each group
Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 20
Total compensation expense of ₹ 19,20,000, determined at the grant date, is attributed to 3 years.

Nature, Objective and Scope of Audit – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Students should practice these Nature, Objective and Scope of Audit – CA Inter Audit MCQ based on the latest syllabus.

Nature, Objective and Scope of Audit – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 1.
Objective of Audit is to :
(a) safeguarding of assets
(b) prevention and detection of fraud and error
(c) compliance of laws and regulations
(d) express an opinion on financial Statements
Answer:
(d) express an opinion on financial Statements

Question 2.
As per SA-200 “Overall Objectives of the Indepen¬dent Auditor”, in conducting an audit of financial statements, the overall objectives of the auditor is:
(a) to obtain reasonable assurance about whether the financial statements as a whole are free from material misstatement and to report on the financial statements, and communicate as required by the SAs, in accordance with the auditor’s findings
(b) to guide the management as to design, implemen-tation and maintenance of internal controls which are necessary to obtain reasonable assurance that financial statements are free from material mis-statements
(c) to communication with Those Charged with Gover-nance, the weaknesses identified during the course of audit
(d) to ensure compliance of laws and regulations that are applicable over the entity
Answer:
(a) to obtain reasonable assurance about whether the financial statements as a whole are free from material misstatement and to report on the financial statements, and communicate as required by the SAs, in accordance with the auditor’s findings

Question 3.
Which of the following is an example of Voluntary Audit?
(a) Audit of companies governed by Companies Act, 2013
(b) Audit of Individuals under Section 44AB of Income Tax Act, 1961
(c) Audit of companies under Section 44AB of Income Tax Act, 1961
(d) Audit of Individuals on the directives of Government for the purpose of sanction of grants
Answer:
(d) Audit of Individuals on the directives of Government for the purpose of sanction of grants

Nature, Objective and Scope of Audit – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 4.
Which of the following is not an inherent limita¬tion of audit?
(a) Nature of Financial Reporting
(b) Nature of Audit procedures
(c) Nature and Size of Business Entity
(d) Existence of related party transactions
Answer:
(c) Nature and Size of Business Entity

Question 5.
The IAASB functions as an independent standard-setting body under the auspices of :
(a) International Federation of Auditors
(b) International Federation of Accountants
(c) Auditing Practices Committee
(d) International Ethical Standard Board of Accountants
Answer:
(b) International Federation of Accountants

Question 6.
As per SQC-1, which of the following element is not part of the firm’s system of quality control:
(a) Leadership responsibilities for quality within the firm
(b) Ethical requirements including independence
(c) Preparation of financial statements in compliance of applicable Financial reporting Framework
(d) Acceptance and continuance of client relationships and specific engagements
Answer:
(c) Preparation of financial statements in compliance of applicable Financial reporting Framework

Question 7.
SQC1 requires the firm to obtain information be-fore accepting an engagement. Which of the following information will not assist the engagement partner in determining whether the decisions regarding the acceptance and continuance of audit engagements are appropriate:
(a) The integrity of the principal owners, key management and those charged with governance of the entity;
(b) Whether the engagement team is competent to perform the audit engagement and has the necessary capabilities, including time and resources;
(c) Whether the firm and the engagement team can comply with relevant ethical requirements;
(d) Whether the firm and the engagement partner are able to communicate with the TCWG
Answer:
(d) Whether the firm and the engagement partner are able to communicate with the TCWG

Question 8.
SQC1 “Quality Control for Firms that perform Audits and Review of Historical Financial Information, and other Assurance and related services”, requires firms to establish policies and procedures for the timely completion of the assembly of audit files. An appropriate time limit within which to complete the assembly of the Final audit File is
(a) Ordinarily not more than 60 days after the date of the auditor’s report
(b) Ordinarily not more than 30 days after the date of the auditor’s report
(c) Ordinarily not more than 90 days after the date of the auditor’s report
(d) Ordinarily not more than 120 days after the date of the auditor’s report
Answer:
(a) Ordinarily not more than 60 days after the date of the auditor’s report

Question 9.
SQC 1 requires firms to establish policies and procedures for the retention of
(a) Audit File
(b) Engagement documentation
(c) Final Audit file
(d) Audit Documentation
Answer:
(b) Engagement documentation

Question 10.
SQC 1 requires firms to establish policies and procedures for the retention of engagement documentation. The retention period for audit engagements ordinarily is:
(a) No shorter than eight years from the date of the auditor’s report, or, if later, the date of the group auditor’s report
(b) No shorter than six years from the date of the auditor’s report, or, if later, the date of the group auditor’s report
(c) No shorter than seven years from the date of the auditor’s report, or, if later, the date of the group auditor’s report
(d) No shorter than ten years from the date of the auditor’s report, or, if later, the date of the group auditor’s report
Answer:
(c) No shorter than seven years from the date of the auditor’s report, or, if later, the date of the group auditor’s report

Question 11.
As per SA 210 “Agreeing the Terms of Audit Engagements”, preconditions for an audit may be defined as the use by management of an acceptable financial reporting framework in the preparation of the financial statements and the agreement of managementand, where appropriate, those charged with governance to the premise on which an audit is conducted. In order to establish whether the precon-ditions for an audit are present, the auditor shall:
(a) determine whether the audit can be performed in accordance with Quality Control and Engagement Standards
(b) determine whether the financial reporting framework is acceptable
(c) determine whether the audit can be performed in accordance with legal and regulatory requirements
(d) determine whether policies and procedures as followed for internal control are acceptable
Answer:
(b) determine whether the financial reporting framework is acceptable

Nature, Objective and Scope of Audit – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 12.
The agreed terms of the audit engagement shall be recorded in an audit engagement letter which shall include the following except-
(a) Responsibilities of the auditor
(b) Description of methods to be followed for obtaining audit evidence
(c) Responsibilities of management
(d) Objective and scope of the audit of the financial statements
Answer:
(b) Description of methods to be followed for obtaining audit evidence

Question 13.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) Auditing implies systematic, critical and special examination of the records of a business for a specific purpose
(b) The purpose of an audit is to enhance the degree of confidence of intended users in the financial statements
(c) Auditing is legally obligatory for all types of business organisations
(d) Auditor’s Opinion is an assurance as to the future viability of the enterprise or the efficiency or effec-tiveness with which management has conducted the affairs of the enterprise
Answer:
(b) The purpose of an audit is to enhance the degree of confidence of intended users in the financial statements

Question 14.
Which of the following is not an advantage of independent audit?
(a) Settlement of Taxes
(b) Protection of Interest of Stakeholders
(c) Guarantee as to future viability of the entity
(d) Moral Check on employees
Answer:
(c) Guarantee as to future viability of the entity

Question 15.
Threats occur when, because of a relationship, a professional accountant becomes too sympathetic to the interests of others, are known as:
(a) Self-interest threats
(b) Self-review threats
(c) Familiarity threats
(d) Intimidation threats
Answer:
(c) Familiarity threats

Question 16.
Loan or guarantee to or from the concerned client is an example of –
(a) Self-review threats
(b) Self-interest threats
(c) Advocacy threats
(d) Intimidation threats
Answer:
(b) Self-interest threats

Question 17.
When an auditor deals with shares or securities of the audited company is an example of:
(a) Self-review threats
(b) Self-interest threats
(c) Advocacy threats
(d) Intimidation threats
Answer:
(c) Advocacy threats

Question 18.
Intimidation threats occur:
(a) when a professional accountant may be deterred from acting objectively by threats, actual or per-ceived
(b) whenaprofessional accountant promotes a position or opinion to the point that subsequent objectivity may be compromised
(c) when a previous judgment needs to be re-evaluated by the professional accountant responsible for that judgment
(d) as a result of the financial or other interests of a professional accountant or of a relative
Answer:
(a) when a professional accountant may be deterred from acting objectively by threats, actual or per-ceived

Question 19.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) To maintain an adequate accounting system incorporating various controls is the responsibility of Management
(b) The term independence implies that the auditor should respect the confidentiality of client information
(c) An unqualified opinion in audit report is aguarantee as to the future viability of the company
(d) The audit engagement letter is sent by the client to auditor
Answer:
(a) To maintain an adequate accounting system incorporating various controls is the responsibility of Management

Question 20.
An attitude that includes a questioning mind, beingalertto conditions whichmay indicate possible misstatement due to error or fraud, and a critical assessment of audit evidence, is known as
(a) Professional Judgment
(b) Professional Skepticism
(c) Professional Competence
(d) Professional Behaviour
Answer:
(b) Professional Skepticism

Question 21.
The application of relevant training, knowledge and experience, within the context provided by auditing, accounting and ethical standards, in making informed decisions about the courses of action that are appropriate in the circumstances of the audit engagement, is known as:
(a) Professional Judgment
(b) Professional Skepticism
(c) Professional Competence
(d) Professional Behaviour
Answer:
(a) Professional Judgment

Question 22.
SA 210 deals with:
(a) Agreeing the terms of Review Engagement
(b) Agreeing the terms of Audit Engagement
(c) Agreeing the terms of Compilation Engagement
(d) Agreeingthe terms of Other Assurance Engagement
Answer:
(b) Agreeing the terms of Audit Engagement

Question 23.
Which of the following is incorrect?
(a) Auditor is able to obtain only reasonable assurance due to inherent limitation of audit
(b) The auditor is not expected to, and cannot, reduce audit risk to zero and cannot therefore obtain ab-solute assurance that the financial statements are free from material misstatement due to fraud or error
(c) An Auditor is considered to lack independence if the partner of the audit firm deals with shares and securities of the audited entity
(d) The preparation of financial statements does not involve judgment by management in applying the requirements of the entity’s applicable financial reporting framework to the facts and circumstances of the entity
Answer:
(d) The preparation of financial statements does not involve judgment by management in applying the requirements of the entity’s applicable financial reporting framework to the facts and circumstances of the entity

Question 24.
Which of the following standard requires implementation of quality control procedures while performing an audit engagement:
(a) SQC 1
(b) SA 220
(c) SQC 1 and SA 220
(d) SA 200 and SA 220
Answer:
(b) SA 220

Question 25.
Which of the following aspect is not covered in audit of financial statements:
(a) Examination of Accounting System & Internal Control
(b) Vouching of the transactions
(c) Verification of Assets & Liabilities
(d) Design, implementation and maintenance of internal Control System
Answer:
(d) Design, implementation and maintenance of internal Control System

Question 26.
Which of the following is true?
(a) Management of the organisation is solely responsible for the compliance of auditing standards while preparing financial statements
(b) The matter of difficulty, time, or cost involved is in itself a valid basis for the auditor to omit an audit procedure for which there is no alternative
(c) The basic objective of audit does not change with reference to nature, size or form of the entity
(d) Audit procedures used to gather audit evidence may be effective for detecting an intentional mis-statement
Answer:
(c) The basic objective of audit does not change with reference to nature, size or form of the entity

Question 27.
Standards on Assurance Engagements are to be applied in:
(a) the audit of historical financial information
(b) the review of historical financial information
(c) assurance engagements, engagements dealing with subject matter other than historical financial information
(d) engagements involving application of agreed upon procedures to information and other related services such as compilation engagements
Answer:
(c) assurance engagements, engagements dealing with subject matter other than historical financial information

Nature, Objective and Scope of Audit – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 28.
Ethical requirements are defined as the Code of Ethics issued by the ICAI establishes the fundamen¬tal principles of professional ethics. Which of the following is not specified in Code of Ethics, as such:
(a) Objectivity
(h) Professional competence
(c) Confidentiality
(d) Communication Skills
Answer:
(d) Communication Skills

Question 29.
Which of the following is false?
(a) Engagement letter need to be entered for each year of the period of auditor’s appointment
(b) The objective of auditor is to obtain reasonable assurance and to report on the financial statements
(c) An audit is not an official investigation into alleged wrongdoing
(d) Guidance Notes are recommendatory in Nature
Answer:
(a) Engagement letter need to be entered for each year of the period of auditor’s appointment

Question 30.
In case of recurring audits, the auditor shall assess whether circumstances require revision in terms of the audit engagement and whether there is a need to remind the entity of the existing terms of the audit engagement. Which of the following circumstance do not require revision in the terms of the audit engagement or to remind the entity of existing terms:
(a) significant change of senior management
(b) significant change in ownership
(c) significant change in nature or size of the entity’s business
(d) significant change in engagement ream members
Answer:
(d) significant change in engagement ream members

Question 31.
Judging the significance of a matter requires analysis of the facts and circumstances.
(a) objective
(b) subjective
(c) both subjective and objective
(d) qualitative
Answer:
(a) objective

Question 32.
An important factor in determining the form, content and extent of audit documentation of significant matters is the extent of exercised in performing the work and evaluating the results.
(a) professional skepticism
(b) professional integrity
(c) professional judgment
(d) professional sincerity
Answer:
(c) professional judgment

Question 33.
Standard on Quality Control (SQC) 1 provides that, unless otherwise specified by law or reg¬ulation, audit documentation is the property of
(a) Management.
(b) Those charged with governance.
(c) Management or Those charged with governance.
(d) Auditor.
Answer:
(d) Auditor.

Question 34.
Professional skepticism is necessary to the critical assessment of
(a) audit documentation
(b) audit evidence
(c) audit procedures and techniques
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) audit evidence

Question 35.
As per SA 210 “Agreeing the Terms of Audit Engagements”, the auditor shall agree the terms of the audit engagement with:
(a) Management
(b) Those charged with governance
(c) Management or those charged with governance, as appropriate,
(d) Engagement team members
Answer:
(c) Management or those charged with governance, as appropriate,

Question 36.
The matter of difficulty, time, or cost involved is:
(a) not in itself a valid basis for the auditor to omit an audit procedure for which there is no alternative.
(b) in itself a valid basis for the auditor to omit an audit procedure for which there is no alternative.
(c) not in itself a valid basis for the auditor to omit an audit procedure for which alternative exists.
(d) not in itself a valid basis for the auditor to omit an audit procedure.
Answer:
(a) not in itself a valid basis for the auditor to omit an audit procedure for which there is no alternative.

Question 37.
____________ are self-evident, and occur when auditors form relationships with the client where they end up being too sympathetic to the client’s interests.
(a) Self-review threats
(b) Familiarity threats
(c) Intimidation threats
(d) Advocacy threats
Answer:
(b) Familiarity threats

Nature, Objective and Scope of Audit – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 38.
If the auditor concludes that there is reason¬able justification to change the engagement and if the audit work performed complied with the SAs applicable to the changed engagement, the report issued would be appropriate for the revised terms of engagement. In order to avoid confusion, the report would not include reference to:
(a) the original engagement; or any procedures that may have been performed in the original engagement.
(b) the original engagement;
(c) any procedures that may have been performed in the original engagement
(d) the original engagement and any procedures that may have been performed in the original engagement.
Answer:
(a) the original engagement; or any procedures that may have been performed in the original engagement.

Question 39.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) The auditor is not expected to, and cannot, reduce audit risk to zero and cannot therefore obtain ab-solute assurance that the financial statements are free from material misstatement due to fraud or error.
(b) The auditor is expected to and can reduce audit risk to zero and can therefore obtain absolute assurance.
(c) The auditor is not expected to, and cannot, reduce audit risk to zero and cannot therefore obtain reasonable assurance that the financial statements are free from material misstatement due to fraud or error.
(d) The auditor is expected to and can reduce audit risk to zero and can therefore obtain reasonable assurance that the financial statements are free from material misstatement due to fraud or error.
Answer:
(a) The auditor is not expected to, and cannot, reduce audit risk to zero and cannot therefore obtain ab-solute assurance that the financial statements are free from material misstatement due to fraud or error.

Question 40.
Direct financial interest or materially significant indirect financial interest in a client is an example of
(a) Self-review threats
(b) Self-interest threats
(c) Advocacy threats
(d) Intimidation threats
Answer:
(b) Self-interest threats

Question 41.
M/s KYC & Co. is a reputed Audit firm in Mumbai. They are appointed as Statutory Auditors of Blessed Ltd. Which of the below is the responsibility of M/s KYC & Co.
(a) Preparation of financial statements
(b) Designing, implementation and maintenance of internal control system
(c) Reporting on true and fair view of financial statements
(d) Compliance with the applicable law and regulation
Answer:
(c) Reporting on true and fair view of financial statements

Question 42.
Mr. A, auditor and Mr. B, Finance Manager of XYZ Pvt. Ltd. are friends. Mr. A prepares the audit report according to the wishes and directions of Mr. B. In this situation which essential quality of the auditor has been compromised:
(a) Professional Competence
(b) Independence
(c) Professional Skepticism
(d) Due care
Answer:
(b) Independence

Question 43.
Mr. Salman, is an engagement partner of Khan & Co. Chartered Accountants for an audit of Lava Ltd., he died of a stroke on 30.09.2020 after completing the entire routine audit work of Lava Ltd. Mr. Shoaib, one of the partners of Khan & Co. will be signing the accounts of Lava Ltd. What is the course of action to be taken by Mr. Shoaib?
(a) Sign the accounts of Lava Ltd. without reviewing the work of his partner
(b) Sign the balance sheet after reviewing the work of his partner
(c) Withdraw the audit as the person who has per-formed the audit is no more
(d) Issue an adverse report
Answer:
(b) Sign the balance sheet after reviewing the work of his partner

Business Cycles – CA Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 5

Business Cycles – CA Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 5

Browsing through CA Foundation Business Economics Notes Chapter 5 Business Cycles help students to revise the complete subject quickly.

Business Cycles – Business Economics CA Foundation Notes Chapter 5

All countries have gone through fluctuations in economic activities i.e. ups and downs in its economic activities. In other words, every country passes through a pattern where there are period of economic growth, followed by periods of slowing growth and even failing growth. There are periods of prosperity followed by downturns. Thus, “The Business Cycle is the periodic fluctuations in economic activity measured by change in Real GDP.”

Business Cycles Notes – CA Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 5

Although these economic fluctuations are recurrent and occur periodically, they are not at regular interval and are not of same length.

Phases of Business Cycle:
→ A business cycle passes through the following four distinct phases:

  • Expansion/Boom/ Recovery/ Upswing
  • Peak/Boom/Prosperity
  • Contraction/Recession/ Downswing
  • Trough/Depression

→ The following figure shows the four stages of the business cycle.
Business Cycles Notes – CA Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 5 1
In the figure above the four phases business cycles are shown. The broken line represents long time growth trend or potential GDP. It shows rising trend of growth over a period of time. The figure starts from Trough when the overall economic activities i.e. level of production and employment are at the lowest level.

With increase in the economic activities the economy moves into Expansion Phase. But expansion phase cannot continue indefinitely, and after reaching Peak, economy starts contracting i.e. Contraction Phase sets in and continue till it reaches the lowest turning point called Trough. Here cycle completes and new cycle starts.

Expansion:
→ In the expansion phase, there is increase in Output and Employment. Expansion phase is characterized by –

  • increase in national output,
  • increase in employment,
  • increase in aggregate demand,
  • increase in capital i.e. investments,
  • increase in consumer spending,
  • increase in sales, profits, stock prices, & expansion of bank credit.
  • increase in standard of living.

There is no Involuntary unemployment and whatever unemployment exist is only of Frictional or Structural in nature.
The growth ultimately slows down and reaches its peak.

Peak:
Peak phase of the cycle is the highest point. The economy is producing at its maximum level. The economy becomes overheated i.e. unsustainable. The expansion phase ends here. The prices of inputs increase, resulting higher cost of production, leading to higher output prices. Higher output price leads to increased cost of living. Fixed income earners and consumers suffer. Economic growth stabilizes at peak an then starts the downswing.

Business Cycles Notes – CA Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 5

Contraction:
In contraction phase. There is fall in Output and Employment levels. Contraction phase is go characterized by –

  • fall in the level of investments,
  • fall in the level of production and employment,
  • fall in the incomes of people,
  • demand and consumption of both capital goods and consumer goods fall,
  • bank credit, shrinks as investments fall,
  • stock prices fall,
  • firms become pessimistic about future,
  • there is lot of excess production capacity in industries.

There is large scale involuntary unemployment.
A severe contraction or recession of economic activities pushes the economy into Depression.

Trough and Depression:
→ The lowest level of economic activity is called trough or depression. All economic activity touch the bottom and the phase of trough is reached. Trough is the turning point into expansion. Increased investments lead to increase in consumption. Therefore, industries expand production and start using their idle production capacity and rate of unemployment falls. With this the cycle is complete.

→ It is very difficult to predict turning points of business cycles. Changes in different economic activities is used to measure the business cycle and to predict in which direction the economy is headed. There are three types of economic indicators, depending on their timing namely

  • Leading Indicators,
  • Lagging Indicators, and
  • Coincident Indicators

Leading Indicators signal future changes:
→ Leading Indicators change before the economy itself changes Le. change prior to large economic adjustments.
Example – changes in stock prices, profit margins and profits, the house market, manufacturing activity, etc. Leading Indicators should be used with caution as they may not be always accurate.

→ Lagging Indicators usually change after the economy as a whole changes i.e. after the real out put changes. Lagging Indicators are useful to confirm the business cycle.
Example – unemployment, the consumer price index, interest rates, lending by banks, etc.

→ Coincident Indicators also called Concurrent Indicators occur at about the same time with business cycle movements. They give us idea about current state of economy.
Example – GDP, inflation, industrial output, personal income, etc.

Features of Business Cycles:

  • Business cycles occur periodically. They do not show same regularity, duration and intensity.
  • The length of different phases of business cycles is not definite and hence do not show smoothness and regularity.
  • Business cycles do not bring about changes in one industry or sector but occur simultaneously in all industries and sectors. Further, it passes from one industry to another.
  • Fluctuations take place not only in the level of output but also in other related variables like consumption, employment, investment, interest rates and price level.
  • Cyclical fluctuations affect adversely the consumption of durable goods like capital goods, scooters, cars, houses, refrigerators, etc. Their demand falls. As a result investments become unstable.
  • However, consumption of non-durable goods and services does not vary much during different phases of business cycle.
  • Business cycles causes lot of uncertainty for businessmen and forecasting becomes difficult. Profits fluctuate.
  • Business cycles affect the inventories of goods. During depression inventories start accumulation more than the desired level. This results reduction in the production. When recovery starts, inventories are below the required level.
  • Business cycles are international in character.

Business Cycles Notes – CA Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 5

Causes of Business Cycles – Business Cycles may occur due to internal and external causes or a combination of both.

Internal Causes (Endogenous Factors):
Internal causes of business cycle are those, which are built within the economic system. They are –
(1) Fluctuations in Effective Demand:
Fluctuations in economic activities is due to fluctuations in aggregate effective demand. When aggregate demand falls, it results in lower output, income and employment. This causes a downward spiral. Increase in aggregate demand causes conditions of expansion and boom.

(2) Fluctuations in Investments:
Investments fluctuate because of changes in profit expectations of entrepreneurs. High investments brings increase in aggregate demand and thus result in upswing and vice versa.

(3) Variations in government spending:
Fluctuations in government spending affects the economic activities and results in business fluctuations.

(4) Money Supply:
According to Hawtrey and Friendman, business cycles relate to fluctuations in money and credit supply. Cheap money policy leads to expansion of money and credit supply resulting in increased economic activities and vice versa.

(5) Monetary and Fiscal Policies:
Monetary and Fiscal Policies also cause business cycles. Expansionary policies, like low interest rates, rates increased government spending and tax cuts boost economic activities. It there is inflation opposite will be done resulting in showing down of economy.

(6) Psychological Factors:
According to Pigou, business cycles appear because of the optimistic and pessimistic mood of the business community. It business community is optimistic about future market conditions, they make investments. Here, the expansion phase starts ultimately leading to boom and vice versa.

(7) Other Factors:

  • According to Schumpeter, business cycles occur due to innovations that take place from time to time in economic system. (Innovation Theory)
  • According to Nicholas Kaldor, the present fluctuations in prices are responsible for fluctuations in output and employment in future (Cobweb Theory)

External Causes (Exogenous Factors):
(1) Wars:
During war time, all the available resources are used up for the production of arms – and ammunitions. This results in the fall of production of capital and consumer goods.
This in turn causes fall in income, profits and employment and contraction in economic activities take place which may lead to depression.

(2) Post War Reconstruction:
After war, the level of consumption and investment goes upward. Both the government and individuals are involved in construction.
Example – houses, roads, bridges, communication, etc. The economy picks up resulting in higher output, employment and income.

(3) Technology:
Another cause of business is scientific development leading to improved technology. Adoption of new technology for production of new and better goods and services require huge investments. Increased investments increases employment income and profits this gives boost to the economy.

(4) Natural Factors:
Weather cycles causes fluctuations in agricultural output. If in any year, weather is good the output of agriculture sector will increase. This will also increase the demand for industrial goods and vice versa.

(5) Population Growth:
If the population growth rate is higher than the economic growth rate, income level will be low. This will result is lower savings and investments and therefore, lower income and employment.

Business Cycles Notes – CA Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 5

Relevance of Business Cycles in Business Decision Making:
→ Understanding the business cycle is important for all types of business enterprises because it affects the demand for their product and in turn their profits.

→ Knowledge of business cycles, its phases and characteristics help the business enterprises to frame appropriate policies.
Example – New opportunities for investment, employment and production opens up at the time of prosperity. So understanding the economic environment is important white making business decisions.

→ Business managers have to advantageously respond in complex time during the whole business cycle through boom, downswing, recession and recovery to arrive at sound strategic environment.

→ We have seen that business cycles do not affect all the sector uniformly. Some business are more vulnerable white others are not or less vulnerable to changes in business cycle. Businesses like fashion retailers, electrical goods, restaurants, constructors, advertising, foreign tour operators, etc. are directly linked with economic growth. Such business are called cyclical businesses. So during recession such businesses slump and vice versa.

→ The phase of the business cycle is important to decide on entry into the market by a new firm or to decide about launch of a new product.

Depreciation Accounting – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting Notes

Depreciation Accounting – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting Notes

Go through this Depreciation Accounting – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes will help students in revising the entire subject quickly.

Depreciation Accounting – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting Notes

Depreciation:

  • Depreciation means a fall in the value of asset due to usage, efflux of time or due to obsolescence.
  • It is a permanent, continuous or gradual shrinkage in the book value of a fixed asset.
  • The annual loss in the value of the asset is taken as the expenditure of the business.
  • Depreciation is a process of allocating the cost of a fixed asset over its estimated useful life in a rational and systematic manner.
  • “Depreciation is a process of allocation of expired cost and not of valuation of fixed asset”.

Depreciation Accounting:
Definition: “A measure of the wearing out, consumption or other loss of value of a depreciable asset arising from use, effluxion of time or obsolescence through technology and market changes. Depreciation is allocated so as to charge a fair proportion of depreciable amount in each accounting period during the expected useful life of the asset. Depreciation includes amortization of assets whose useful life is predetermined.”

Institute of Charted Accountants of India (ICAI):
“A system of accounting which aims to distribute the cost or other basic value of tangible capital assets less salvage (if any) over the estimated useful life of the unit (which may be a group of assets) in a systematic and rational manner. It is a process of allocation and not of valuation.”

American Institute of Certified Public Accountants (AICPA):
Characteristics of Depreciation –

  • Depreciation is the reduction in the book value of an asset.
  • Depreciation reduces the book value of an asset and not the market value.
  • Depreciation is a charge against profit.
  • Depreciation is a process of allocation of cost of an asset over the period of its life.
  • The term depreciation is used for tangible fixed assets. For wasting assets (Like mines) it is called depletion and for fictitious assets such as goodwill it is called amortization.
  • The amount of depreciation can never be calculated exactly, it can only be estimated.
  • Depreciation is must, i.e. it always takes place whether the asset is carefully handled or neglected.
  • If market value of fixed asset is fluctuating, the same does not affect the amount of depreciation so made on respective assets.
  • Total depreciation cannot exceed its depreciable value or original cost where the scrap value is nil.

The fundamental objectives of depreciation are:

  • To maintain the nominal capital invested in fixed assets.
  • To allocate the expired cost of fixed assets over a number of accounting years.

Causes of Depreciation:

  • Physical wear and tear due to continuous use.
  • Efflux (passage of time)
  • Physical deterioration
  • Obsolescence (asset becoming redundant due to technological changes
  • Accidents (fire etc.)
  • Depletion

Objectives of providing Depreciation:

  • To ascertain correct profit/loss
  • To show a true and fair view of financial statements
  • To show assets at their proper value
  • To make provision for replacement of assets.
  • Compliance of legal provisions
  • To get tax benefit

Note : Replacement of asset.
Depreciation is a non cash expenditure, hence the amount debited in the profit and loss account are retained In the business. These are available for the replacement of the asset (buying a new asset), when replacement is required.

Factors in Measurement of Depreciation –
Cost of Asset:
Cost of the asset refers to the cost at which the asset is purchased. It includes all expenses incurred upto the point the asset is ready for use. Original cost = Purchase price + freight + installation cost

Useful Life of the Asset:
Useful life of the asset means the period for which an asset can be used productively without incurring extraordinary repairs and maintenance expense.
Determination of useful life is a matter of estimation.

Scrap (Residual value):
Residual value is the estimated sale value of the asset at the end of the economic life. Difference between the cost and the residual value is the depreciable amount which is to be written off over the useful life.

Other factors:
The following are the other factors affecting the measurement of depreciation.

  • Obsolescence i.e. chance of going out of fashion of the asset.
  • Working hours of the asset.
  • Repairs and Renewals.
  • Skills of the operator handling the asset.
  • Legal provisions relating to the asset.
  • The addition if any made during the year.

Depreciation Accounting:
Depreciation Accounting is the process of allocating the cost of depreciable asset less its salvage value over its serviceable useful life.

Note:
Depreciable assets are the assets which:

  • Are expected to be used for more than one accounting period
  • Have a limited useful life
  • Are held by the organisation for use in the production or supply of goods and services.
  • Depreciation is not a process of valuation but it is an allocation.
  • There are two methods of recording depreciation:
  • When depreciation is charged to asset account
  • When provision of depreciation/ accumulated depreciation account is created.

(i) When Depreciation is Charged to Asset A/c:

  • Depreciation is charged from the asset directly.
  • At the year end, depreciation A/c is closed by transferring it to the Profit & Loss Account.
  • In Balance Sheet, asset is shown at the written down value (cost less depreciation).
  • Depreciation is to be charged whether the business incurs profit or loss.
  • Depreciation provides funds for replacing the asset when its useful life ends

Journal Entries:
1. Charging Depreciation from Asset:
Depreciation A/c Dr. (With amount of depreciation)
To Asset A/c
(Being depreciation on asset charged)

2. Transferring Depreciation A/c to P/L A/c :
Profit & Loss A/c Dr. (With amount of depreciation)
To Depreciation A/c (Being depreciation transferred to P/L)

(ii) When Provision for Depreciation A/c is Made:

  • Current year’s depreciation will be transferred to Profit/Loss A/c each year.
  • In the Balance Sheet, asset will continue to appear at its original cost and total amount of depreciation charged till date will be shown in provision for depreciation or accumulated depreciation A/c.
  • The balance is calculated by deducting provision for depreciation from original cost of asset.

Journal Entries:
1. Charging Depreciation:
Depreciation A/c Dr. (With amount of depreciation)
To Provision for depreciation A/c
(Being the depreciation on asset charged)

2. Transfer of Depreciation to P/L A/c at the year end:
Profit/Loss A/c Dr. (With amount of current year depreciation)
To Depreciation A/c
(Being depreciation transferred to P/L Account)

3. When asset is sold/discarded/exchanged accumulated depreciation for that asset in provision for Dep. A/c is transferred to asset account Provision for Dep. A/c Dr.
To Relevant Asset A/c

Notes :
1. Accumulated depreciation means total depreciation provided on an asset till date.

2. If the words “p.a.” i.e. per annum are attached to the rate of depreciation, then depreciation must be calculated only for that period when asset was held. Whereas if the words “p.a.” is not attached then depreciation is to be charged for the full year.

Component Method of Depreciation:
It may be noted that Accounting Standards as well as the Companies Act, 2013 allow depreciation to be charged on a component basis. Each part of an item of Property, Plant and Equipment with a cost that is significant in relation to the total cost of the item should be depreciated separately, eg.: It may be appropriate to depreciate separately the airframe and engines of an aircraft.

Methods of Providing Depreciation:
Depreciation Accounting – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting Notes 1

Uniform Charge Method:
(i) Straight Line Method (Fixed Installment Method):
1. Under this method, a percentage of original cost of the asset is written off every year so that asset account may be reduced to its residual value at end of its estimated economic life.

2. If the percentage of depreciation is not given, then the amount of depreciation to be charged every year shall be calculated as follows:
Amount of Depreciation = \(\frac { Cost-Estimated scrao value }{ Expected life }\)
Percentage of Depreciation = \(\frac { Deprecation × 100 }{ Ongnal cost of assete }\)

Example:
A firm bought an asset for ₹ 2,00,000 on 1st January, 2012. ₹ 10,000 are spent on installation. The life of the asset is estimated to be 5 years. Its scrap value at the end of the period is ₹ 10,000. Find the amount of annual depreciation.
Solution:
Amount of depreciation = \(\frac{\text { Cost – scrapvalue }}{\text { Estimatedlife }}\)
Here;
Cost of asset Original cost + expenses upto installation
= 2,00,000 + 10,000
= ₹ 2,10,000
Scrap value = ₹ 10,000 (given)
Estimated life = 5 years (given)

Applying the above Formula :
Amount of depreciation = \(\frac{\text { Cost – scrapvalue }}{\text { Estimatedlife }}\)
= \(\frac{2,10,000-10,000}{5}\)
= ₹ 40,000.
Therefore, ₹ 40,000 will be charged annually as depreciation.

Note : Calculating rate of depreciation
[Taking figures of above example]
Rate of depreciation = \(\frac{\text { Amount of Annual Depreciation }}{\text { Cost of Asset }}\)
= \(\frac{40,000}{2,10,000} \times 100\)
= 19% (approx)

  • The amount of depreciation under this method will remain same every year.
  • If the asset is purchased in between the year, depreciation will be charged only for that part of the year when the asset was held by the company.
  • If the date on which asset is purchased is not given, depreciation will be charged for half year (assuming that the asset was purchased in the mid of the year).
  • Value of asset each year in Balance Sheet is reasonably fair.

Merits of this Method:

  • Simple to calculate
  • Asset can be completely written off
  • Amount and rate of depreciation remains same throughout the useful life.
  • Best suited when asset is depreciating due to efflux of time (passage of time).
  • The value of the asset each year in the Balance Sheet is reasonably fair.

Demerits of this Method:

  • It assumes that the asset should be used equally throughout its life. This is not realistic.
  • Charge on asset will not be uniform because in the later years apart from depreciation, repair expenses to the asset will also be incurred.
  • It does not take into account the effective utilization of the asset.

Declining Charge Method – Diminishing Balance Method:

  • This method is also known as written down value method.
  • Under this method, depreciation is charged at a fixed rate on the reducing balance.
  • Reducing Balance or Written Down Value = Cost of Asset – Depreciation
  • The depreciation charge under this method goes on decreasing gradually.

Hence in the earlier years when there are negligible repairs, depreciation is high and in the later years when repairs are high, depreciation charge is low.

Annuity Method:

    • Under this method, depreciation takes into account element of interest on capital outlay.
    • Here, along with the value of asset, the interest lost over the life of the asset is also written off.
    • The amount of Interest is calculated on Book value of the asset in the beginning of each year.
    • Since the amount of interest lost cannot be computed easily, hence we make use of annuity tables for calculating the amount of depreciation.
    • Here, the amount written off annually is constant.
    • This method is best suited for writing off amount paid for long leases which involve a heavy capital outlay.

Note:
What is the element of interest on capital outlay?
When an amount is invested to purchase a capital asset, it is assumed that if that amount was invested elsewhere, it would have earned interest. This notional income is considered as a cost of the asset. It is a type of opportunity cost.

Journal Entries:
(i) On Purchase of Asset:
Asset A/c Dr.
To Bank A/c

(ii) For Charging Interest on Asset:
Asset A/c Dr.
To Interest A/c

(iii) For Charging Depreciation:
Depreciation A/c Dr.
To Asset A/c

(iv) For Transfer of Interest A/c to P/L A/c:
Interest A/c Dr.
To P/L A/c

(v) For Transfer of Depreciation A/c to P/L:
Profit & Loss A/c Dr.
To Depreciation A/c

Depreciation Fund Method (Sinking Fund Method):

  • Under this method, the amount of depreciation is not charged from the assets and remain same year after year.
  • Here, the amount annually provided for depreciation is placed to the credit of a special account named as “Sinking Fund A/c”.
  • The amount so accumulated in the sinking fund account shall be invested in government securities bearing interest at specified rate.
  • When the asset is due for replacement, the securities are sold and the new asset is purchased with the proceeds of their sale.
  • The book value of old asset is transferred to the Sinking Fund A/c.
  • Any amount realised from sale of old asset as well as Profit/Loss on sale of securities is transferred to Sinking Fund A/c.
  • Sinking Fund A/c is closed by transferring the balance to Asset A/c.

Journal Entries:
(a) At the end of First Year:
(i) For setting aside amount of depreciation :
Depreciation A/c Dr.
To Depreciation Fund A/c

(ii) For investing the amount of depreciation :
Depreciation Fund Investment A/c Dr. (with the amount in dep. fund) To Bank

(b) In the Second and Subsequent Years :
(i) For interest received on investment:
Bank A/c Dr.
To Interest on Dep. Fund Investment A/c

(ii) For transferring interest to depreciation fund A/c :
Interest on depreciation fund
Investment A/c Dr.
To Depreciation Fund

(iii) For annual installment of depreciation :
Depreciation A/c Dr.
To Depreciation Fund A/c

(iv) For investing the amount of depreciation and interest received on investment:
Depreciation Fund Investment A/c Dr.
To Bank

At the end of Last Year:
First three entries will be same as in second year.
In the last year, the amount will not be invested because the old asset is replaced by new one for which investments will need to be sold.
(i) For Sale of Investment:
Bank A/c Dr.
To Depreciation Fund Investment A/c

(ii) For Transfer of Profit or Loss on sale of Investment:

In case of Profit In case of Loss
Depreciation Fund Investment A/c Dr.
To Depreciation Fund A/c
(with the amount of net profit on sale of investment)
Depreciation Fund A/c   Dr.
To Depreciation Fund
Investment A/c
(with net loss on sale of investment)

(iii) For Sale of Old Asset:
Bank A/c Dr. (with net amount
To Old Asset A/c

(iv) Transferring Depreciation Fund A/c to Old Asset A/c:
Depreciation Fund A/c Dr.
To Old Asset A/c (with the balance of depreciation fund A/c) The Balance in Old Asset A/c represents Profit or Loss. It will be transferred to P/L A/c.

(v) For Purchases of New Asset
New Asset A/c Dr. (with cash realised on sale of old asset)
To Bank

Insurance Policy Method:

  • Under this method, the company takes an insurance policy for replacement of the asset.
  • At the beginning of every year, a fixed amount of premium is paid.
  • At the end of the term, the agreed sum is received from the insurance company which is used for the replacement of asset.
  • Amount will be paid in the beginning of year.

Journal Entries:
(a) First year and Subsequent years:
(i) Insurance premium paid at the beginning of the year:
Depreciation Insurance Policy A/c Dr.
To Bank A/c

(ii) At year end:
P/L A/c Dr.
To Depreciation Reserve A/c

(b) At the end of Last year:
(i) Amount realised from insurance company:
Bank A/c Dr.
To Depreciation Insurance Policy A/c

(ii) For transfer of profit on insurance policy:
Depreciation Insurance Policy A/c Dr.
To Depreciation Reserve A/c

(iii) For transfer of accumulated depreciation to asset A/c:
Depreciation Reserve A/c Dr.
To Asset A/c

(iv) On purchase of new asset:
New Asset A/c Dr.
To Bank A/c

Note:
Sinking Fund Method and Insurance Policy Method:
Under sinking fund, the amount in the reserve is used for buying government securities whereas in insurance policy method an insurance policy is taken for this purpose.

Example : Cost of asset is ₹ 1,00,000 Rate of depreciation to be written off each year is 10% on the reducing balance. Calculate the depreciation charge for the first 3 years.
Solution:
Depreciation Accounting – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting Notes 2
Depreciation under this method can also be determined using the following formula:
Rate of Depreciation = 1 – n\(\sqrt{\frac{N e t \text { Residual Value(Salvage Value) }}{\text { Costof Acquisition }}}\)
Where n = life of the asset

Merits of this Method:

  • Uniform weight of charge to P/L A/c for depreciation and repairs
  • This method is recognized by the Income Tax Act
  • Easier to compute
  • Any additions to the asset are depreciated at the same rate.

Demerits of this Method:

  • Value of asset can never be reduced to zero.
  • Computation of rate of depreciation is a bit complex.
  • Depreciation is neither based on use of asset nor a uniform charge is made.

Difference between Straight Line Method and Written Down Value Method:

Basic Straight Line Method Written Down Value Method
1. Depreciation Charge Depreciation is calculated on the original cost of a fixed asset: Depreciation is calculated on the diminishing balance or written down value of a fixed asset.
2. Amount of Depreciation The amount of depreciation remains the same for all years. The amount of depreciation reduces year after year.
3. Zero Balance At the expiry of the working life of the asset, the balance in the asset account reduces to zero. The balance in the asset account will not reduce to zero.
4. Cost of Depreciation and Repairs The combined cost on account of depreciation and repairs is lower in the initial years and higher in the later years. The combined cost on account of depreciation and repairs are more or less, equal throughout the period.
5. Suitability This method is more suitable for assets which get depreciated on account of expiry of working life of the asset. This method is suitable for such assets which require more and more repairs in the later years of their working life.
6. Calculation Easy or Difficult It is easy to calculate the rate of depreciation. It is difficult to calculate the rate of depreciation.

Sum of Years Digit Method:

  • This method is a slight variation of reducing balance method.
  • Under this method, the charge for depreciation for an accounting period is calculated in proportion of the remaining life of the asset at the beginning of every accounting year.
  • Depreciation = \(\frac { Remaining life of asset including current year × Cost of asset }{ Sum of digits of life of the asset }\)

In the above Formula :
Remaining life of assets Individual digits used in life of asset taken in reverse order
Sum of digits representing life of asset = n\(\frac { (n+1) }{ 2 }\)

Example
Suppose the estimated life of an asset is 10 years and cost of asset is ₹ 1,00,000.
Depreciation for the First year:
\(\frac { Remaining life including C.Y × Cost of asset }{ Sum of digits of life of asset }\)
→ Remaining life including C.Y. =10
→ Sum of digits n\(\frac { (n+1) }{ 2 }\) = \(\frac { 10×11 }{ 2 }\) = 55
Depreciation = \(\frac { 10 }{ 55 }\) x 1,00,000 = ₹ 18,181.
Depreciation for Second Year = \(\frac { 9 }{ 55 }\) x 1,00,000 = ₹ 16,363

Note : The depreciation is reducing year by year.

Depreciation Accounting MCQ Questions

1. Depreciation is:
(a) a fall in the original cost of an asset
(b) a fall in the book value of an asset
(c) a fall in the market value of asset
(d) a fall in the real value of an asset
Answer:
(b) a fall in the book value of an asset

2. Depreciation is:
(a) a process of valuation of fixed asset
(b) a process of allocation of the cost of fixed asset
(c) a method of providing funds for replacement
(d) a process of writing off losses
Answer:
(b) a process of allocation of the cost of fixed asset

3. The amount of depreciation remains constant year after year under:
(a) Written Down Value Method
(b) Straight Line Method
(c) Sinking Fund Method
(d) Annuity Method
Answer:
(b) Straight Line Method

4. Any Profit of Loss on the sale of Sinking (depreciation)fund investment is transferred to:
(a) Profit and loss account
(b) Asset account
(c) Sinking fund account (depreciation fund account)
(d) Depreciation A/c
Answer:
(c) Sinking fund account (depreciation fund account)

5. Under annuity method, the amount of depreciation is:
(a) Increasing every year
(b) Decreasing every year
(c) Fixed for all the years
(d) Revalued every year
Answer:
(c) Fixed for all the years

6. The number of production units expected to be obtained from the use of an asset by an enterprise is called as:
(a) Unit life
(b) Useful life
(c) Production life
(d) Expected life
Answer:
(b) Useful life

7. In which of the following methods, the cost of the asset is not spread over in equal proportion during its useful economic life?
(1) Straight Line Method
(2) Written Down Value Method
(3) Units of Production Method
(4) All of the above
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
Answer:
(a) 2 and 3

8. For charging depreciation, on which of the following assets, the depletion method is adopted?
(a) Plant & machinery
(b) Land & building
(c) Goodwill
(d) Wasting assets like mines and quarries
Answer:
(d) Wasting assets like mines and quarries

9. If a concern proposes to discontinue its business from March 31,2006 and decided to dispose off all its assets within a period of 4 months, the Balance Sheet as on March 31,2006 should show the assets at their:
(a) Historical cost
(b) Net realizable value
(c) Cost less depreciation
(d) Cost price or market value, whichever is lower.
Answer:
(b) Net realizable value

10. Obsolescence of a depreciable asset may be caused by:
I. Technological Changes
II. Improvement in Production Method
III. Change in Market Demand for the Product or Service Output
IV. Legal or Other Restrictions
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Both (I) and (II) above
(c) All (I), (II),(III) and (IV) above
(d) only (IV) above.
Answer:
(c) All (I), (II),(III) and (IV) above

11. Using the equal instalment method for depreciation the relevant formula is:
(a) Annual charge against profit = \(\frac { Originalcost-Residual value }{ Number of year of active life }\)
(b) Annual charge against profits = \(\frac { Number of year of active life }{ Originalcost-Residualvalue }\)
(c) Annual charge against profits = \(\frac { Originalcost-Residual value }{ Estimated number of year remaining }\)
(d) Annual charge against profits = \(\frac { Estimated number of year remaining }{ Originalcost-Residual value }\)
Answer:
(a) Annual charge against profit = \(\frac { Originalcost-Residual value }{ Number of year of active life }\)

12. A Second hand machinery was purchased for ₹ 1,00,000 five years ago and was overhauled by carrying out some repairs at a cost of ₹ 10,000. It has also an accumulated depreciation of ₹ 50,000. It has been disposed off in the beginning of the sixth year for ₹ 60,000.Profit /loss on such disposal shall be:
(a) Profit of ₹ 10,000
(b) Loss of ₹ 50,000
(c) Loss of ₹ 40,000
(d) No Profit, no loss
Answer:
(d) No Profit, no loss

13. An asset was purchased for ₹ 12,500 and under the reducing balance method 20 percent of the reducing value of the asset is written off each year. What is the value of the asset at the end of three years?
(a) ₹ 8,000
(b) ₹ 7,500
(c) ₹ 6,400
(d) ₹ 5,000
Answer:
(c) ₹ 6,400

14. A machine is purchased for ₹ 200. To achieve a residual value of ₹ 128 at the end of the second year (assuming that depreciation is calculated at the end of each year) the percentage depreciation using the reducing balance method must be:
(a) 72%
(b) 36%
(c) 20%
(d) 12%
Answer:
(c) 20%

15. The main objective of providing depreciation is to:
(a) Create secret reserves
(b) Reduce the book value of assets
(c) Value the assets property
(d) Allocate cost of the assets
Answer:
(d) Allocate cost of the assets

16. Charging a period for the proportionate cost of an intangible asset is termed as:
(a) depreciation
(b) diminution
(c) amortisation
(d) expiration
Answer:
(c) amortisation

17. In the books of D Ltd. machinery account shows a debit balance of ₹ 60,000 as on April 1,2003. The machinery was sold on September 30,2004 for 7 20,000. The Company charges depreciation @ 20% P.a. on diminishing balance method Profit / Loss on sale will be:
(a) ₹ 23,200 Profit
(b) ₹ 23,200 loss
(c) ₹ 7,800 Profit
(d) ₹ 7,800 loss
Answer:
(b) ₹ 23,200 loss

18. A new machine costing ₹ 1,10,000 was purchased by a company to manufacture a special product. Its useful life is estimated to be 5 years and scrap value of 7 20,000. The production plan for the next 5 years using the above machine is as follows:
Year 1-10,000 units: Year 2-20,000 units: Year 3-24,000 units: Year4- 40,000 units : year 5- 50,000 units.
The depreciation for the 1sl year under units-of-production method will be
(a) ₹ 6,250
(b) ₹ 12,500
(c) ₹ 15,000
(d) ₹ 25,000
Answer:
(a) ₹ 6,250

19. A Co. purchased a machine on Jan, 1,03 for ₹ 2,20,000. Installation expenses were ₹ 40,000. Residual value after 5 years ₹ 5,000 on 01.07.2003, expenses for repairs were incurred to the extent of ₹ 2,000. Depreciation is provided @ 10% p.a. underwritten down value method. Depreciation for the 4th year will be:
(a) ₹ 52,000
(b) ₹ 26,000
(c) ₹ 21,060
(d) ₹ 18,954
Answer:
(d) ₹ 18,954

20. Original Cost = ₹ 1,30,000: Salvage Value = 4,000. Useful Life = 6 years.
Depreciation for the first year under sum of years digits method will be:
(a) ₹ 6,000
(b) ₹ 12,000
(c) ₹ 18,000
(d) ₹ 36,000
Answer:
(d) ₹ 36,000

21. A Co. purchased a machine on Jan 1,2003 for ₹ 1,20,000. Installation expenses were ₹ 10,000. Residual value after 5 years ₹ 5,000. On July 1, 2003 expenses for repairs were incurred to the extent of ₹ 2,000. Depreciation is provided under straight line method. Annual Depreciation will be:
(a) ₹ 13,000
(b) ₹ 24,000
(c) ₹ 21,000
(d) ₹ 25,000
Answer:
(d) ₹ 25,000

22. Original Cost of a machine was ₹ 1,26,000; Salvage Value was nil, Useful Life was 6 years. Depreciation for the fourth year under sum of years digits method will be:
(a) ₹ 6,000
(b) ₹ 12,000
(c) ₹ 18,000
(d) ₹ 24,000
Answer:
(c) ₹ 18,000

23. Which of the following statements is / are True?
I. The term ‘depreciation’,’depletion’ and ‘amortization’ convey the same meaning.
II. Provision for depreciation a/c is created.
III. The main purpose of charging the Profit and Loss a/c with the amount of depreciation is to spread the cost of an asset over its useful life for the purpose of income determination.
(a) Only (I) above
(b) Only (II) above
(c) Only (III) above
(d) All (I), (II) and (III) above.
Answer:
(d) All (I), (II) and (III) above.

24. Which of the following expenses is not included in the acquisition cost of a Plant and Equipment?
(a) Cost of site preparation
(b) Delivery and handling Charges
(c) Installation costs
(d) Financing costs incurred subsequent to the period after plant and equipment is put to use.
Answer:
(d) Financing costs incurred subsequent to the period after plant and equipment is put to use.

25. The portion of the acquisition cost of the asset, yet to be allocated is known as:
(a) Written down value
(b) Accumulated value
(c) Realizable value
(d) Salvage value
Answer:
(a) Written down value

26. Depreciation is charged because of:
(i) Wear & tear
(ii) Deterioration
(iii) Depletion
(iv) Passage of time
(a) Only (i)
(b) Both (i) & (iii)
(c) Only (ii)
(d) All (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv)
Answer:
(d) All (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv)

27. Objectives of charging depreciation are:
(i) Ascertaining correct profits
(ii) Ascertaining the cost of the product
(iii) To gain tax benefits
(iv) To meet the legal requirements
(a) Both (i) & (ii)
(b) (iii) only
(c) Both (ii) & (iv)
(d) All (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv)
Answer:
(d) All (i), (ii), (iii) & (iv)

28. If an asset is purchased for ₹ 5,00,000 and installation charges are ₹ 50,000. The estimated scrap value is ₹ 1,00,000 and the useful life of the asset is 5 years, then the amount of depreciation to be charged as per SLM method is:
(a) ₹ 90,000
(b) ₹ 80,000
(c) ₹ 1,11,111
(d) ₹ 1,20,000
Answer:
(a) ₹ 90,000

29. Scrap value of an asset refers to the amount that it can fetch at the:
(a) Beginning of its life
(b) End of its life
(c) Middle of its life
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) End of its life

30. Obsolescence of a depreciable asset Is caused by:
(a) Change in technology
(b) Innovation
(c) Improvement in the method of production
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

31. Depreciation is a process of:
(a) Verification of asset
(b) Degradation of asset
(c) Allocation of cost of asset to the period of its life
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Allocation of cost of asset to the period of its life

32. Annuity method of depreciation is suitable for:
(a) Tangible assets
(b) Intangible assets
(c) Leasehold assets
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Leasehold assets

33. A gold mine was taken on lease for ₹ 50,00,00,000. The total production capacity of the mine is 10,000 tonnes. The total production in the year 2010 was 2,000 tonnes. The depreciation for the year 2010 is:
(a) ₹ 10,00,00,000
(b) ₹ 5,00,00,000
(c) ₹ 20,00,00,000
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) ₹ 10,00,00,000

34. Depletion method is normally applied in case of:
(a) Wasting Assets
(b) Intangible Asset
(c) Tangible Asset
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Wasting Assets

35. In the sinking fund method of charging depreciation, the amount debited to P&L A/c is:
(a) More in the initial years
(b) More in the ending year
(c) Remains the same every year
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Remains the same every year

36. If diminishing value method is used then the amount of depreciation charged to P&L A/c is:
(a) Equal in all years
(b) Decreases year after year
(c) Increases year after year
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Decreases year after year

37. In sinking fund investments method, the profit on sale of investments is transferred to:
(a) Asset A/c
(b) Bank A/c
(c) Depreciation Fund A/c
(d) Depreciation Fund Investment A/c
Answer:
(c) Depreciation Fund A/c

38. Under the insurance policy method, the fixed premium is paid:
(a) To the beginning of the year
(b) Middle of the year
(c) End of the year
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) To the beginning of the year

39. In group depreciation method:
(a) Assets having similar average life is grouped together
(b) Depreciation is charged on the entire group and not on individual assets
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

40. The effect of change in the method of depreciation is to be taken:
(a) Retrospectively
(b) Prospectively
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer:
(a) Retrospectively

41. Depreciation is charged on the:
(a) Historical cost
(b) Replacement cost
(c) Realisable cost
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Historical cost

42. During inflationary period, which method of depreciation is the most suitable:
(a) Charging depreciation on historical cost
(b) Charging depreciation on realisable value
(c) Charging depreciation on replacement cost
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Charging depreciation on replacement cost

43. A machine was purchased for ₹ 10,000 on Jan, 2008. Depreciation is to be charged @ 25% on WDV method. It was sold for ₹ 6,000 at the end of the third year. Calculate the profit / loss:
(a) Profit ₹ 1,781
(b) Profit ₹ 2,300
(c) Loss ₹ 3,219
(d) Loss ₹ 3,299
Answer:
(a) Profit ₹ 1,781

44. Which of the following is depleted?
(a) Land
(b) Goodwill
(c) Machinery
(d) Quarries
Answer:
(d) Quarries

45. Which method is allowed as per Income Tax Act?
(a) Reducing balance method
(b) Sinking fund method
(c) Annuity method
(d) Straight line method
Answer:
(a) Reducing balance method

46. Under the annuity method, the asset account is debited by:
(a) Depreciation fund A/c
(b) Interest A/c
(c) Sinking fund A/c
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Interest A/c

47. Which method of depreciation considers the element of interest on capital outlay?
(a) WDV method
(b) Sinking fund method
(c) Annuity method
(d) SLM method
Answer:
(c) Annuity method

48. The value of an asset is ₹ 50,000. Its working life is 10 years. Firm uses sum of years digits method for providing depreciation. What will be the amount of depreciation for second year?
(a) ₹ 5,000
(b) ₹ 9,091
(c) ₹ 4,500
(d) ₹ 8,181
Answer:
(d) ₹ 8,181
Sum of year digits = 10 + 9 + 8 + 7 + 6 + 5 + 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 55
Depreciation for the second year will be:
= 50,000 x \(\frac { 9 }{ 55 }\)
= ₹ 8,181

49. Decrease in value of a fixed asset due to normal wear and tear is known as:
(a) Depreciation
(b) Obsolescence
(c) Appropriation
(d) Spoilage.
Answer:
(a) Depreciation
Depreciation means a fall in the value of asset due to usage, efflux of time or due to obsolescence. In other words we can say, that decrease in value of a fixed assets due to normal wear and tear is known as Depreciation.

50. Dinesh Garments purchased a machine for ₹ 50,000 and spent ₹ 6,000 on its erection. On the date of purchase, it was estimated that effective life of the machine will be ten years and after ten years its scrap value will be ₹ 6,000. The amount of depreciation for second year on straight line basis
is:
(a) ₹ 5,000
(b) ₹ 5,600
(c) ₹ 6,000
(d) ₹ 6,200
Answer:
(a) ₹ 5,000
Cost of Machine = 50,000 + 6,000 = ₹ 56,000
Depreciation as per Straight line basis = \(\frac { Cost of Machine-Scrap value }{ Estimated Life of year }\)
= \(\frac{56,000-6,000}{10}\)
= ₹ 5 000
Depreciation for each year will be ₹ 5,000
Thus, Second year Depreciation = ₹ 5,000

51. A firm charges depreciation on straight line method. The rate of depreciation is reduced from 25% to 10%. What will be the impact of this change on profits?
(a) Decrease in profits
(b) Increase in profits
(c) Decrease in assets
(d) Increase in expenses.
Answer:
(b) Increase in profits
Depreciation is transferred to debit side of profit & loss A/c. If depreciation rate is reduced from 25% to 10%, depreciation amount will be less than other past years. The less amount of depreciation will be transferred to profit & loss A/c while will result in increase in profits.

52. Under straight line method, depreciation is calculated on:
(a) Written Down Value
(b) Salvage Value
(c) Original Cost
(d) Market Value
Answer:
(c) Original Cost
Under straight line method, a fixed proportion of the original cost of the asset is written off each year so that asset account may be reduced to its residual value at the end of its estimated economic useful life. Thus, it can be said that under this method, depreciation is calculated on Original Cost.

53. Which of the following assets are shown at written down value in Balance Sheet?
(a) Current Assets
(b) Liquid Assets
(c) Floating Assets
(d) Fixed Assets
Answer:
(d) Fixed Assets
Depreciation is charged only on fixed assets and depreciation is a permanent, continuous and gradual shrinkage in the book value of fixed assets. So, it can be said that Fixed Assets are shown at written down value in Balance Sheet.

54. On 1st April, 2012 in Sethi’s Ledger, furniture account showed a balance of ₹ 2,00,000. On 1st October, 2012 Sethi purchased new furniture by paying ₹ 5,000 and giving old furniture whose book value on 1st April, 2012 was ₹ 12,000 to the seller. Sethi provides depreciation on furniture @ 10% per annum on diminishing balance method. The net value of furniture in Sethi’s books as on 31st March, 2013 would be:
(a) ₹ 1,85,080
(b) ₹ 1,83,960
(c) ₹ 1,84,780
(d) ₹ 2,04,400.
Answer:
(c) ₹ 1,84,780
In Books of Sethi
Furniture Account
Depreciation Accounting – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting Notes 3

55. The written down value of machine on 31st March, 2013 is ₹ 72,900. The machine was purchased on 1st April, 2010. Depreciation is being charged @ 10% p.a. by diminishing balance method. The cost price of the machine would be:
(a) ₹ 1,00,000
(b) ₹ 90,000
(c) ₹ 81,000
(d) ₹ 72,900.
Answer:
(a) ₹ 1,00,000
Cost price of machine = \(\frac{72,900}{90 \% \times 90 \% \times 90 \%}\)
= ₹ 1,00,000

56. A company purchased plant for ₹ 50,000. The useful life of the plant is 10 years and the residual value is ₹ 5,000. The management wants to depreciate it by straight line method. Rate of depreciation will be:
(a) 8%
(b) 9%
(c) 10%
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) 9%
Depreciation Accounting – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting Notes 4

57. Madhur and Company purchases a machine for a certain sum. The company has a policy of charging 8% depreciation on written down value. The depreciated value of the machine after three years in the books of Madhur and Company is ₹ 3,89,344. What was the purchase value of machine.
(a) ₹ 5,00,000
(b) ₹ 4,60,000
(c) ₹ 4,23,000
(d) ₹ 5,52,000.
Answer:
(a) ₹ 5,00,000
Depreciation Accounting – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting Notes 5

58. The value of a fixed asset after deducting depreciation is known as its __________.
(a) Book value
(b) Market Value
(c) Face Value
(d) Realisable value.
Answer:
(a) Book value
The value of a fixed asset after deducting depreciation is known as written down value or book value.

59. Dinesh Garments purchased a machine for ₹ 50,000 and spent ₹ 6,000 on its creation. On the date of purchase it was estimated that the effective life of the machine will be ten years and after ten years its scrap value will be ₹ 6,000. The amount of depreciation for each year on straight line basis is __________.
(a) ₹ 5,000
(b) ₹ 5,600
(c) ₹ 6,000
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) ₹ 5,000
Total cost of machinery will be = 50,000 + 6,000 = ₹ 56,000
Scrap value after 10 years will be = ₹ 6,000
Dep. on the basis of straight line
= \(\frac { Cost of machinery – Scrap Value }{ Life of machinery }\)
= \(\frac{56,000-6,000}{10}\)
= ₹ 5,000
Thus, Option (a) is right.

60. An equipment was purchased on 1st January, 2012 for ₹ 25,000 and is to be depreciated at 30% based on reducing balance method. If the company closes its books of account on 31st December every year, what would be the net book value of the equipment as at 31st December, 2013 __________.
(a) ₹ 12,250
(b) ₹ 10,000
(c) ₹ 17,750
(d) ₹ 12,545.
Answer:
(a) ₹ 12,250
Calculation of Net Book Value of the Equipment
Depreciation Accounting – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting Notes 6

61. Coal mine is which type of asset __________.
(a) Fixed Asset
(b) Current Asset
(c) Wasting Asset
(d) Fictitious Asset.
Answer:
(c) Wasting Asset
Coal mines are wasting assets as their value loses because they get exhausted on account of continuous extractions.

62. If the original and current price of machinery is given, it will be recorded at which value?
(a) Historical value
(b) Market value
(c) Realisable value
(d) Original cost.
Answer:
(d) Original cost.
Due to the cost concept, we record the fixed assets at cost price and not at market price.

63. An equipment was purchased on 1st January, 2012 for ₹ 25,000 & is to be depreciated at 30% based on WDV method. If the company closes its books of account on 31st March every year. What would be the net book value of the equipment as at 31st December 2013:
(a) ₹ 12,250
(b) ₹ 10,000
(c) ₹ 17,750
(d) ₹ 12,545
Answer:
(a) ₹ 12,250
Calculation of Net Book Value of the Equipment
Depreciation Accounting – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting Notes 7

64. Which of the following are amortised :
(a) Patent
(b) Copyright
(c) Goodwill
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these
Amortization is nothing but the name given to the depreciation charged on intangible assets such as goodwill, patents, copyright, trademark, etc.
Hence, all of the above are amortized.

65. The WDV of machine is ₹ 72,900, rate of depreciation @ 10%, period 3 years. Calculate the original cost of machinery.
(a) ₹ 72,900
(b) ₹ 80,000
(c) ₹ 1,20,000
(d) ₹ 1,00,000.
Answer:
(d) ₹ 1,00,000.
Depreciation Accounting – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting Notes 7a

66. Valueless assets are treated as:
(a) Tangible Asset
(b) Intangible Asset
(c) Fictitious Asset
(d) Current Asset.
Answer:
(c) Fictitious Asset
Fictitious assets are those assets which have no value but are recognised as an asset. Thus, the valueless assets are treated as fictitious assets.

67. A company purchased a mine of ₹ 50,000. Its scrap value is ₹ 5,000 and expected working life is 9 years. 1,00,000 units were expected to be produced during its working life. Units produced in first 3 years are 7,000, 15,000 and 19,000 respectively. Calculate the amount of depreciation for the third year by using depletion method.
(a) ₹ 3,150
(b) ₹ 8,550
(c) ₹ 3,000
(d) ₹ 6,750
Answer:
(b) ₹ 8,550
Rate of depreciation = \(\frac { Total cost of mine }{ Total Units }\)
= \(\frac{50,000-5,000}{1,00,000}\)
= 45
= 45%
Depreciation = Quantity extracted during the year x Rate of depreciation
= 19000 x 45%
= ₹ 8,550 is the depreciation for third year.
Hence option (b) is correct.

68. The value of a fixed asset after deducting depreciation is known as its __________.
(a) Face Value
(b) Market Value
(c) Realisable Value
(d) Book Value
Answer:
(d) Book Value
Depreciation is a process of allocating the cost of a fixed asset over its estimated useful life in a rational and systematic manner. The value of a fixed asset after deduction of depreciation is said as book value of the respective asset.

69. Samar purchased a machinery worth ₹ 1,00,000 and spent ₹ 20,000 on its repairs and ₹ 15,000 on its carriage. He decided to sell the machinery at 25% margin on selling price. What will be the expected sale value of machinery?
(a) ₹ 1,25,000
(b) ₹ 1,53,000
(c) ₹ 1,80,000
(d) ₹ 1,33,000
Answer:
(c) ₹ 1,80,000
Cost of machinery = ₹ 1,00,000 + 20,000 + 15,000
= ₹ 1,35,000.
25% on selling price = \(\frac { 25 }{ 100-25 }\) on cost.
\(\frac { 25 }{ 75 }\) x ₹ 1,35,000 = ₹ 45,000
₹ 1.35,000 + ₹ 45,000 = ₹ 1,80,000

70. A decrease in value of fixed asset due to age, wear and tear:
(a) Appreciation
(b) Written down value
(c) Depreciation
(d) Accumulated depreciation.
Answer:
(c) Depreciation
Depreciation is decrease in value of fixed asset due to physical wear and tear, obsolescence, passage of time.

71. Depletion is charged on:
(a) Fixed Assets
(b) Wasting Assets
(c) Current Assets
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) Wasting Assets
Depletion method is applicable in case of wasting assets, example – mines, quarries, oil well etc. from which a certain quantity of output is expected to be obtained.

72. An asset becomes useless because of technical changes this is because of:
(a) Obsolescence
(b) Physical Deterioration
(c) Depletion
(d) Passage of time
Answer:
(a) Obsolescence
Sometimes an asset becomes useless because of technical changes within the industry, technical progress in other industry, change in supply etc., this is known as Obsolescence.

73. Which of the following is not considered while calculating depreciation under straight line method?
(a) Salvage value of asset
(b) Annual repair cost of the asset
(c) Life of the asset
(d) Cost of the asset.
Answer:
(b) Annual repair cost of the asset
Under straight line method, a fixed proportion of the original cost of the asset is written off each year, so that asset account may be reduced to its residual value at the end of its estimated economic useful life. It ignores annual repair cost of the asset.
The formula is:
Depreciation Accounting – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting Notes 8

74. On 14th April, 2014 tools account showed a balance of ₹ 12,960. On 31st March, 2015 closing balance of tools was ₹ 14,040. The tools purchased during the year were for ₹ 4,320. Depreciation on loose tools for the year would be:
(a) ₹ 3,240
(b) ₹ 1,080
(c) ₹ 3,600
(d) ₹ 3,000
Answer:
(a) ₹ 3,240
Depreciation Accounting – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting Notes 9

75. As per Income Tax Act, which method of providing depreciation is recognised?
(a) Replacement method
(b) Depletion method
(c) Diminishing balance method
(d) Sum of the year digit method.
Answer:
(c) Diminishing balance method
Diminishing Balance Method is recognised by the income tax authorities. Under this depreciation is calculated at a certain percentage each year on the balance of the assets which is brought forward in the previous year. Thus, amount of depreciation becomes higher in the earlier periods and becomes gradually lower in subsequent periods, while repairs and maintenance charges increase gradually.

76. A company purchased plant for ₹ 50,000. The useful life of the plant is 10 years and the residual value is ₹ 5,000. The management wants to depreciate it by straight line method. Rate of depreciation will be:
(a) 9%
(b) 8%
(c) 10%
(d) 7%
Answer:
(a) 9%
Depreciation Accounting – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting Notes 10

77. On April 1,2013 the debit balance of the Machinery A/c of A Ltd. was ₹ 7,29,000. The machine was purchased on April 1,2010. The company charged depreciation @ 10% p.a, under diminishing balance method. The value of machinery on April 1,2012 was:-
(a) ₹ 10,00,000
(b) ₹ 9,00,000
(c) ₹ 8,10,000
(d) ₹ 12,00,000
Answer:
Let the Original Cost be 100 Dep. @ 10% under WDV
Cost after 1 year = 100 – 10 = 90
Cost after 2 year = 90 – 9 = 81
Cost after 3 year = 81 – 8.1 = 72.9
Original Cost = \(\frac { 100 }{ 72.9 }\) x 7,29,000 = 10,00,000
Cost on 1 April, 2010 = ₹ 10,00,000
Cost on 1 April, 2011= ₹ 9,00,000
Cost on 1 April, 2012 = ₹ 8,10,000

78. The amount of depreciation charged on machinery will be debited to __________.
(a) Machinery A/c
(b) Depreciation A/c
(c) Cash A/c
(d) Repair A/c.
Answer:
(b) Depreciation A/c
The amount of depreciation charged on machinery will be debited to depreciation account. Hence, option (b) is correct.

79. A company purchased a mine of ₹ 50,000. Its scrap value is ₹ 5,000 and expected working life is 9 years. 1,00,000 units were expected to be produced during its working life. Units produced in first 3 years are ₹ 7,000, ₹ 15,000 and ₹ 19,000 respectively. Calculate the amount of depreciation for the third year by using depletion method.
(a) ₹ 3,150
(b) ₹ 8,550
(c) ₹ 3,000
(d) ₹ 6,750
Answer:
(b) ₹ 8,550
Depreciation Accounting – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting Notes 11

80. The written down value of machine on 31st March 2013 is ₹ 72,900. The machine was purchased on 1st April, 2010. Depreciation is being charged @ 10% p.a. by diminishing balance method. The cost price of the machine would be:
(a) ₹ 1,00,000
(b) ₹ 90,000
(c) ₹ 81,000
(d) ₹ 72,900
Answer:
(a) ₹ 1,00,000
Cost price of Machine would be ₹ 1,00,000 on 1st April, 2010.
Written down Value of Machine on 1st April, 2011 is ₹ 90,000 (1,00,000 – 1,00,000 x 10%).
Written down Value of Machine on 1st April, 2012 is (90,000 – 90.0 x 10%) = ₹ 81,000.
Written down Value of Machine on 31st March, 2013 is (81,000 – 81.0 x 10%) = ₹ 72,900.

81. E Ltd. a dealer in second-hand machinery has the following five machines of different models and makes in their stock, at the end of the financial year 2012-13?
Depreciation Accounting – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting Notes 12
The value of stock included in the Balance Sheet of the company as on 31st March, 2013 was:
(a) ₹ 7,62,500
(b) ₹ 7,70,000
(c) ₹ 7,90,000
(d) ₹ 8,70,000
Answer:
(b) ₹ 7,70,000
Depreciation Accounting – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting Notes 13
So, Closing Stock included in Balance Sheet by following Golden Rule ‘Cost or NRV whichever is lower’.
Machine cost or NRV whichever is less taken
A – 90,000, C – 2,65,000, E – 2,00,000
B – 1,15,000, D-1,00,000
Total Stock included in Balance Sheet is
90,000 + 1,15,000 + 2,65,000 + 1,00,000 + 2,00,000 = ₹ 7,70,000

82. Fire Insurance premium paid on 1st October, 2011 for the year ended on 30th September, 2012 was ₹ 2,400 and Fire Insurance Premium paid on 1st October, 2012 for the year ending on 30th September, 2013 was ₹ 3,200. Fire Insurance Premium paid as shown in the profit and loss account for the accounting year ended 31st December, 2012 would be:
(a) ₹ 2,400
(b) ₹ 2,600
(c) ₹ 2,800
(d) ₹ 3,000
Answer:
(b) ₹ 2,600
Premium paid as follows:
1.10.11 – 30.9.12 2,400
1.10.12 – 30.9.13 3,200
Premium to be shown in P/L A/c for the year ending on 31.12.12 would be:
Depreciation Accounting – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting Notes 14

83. A company purchased plant for ₹ 50,000. The useful life of the plant is 10 years and the residual value is ₹ 5,000. The management wants to depreciate it by straight line method. Rate of depreciation will be:
(a) 8%
(b) 9%
(c) 10%
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) 9%
Plant purchased for ₹ 50,000 Residual Value = ₹ 5,000
So, Plant Cost after Residual Value is ₹ 45,000 (50,000 – 5,000)
Useful life = 10 years.
Rate of Depreciation = ?
Amount of Depreciation = \(\frac{50,000-5,000}{10}\)
= \(\frac{45,000}{10}\)
= 4,500
Amount of depreciation = Original Cost x \(\frac{Rate of Deprecation}{100}\)
4,500 = 50,000 x \(\frac{Rate of Deprecation}{100}\)
Rate of Depreciation = \(\frac{4,500 \times 100}{50,000}\) = 9%

84. An equipment was purchased on 1st January, 2012 for ₹ 25,000 and is to be depreciated @ 30% based on written down value method. If the company closes its books of accounts on 31st March every year. What would be the net book value of the instrument /equipment as at on 31st December, 2013.
(a) ₹ 12,250
(b) ₹ 10,000
(c) ₹ 17,750
(d) ₹ 12,545
Answer:
(d) ₹ 12,545
Purchase Price of Asset: ₹ 25,000 (Jan. 2012)
Depreciation = \(\frac{Price of on Asset }{100 }\) x Rate of Depreciation
Jan 2012 – March 2012 = \(\frac{25,000}{100} \times 30 \times \frac{9}{12}\) = ₹ 1,875
Value of an asset on 1st April, 2012 = 25,000 – 1,875 = ₹ 23,125
Dep. for 1st April, 2012 to 31st March, 2013 = 23,125 x \(\frac{ 30 }{100}\) = ₹ 6,938
Value of an asset on 1st April, 2013 = 23,125 – 6,938 = ₹ 16,187
Dep. for 1st April, 2013 to 31st Dec. 2013 = 16,187 x \(\frac{ 30 }{100}\) x \(\frac{9}{12}\) = ₹ 3,642
Book Value of An Asset = Purchase Price of Asset – Sum of all depreciation.
Purchase Price : ₹ 25,000
Sum of All depreciation = 1,875 + 6,938 + 3,642 = 12,455
= 25,000 – 12,455 = ₹ 12,545, hence, option (d) is correct.

85. Dinesh Garments purchased a machine for ₹ 50,000 and spent ₹ 6,000 on its erection. On the date of purchase it was estimated that the effective life of the machine will be ten years and after ten years its scrap value will be ₹ 6,000. The amount of depreciation for each year on straight line basis is:
(a) ₹ 5,000
(b) ₹ 5,600
(c) ₹ 6,000
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) ₹ 5,000
Depreciation = \(\frac{Cost-Scrap Value}{Estimated useful life}\)
= \(\frac{56,000-6,000}{10}\)
= ₹ 5,000 p.a.

86. An equipment was purchased on 1st January, 2012 for ₹ 25,000 and is to be depreciated at 30% based on reducing balance method. If the company closes its book of accounts on 31st March every year, what would be the net book value of the equipment as at 31st December, 2013:
(a) ₹ 12,250
(b) ₹ 10,000
(c) ₹ 17,750
(d) ₹ 12,545
Answer:
(d) ₹ 12,545
Depreciation Accounting – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting Notes 15

87. Madhur and company purchases a machine for a certain sum. The company has a policy of charging 8% depreciation on written down value. The depreciated value of the machine after three years in the books of Madhur and company is ₹ 3,89,344 what was the purchase value of machine:
(a) ₹ 5,00,000
(b) ₹ 4,60,000
(c) ₹ 4,23,000
(d) ₹ 5,52,000
Answer:
(a) ₹ 5,00,000
Cost of Machine = \(\frac{3,89,344}{92 \% \times 92 \% \times 92 \%}\)
= ₹ 5,00,000.

88. The value of a fixed asset after deducting depreciation is known as its:
(a) Book value
(b) Market value
(c) Face value
(d) Realisable value
Answer:
(a) Book value
Value of an asset, less its depreciation is known as its book value or written down value.

89. Under which method of depreciation value can be zero __________.
(a) SLM
(b) WDV
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) SLM
As the book value reduces every years, it is also known as the Reducing Balance Method or written down value reduces every year, hence the amount of depreciation also reduces every year. Under this method, the value of asset never reduces to zero.

90. Depreciation is provided under which AS?
(a) AS-1
(b) AS-6
(c) AS-10
(d) AS-4
Answer:
(c) AS-10
Deprecation under AS 10 Property, Plant and Equipment Depreciable amount of any asset should be allocated on a methodical basis over the useful life of asset. Every part of property or P&E (Plant and Equipment) whose cost is substantial with respect to the overall cost of the item must be depreciated separately

91. Among which of the following is changed in depreciation?
(a) SLM or WDV
(b) WDV or SLM
(c) Both
(d) None
Answer:
(c) Both
Method of Deprecation are:

  • WDV
  • SLM
  • Depletion method
  • Double dealing method
  • Annuity method
  • Machine hours method etc.

92. Which of the following is common method of charging depreciation
(a) SLM
(b) WDV
(c) Annuity
(d) None
Answer:
(a) SLM
The most commonly used method for calculating depreciation under generally accepted accounting principles, or GAAP, is the straight line method. This method is the simplest to calculated results in fewer errors, stays the most consistent and transitions well from company prepared statements to tax returns.

Maximum Tax Deduction Under 80C – Investments Eligible for Tax Exemptions

Maximum Tax Deduction Under 80C – Investments Eligible for Tax Exemptions

Maximum Tax Deduction Under 80C: The Income Tax Act of India has Section 80c, which is a clause that points to the various investments and expenditures that are exempted under Income Tax. This means that there is a maximum deduction of about ₹1.5 lakh per annum, and this from the total taxable income of the investor.

Section 80C, however, is only applicable for Hindu Undived Families and individual taxpayers. Other businesses, partnership firms, and corporate bodies do not qualify for a tax exemption under Section 80C of the Income Tax Act of India.

Subsections of Section 80C

Section 80 is divided into specific subsections as is given below:

Tax saving sections  Investments Eligible for Tax Exemptions
Section 80C This includes investments in Provident Funds like PPF, EPF, and such, along with payments made towards the principal sum of a home loan, life insurance premiums, SCSS, NSC, SSY, Equity Linked Saving Schemes. etc.
Section 80CCC This includes payments made towards mutual funds and pension plans.
Section 80CCD(1) This includes payments made towards Government-backed schemes like Atal Pension Yojana,  National Pension System, etc.
Section 80CCD(1B) The exemption under this category is ₹50,000 in NPS.
Section 80CCD(2) The exemption under this category is of the contributions of the employers towards NPS, i.e., about 10%, and this comprises of dearness allowance if any and basic salary.

Latest: The NPS Returns Rates for Tier-1 accounts under corporate bonds are 13.59% and for government bonds, it’s 20.28% for the 1st year.

Investments Eligible for Deduction

In this section, we will take a look at all the investments that are eligible for a tax deduction under 80C, noting that the maximum is about ₹1.5 lakh per annum.

Life Insurance Premiums

Premiums that are paid for life insurance policies are eligible to receiving tax benefits according to the 80C limit. The exemptions are available against the policies held by self, dependent children, spouses, etc. Members of the Hindu Undivided Family may also benefit from these exemptions.

At the moment, the annual premium of up to 10%, i.e., of the total sum assured from the insurance policy, is the exempted tax under 80C. This particular clause was revised in 2012, on the 1st of April, before which the premiums liable for tax exemption deduction was up to 20% of the assured sum.

Public Provident Fund 

Contributions for the Public Provident Fund can be filed for a tax deduction under this specific clause. The Public Provident Funds come with a ₹1.5 lakh maximum deposit limit that allows the investor to claim the entire amount deposited as an exemption under Section 80C.

All voluntary contributions made by an employee for the provident fund are also eligible for a tax deduction under this clause.

NABARD Rural Bonds 

National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development or NABARD offers Rural Bonds, and these are eligible for tax exemption under Section 80C. Here too, the maximum amount deductible is  ₹1.5 lakh.

Unit Linked Insurance Plans (ULIPs) 

Unit Linked Insurance Plans offer more returns when compared to the conventional insurance policies when considered in the long run. Due to the benefits offered by Section 80C of the Income Tax Act, they have become increasingly popular in the last few years. Tax exemptions can be availed on the invested amount up to ₹1.5 lakh.

National Savings Certificate

National Savings Certificate or the NSC is one of the most popular instruments for tax-savings for reis-avert individuals. The interest that is earned on the NSC is semi-annually compounded, and the maximum period of maturity ranges from about five to ten years.

There is no limit that the investors have to follow on the total sum that is invested towards the NSC in the period of a financial year. But ₹1.5 lakh is the maximum that can be subjected to exemption annually under Section 80C.

Tax Saving FD 

Tax Saving FDs are fixed deposit schemes that allow tax deduction under Section 80C of the Income Tax Act and are offered by post offices as well as banks. These fixed deposits have a lock-in time period of about five years, and the maximum tax exemption offered on the principal amount is ₹1.5 lakh. But the returns of these instruments are definitely liable to be taxed.

EPF

The returns that come from the EPF that is the Employee Provident Fund, with the interests, are eligible for a tax exemption under this clause. The eligibility extends only to employees that have continued their services for five years minimum. The voluntary contributions made by individuals to their EPF accounts are also eligible for a tax exemption.

Infrastructure Bonds 

Infrastructure bonds also have the option for tax exemptions under Section 80C, but only if the investment is equal to or more than ₹20,000. Here too, the limit is ₹1.5 lakh for the long-term secured bonds.

Equity-Linked Saving Scheme

Equity Linked Saving Schemes, or ELSS, comes under Section 80 of the Income Tac for a tax exemption, with the maximum limit being ₹1.5 lakh. These particular investment schemes have a three-year lock-in period that is mandatory.

Senior Citizens Savings Scheme

Investments that are made towards the SCSS, that is, the Senior Citizens Saving Scheme, are also eligible for tax exemptions under 80C, with the maximum allocated limit being ₹1.5 lakh. Those above the age of 60 or others above the age of 55 option for voluntary retirement scheme are eligible to get the benefits from SCSS. The minimum lock-in tenure here is of five years.

Principal Repayment Made Towards Home Loan 

The repayments that are made towards the principal component of the home loan EMIs alone are eligible for the tax deduction under this section. However, the borrower has to fulfil some clauses to be able to avail of the deduction benefits.

  1. Any amount that is claimed as a tax deduction has to be taxable in the transfer year in the case that the handover is made five years after possession of the property. Failure to do this will exclude it from Section 80C’s deduction.
  2. If a property is transferred within five years of possessing it, it will be excluded from tax exemptions under Section 80C.
  3. The exemption can be claimed only if the construction of the property is finished.

Stamp Duty And Registration Charges 

Stamp duty along with registration charges may be considered the two largest expenses made when taking ownership of a particular property. The Indian Government allows for a deduction of tax liability up to the limit under Section 80C on these charges that are paid for the procurement of the house. But these exemptions can be claimed only in the year the duties are paid, or they will not be eligible for consideration under this deduction.

Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana 

The Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana is a savings scheme that is specifically for the financial requirements for the education and marriage of a girl. The legal guardians or the parents of the child (who should not be older than ten years) can open this particular account, and parents of two or more children, only in the case of twins, can also invest in the plan. The interest that is earned from this scheme is eligible for tax exemption.

Section 80C of the Income Tax Act has various instruments, and the comprehensive idea of this clause is necessary for every investor. The benefits of this clause can save a good amount from tax liability.

Intellectual Property Laws – Setting Up of Business Entities and Closure Important Questions

Intellectual Property Laws – Setting Up of Business Entities and Closure Important Questions

Intellectual Property Laws – Setting Up of Business Entities and Closure Important Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by ‘Industrial Property under the Intellectual Property Rights (IPRs)? [June 2015 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Legal scholars often make a distinction between intellectual and industrial property. Intellectual property covers copyright and related rights, whereas industrial property means patents, trademarks, trade secrets, and so on. Traditionally this distinction was made because industrial property rights were mostly used by industry, whereas intellectual property right was “only” for artists, writers, and other creative people.

Today the distinction between the two has almost disappeared. Most people use “intellectual property” as a catch-all term, including patents and other items that traditionally were considered “industrial property.”

Question 2.
Two persons applied for registration of the same trademark at the same time. In such a case, how the proprietor of the trademark will be decided? [June 2005 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
There cannot be two or more proprietors of the same trademark belonging to the same class.

There can be two or more proprietors of the same trademark in different classes of trademarks. Eg: Blackberry’s trademark belongs to mobile phones as well as textile and clothing as they both are of a different class.

But is if it is a well-known trademark then there cannot be another proprietor even if it belongs to a different class.

The proprietor of a trademark is decided by the date of usage of the mark by a person in business transactions. Although persons applied for registration of the same trademark at the same time the proprietorship is determined by its usage in a commercial transaction.

Question 3.
Explain the term ‘Well Known Trademark’ as per Trademark Act, 1999. [Dec. 2008 (3 Marks)], [Dec. 2014 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Mark which is similar to a well-known trademark cannot be registered as a trademark under the Trademark Act, 1999.

Well, Known Trademark [Section 2(1 )(zg)]: A well-known trademark in relation to any goods or services means a mark which has become so to the substantial segment of the public which uses such goods or services such that the use of such mark in relation to other goods or services would be likely to be taken as indicating a connection in the course of trade or rendering of services between those goods or services and a person using the mark in relation to the first-mentioned goods or services.

Examples of well-known trademarks are Google, Tata, Yahoo, Pepsi, Reliance, etc. Further, under the principle of “Trans-border Reputation”, India has afforded protection to trademarks like Apple, Gillette, Whirlpool, Volvo, which despite having no physical presence in India, are protected on the basis of their trans-border reputation in India.

Question 4.
Distinguish between: Collective Trademark & Certification Trademark [Dec. 2009 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Following are the main points of difference between collective trade-mark & certification trademark:

Points Collective Trademark Certification Trademark
Meaning A collective mark means a trademark distinguishing the goods or services of members of an association of persons which is the proprietor of the mark from those of others A certification mark is a mark used in commerce by a person other than its owner. The owner of the certification mark establishes standards for certification to identify that goods or products bearing the mark are of a particular type.
User Members of collectives use the collective mark to identify their goods and services and to distinguish their goods and services from those of non-members and indicate membership in the group A certification mark is a mark used in commerce by a person other than its owner.
Example Examples of collective trademarks include:

  • The “CA” device used by the Institute of Chartered Accountants.
  • The “CS” device used by the Institute of Company Secretaries.
Some examples of certification trademarks are ‘1ST, ‘Agmark’, ‘Woolmark’ etc.

Question 5.
Distinguish between: Trademark & Certification Trademark [Dec. 2010 (5 Marks)], [June 2013 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Following are the main points of difference between trademark & certification trademark:

Points

Trademark

Certification Trademark

Meaning A trademark is a recognizable sign, design, or expression which identifies products or services of a particular source from those of others. A certification mark is a mark used in commerce by a person other than its owner. The owner of the certification mark establishes standards for certification to identify that goods or products bearing the mark are of a particular type.
User A person having a trademark can only use it or he can authorize others by license. A certification mark is a mark used in commerce by a person other than its owner.
Example Some of the well-known trademarks are Coca-Cola, Pepsi, Tata, etc. Some examples of certification trademarks are ‘IST, ‘Agmark’, ‘Woolmark’ etc.
Assignment A trademark can be assigned or transferred by its owner. A certification mark cannot be assigned or transferred.
Registration It is not obligatory upon a proprietor of a trademark to apply for registration. It is optional. A certification mark cannot be given to any product or service unless such certification mark is registered.

Question 6.
Distinguish between: Infringement of trademark and Passing off [June 2011 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Following are the main points of difference between infringement of trademark and passing off:

Points Infringement of trademark

Passing off

Meaning Trademark infringement is a violation of the exclusive rights attached to a trademark without the authorization of the trademark owner or any licensees. Passing off is a common law tort, which can be used to enforce unregistered trademark rights. The law of passing off prevents one person from misrepresenting his goods or services as that of another.
Action The infringement action can be only in respect of a registered trademark. Passing off action can be taken in respect of registered trademark as well as for unregistered trademark.
What to establish The definition of ‘infringement’ is very wide. ‘Similarity’ and ‘likely to confuse’ is sufficient to establish infringement of the trademark. While for ‘passing off’ the mark should be ‘deceptively similar’.
Base for action For infringement action, one has proved a violation of his statutory right. For passing off action one has to show misrepresentation, deceit, or bad faith.

Question 7.
What do you understand by ‘Collective Trademark’? Also state the provisions applicable to the collective marks under the Trademark Act, 1999. [Dec. 2011 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Collective Trademarks includes:

  • The “CA” device used by the Institute of Chartered Accountants
  • The “CS” device used by the Institute of Company Secretaries
  • The mark “CPA”, used to indicate members of the Society of Certified Public Accountants
  • The marks of various confederated lobby groups.

The “collective” itself typically does not sell goods under the mark but instead advertises or promotes the goods or services of its members under the mark.

Example: Turkey. The Perfect Protein (National Turkey Federation)

  • Association uses the mark to promote the interests of its members.
  • Members use the mark on their products to distinguish their products from those of non-members

Question 8.
State the absolute grounds for refusal of registration of a trademark. [Dec. 2013 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Absolute grounds for refusal of registration [Section 9]: Following trademarks cannot be registered:
(a) Which are devoid of any distinctive character ie. not capable of distinguishing goods or services of one person from those of another person.
(b) Which consist exclusively of marks or indications which may serve in trade to designate the kind, quality, quantity, intended purpose, values, geographical origin or the time of production of the goods or rendering of the service or other characteristics of the goods or services.
(c) Which consist exclusively of marks or indications which have become customary in the current language or in the bonafide and established practices of the trade.

However, if a trademark has acquired a distinctive character as a result j of the use made of it or is a well-known trademark, its registration shall | not be refused.

Question 9.
Explain the meaning of the term ‘certification trademark’ under the Trademarks Act, 1999. [Dec. 2015 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Certification Trademark [Section 2(1 )(e)]: Certification trademark to mean a mark capable of distinguishing the goods or services in connection with which it is used in the course of trade which is certified by the proprietor of the mark in respect of origin, material, mode of manufacture of goods or performance of services, quality, accuracy or other characteristics from goods or services not so certified and registerable as such in respect of those goods or services in the name, as proprietor of the certification trademark, of that person.

Some examples of certification trademarks are ‘1ST, ‘Agmark’ etc.

In simple words, a certification mark certifies the nature or origin of the goods or services on or in connection with which it is used. This includes, for example, region or location or origin, materials of construction, method or mode of manufacture of goods or provision of services, quality assurance, the accuracy of the goods or services, and any definable characteristic of the goods or services.

Question 10.
What is a ‘trademark’? Comment on the benefits of a trademark to all stakeholders. [Dec. 2016 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
A trademark is a recognizable sign, design, or expression which identifies products or services of a particular source from those of others.

A trademark may be located on a package, a label, a voucher, or on the product itself. A trademark symbolizes the business’s reputation. Trademark is the valuable property of any business. Some of the well-known trademarks are Coca-Cola, Pepsi, Tata, etc. It is intangible property.

Common benefits of trademark:

  • It identifies the goods/or services and their origin.
  • It guarantees its unchanged quality.
  • It advertises the goods/services.
  • It creates an image for the goods/services.

Question 11.
Pankaj, Director of M/s. Mustered Oil Manufacturing Company, seeks your advice for the selection of a trademark which he proposes to be used for its products. Describe various natures of trademarks and which trademarks are considered as strong in nature. [Dec. 2018 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Following are the prerequisites for registration of a trademark to be registered,

  • The selected mark should be capable of being represented graphically (that is in the paper form).
  • It should be capable of distinguishing the goods or services of one undertaking from those of others.
  • It should be used or proposed to be used the mark in relation to goods or services for the purpose of indicating or so as to indicate a connection in the course of trade between the goods or services and some person have the right to use the mark with or without the identity of that person.

Any startup needs to be cautious in selecting its trade name, brands, logos, packaging for products, domain names, and any other mark which it proposes to use. You must do proper due diligence before adopting a trademark.

The trademarks can be broadly classified into the following five categories:

  1. Generic
  2. Descriptive
  3. Suggestive
  4. Arbitrary
  5. Invented/Coined

Generic Trademark: Generic mark means using the name of the product for the product, like “Salt” for salt.
Descriptive Trademark: Descriptive marks mean the mark describing the character of the products, like using the mark “Fair” for the fairness creams.

Suggestive Trademarks: Suggestive marks mean the mark suggesting the character of the products, like “Habitat” for home furnishings products. Arbitrary Trademarks: Arbitrary marks means mark which exists in popular vocabulary, but has no logical relationship to the goods or services for which they are used, like “Blackberry” for phones.

Invented/coined Trademarks: The invented/coined marks mean coining a new word that has no dictionary meaning, like “Adidas”.

The strongest marks that are easiest to protect are invented or arbitrary marks. The weaker marks are descriptive or suggestive marks that are very hard to protect. The weakest marks are generic marks that can never function as trademarks.

India follows the NICE Classification of Goods & Services for the purpose of registration of trademarks. The NICE Classification groups products into 45 classes (classes 1-34 include goods and classes 35-45 include services). The NICE Classification is recognized in the majority of the countries and makes applying for trademarks internationally a streamlined process. Every startup, seeking to trademark goods or services, has to choose from the appropriate classes, out of the 45 classes.

While adopting any mark, the startup should also keep in mind and ensure that the mark is not being used by any other person in India or abroad, especially if the mark is well-known.

Question 12.
Govind has newly started a ready-to-eat food products manufacturing company. He seeks your advice for the selection of a trademark; for his products. Brief him with an example on the following categories of trademarks referring to the provisions of the Trademark Act, 1999:
1. Generic marks
2. Descriptive marks
3. Suggestive marks
4. Arbitrary marks
5. Invented/Coined marks
Also, suggest to him which Categories or Categories are strong and which are weak with respect to the protection of Trademark rights. [June 2019 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
The trademarks can be broadly classified into the following five categories:

  1. Generic
  2. Descriptive
  3. Suggestive
  4. Arbitrary
  5. Invented/Coined

Generic Trademark: Generic mark means using the name of the product for the product, like “Salt” for salt.
Descriptive Trademark: Descriptive marks mean the mark describing the character of the products, like using the mark “Fair” for the fairness creams.

Suggestive Trademarks: Suggestive marks mean the mark suggesting the character of the products, like “Habitat” for home furnishings products. Arbitrary Trademarks: Arbitrary marks means mark which exists in popular vocabulary, but has no logical relationship to the goods or services for which they are used, like “Blackberry” for phones.

Invented/coined Trademarks: The invented/coined marks mean coining a new word that has no dictionary meaning, like “Adidas”.

The strongest marks that are easiest to protect are invented or arbitrary marks. The weaker marks are descriptive or suggestive marks that are very hard to protect. The weakest marks are generic marks that can never function as trademarks.

India follows the NICE Classification of Goods & Services for the purpose of registration of trademarks. The NICE Classification groups products into 45 classes (classes 1-34 include goods and classes 35-45 include services). The NICE Classification is recognized in the majority of the countries and makes applying for trademarks internationally a streamlined process. Every startup, seeking to trademark goods or services, has to choose from the appropriate classes, out of the 45 classes.

While adopting any mark, the startup should also keep in mind and ensure that the mark is not being used by any other person in India or abroad, especially if the mark is well-known.

Question 13.
Write a short note on Enforcement of Trademark Rights [June 2019 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Trademarks can be protected under the Trademark Act, 1999 and the common law Le. under the remedy of passing off. If a person is using a similar mark for similar or related goods or services or is using a well-known mark, the other person can file a suit for violation of his intellectual property ie. trademark rights irrespective of the fact that the trademark is registered or not.

Registration of a trademark is not a pre-requisite in order to sustain a civil or criminal action against the violation of trademarks in India. The prior adoption and use of the trademark are of utmost importance under trademark laws.

The relief which a Court may usually grant in a suit for infringement or passing off includes a permanent and interim injunction, damages or account of profits, delivery of the infringing goods for destruction, and cost of the legal proceedings. It is pertinent to note that infringement of a trademark is also a cognizable offense and criminal proceedings can also be initiated against the infringers.

Question 14.
Tony Singh is a popular stage performer and M/s. Pon Sun Studios, Chandigarh is having all the rights, titles, and interests in the personality of the artist along with the trade. A company started selling miniature toys of Tony Singh to encash his popularity. In the light of statutory provision, examine the remedy available against the company for infringing Tony Singh’s right to publicity [Dec. 2019(3 Marks)]
Answer:
Tony Singh, being the lawful owner of the trademark, M/s. Pon Sun Studies can institute a civil suit seeking a restraint on infringement of the trademark. The facts are similar to the decided case Daler Mehndi Entertainment v. Baby Gift House & org. In that case, the court held that passing off would occur when the mark is being used to create confusion in the minds of the consumer that results in the damage or loss of business for the person or company who are the lawful owner of the trademark

Question 15.
What do you understand by ‘Geographical Indications of Goods’? Also state which classes of goods can be registered under the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration & Protection) Act, 1999?
Answer:
The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 is for the protection of geographical indications in India.

India, as a member of the World Trade Organization (WTO), enacted the Act to comply with the Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights. The geographical indication tag ensures that none other than those registered as authorized users or at least those residing inside the geographic territory are allowed to use the popular product name. Examples of Indian Geographical Indications are Darjeeling Tea, Kanchipuram Silk Saree, Alphonso Mango, Nagpur Orange, Kolhapuri Chappal, etc.

Registration to be in respect of particular goods and area [Section 8]: A geographical indication may be registered in respect of any goods as per classification made by the Registrar in respect of a definite territory of a country, or a region or locality.

The Registrar shall classify the goods in accordance with the International Classification of goods for the purposes of registration of geographical indication.

The Registrar may publish in the prescribed manner an alphabetical index of classification of goods.
Any question arising as to the classification of goods in respect of which the geographical indication then the Registrar decision in the matter shall be final.

Question 16.
What are the grounds for the prohibition of registration of geographical indications under the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration & Protection) Act, 1999? [Dec. 2014 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Prohibition of registration of certain geographical indications [Section 9]: Following cannot be registered as geographical indications:

  • Use which likely to deceive or cause confusion
  • Use contrary to any law
  • Which comprises or contains scandalous or obscene matter
  • Which likely to hurt the religious feelings
  • Which would be disentitled to protection in a Court
  • Which are generic names or indications (ie. the word has lost its original meaning and has become a common name)

Question 17.
What do you understand by the ‘Design’ Designs Act, 2000? Also state the objective of the Designs Act, 2000.
Answer:
A design to be registrable must be new or original. ‘Original’, in relation to a design, means originating from the author of such design and includes the cases which though old in themselves yet are new in their application. It should not be previously published in India or anywhere in the world.

It should be significantly distinguishable from known designs or a combination of known designs and should not comprise or contain scandalous or obscene matter. It should also be not contrary to public order or morality. A design can be registered in respect of any or all of the articles comprised in a prescribed class of articles.

When a design is registered, the registered proprietor of the design shall have copyright in the design. Copyright under the act means the exclusive right to apply a design to any article in any class in which the design is registered.

The proprietor of the design shall have copyright in the design for 10 years from the date of registration. Provision for the extension of the period of the copyright for another 5 years is also provided under the act. Any design registered under the act is not eligible for protection under the Copyright Act.

The objective of the Designs Act, 2000: The objective of the Designs Act, 2000 is to protect new or original designs so created to be applied or applicable to a particular article to be manufactured by industrial process or means. The important purpose of design registration is to see that the artisan, creator, originator of a design having aesthetic look is not deprived of his bonafide reward by others applying it to their goods.

Question 18.
Registration of certain designs is prohibited under the Design Act, 2000. Discuss. [Dec. 2015 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Prohibition of registration of certain designs [Section 4]: Following designs cannot be registered under the Act:
(a) Design that is not new or original.
(b) Design that has been already disclosed to the public anywhere in India or in any other country.
(c) Design that is not significantly distinguishable from known designs or a combination of known designs.
(d) Design that comprises or contains scandalous or obscene matter.

Question 19.
What do you understand by the infringement (piracy) of registered design? [June 2014 (3 Marks)], [Dec. 2016 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Piracy of registered design [Section 22]: During the existence of copyright in the design there is protection against Piracy.

Any person cannot:
(a) Apply the design or its imitation to any article for sale, if it is fraudulent or obvious imitation;
(b) Import any article for the purposes of sale where the design of the imported article is fraudulent or obvious imitation;
(c) Publish or exposing goods for sale in any article, knowingly that the design or its fraudulent imitation has been applied to that article.

The person acting in contravention of the piracy of registered design shall be liable to pay to the registered proprietor of the design a sum up to ₹ 25,000 (maximum ₹ 50,000). In addition, damage can be claimed and an injunction can be taken from the Court.

Question 20.
One of the objectives of the Design Rules, 2001 is to enable protection of newly created designs applying to an article manufactured by a particular industrial process? Elucidate. [Dec.2019(3 Marks)]
Answer:
Objectives of the Designs Rules, 2001 is to enable protection of newly created designs applying to particular articles manufactured by the industrial process.

It refers in legal definition to:

  • Any mode or principle of construction or anything which is in substance merely mechanical device.
  • Any trademark which is a registered trademark indicating a connection in course of trade between the goods and some person having the right, either as proprietor or as a registered user, to use the mark; Any trademark which denotes the ownership of moveable property belonging to a particular person.
  • Any trademark which is a painting, sculpture, drawing, engraving or photograph, or any work of architecture or any other work of artistic craftsmanship.

Question 21.
State the work in which copyright subsists and the work in which it does not subsist? [Dec. 1999 (7 Marks)], [Dec. 2000 (6 Marks)]
Answer:
Works in which copyright subsists [Section 13(1)]: The copyright shall subsist throughout India in the following classes of work:

  • Original literary, dramatic, musical & artistic work
  • Cinematograph films and
  • Sound recording

Certain conditions for copyright [Section 13(2)]:

  1. In case of published work: The author must be a citizen of India whether the work is first published in India or outside India. If the author dies before publication, he must be a citizen of India at the time of his death.
  2. In case of unpublished work: The author should be a citizen of India or domiciled in India.
  3. In case of joint authorship: Conditions (1) & (2) should be satisfied by all the authors.
  4. In the case of architecture work: Such work must be located in India.

Work in which copyright does not subsist [Section 13(3)]: The copyright shall not subsist in the following cases:
(a) In any cinematograph films: If a substantial part of the film is an infringement of any other work.
(b) In any sound recording: If in making such recording there is an infringement of any other work.
(c) In case of or artificial work: Copyright shall subsist only in artistic character & design and shall not extend to processes or methods of construction.

Question 22.
State whether copyright in future work can be assigned and if so, can the assignment be done for a part of the term of the copyright? [Dec. 2000 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Meaning of Assignment: An assignment may be defined as the transfer of a particular right, leaving nothing with the assignor by virtue of assigning a particular right, and bestowing on the assignee the whole of the legal interest in the right issued.

Assignment of Copyright [Section 18]:

  1. The owner of the copyright in an existing work may assign to any person the copyright either wholly or partially either for the whole term of the copyright or any part thereof. The prospective owner of the copyright in a future work may also assign copyright. However, in the case of future work, the assignment shall take effect only when the work comes into existence.
  2. When rights in copyright are assigned
  3. The assignee is an owner in respect of right assigned and
  4. Assigner is an owner in respect of right not assigned.
  5. In case of copyright in future work, the assignee includes the legal representatives of the assignee.

Question 23.
State whether the assignment of copyright shall be writing or not? [Dec. 2000 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Mode of Assignment [Section 19]:

  1. The assignment must be in writing, duly signed by the assignor or his authorized agent.
  2. The assignment must specify details of work assigned, right assigned, duration, and territorial extent of such assignment.
  3. The assignment must specify the amount of royalty payable to the author or his legal heirs.
  4. If the assignee does not make use of the rights assigned to him within a period of 1 year from the date of assignment, the assignment shall be deemed to have lapsed unless otherwise specified in the assignment.
  5. If the period of assignment is not stated, it shall be deemed to be 5 years from the date of assignment.
  6. If the territorial extent of the assignment of the rights is not specified, it shall be presumed to extend within India.

Question 24.
Manish assigned the copyright of his book to his nice Sujata in 2017. In 2019, due to some misunderstanding between them, Manish wants to revoke the assignment. Sujata contends that she has not made any fault and that she had helped a lot and there is no ground for revocation of assignment. Decide. [Dec. 2002 (6 Marks)]
Answer:
Facts of Case -Manish assigned the copyright of his book to his nice Sujata in 2017. In 2019, due to some misunderstanding between them, Manish wants to revoke the assignment. Sujata contends that she has not made any fault and that she had helped a lot and there is no ground for revocation of the assignment

Provision: As per Section 19A, if an assignee fails to exercise the right assigned to him then Copyright Board may on receipt of a complaint from the assignor and after holding an inquiry can revoke such the assignment. However, the Copyright Board will not pass an order to revoke the assignment unless the terms of the assignment are harsh to the assignor (ie. Author). It is also provided that no order to revoke the assignment can be passed within a period of 5 years from the date of assignment.

Thus, Manish can succeed to revoke the license only after 5 years of the assignment if he shows to the Copyright Board that the terms of the assignment are harsh to him.

Conclusion: Hence, Manish cannot revoke the assignment in 2019 if he has made an assignment in 2017.

Question 25.
Whether registration of copyright is compulsory? Whether non-registration deprives the owner of his right to bring both a civil and criminal action against on offense of infringement? [Dec. 2000 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Registration of copyright is not obligatory it is optional. Non-registration does not deprive the owner of his right to bring both a civil & criminal action against an offense of infringement. For registering the work in copyright application has to be made in Form IV with prescribed fee to the Registrar of Copyright.

Entries in Register of Copyrights [Section 45]: The author or the owner or other person interested in the copyright may make an application in Form IV accompanied by the prescribed fee to the Registrar of Copyrights.

If the application is in respect of an artistic work, then an application for registration should be accompanied by a certificate from ‘Register of Trademark’ that no trademark which identical or deceptively similar to such artistic work has been registered under that Act.

On receipt of an applicant for registration of copyright, the Registrar may enter the particulars in the Register of Copyrights after holding inquiry as he may deem fit.

Question 26.
What do you understand by ‘infringement of the copyright’? [June 2006 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Meaning of Infringement of copyright: Any person without authorization from the owner exercises these rights in respect of the work, which has copyright protection, it constitutes an infringement of the copyright.

When copyright infringed [Section 51]: In the following cases, copyright in a work shall be deemed to be infringed:
(a) Doing anything without a license from the copyright owner.

(b) Permitting for profit without a license any place to be used for the communication of the work to the public.

(c) Making or offering for sale or hire, or selling or letting for hire in public or importing into India any infringing copy of the work.

(d) Imports into India any infringing copies of the work
Exception: Import of one copy of any work is allowed for private and domestic use and it is not an infringement of copyright.

(e) Distributes either for the purpose of trade or to such an extent as to affect prejudicially the owner of the copyright; or

(f) By way of trade, exhibits in public
Explanation: The reproduction of literary, dramatic musical, or artistic work in the form of a cinematograph film shall be deemed to be an infringing copy.

Question 27.
Write a short note on the Term of Copyright [Dec. 2010 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Sections 22 to 29 deal with the term of copyright.

Type of work

Term of copyright

Copyright in published literary, dramatic, musical, and artistic works A lifetime of the author (+) 60 years beyond his death.
The general rule is that copyright lasts for 60 years. In the case of original literary, dramatic, musical, and artistic works the 60 years period is counted from the year following the death of the author.
Copyright in anonymous and pseudonymous works Next 60 years from the year in which the work has been first published. But if names are disclosed, it will be 60 years from the year following the year in author dies.
Copy right in the posthumous work Next 60 years from the end of the year in which the work has been first published.
Copyright in photographs
Copyright in cinematograph films
Copyright in sound records
Copyright in Government work
Copyright in works of public undertakings
Copyright in works of international organizations
The broadcast reproduction right Next 25 years from the end of the calendar year in which the broadcast is made.

The above table depicting the term of copyright is given for the information of the students. In the examination, the answer can be written as given below

The general rule is that copyright lasts for 60 years. In the case of original literary, dramatic, musical, and artistic works the 60 years period is counted from the year following the death of the author.

In the case of cinematograph films, sound recordings, photographs, posthumous publications, anonymous and pseudonymous publications, works of government, and works of international organizations, the 60 year period is counted from the date of publication.

Meaning of certain words:

  • Anonymous: (of a person) not identified by name; of unknown name.
  • Pseudonymous: Writing or written under an assumed name.
  • Posthumous: Occurring, awarded, or appearing after the death of the originator.

Question 28.
Discuss the provisions of the Copyright Act, 1957 relating to infringement of copyright. [June 2012 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Facts of Case -Manish assigned the copyright of his book to his nice Sujata in 2017. In 2019, due to some misunderstanding between them, Manish wants to revoke the assignment. Sujata contends that she has not made any fault and that she had helped a lot and there is no ground for revocation of the assignment

Provision: As per Section 19A, if an assignee fails to exercise the right assigned to him then Copyright Board may on receipt of a complaint from the assignor and after holding an inquiry can revoke such the assignment. However, the Copyright Board will not pass an order to revoke the assignment unless the terms of the assignment are harsh to the assignor (ie. Author). It is also provided that no order to revoke the assignment can be passed within a period of 5 years from the date of assignment.

Thus, Manish can succeed to revoke the license only after 5 years of the assignment if he shows to the Copyright Board that the terms of the assignment are harsh to him.

Conclusion: Hence, Manish cannot revoke the assignment in 2019 if he has made an assignment in 2017.

Question 29.
The Copyright Act, 1957 provides for civil remedies for infringement of copyright. Comment. [June 2008 (5 Marks)], [June 2013 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Civil remedies for infringement of copyright [Section 55]:

  1. Remedies: Where copyright is any work that has been infringed, the owner of the copyright shall be entitled to remedies like injunction, damages, accounts, etc.
  2. No Damages: If the defendant proves that he was not aware and has no reasonable ground to believe that copyright subsisted in the work, then the only remedy available to the plaintiff is to share profits of the defendant and an injunction in respect of the infringement of copyright by the defendant.
  3. Presumed Author: In any proceeding in respect of infringement of copyright, if the author or publisher appears in on copies of work then he shall be presumed to be the author or the publisher of the work unless the contrary is provided.
  4. Court Discretion: The Court has discretion in granting the costs of the proceedings.

Question 30.
Discuss the classes of work for which copyright protection is available under the Copyright Act, 1957 duly amended from time to time. [Dec. 2018 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Copyright subsists throughout India in the following classes of works:

  • Original literary.
  • Dramatic work.
  • Musical work (consists of music and also graphic notation of such works but excludes any words or action intended to be sung, spoken, or performed with music).
  • Artistic works (painting, sculpture, drawing, engraving, photograph, architecture, or any other work of artistic craftsmanship (whether or not any such work poses artistic work).
  • Cinematograph films (work of visual recording on any medium produced through a process from which a moving image may be produced by any means and includes a sound recording accompanying such visual recording).
  • Sound recordings (recording of sounds from which sounds may be produced regardless of the medium on which such recording is made or the method by which the sounds are produced).

Question 31.
Prof. Ritika Verma has authored a book ‘IFRS – A Practical & Simple Approach’. She wants to get a copyright of the same under the Copyright Act, 1957. Advice Ritika on the rights that are protected to her after obtaining the copyright of the book. [Dec. 2018 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Protection to Authors: Copyright protects the rights of authors, Le., creators of intellectual property in the form of literary, musical, dramatic, and artistic works and cinematograph films and sound recordings.

Following rights are protected:

  • To reproduce the work.
  • To issue copies of the work to the public.
  • To perform the work in public.
  • To communicate the work to the public.
  • To make any translation of the work.
  • To make any adaptation of the work.

(Conversion of dramatic work into non-dramatic work, literary work into dramatic work, re-arrangement of literary or dramatic work, depiction in comic form or through pictures of a literary or dramatic work, transcription of musical work, or any act involving rearrangement or alteration of existing work and the making of a cinematograph film of literary or dramatic or musical work)

In addition to all the rights applicable to a literary work, the owner of the copyright in a computer program enjoys the rights to sell or give on hire or offer for sale or hire, regardless of whether such a copy has been sold or given on hire on an earlier occasion.

Question 32.
In the light of the provisions of the Copyright Act, 1970, in the following cases who are the owners of the copyrights:
(i) Musical Sound Recordings;
(ii) Works by Journalists. [June 2019 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Copyright is the right of the artist, author, producer of films, etc. who has created work by use of their artistic skills. Technically owner of the copyright is its author. The term ‘author’ is in the Act as follows:

Author [Section 2(d)]: Author means:

In relation to a literary or dramatic work The author
In relation to a musical work The composer
In relation to an artistic work other than a photograph The artist
In relation to a photograph The person taking the photograph
In relation to a cinematograph film or sound recording The producer
In relation to any literary dramatic musical or artistic work which is computer-generated The person who creates the work

Keeping in view of the above provisions of the Copyright Act, 1970, owners of copyrights are:

  1. In musical sound recordings: Lyricist, composer, singer, musician, and the person or company who produced the sound recording.
  2. In works by journalists during their employment: In the absence of any agreement to the contrary, the proprietor.

Question 33.
Prerna has taken some books from Library and she wants to reproduce “Verbatim” some pages from the book of her Ph.D. thesis. She would like to know from you whether she will be violating any Copyright protection in doing so. Also, brief her exceptions available to protect the interest of the users under Copyright law. [Dec. 2019(3 Marks)]
Answer:
Facts of Case: Prerna has taken some books from Library and she wants to reproduce “Verbatim” some pages from the book of her Ph.D. thesis. She would like to know from you whether she will be violating any Copyright protection in doing so.

Provision: Verbatim reproduction of pages of the book for the Ph.D. thesis is not protected under the fair use doctrine of the Copyright Act, 1957. The case of Fateh Singh Mehta v. OP Singhal decided by the Rajasthan High Court deals with a similar set of facts whereby the research thesis submitted by the respondent was copied verbatim to large extent by the appellant for preparing his Ph.D. thesis. It was held to be an infringement on part of the appellant.

In order to protect the interests of users, some exemptions have been prescribed in respect of specific uses of works enjoying copyright.

It includes:

  • for the purpose of research or private study,
  • for criticism or review,
  • for reporting current events,
  • in connection with a judicial proceeding,
  • for the purpose of education and religious ceremonies

Section 52 of the Copyright Act, 1957 provides for various other purposes which will constitute fair use of copyrighted material.

Conclusion: Therefore Prerna who is using the book for research work has not violated a copyright

Question 34.
Who is entitled to make an application for a patent? [June 2007 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Persons entitled to apply for Patents [Section 6]: An application for a patent for an invention may be made by any of the following persons:

  1. True and first inventor of the invention.
  2. The assignee of the true and first inventor of the invention.
  3. The legal representative of a deceased person who was entitled to make an application before his death.

An application may be made by any of the above persons either alone or jointly with any other persons.
Eg: Ramlal invented a pen that can capture all data that is written in which pen. Either Ramlal can apply for a patent or if he dies then Randal’s wife can apply. If Ramlal assigned his invention to Reliance Industries then Reliance Industries can apply.

Question 35.
Distinguish between: Invention & Patentable Invention [June 2008 (4 Marks)], [June 2009 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Invention means a new product or process involving inventive steps and £ capable of industrial application.

The invention is a product of original thought. Mere discovery of an already existing principle is not an invention, e.g. Edison invented the electric bulb while Columbus discovered America. The invention must result in a new product or new result or new process or a new combination.

The word ‘patentable invention’ is not defined anywhere in the Patent Act, 1970. However, one can say that ‘patentable invention’ means invention for which patent can be granted under the Patent Act, 1970. Section 3 enumerates the inventions which are not patentable.

Question 36.
Mention any five inventions which are not patentable under the Patents Act, 1970. [Dec. 2008 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
What is not Invention [Section 3]: This section gives the list of inventions that are not patentable under the Patents Act, 1970.

Some of these are given below:

  • An invention that is frivolous.
  • An invention that claims anything obviously contrary to well-established natural laws.
  • Morality
  • Injurious to public health
  • a mere arrangement or re-arrangement or duplication of known devices
  • a method of agriculture or horticulture
  • inventions relating to atomic energy
  • The mere discovery of a scientific principle.
  • The formulation of an abstract theory.
  • Discovery of any living thing or non-living substance occurring in nature.
  • A mathematical or business method or a computer program per se or algorithms.
  • A literary, dramatic, musical, or artistic work or any other aesthetic creation whatsoever including cinematographic works and television productions.
  • A presentation of information.

Inventions relating to atomic energy not patentable [Section 4]: No patent shall be granted in respect of an invention relating to atomic energy falling Section 20(1) of the Atomic Energy Act, 1962.

Question 37.
Does a patent obtain in India give worldwide protection? [Dec. 2012 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Patents are territorial rights. In general, the exclusive rights are only applicable in the country or region in which a patent has been filed and granted, in accordance with the law of that country or region. Therefore, separate patents should be obtained in each country where the applicant requires protection of his invention in those countries. There is no patent valid worldwide.

Setting Up of Business Entities and Closure Questions and Answers