CA Intermediate

Fraud and Responsibilities of the Auditor in this Regard – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Students should practice these Fraud and Responsibilities of the Auditor in this Regard – CA Inter Audit MCQ based on the latest syllabus.

Fraud and Responsibilities of the Auditor in this Regard – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 1.
When credit purchases of ₹ 5100 is recorded on credit side and credit sales of ₹ 5100 is recorded on debit side, this kind of error is called
(a) Error of omission
(b) Compensating error
(c) Error of principle
(d) Error of commission
Answer:
(b) Compensating error

Question 2.
If, as a result of a misstatement resulting from fraud, the auditor encounters exceptional circumstances that bring into question his ability to continue performing the audit, he shall _____
(a) Withdraw from the engagement immediately
(b) Report to Audit team regarding withdrawal
(c) Determine the professional and legal responsibilities applicable in the circumstances
(d) Ask the management for his withdrawal
Answer:
(c) Determine the professional and legal responsibilities applicable in the circumstances

Question 3.
Which of the following is an example of inflating cash payments?
(a) Making payments against purchase vouchers
(b) Teeming and lading
(c) Not accounting for cash sales fully
(d) Making payments against inflated vouchers
Answer:
(d) Making payments against inflated vouchers

Question 4.
The type of errors, the existence of which becomes apparent in the process of compilation of accounts is known as _____
(a) Self-revealing errors
(b) Intentional errors
(c) Concealed errors
(d) Unconcealed errors
Answer:
(a) Self-revealing errors

Fraud and Responsibilities of the Auditor in this Regard – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 5.
Misappropriation of assets may occur because there is _____
(a) Adequate record keeping with respect to assets
(b) Known history of violations of securities laws
(c) Lack of complete and timely reconciliations of assets
(d) Dispute between shareholders in a closely held entity
Answer:
(c) Lack of complete and timely reconciliations of assets

Question 6.
SA 240 define fraud as ‘an intentional act by one or more individuals among management, those charged with governance, _____ , involving the use of deception to obtain an unjust or illegal advantage
(a) employees or third parties
(b) employees, vendors or third parties
(c) employees or others
(d) employees or vendors
Answer:
(a) employees or third parties

Question 7.
A situation where someone believes they have a favourable or promising combination of circumstances to commit an undetectable fraud is the description of:
(a) perceived pressure
(b) rationalisation
(c) management fraud
(d) perceived opportunity
Answer:
(d) perceived opportunity

Question 8.
Which of the following considerations of fraud and error by the auditor is not required by SA 240?
(a) the auditor should communicate to management any material weaknesses in internal control related to the prevention or detection of fraud and error
(b) based on the risk assessment the auditor should design audit procedures to obtain reasonable as-surance that material misstatements arising from fraud and error are detected
(c) when the auditor encounters circumstances that may indicate that there is a material misstatement in the financial statements resulting from fraud or error, the auditor should inform regulatory bodies
(d) the auditor should be satisfied that those charged with governance have been informed of any material weaknesses in internal control related to the prevention and detection of fraud
Answer:
(c) when the auditor encounters circumstances that may indicate that there is a material misstatement in the financial statements resulting from fraud or error, the auditor should inform regulatory bodies

Question 9.
Concerning fraud, the auditor’s current position is that:
(a) the auditor is responsible for obtaining reasonable assurance that the financial statements are free from material statement, whether caused by fraud or error
(b) when fraud is discovered by the auditor, they must report it in their audit opinion
(c) fraud detection is the objective of an audit
(d) the auditor can take no responsibility for fraud
Answer:
(a) the auditor is responsible for obtaining reasonable assurance that the financial statements are free from material statement, whether caused by fraud or error

Question 10.
Fraudulent financial reporting involves
(a) Management override of controls that otherwise may appear to be operating effectively
(b) Causing an entity to pay for goods and services not received
(c) Stealing physical assets or intellectual property
(d) Using an entity’s assets for personal use
Answer:
(a) Management override of controls that otherwise may appear to be operating effectively

Fraud and Responsibilities of the Auditor in this Regard – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 11.
Misappropriation of assets involves the theft of an entity’s assets and is often perpetrated by employees in relatively small and immaterial amounts. Misappropriation of assets can be accomplished in a variety of ways. Which of the following is not an example of misappropriation of assets?
(a) Misappropriating collections on accounts receivable or diverting receipts in respect of written-off accounts to personal bank accounts
(b) Inappropriately adjusting assumptions and changing judgments used to estimate account balances
(c) Stealing inventory for personal use or for sale, stealing scrap for resale, colluding with a competitor by disclosing technological data in return for payment
(d) Payments to fictitious vendors, kickbacks paid by vendors to the entity’s purchasing agents in return for inflating prices, payments to fictitious employees
Answer:
(b) Inappropriately adjusting assumptions and changing judgments used to estimate account balances

Question 12.
If, as a result of a misstatement resulting from fraud or suspected fraud, the auditor encounters exceptional circumstances that bring into question the auditor’s ability to continue performing the audit, the auditor shall:
(a) consider the nature of modifications to be made in the audit report
(b) consider whether it is appropriate to withdraw from the engagement, where withdrawal from the engagement is legally permitted
(c) communicate his inability to continue the audit to Central Government
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) consider whether it is appropriate to withdraw from the engagement, where withdrawal from the engagement is legally permitted

Question 13.
Cloud Ltd. appointed an auditor for the financial year 2018-19. While going through the audit procedure, the auditor observed that the management has entered into certain transactions which are irregular in nature and the management is personally benefited from such transactions
(a) Auditor should consider the requirements of SA 240 and recognize the possibility that a material misstatement due to fraud could exist
(b) Auditor should consider the requirements of Section 143(12) of Companies Act, 2013 as to reporting of fraud to the Central Government
(c) Auditor should consider the requirements of Para 3(x) of CARO, 2016 as to reporting of fraud
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 14.
While conducting statutory Audit of ABC Ltd., you come across “I Owe You” amounting to ₹ 2 crores as against a cash balance shown in books of ₹ 2.10 crores. You also observe that despite similar high balances throughout the year, small amounts of ₹ 50,000 are withdrawn from the bank to meet day-to-day expenses
(a) Auditor should consider the requirements of SA 240 and recognize the possibility that a material misstatement due to fraud could exist
(b) Auditor should carry out surprise verification of cash more frequently to ascertain whether it agrees as per the requirements of Guidance Note on Audit of Cash and Bank balances
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Either (a) or (b)
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 15.
M/s Honest Limited has entered into a transaction on 5th March, 2018, near year-end, whereby it has agreed to pay ₹ 5 lakhs p.m. to Mr. Y as annual retainer-ship fee for “engineering consultation”. No amount was actually paid, but ₹ 60 lakhs is provided in books of account as on March 31, 2018. Your inquiry elicits a response that need-based consultation was obtained round the year, but there is no documentary or other evidence of receipt of the service. As the auditor of M/s Honest Limited, what would be your approach?
(a) Auditor should consider the requirements of SA 240 and recognize the possibility that a material misstatement due to fraud could exist
(b) Auditor should consider the requirements of Section 143(12) of Companies Act, 2013 as to reporting of fraud to the Central Government
(c) Auditor should consider the requirements of Para 3(x) of CARO, 2016 as to reporting of fraud
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 16.
As per Sec. 143(12) of Companies Act, 2013, if an auditor of a company in the course of the performance of his duties as auditor, has reason to believe that an offence of fraud involving such amount or amounts as may be prescribed, is being or has been committed in the company by its officers or employees, the auditor shall report the matter to the Central Government within such time and in such manner as may be prescribed. The amount prescribed for this purpose is
(a) Individually ₹ 1 Cr. or above
(b) Individually above ₹ 1 Cr.
(c) ₹ 1 Cr. or above in aggregate
(d) above ₹ 1 Cr. in aggregate
Answer:
(a) Individually ₹ 1 Cr. or above

Question 17.
Reporting of fraud to Central Government re quired under Section 143(12) of Companies Act, 2013 read with Rule 13 of Companies (Audit & Auditor’s) Rules, 2014 shall be in the form of a statement as specified in and sent to
(a) Form ADT-3; Secretary, Institute of Chartered Accountants of India
(b) Form ADT-4; Secretary, Ministry of Corporate Affairs
(c) Form ADT-4; Secretary, Ministry of Law and Justice
(d) Form ADT-3; Secretary, Indian Institute of Corporate Affairs
Answer:
(b) Form ADT-4; Secretary, Ministry of Corporate Affairs

Fraud and Responsibilities of the Auditor in this Regard – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 18.
As per Sec. 143(15) of Companies Act, 2013, if any auditor, cost accountant or company secretary in practice do not comply with the provisions of Sec. 143(12), he shall be punishable with fine which shall not be less than but which may extend to
(a) ₹ 1 lac; ₹ 25 Lacs
(b) ₹ 5 lacs; ₹ 25 Lacs
(c) ₹ 1 lac; ₹ 5 Lacs
(d) ₹ 1 lac; ₹ 10 Lacs
Answer:
(a) ₹ 1 lac; ₹ 25 Lacs

Question 19.
Report u/s 143(12) with respect to fraud shall be sent to
(a) Registrar of Companies
(b) Company Law Board
(c) Secretary, Ministry of Home affairs
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(d) None of the above

Question 20.
As per Sec. 143(12) of Companies Act, 2013, if an auditor of a company in the course of the perfor-mance of his duties as auditor, has reason to believe that an offence of fraud involving such amount or j amounts as may be prescribed, is being or has been committed in the company by its officers or employees, the auditor shall report the matter to the Central Government within such time and in such manner as may be prescribed. The amount so prescribed is
(a) ₹ 1 Cr. or above, individually as per Rule 13 of Companies (Audit and Auditor’s) Rules, 2014
(b) ₹ 1 Cr. or above, in aggregate as per Rule 13 of Companies (Audit and Auditor’s) Rules, 2014
(c) ₹ 1 Cr. or above, individually as per Rule 13 of Companies (Accounts) Rules, 2014
(d) ₹ 1 Cr. or above, in aggregate as per Rule 13 of Companies (Accounts) Rules, 2014
Answer:
(a) ₹ 1 Cr. or above, individually as per Rule 13 of Companies (Audit and Auditor’s) Rules, 2014

Question 21.
Which of the following is an example of inflating cash payments?
(a) Making payments against purchase vouchers.
(b) Teeming and lading.
(c) Not accounting for cash sales fully.
(d) Making payments against inflated vouchers.
Answer:
(d) Making payments against inflated vouchers.

Question 22.
The type of errors, existence of which becomes apparent in the process of compilation of accounts is known as
(a) Self-revealing errors.
(b) Intentional errors.
(c) Concealed errors.
(d) Unconcealed errors.
Answer:
(a) Self-revealing errors.

Question 23.
The standard that requires auditors to analyse journal entries in an audit is?
(a) SA 260
(b) SA 230
(c) SA 315
(d) SA 240
Answer:
(d) SA 240

Fraud and Responsibilities of the Auditor in this Regard – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 24.
If, as a result of a misstatement resulting from fraud, the auditor encounters exceptional circumstances that bring into question his ability to continue performing the audit, he shall-
(a) Withdraw from the engagement immediately.
(b) Report to Audit team regarding withdrawal.
(c) Determine the professional and legal responsibilities applicable in the circumstances.
(d) Ask the management for his withdrawal.
Answer:
(c) Determine the professional and legal responsibilities applicable in the circumstances.

Risk Assessment and Internal Control – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Students should practice these Risk Assessment and Internal Control – CA Inter Audit MCQ based on the latest syllabus.

Risk Assessment and Internal Control – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 1.
The risk that a misstatement that could occur in an assertion about a class of transaction, account balance or disclosure and that could be material, either individually or when aggregated with other misstatements, will not be prevented, or detected and corrected, on a timely basis by the entity’s internal control is known as:
(a) Inherent Risk
(b) Control Risk
(c) Risk of Material Misstatement
(d) Detection Risk
Answer:
(b) Control Risk

Question 2.
Risk arises to inherent limitations of control is known as:
(a) Inherent Risk
(b) Control Risk
(c) Risk of Material Misstatements
(d) Detection Risk
Answer:
(b) Control Risk

Question 3.
Risks of material misstatement at the overall financial statement level refer to risks of material misstatement
(a) that relate pervasively to the financial statements as a whole and potentially affect many assertions
(b) are assessed in order to determine the NTE of fur-ther audit procedures necessary to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence
(c) that material misstatement will not be prevented or detected and corrected on a timely basis by the internal control system
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(a) that relate pervasively to the financial statements as a whole and potentially affect many assertions

Risk Assessment and Internal Control – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 4.
When inherent and control risks are high, acceptable detection risk needs to be
(a) low to reduce audit risk to an acceptably high level
(b) high to reduce audit risk to an acceptably high level
(c) low to reduce audit risk to an acceptably low level
(d) high to reduce audit risk to an acceptably low level
Answer:
(c) low to reduce audit risk to an acceptably low level

Question 5.
Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) SA 315 has a purpose to establish standards to form procedures to be followed to have an understanding of the entity and its environment
(b) Risk of material misstatement may be defined as the risk that the financial statements are materially misstated subsequent to audit.
(c) Internal control can provide absolute assurance
(d) Inherent and Control Risk, and detection risk have same meaning
Answer:
(a) SA 315 has a purpose to establish standards to form procedures to be followed to have an understanding of the entity and its environment

Question 6.
Which of the following is not a component of Risk Assessment Procedures?
(a) Inquiries of management, and of others within the entity
(b) Analytical procedures
(c) Observation and inspection
(d) Reperformance
Answer:
(d) Reperformance

Question 7.
Risk arises on account of judgment on part of auditor, test nature of audit and nature of audit evidences collected:
(a) Inherent Risk
(b) Control Risk
(c) Risk of Material Misstatements
(d) Detection Risk
Answer:
(d) Detection Risk

Question 8.
Procedures performed to obtain an understanding of the entity and its environment, including the entity’s internal control, to identify and assess the risks of material misstatement, whether due to fraud or error, at the financial statement and assertion levels are known as:
(a) Risk Assessment procedures
(b) Compliance procedures
(c) Substantive procedure
(d) Substantive Analytical procedures
Answer:
(a) Risk Assessment procedures

Risk Assessment and Internal Control – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 9.
Components of risk of material misstatement at the assertion level are:
(a) Inherent risk and detection risk
(b) inherent risk and control risk
(c) Control risk and detection risk
(d) Inherent risk, control risk and detection risk
Answer:
(b) inherent risk and control risk

Question 10.
Audit risk is a function of the
(a) Risks of material misstatement and detection risk.
(b) Audit risk and detection risk.
(c) Control risk and detection risk.
(d) Inherent risk and detection risk
Answer:
(a) Risks of material misstatement and detection risk.

Question 11.
Risk of material misstatement may be defined as the risk that the financial statements are materially misstated _________
(a) after audit,
(b) during audit.
(c) prior to audit.
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) prior to audit.

Question 12.
The assessment of risks is a matter
(a) capable of precise measurement rather than matter of professional judgment,
(b) of professional judgment, rather than a matter capable of precise measurement.
(c) of professional judgment as well as capable of precise measurement sometimes.
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) of professional judgment, rather than a matter capable of precise measurement.

Question 13.
Which of the following is not an assertion about presentation and disclosure?
(a) Occurrence and rights and obligations
(b) Completeness
(c) Classification and understandability
(d) Existence
Answer:
(d) Existence

Question 14.
Which of the following Assertion is not related to assertion about presentation and disclosure:
(a) Occurrence and rights and obligations
(b) Completeness
(c) Classification and understandability
(d) Valuation and allocation
Answer:
(d) Valuation and allocation

Question 15.
Assertions used by the auditor to consider the different types of potential misstatements in relation to transactions occurred during the year include:
(a) Occurrence, completeness, accuracy and cut-off
(b) Existence, completeness, valuation and allocation
(c) Occurrence, completeness, understandability and classification
(d) Valuation, measurement, rights and obligations.
Answer:
(a) Occurrence, completeness, accuracy and cut-off

Question 16.
AH of the following are components of internal control except:
(a) Management Reports
(b) Risk Assessment Process
(c) Monitoring
(d) The Information System
Answer:
(a) Management Reports

Risk Assessment and Internal Control – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 17.
Implementation of a control means that the control exists and that:
(a) all necessary personnel are trained to operate the control
(b) the entity is using it
(c) the control was properly designed
(d) the control is documented
Answer:
(b) the entity is using it

Question 18.
Process to assess the effectiveness of internal control performance over time is known as:
(a) Entity risk assessment process
(b) Risk assessment process of statutory auditor
(c) Control activities relevant to audit
(d) Monitoring of controls
Answer:
(d) Monitoring of controls

Question 19.
Policies and procedures that help ensure that management directives are carried out are known as:
(a) Control Environment
(b) Entity risk assessment process
(c) Information System
(d) Control activities relevant to audit
Answer:
(d) Control activities relevant to audit

Question 20.
Which of the following is not a component of internal control system?
(a) Control Environment
(b) Risk assessment process of statutory auditor
(c) Information System
(d) Control activities relevant to audit
Answer:
(b) Risk assessment process of statutory auditor

Question 21.
A graphic presentation of internal controls in the organisation and is normally drawn up to show the controls in each section or sub-section is known as:
(a) Narrative Records
(b) Check List
(c) Internal Control Questionnaire
(d) Flowchart
Answer:
(d) Flowchart

Question 22.
A series of instructions and/or questions which a member of the auditing staff must follow and/or answer, is known as:
(a) Narrative Records
(b) Check List
(c) Internal Control Questionnaire
(d) Flowchart
Answer:
(b) Check List

Question 23.
The auditor’s primary consideration is whether, and how, a specific control prevents, or detects and corrects, material misstatements:
(a) in classes of transactions
(b) in account balances
(c) in disclosures
(d) in classes of transactions, account balances or disclosures
Answer:
(d) in classes of transactions, account balances or disclosures

Question 24.
All of the following are sub-systems (contents) of an entity’s information system except:
(a) Computer systems software
(b) Production system
(c) Personnel information
(d) Customer and vendor records
Answer:
(c) Personnel information

Question 25.
Key components to assess and evaluate the control environment includes:
(a) Enterprise Risk management
(b) SegregationofjobresponsibilitiesandjobRotation in Sensitive Areas
(c) IT Based Controls
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 26.
Which of the following makes for an effective control environment with regards to commitment to competence?
(a) assure independence from management
(b) increase interaction between senior management and operating management
(c) reduce pressure to meet unrealistic performance targets
(d) its culture is one in which quality and competence are openly valued
Answer:
(d) its culture is one in which quality and competence are openly valued

Risk Assessment and Internal Control – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 27.
New life Hospital is a multi-specialty hospital which has been facing a lot of pilferage and troubles regardingtheir inventory maintenance and control.
On investigation into the matter it was found that the person in charge of inventory inflow and outflow from the store house is also responsible for purchases and maintaining inventory records. According to you, which basic system control has been violated
(a) Internal Audit
(b) Internal Check
(c) Monitoring
(d) Risk assessment
Answer:
(b) Internal Check

Question 28.
Because the assessment of the risk of material misstatement takes account of internal control,
(a) The extent of substantive procedures may need to be increased irrespective of the results from tests of controls.
(b) The extent of substantive procedures may need to be increased when the results from tests of controls are satisfactory.
(c) The extent of substantive procedures may need to be decreased when the results from tests of controls are unsatisfactory.
(d) The extent of substantive procedures may need to be increased when the results from tests of controls are unsatisfactory
Answer:
(d) The extent of substantive procedures may need to be increased when the results from tests of controls are unsatisfactory

Question 29.
When deviations from controls upon which the auditor intends to rely are detected,
(a) The auditor shall not make any inquiries to understand these matters and their potential consequences
(b) The auditor shall make specific inquiries to understand these matters and their potential consequences
(c) The auditor shall make general inquiries to understand these matters and their potential consequences
(d) The auditor shall make both general as well as specific inquiries to understand these matters and their potential consequences
Answer:
(b) The auditor shall make specific inquiries to understand these matters and their potential consequences

Question 30.
When more persuasive audit evidence is needed regarding the effectiveness of a control,
(a) It may be appropriate to increase the extent of testing of the control and reduce the extent of the degree of reliance on controls
(b) It may be appropriate to decrease the extent of testing of the control as well as the degree of reliance on controls
(c) It may be appropriate to decrease the extent of testing of the control and increase the extent of the degree of reliance on controls
(d) It may be appropriate to increase the extent of testing of the control as well as the degree of reliance on controls
Answer:
(d) It may be appropriate to increase the extent of testing of the control as well as the degree of reliance on controls

Question 31.
An independent management function, which involves a continuous and critical appraisal of the functioning of an entity with a view to suggest improvements thereto and add value to and strengthen the overall governance mechanism of the entity is known as:
(a) Internal Control
(b) Internal Audit
(c) Internal Check
(d) Risk assessment process
Answer:
(b) Internal Audit

Question 32.
Which of the below mentioned standard prescribes the auditors requirements while using the work of internal auditors:
(a) SA 299
(b) SA 600
(c) SA 610
(d) SA 620
Answer:
(c) SA 610

Question 33.
Internal Auditor shall be
(a) a practicing chartered accountant
(b) a practicing cost accountant.
(c) an employee of the company
(d) either be a chartered accountant (whether in Practice or not) or a cost accountant, or such other professional as may be decided by the Board
Answer:
(d) either be a chartered accountant (whether in Practice or not) or a cost accountant, or such other professional as may be decided by the Board

Question 34.
Which of the following company is required to have internal audit system as per Sec. 138 of Companies Act, 2013:
(a) Unlisted public company having paid up equity share capital of 50 crore rupees or more during the preceding financial year.
(b) Unlisted public company having paid up equity share capital of 50 crore rupees or more during the current financial year.
(c) Unlisted public company having paid up share capital of 50 crore rupees or more during the preceding financial year.
(d) Unlisted public company having paid up share capital of 50 crore rupees or more during the current financial year.
Answer:
(c) Unlisted public company having paid up share capital of 50 crore rupees or more during the preceding financial year.

Risk Assessment and Internal Control – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 35.
The objectives and scope of internal audit functions typically include designed to evaluate and improve the effectiveness of the entity’s governance processes, risk management and internal control
(a) assurance activities only
(b) consulting activities only
(c) assurance and consulting activities
(d) risk management activities
Answer:
(c) assurance and consulting activities

Question 36.
Scope of Internal Audit is:
(a) restricted to financial statements
(b) not restricted to financial statements, but also extends to the task review of all operations of the enterprise
(c) not restricted to financial statements, but also ex-tends to take upon the function of the operational manager
(d) not restricted to financial statements, but also ex-tends to statutory reporting under Section 143(3) of Companies Act, 2013
Answer:
(b) not restricted to financial statements, but also extends to the task review of all operations of the enterprise

Question 37.
Which ofthe following public unlisted companies, required to appoint an internal auditor?
(a) Companies having paid up equity capital and re-serves of ₹ 50 cr. or above during the preceding financial year
(b) Companies having turnover of ₹ 200 cr. or more during the current financial year
(c) Companies having outstandingloans or borrowings from banks, financial institutions and directors exceeding ? 100 Cr. or more at any point of time during the preceding financial year
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(d) None of the above

Question 38.
Which of the following private companies, required to appoint an internal auditor?
(a) Companies having paid up capital ₹ 50 cr. or above during the preceding financial year
(b) Companies having turnover of ₹ 200 cr. or more during the preceding financial year
(c) Companies having outstanding loans or borrowings from banks, financial institutions and directors exceeding ₹ 100 Cr. or more at any point of time during the preceding financial year
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(b) Companies having turnover of ₹ 200 cr. or more during the preceding financial year

Question 39.
Which ofthe following companies is notrequired to appoint an internal auditor?
(a) Public companies having its securities listed on Main Board of Stock Exchange
(b) Public companies having its securities listed on ITP
(c) Unlisted Public companies having paid up share capital of ₹ 50 crores or above during the preceding financial year
(d) Private companies having paid up share capital of ₹ 50 crores or above during the preceding financial year
Answer:
(d) Private companies having paid up share capital of ₹ 50 crores or above during the preceding financial year

Question 40.
Which of the following companies is required to appoint an internal auditor?
(a) Private companies having paid up share capital of ₹ 40 crores during the preceding financial year
(b) Private companies having turnover of ₹ 120 cr. during the preceding financial year
(c) Private companies having outstanding loans or borrowings from banks or financial institutions was ₹ 105 Cr. attheend of preceding financial year.
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Private companies having outstanding loans or borrowings from banks or financial institutions was ₹ 105 Cr. attheend of preceding financial year.

Question 41.
When more persuasive audit evidence is needed regarding the effectiveness of a control,
(a) it may be appropriate to increase the extent of testing of the control and reduce the extent of the degree of reliance on controls.
(b) it maybe appropriate to decrease the extent of testing of the control as well as the degree of reliance on controls.
(c) it may be appropriate to decrease the extent of testing of the control and increase the extent of the degree of reliance on controls.
(d) it may be appropriate to increase the extent of testing of the control as well as the degree of reliance on controls.
Answer:
(d) it may be appropriate to increase the extent of testing of the control as well as the degree of reliance on controls.

Question 42.
When deviations from controls upon which the auditor intends to rely are detected,
(a) the auditor shall not make any inquiries to under-stand these matters and their potential consequences
(b) the auditor shall make specific inquiries to under-stand these matters and their potential consequences
(c) the auditor shall make general inquiries to under-stand these matters and their potential consequences
(d) the auditor shall make both general as well as specific inquiries to understand these matters and their potential consequences
Answer:
(b) the auditor shall make specific inquiries to under-stand these matters and their potential consequences

Risk Assessment and Internal Control – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 43.
Risk of material misstatement may be defined as the risk
(a) that the financial statements are materially mis-stated after audit.
(b) that the financial statements are materially mis-stated during audit.
(c) that the financial statements are materially mis-stated prior to audit.
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) that the financial statements are materially mis-stated prior to audit.

Question 44.
The assessment of the risks of material misstatement may be expressed in
(a) quantitative terms, such as in percentages, or in non-quantitative terms.
(b) quantitative terms, such as in percentages,
(c) non-quantitative terms.
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) quantitative terms, such as in percentages, or in non-quantitative terms.

Question 45.
SA 315 establishes requirements and provides guidance on identifying and assessing the risks of material misstatement
(a) at the financial statement levels only.
(b) at the assertion levels only.
(c) at the financial statement and assertion levels.
(d) at the financial statement or assertion levels.
Answer:
(c) at the financial statement and assertion levels.

Question 46.
SA 315 establishes requirements and provides guidance on identifying and assessing the risks of material misstatement
(a) at the financial statement levels only.
(b) at the assertion levels only.
(c) at the financial statement and assertion levels.
(d) at the financial statement or assertion levels.
Answer:
(c) at the financial statement and assertion levels.

Question 47.
The risks of material misstatement at the assertion level consist of two components:
(a) Inherent risk and detection risk
(b) Control risk and detection risk
(c) Audit risk and detection risk
(d) Inherent risk and control risk
Answer:
(d) Inherent risk and control risk

Question 48.
The Guidance Note on Audit of Internal Financial Controls over Financial Reporting has been issued by?
(a) ICAI
(b) SEBI
(c) MCA
(d) RBI
Answer:
(a) ICAI

Question 49.
Audit risk is a function of the
(a) risks of material misstatement and detection risk.
(b) audit risk and detection risk.
(c) control risk and detection risk.
(d) inherent risk and detection risk.
Answer:
(a) risks of material misstatement and detection risk.

Risk Assessment and Internal Control – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 50.
Risk of material misstatement may be defined as the risk
(a) that the financial statements are materially mis-stated after audit.
(b) that the financial statements are materially mis-stated during audit.
(c) that the financial statements are materially mis-stated prior to audit.
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) that the financial statements are materially mis-stated prior to audit.

Payment of Tax – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Payment of Tax – CA Inter Taxation Study Material is designed strictly as per the latest syllabus and exam pattern.

Payment of Tax – CA Inter Taxation Study Material

Question 1.
Mr. Nimit, a supplier of goods, pays GST under regular scheme. He is not eligible for any threshold exemption. He has made the following outward taxable supplies in the month of August, 2020

Amount (₹)
Intra-state supplies of goods 6,00,000
Inter-state supplies of goods 2,00,000

He has also furnished following information in respect of purchases made by him from registered dealers during August, 2020

Amount (₹)
Intra-state purchase of goods 4,00,000
Inter-state purchase of goods 50,000

Balance of ITC available at the beginning of the August 2020 :

CGST 15,000
SGST 35,000
IGST 20,000

Note:

  1. Rate of CGST, SGST and IGST to be 9%, 9% and 18% respectively, on both inward and outward supplies.
  2. Both inward and outward supplies given above are exclusive of taxes, wherever applicable.
  3. All the conditions necessary for availing the ITC have been fulfilled. Compute the Net GST payable by Mr. Nimit for the month of August, 2020. [May 2018 Old Course, 6 Marks]

Answer:
Computation of GST payable on Outward supply

Particulars IGST CGST SGST
(1) Inter-state supply of goods (18% of ₹ 2,00,000) 36,000 —–
(2) Intra-state supply of goods
CGST @ 9% of ₹ 6,00,000 54,000
SGST @ 9% of ₹ 6,00,000 54,000
Total Tax Liability 36,000 54,000 54,000

Payment of Tax – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Computation of Total ITC Available

Particulars IGST CGST SGST
Opening brought forward ITC 20,000 15,000 35,000
Add: IGST in respect of Inter-state purchase of goods 9,000
Add: Intra-state inward supply of repair services 36,000 36,000
Total ITC available on 31st August, 2020 29,000 51,000 71,000

Computation of Net GST Payable

Particulars IGST CGST SGST
GST payable on Outward supplies (as computed above) 36,000 54,000 54,000
Less: Adjustment of ITC on account of IGST as per section 49(5)(a) read with section 49A: [Towards IGST] (29,000)
Balance 7,000 54,000 54,000
Less: Adjustment of ITC on account of CGST/ SGST as per section 49(5)(b)/(c)
(a) Adj. of ITC of CGST towards CGST (51,000)
(b) Adj. of ITC of SGST towards SGST (54,000)
Less: Adjustment of balance ITC of SGST towards IGST as per section 49(5)(c) (7,000)
Net GST Payable through Cash Ledger Nil 3,000 Nil
Balance available in Electronic Credit ledger after aforesaid adjustment Nil Nil 10,000

Notes:

(a) Supply of detergent and bucket together with a single price of ₹ 400 is a mixed supply. Being a mixed supply comprising of two supplies, it shall be treated as supply of that particular supply that attracts highest rate of tax (28%).

(b) Supply of online educational journal is exempt only when the same is provided to an educational institution which provides a qualification recognised by law. Since, the private coaching centre does not provide any recognised qualification, the supply of online educational journals to the same will be taxable.

(c) ITC can be taken only on the basis of a valid tax paying document. Thus, ITC will not be available on goods for which the invoice is miss-ing.

(d) ITC on motor vehicles for transportation of persons with seating capacity > 13 persons (including the driver) used for any purpose is allowed. Further, ITC is allowed on repair and maintenance services relating to motor vehicles, ITC on which is allowed.

Tutorial Note:

Under the amended position of law, the IGS T credit, after being set off against IGST liability, can be utilised against CGST and SGST liability in any order and in any proportion. Thus, there can be other answer abo, but the total GST payable after adjustment of ITC should not be more than ₹ 15,000, as calculated above.

Question 2.
M/s. Pradyumn Corporation Pvt. Ltd., a registered dealer of Mumbai furnishes you following information for the month of October, 2020.

Particulars Amount (₹)
(i) Intra-state sale of Taxable goods (out of above ₹ 50,000 was received as advance in September, 2020) 2,00,000
(ii) Goods purchased from unregistered dealer (purchased on 20th October, 2020) (10,000 in case of Inter-state & Balance Intra-state) 50,000
(iii) Received for services by way of labour contracts for repairing a single residential unit otherwise than as a part of residential complex (it is Intra-state transaction) 50,000
(iv) Professional fees paid to Ms. Udadhi located in a non-taxable territory (it amounts to Inter-state transaction) 50,000

Compute GST liability (CGST, SGST or IGST, as the case may be) of M/s. Pradyumn Corporation Pvt. Ltd. for the month of October, 2020. Assume the rates of GST as under:
CGST 9%
SGST 9%
IGST 18%
Note: Turnover of M/s. Pradyumn Corporation Pvt. Ltd. was ₹ 2 crores in the Previous Financial Year.
[May 2018 Old Course Modified, 5 Marks]
Answer:
Computation of GST payable on Outward supply

Particulars IGST CGST SGST
(1) Intra-state supply of taxable goods (9% of ₹ 2,00,000) 18,000 18,000
(2) Goods purchased from unregistered dealer Nil Nil
(3) services of labour contracts for repairing (9% of ₹ 50,000) 4,500 4,500
(4) Professional fees [IGST @ 18% of ₹ 50,000] 9,000
Total Tax Liability 9,000 22,500 22,500

Note:

(1) By virtue of Notification No. 66/2017, the date of advance is not con-sidered in case of forward supply of goods while determining the time of supply under section 12(2). It implies that the GST liability would not have arisen on advance of ₹ 50,000 received in September, 2020 in that month. Therefore, the same has been included in the GST liability of the company for the month of October, 2020.

(2) All intra-State and inter-State procurements made by a registered person from unregistered person have been exempted from reverse charge liability, without any upper limit for daily procurements.

(3) Services by way of pure labour contracts of construction, erection, commissioning, or installation of original works pertains to a single residential unit otherwise than as a part of a residential complex are exempt. Labour contracts for repairing are thus, taxable.

(4) In case of service supplied by a person located in a non-taxable territory to a person other than non-taxable online recipient, GST is payable under reverse charge by such recipient.

Payment of Tax – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 3.
With reference to GST Laws, when interest is payable? [May 2018 Old Course, 1 Marks]
Answer:
Interest is payable in the following cases in terms of section 50 of CGST Act, 2017:
(a) Delay/failure to pay tax, in full or in part within the prescribed period
(b) undue or excess claim of input tax credit
(c) undue or excess reduction in output tax liability.

Question 4.
M/s. J & Co. Chartered Accountants a partnership firm having its registered and head office in Mumbai and Registered under the GST Act in the State of Maharashtra only. It does not have any branches in other state. The Gross Receipts of the firm in the Financial Year 2017-18 was ₹ 60 Lakhs. Firm has submitted following information for the month of August, 2018 :

Particulars Amount (₹)
(Excluding GST)
Professional Services Provided and Bills Raised during the month for Providing of Services of ITR Filing and Income Tax Consultancy 1,00,000
Internal Audit of X Pvt. Ltd. at their office in Mumbai (Registered in the state of Maharashtra) 50,000
Statutory Audit Services provided to M/s. Tirupati Trading Pvt. Ltd. at Ahmedabad (Registered in the State of Gujarat) 70,000

Firm has also furnished following information in respect of input services availed from registered dealers for providing of output services during the month August, 2018:

Particulars Amount (₹) (Excluding GST) CGST SGST IGST
Services availed from Courier Agency 5,000 450 450 Nil
Railway Travelling Expenses from Mumbai to Ahmedabad and Return Ticket for conducting of Audit of M/s. Tirupati Trading Pvt. Ltd. for 3 Tier AC 12,000 Nil Nil 600
Service Availed from Another Professional Firm at Mumbai amount is paid without TOS U/s 194J of Income Tax Act 20,000 3,600 Nil Nil

Notes :

  1. Rate of CGST, SGST and IGST to be 9%, 9% & 18% respectively, on outward supplies.
  2. All the conditions necessary for availing the ITC have been fulfilled.
  3. Opening Balance of available input tax credit is Nil for CGST, SGST and IGST.

Compute the Net GST Payable by M/s. J & Co., for the month August, 2018 after adjusting the GST Credit. Brief reasoning should form part of your answer. [Nov. 2018 Old Course, 4 Marks]
Answer:
Computation of GST payable on Outward supply

Particulars IGST CGST SGST
(1) Intra-state supply [Professional services of ITR, Tax consultancy] (9% of ₹ 1,00,000) 54,000 54,000
(2) Intra-state supply [Internal Audit] (9% of ₹ 50,000)                 ‘ 4,500 4,500
(3) Inter-state supply [Statutory Audit Services provided to M/s. Tirupati Trading Pvt.] 12,600
Total Tax Liability 12,600 13,500 13,500

Computation of Total ITC Available

Particulars IGST CGST SGST
Opening brought forward ITC Nil Nil Nil
Add: Services from Courier Agency 450 45
Add: Railway Travelling from Mumbai to Ahmedabad 600
Add: Service from Another Professional Firm at Mumbai 1,800 1,800
Total ITC available on 31st August, 2018 600 2,250 2,250

Payment of Tax – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Computation of Net GST Payable

Particulars IGST CGST SGST
GST payable on Outward supplies (as computed above) 12,600 13,500 13,500
Less: Adjustment of ITC on account of IGST as per section 49(5)(a) read with section 49A: [Towards IGST] (600)
Balance 12,000 13,500 13,500
Less: Adjustment of ITC on account of CGST/SGST as per section 49(5)(b)/(c)
(a) Adj. of ITC of CGST towards CGST (2,250)
(b) Adj. of ITC of SGST towards SGST (2,250)
Net GST Payable through Cash Ledger 12,000 11,250 11,250

Question 5.
M/s. Maheshwari Corporation Pvt. Ltd. is a supplier of goods and services at Bangalore, registered in the State of Karnataka having Turnover of ₹ 200 lakhs in the last financial year. It has furnished the following information for the month of June, 2018.

Sr. No. Particulars Amount in ₹ Excluding GST
(1) Services provided by way of Labour Contract for repairing a single residential unit otherwise than as a part of residential complex (It is an intra-state transaction.) 1,30,000
(2) Intra-state Sale of Taxable Goods including ₹ 50,000 received as advance in April, 2018. The invoice for the entire sale value is issued on 15th June, 2018 2,50,000
(3) Goods Transport Services received from GTA, GTA is paying tax @ 12% (It is an inter-state transaction.) 1,80,000
(4) Goods Purchased from unregistered dealer on 20th June, 2018 (Inter-state purchases are worth ₹ 45,000 and balance purchases was intra-state). 80,000

Compute Net GST Liability (CGST, SGST, IGST as the case may be) of M/s. Maheshwari Corporation Pvt. Ltd. for the month of June, 2018 assume the rates of GST, unless otherwise specified, as under:
CGST – 9%, SGST – 9%, IGST – 18% [Nov. 2018 Old Course, 5 Marks]
Answer:
Computation of GST payable on Outward supply

Particulars Note CGST SGST
(1) Services provided by way of Labour Contract for repairing a single residential unit otherwise than as a part of residential complex (1) 11,700 11,700
(2) Intra-State Sale of Taxable Goods (2) 22,500 22,500
(3) Goods Purchased from unregistered dealer on 20th June, 2018 (3) Nil Nil
Total Tax Liability 34,200 34,200
Less: ITC of GST paid on GTA services received (4) 10,800 10,800
Net GST Liability 23,400 23,400

Notes:

  1. Services by way of pure labour contracts of construction, erection, commissioning, or installation of original works pertains to a single residential unit otherwise than as a part of a residential complex are exempt. Labour contracts for repairing are thus taxable.
  2. Time of supply of goods is the time of issue of invoice. So, advance received in April, 2018 will also be taxed in June, 2018.
  3. All intra-State and inter-State procurements made by a registered person from unregistered person have been exempted from reverse charge liability.
  4. Since GTA is paying tax @ 12%, tax is payable under forward charge. Further, ITC of IGST (12% of ₹ 1,80,000 i.e. ₹ 21,600) paid on the same is available.
  5. The ITC of IGST has been used to pay CGST and SGST equally as there is no IGST liability.

Payment of Tax – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 6.
Insight Ltd. is operating in West Bengal. The Tax liability for the month of August, 2017 is as follows:

S. No. Tax Liability Amount (₹)
(1) Output CGST Payable 24,000
(2) Output SGST Payable 9,000
(3) Output IGST Payable 3,000
(4) input 7,000
(5) Input SGST 14,000
(6) Input IGST 12,000

Calculate Tax payable and carry forward for the month of August, 2017 [Nov. 2018 OId Course, 4 Marks]
Answer:
Computation of Net GST Payable

Particulars IGST CGST SGST
GST payable on Outward supplies 3,000 24,000 9,000
Less: Adjustment of ITC on account of IGST as per section 49(5)(a) read with section 49A:
(a) Towards IGST (3,000)
(b) Towards CGST (9,000)
Balance Nil 15,000 9,000
Less: Adjustment of ITC on account of CGST/SGST as per section 49(5)(b)/(c)
(a) Adj. of ITC of CGST towards CGST (7,000)
(b) Adj. of ITC of SGST towards SGST (9,000)
Net GST Payable through Cash Ledger Nil 8,000 Nil
Balance available in Electronic Credit ledger after aforesaid adjustment Nil Nil 5,000

Question 7.
M/s. Software Limited, reduced the amount of ₹ 2,00,000 from the output tax liability in contravention of provisions of section 42(10) of the CGST Act, 2017 in the month of December 2017, which is ineligible credit. A show cause notice was issued by the Tax Department to pay Tax along with interest. M/s. Software Limited paid the tax and interest on 31st March, 2018. Calculate Interest liability (Ignore Penalty). [Nov. 2018 Old Course, 4 Marks]
Answer:
A taxable person who makes an undue or excess claim of input tax credit shall pay interest @ 24% p.a. on such undue or excess claim. The period of interest will be from the date following the due date of payment ; to the actual date of payment of tax.
Due date of payment is 20th January, 2018.
Period for which interest is due = 21st January, 2018 to 31st March, 2018 = 70 days
Thus, interest liability = ₹ 2,00,000 × 24% × 70/365 = ₹ 9,205.

Question 8.
Mr. Uttam Kumar a registered supplier of service in Kolkata, has provided following information for the month of

Amount in ₹
1 Intra-State taxable supply of service. 6,40,000
2 Amount received from Kapola Pvt. Ltd., for service provided to company. (He is a director in Kapola P. Ltd.), being Intra­State transaction. 5,00,000
3 Paid legal fee to senior advocate for one legal matter within State, being Intra-State transaction. 50,000
4 Amount received for service provided by him as a commentator to a local recognized sports body, being Intra-State transaction 1,20,000
5 Amount received for acting as a coach in recreational activities relating to sports, from one local charitable entity registered under section 12AA of the Income Tax Act, 1961, being Intra­State transaction. 30,000

Compute the net GST liability (CGST, SGST or IGST) of Mr. Uttam Kumar for the month of October, 2018.

Rate of CGST, SGST and IGST are 9%, 9% and 18% respectively. All the amounts given are exclusive of CGST, SGST and IGST. [May 2019 Old Course, 8 Marks]
Answer:
Computation of Liability under RCM on Inward supply

Particulars CGST SGST
Legal fee paid to senior advocate for one legal matter (Intra-state)
CGST @ 9% of ₹ 50,000 4,500
SGST @ 9% of ₹ 50,000 4,500
GST Liability under RCM (A) 4,500 4,500

Computation of Liability under FORWARD on Outward Supply

Particulars CGST SGST
(1) Intra-state taxable supply of services
CGST @ 9% of ₹ 6,40,000 57,600
SGST @ 9% of ₹ 6,40,000 57,600
(2) Services supplied by director (Payable under RCM)
(3) Service provided as a commentator to a local recognized sports body [Intra state]
CGST @ 9% of ₹ 1,20,000 10,800
SGST @ 9% of ₹ 1,20,000 10,800
(4) Services provided as a coach (Exempt)
Total Tax Liability 68,400 68,400
Less: ITC of GST paid on legal fees paid to senior advocate (4,500) (4,500)
Output tax liability after set-off of ITC (B) 63,900 63,900

Payment of Tax – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Determination of Total Liability for October, 2018

Particulars CGST SGST
(1) GST Liability under Reverse Charge (As per ‘A’) 4,500 4,500
(2) GST Liability under Forward Charge (As per ‘B’) 63,900 63,900
Total GST Liability Payable in cash 68,400 68,400

Notes:

  1. Services supplied by a director of a company to the said company are taxable under reverse charge and thus, the tax leviable thereon will be paid by the company.
  2. Services provided by a senior advocate by way of legal services are taxable under reverse charge and thus, the tax leviable thereon will he paid by Mr. Uttam Kurnar.
  3. Services provided to a recognized sports body by an individual as a player, referee, umpire, coach or team manager for participation in a sporting event organized by a recognized sports body is exempt from GST vide exemption notification. However, services provided as a commentator to a local recognized sports body is taxable.
  4. Services by way of coaching in recreational activities relating to sports by charitable entities registered under section 12M of the Income-tax Act arc exempt from GST vide exemption notification.
  5. The amount available in the electronic credit ledger may be used for making payment towards output tax. However, tax payable under reverse charge is not an output tax. Therefore, tax payable under reverse charge cannot be set-off against the input tax credit and thus, will have to be paid in cash.

Question 9.
What are the E-ledgers? State the entries to be debited to electronic liability register, under the CGST Act, 2017 and the CGST Rules, 2017. [May 2019 Old Course, 5 Marks]
Answer:
Electronic Ledgers or E-Ledgers, i.e., Electronic Cash Ledger and Electronic Credit Ledger, are statements of cash and input tax credit in respect of each registered taxpayer. In addition, each taxpayer shall also have an electronic tax liability register.

The entries to he debited to electronic liability register under the CGST Act, 2017 and the CGST Rules, 2017 are as follows: –

  1. all amounts payable towards tax, interest, late ice and any other amount as per return filed;
  2. all amounts pay able towards tax, interest, penalty and any other amount determined in a proceeding by an assessing authority or as ascertained by the taxable person;
  3. the amount of tax and interest pay able due to mismatch;
  4. any amount of interest that may accrue from time to time.

Payment of Tax – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 10.
Mr. Ajay, a registered supplier of goods, pays GST under regular scheme and provides the following information for the month of August 2017 :

Particulars (₹)
(i) Inter-state taxable supply of goods 10,00,000
(ii) Intra-state taxable supply of goods 2,00,000
(iii) Intra-state purchase of taxable goods 5,00,000

He has the following Input tax credit at the beginning of August 2017 :

Nature ITC Amount in (₹)
CGST 20,000
SGST 30,000
IGST 25,000

Rate of CGST, SGST and IGST are 9%, 9% and 18% respectively. Both inward and outward supplies are exclusive of taxes wherever applicable. All the conditions necessary for availing the ITC have been fulfilled. Compute the net GST payable by Mr. Ajay for the month of August 2017. [May 2018, 6 Marks]
Answer:
Computation of GST payable on outward supply

Particulars IGST CGST SGST
(1) Inter-state supply of goods (18% of ₹ 10,00,000) 1,80,000
(2) Intra-state supply of goods (9% of ₹ 2,00,000) 18,000 18,000
Tax on Outward Supply 1,80,000 18,000 18,000

Computation of Total ITC Available

Particulars IGST CGST SGST
Opening balance brought forward 25,000 20,000 30,000
Add: ITC in respect of inward supply during August 2018 @ 9% of ₹ 5,00,000 ——— 45,000 45,000
Total ITC 25,000 65,000 75,000

Payment of Tax – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Computation of GST payable through cash ledger

Particulars IGST CGST SGST
GST payable on outward supplies 1,80,000 18,000 18,000
Less: Adjustment of ITC on account of IGST as per section 49(5)(a) read with section 49A:
(a) Towards IGST (25,000)
Balance 1,55,000 18,000 18,000
Less: Adjustment of ITC on account of CGST/ SGST as per section 49(5)(b)/(c)
(a) Adj. of ITC of CGST towards CGST (18,000)
(b) Adj. of ITC of SGST towards SGST (18,000)
Balance 1,55,000 Nil Nil
Less: Adjustment of ITC on account of CGST as per section 49(5)(b) towards IGST (47,000)
Less: Adjustment of ITC on account of SGST as per section 49(5)(c) towards IGST (57,000)
Net GST Payable through Cash Ledger 51,000 Nil Nil

Note: Since section 49A is an overriding section to section 49, the ITC on account of IGST shall be utilized fully towards IGST, then CGST and balance for SGST/UTGST, is available.

Question 11.
In terms of provision of CGST Act, 2017, When interest shall be payable by a registered person and what is the maximum rate of interest chargeable for the same? [May 2018, 5 Marks]
Answer:
Interest is payable in the following cases:-

  • failure to pay tax, in full or in part within the prescribed period,
  • undue or excess claim of input tax credit,
  • undue or excess reduction in output tax liability.

The maximum rate of interest chargeable for the same is as under-

(a) 18% p.a. in case of failure to pay full/part tax within the prescribed period
(b) 24% p.a. in case of undue or excess claim of input tax credit or undue I or excess reduction in output tax liability

Question 12.
Mr. Thiraj, a registered supplier of service in Bangalore (Karnataka State) has provided the following information for the month of February 2018:

Particulars Amount in (₹)
(i) Intra-state taxable supply of service 5,20,000
(ii) Legal fee paid to a Lawyer located within the state 20,000
(iii) Rent paid to the State Govt, for his office building 30,000
(iv) Received for services towards conduct of exams to Love all University, Pune (Recognized by law), being an inter­state transaction. 16,000

Compute the net GST liability (CGST, SGST or IGST) of Mr. Thiraj for the month of February 2018.
Rate of CGST, SGST and IGST are 9%, 9% and 18% respectively.
All the amounts given above are exclusive of taxes.[Nov. 2018, 6 Marks]
Answer:
Computation of Liability under RCM on Inward supply

Particulars CGST SGST
Legal fee paid to Lawyer (Intra-state)
CGST @ 9% of ₹ 20,000 1,800
SGST @ 9% of ₹ 20,000 1,800
Rent paid to Karnataka Govt. (Intra-state)
CGST @ 9% of ₹ 30,000 2,700
SGST @ 9% of ₹ 30,000 2,700
GST Liability under RCM (A) 4,500 4,500

Computation of Liability under Forward on Outward Supply

Particulars CGST SGST
Intra-slate taxable supply of services
CGST @ 9% of ₹ 5,20,000 46,800
SGST @ 9% of ₹ 5,20,000 46,800
Total Tax Liability 46,800 46,800
Less: ITC under RCM (as computed above) (4,500) (4,500)
Output tax liability under Forward Charge after set-off of ITC (B) 42,300 42,300

Determination of Total Liability for February,2018

Particulars CGST SGST
(1) GST Liability under Reverse Charge (As per ‘A’) 4,500 4,500
(2) GST Liability under Forward Charge (As per ‘B’) 42,300 42,300
Total GST Liability Payable in cash 46,800 46,800

Notes:-

  1. Since Love all University provides education recognized by law, it is an educational institution and services provided to an educational institution, by way of conduct of examination by such institution are exempt from GST.
  2. In case of legal services provided by an advocate to any business entity GST is payable under reverse charge by the recipient of service.
  3. In case of services supplied by, inter alia, State Government by way of renting of immovable property to a person registered under the CGST Act, GST is payable under reverse charge by the recipient of service.
  4. The amount available in the electronic credit ledger may be used for making payment towards output tax. How ever, tax payable under reverse charge is not an output tax. Therefore, tax payable under reverse charge cannot be set off against the input tax credit and thus, will have to be paid in cash.

Payment of Tax – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 13.
From the following information, compute the NET GST payable for the month of March 2018:

(Amount in ₹)
Output GST Opening ITC as per credit ledger
CGST 2,000 NIL
SGST 15,000 1,000
IGST 24,000 37,000

[Nov. 2018, 4 Marks]
Answer:
Computation of Net GST Payable

Particulars IGST CGST SGST
GST payable on Outward supplies 24,000 2,000 15,000
Less: Adjustment of ITC on account of IGST as per section 49(5)(a) read with section 49A:
(a) Towards IGST (24,000)
(b) Towards CGST (2,000)
(c) Towards SGST (11,000)
Balance Nil Nil 4,000
Less: Adjustment of ITC on account of SGST as per section 49(5)(c) [Towards SGST] (1,000)
Net GST Payable through Cash Ledger Nil Nil 3,000

Tutorial Note: The GST on outward supply towards CGST and SGST can-not be different. However, the question has been solved on the basis of the data as given in the question.

Question 14.
Determine with brief reasons, whether the following statements are True or False:
Electronic cash ledger balance of ₹ 5,000 under the major head of IGST : can be utilized for discharging the liability of major head of CGST. [Nov. 2018, 1.5 Marks]
Answer:
The said statement is False.

The amount available under one major head cannot be utilised for dis-charging the liability under any other major head.

Payment of Tax – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 15.
Ms. Jimmy wants to adjust input tax credit for payment of interest, penalty and payment of tax under reverse charge. Explain whether she can do so. [Nov. 2018, 3 Marks]
Answer:
The input tax credit as self-assessed in the return of a registered person shall be credited to his electronic credit ledger which may be used for making any payment towards output tax.
“Output tax” inter alia excludes tax payable on reverse charge basis.
Thus, Ms. Jimmy cannot adjust input tax credit for payment of interest, penalty as also for payment of tax under reverse charge.

Question 16.
Mr. Himanshu, a registered supplier of chemicals, pays GST under regular scheme. He is not eligible for any threshold exemption. He has made the following outward taxable supplies for the month of September 2018 :

Intra-State supply of goods ₹ 25,00,000
Inter-State supply of goods ₹ 5,00,000

He has also made the following inward supply:

(₹)
Intra-State purchase of goods from Registered Dealer 14,00,000
Intra-State purchase of goods from Unregistered Dealer 2,00,000
Inter-State purchase of goods from Registered Dealer 4,00,000

Balance of ITC at the beginning of September 2018:

(₹)
CGST 95,000
SGST 60,000
IGST 50,000

Additional Information:

  • He purchased a car (Intra-State supply) used for business purpose at a price of ₹ 6,72,000 (including CGST of ₹ 36,000 & SGST of ₹ 36,000) on September 15, 2018. He capitalized the full value Including GST in the books on the same date to claim depreciation.
  • Out of Inter-State purchase from registered dealer, goods worth ₹ 1,00,000 were received on October 3,2018 due to road traffic jams.

Note:

  1. Rate of CGST, SGST and IGST to be 9%, 9% and 18% respectively.
  2. Both inward and outward supplies given above are exclusive of taxes, wherever applicable.
  3. All the conditions necessary for availing the ITC have been fulfilled except mentioned above.

Compute the net CGST, SGST and IGST payable in cash by Mr. Himanshu for the month of September 2018. [May. 2019, 8 Marks]
Answer:
Computation of GST payable on outward supply

Particulars IGST CGST SGST
(1) Inter-state supply of goods (18% of ₹ 5,00,000) 90,000 ———
(2) Intra-state supply of goods
CGST @ 9% of ₹ 25,00,000 2,25,000
SGST @ 9% of ₹ 25,00,000 2,25,000
Total Tax Liability 90,000 2,25,000 2,25,000

Computation of Total ITC Available

Particulars IGST CGST SGST
Opening brought forward ITC 50,000 95,000 60,000
Add: IGST in respect of Inter-state purchase of goods from registered dealer during September, 2018
(4,00,000 – 1,00,000) × 18% 54,000
Add: Intra-state purchase of goods from regis­tered dealer
CGST @ 996 of ₹ 14,00,000 1,26,000
SGST @ 996 of ₹ 14,00,000 1,26,000
Add: Intra-state purchase of goods from Un-reg­istered Dealer Nil Nil
Total ITC available on 30th September 1,04,000 2,21,000 1,86,000

Computation of Net GST Payable

                       Particulars IGST CGST SGST
GST payable on Outward supplies (as computed above) 90,000 2,25,000 2,25,000
Less: Adjustment of ITC on account of IGST as per section 49(5)(a) read with section 49A:
(a) Towards IGST (90,000)
(b) Towards CGST (4,000)
(c) Towards SGST (10,000)
Balance Nil 2,21,000 2,15,000
Less: Adjustment of ITC on account of CGST/ SGST as per section 49(5)(b)/(c)
(a) Adj. of ITC of CGST towards CGST (2,21,000)
(b) Adj. of ITC of SGST towards SGST (1,86,000)
Net GST Payable through Cash Ledger Nil Nil 29,000

Notes:

  1. Every registered person is entitled to take credit of input tax charged on any inward supply of goods used/intended to be used in the course/ furtherance of his business.
  2. Intra-State supplies received by a registered person from any unregis-tered supplier, are exempt from the whole of the tax leviable thereon under reverse charge till 30.09.2019. Since no tax has been paid, so no credit is available.
  3. Input tax paid on capital goods cannot be availed as ITC if depreciation has been claimed on such tax component. Moreover, ITC on motor vehicle (car) is blocked under section 17(5) of CGST Act, 2017.
  4. A registered person is entitled to avail input tax in respect of any supply of goods to him only if he has actually received the said goods. Since goods worth ₹ 1,00,000 have not been received by Mr. Himanshu in the month of September 2018, credit in respect of same cannot be claimed in the said month.
  5. Input tax credit of IGST has been used to pay IGST, CGST and SGST in that order.

Payment of Tax – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 17.
M/s. Daksha Enterprises has made a cash deposit of ₹ 10,000 under minor head ‘tax’ of major head SGST. It has a liability of ₹ 2,000 for minor head “Interest” under the major head “SGST”. State whether M/s. Daksha Enterprises can utilise the amount available for payment of interest. [May 2019, 2 Marks]
Answer:
The cash available in any minor head of a major head cannot be Jutilised for any other minor head of the same major head.

Therefore, in the given case, amount of ₹ 10,000 available under minor head ‘tax’ of major head ‘SGST’ cannot be utilised for payment of liability of ₹ 2,000 under minor head ‘interest’ of the same major head.

Question 18.
M/s. Grey, a registered taxable person under regular scheme provides following information in respect of supplies made by it during the month of April 2019:

(Amount in ₹)
(i) Inter-state supply of goods 1,00,000
(ii) Intra-state supply of 500 packets of detergent @ ₹ 400 each along with a plastic bucket worth ₹ 100 each with each packet, being a mixed supply. (Rate of GST on detergent is 18% and on plastic bucket is 28%)
(iii) Supply of online educational journals to M/s. Pinnacle, a private coaching centre providing tuitions to students of Class X-XII, being intra-state supply. 50,000

M/s. Grey has also received the following inward supplies:

(iv) Inter-state supply of goods (out of which invoice for goods worth ₹ 20,000 is missing and no other tax paying document is available) 70,000
(v) Repairing of bus with seating capacity of 20 passengers used to transport its employees from their residence, being intra-state supply. 50,000

Details of opening balances of ITC follows as on 1-4-2019 are as follows:

CGST 5,000
SGST 5,000
IGST 40,000

Following additional information is provided:

(a) Rate of GST in respect of all inward and outward supplies except item (ii) above is 18%. i.e. CGST and SGST @ 9% and IGST @ 18%.
(b) All figures mentioned above are exclusive of taxes.
(c) All the conditions for availing the ITC have been fulfilled except specifically given and M/s. Grey is not eligible for any threshold exemption.
Compute the minimum net GST payable in cash by M/s. Grey for the month of April 2019. [Nov. 2019, 8 Marks]
Answer:
Computation of GST payable on outward supply

Particulars IGST CGST SGST
(1) Inter-state supply of goods (18% of ₹ 1,00,000) 18,000 ————
(2) Intra-state supply of 500 packets of deter­gents @ ₹ 400
CGST @ 14% of ₹ 2,00,000 28,000
SGST @ 14% of ₹ 2,00,000 28,000
(3) Supply of online educational journal to pvt. Coaching centre
CGST @ 9% of ₹ 50,000 4,500
SGST @ 99„ of ₹ 50,000 4,500
Total Tax Liability 18,000 32,500 32,500

Payment of Tax – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Computation of Total ITC Available

Particulars IGST CGST SGST
Opening brought forward ITC 40,000 5,000 5,000
Add: IGST in respect of Inter-state purchase of goods
(70,000 – 20,000) X 18% 9,000
Add: Intra-state inward supply of repair services
CGST @ 9% of ₹ 50,000 4,500
SGST @ 9% of ₹ 50,000 4,500
Total ITC available on 30th April 49,000 9,500 9,500
Particulars IGST CGST SGST
GST payable on Outward supplies (as computed above) 18,000 32,500 32,500
Less: Adjustment of ITC on account of IGST as per section 49(5)(a) read with section 49A:
(a) Towards IGST (18,000)
(h) Towards CGST (23,000)
(c) Towards SGST (8,000)
Balance Nil 9,500 24,500
Less: Adjustment of ITC on account of CGST/ SGST as per section 49(5)(b)/(c)
(a) Adj. of ITC of CGST towards CGST (9,500)
(b) Adj. of ITC of SGST towards SGST (9,500)
Net GST Payable through Cash Ledger Nil Nil 15,000

Note:

(a) Supply of detergent and bucket together with a single price of ₹ 400 is a mixed supply. Being a mixed supply comprising of two supplies, it shall be treated as supply of that particular supply that attracts highest rate of tax (28%).

(b) Supply of online educational journal is exempt only when the same is provided to an educational institution w hich provides a qualification recognised by law. Since, the private coaching centre does not provide any recognised qualification, the supply of online educational journals to the same will be taxable.

(c) ITC can be taken only on the basis of a valid tax paying document. Thus, ITC will not be available on goods for which the invoice is missing.

(d) ITC on motor vehicles for transportation of persons with seating capacity > 13 persons (including the driver) used for any purpose is allowed. Further, ITC is allowed on repair and maintenance services relating to motor vehicles, ITC on wdiich is allowed.

Tutorial Note:

Under the amended position of law, the IGST credit, after being set-off against IGST liability, can be utilised against CGST and SGST liability in any order and in any proportion. Thus, there can be other answer also, but the total GST payable after adjustment of ITC should not be more than ₹ 15,000, as calculated above.

Question 19.
State the items which are to be debited to Electronic liability register of the taxable person under the CGST Act, 2017 and rules thereunder. [Nov. 2019, 3 Marks]
Answer:
The items to be debited to electronic liability register of the taxable person are as under:-

  1. all amounts payable towards tax, interest, late fee and any other amount as per return filed ;
  2. all amounts payable towards tax, interest, penalty and any other amount determined in a proceeding by an Assessing authority or as ascertained by the taxable person;
  3. the amount of tax and interest as a result of mismatch.
  4. any interest amount that may accrue from time to time.

Value of Supply – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Value of Supply – CA Inter Tax Study Material is designed strictly as per the latest syllabus and exam pattern.

Value of Supply – CA Inter Taxation Study Material

Question 1.
Surya Agencies has agreed to supply goods to customer’s premises. Goods valued, ₹ 80,000 are taxable at 5% IGST as it is an inter-State supply. It also pays freight and transit insurance of ₹ 12,000. GTA is a registered entity and has charged GST (6% CGST and 6% SGST) under forward charge.
(i) Compute the Invoice value of supply including IGST.
(ii) What will be the Invoice value of supply including IGST, if the supply was under ex-factory basis instead of door delivery basis?
Answer:
(i) Computation of Invoice value of supply including IGST in case of door delivery.

Particulars Amount (₹)
Value of Goods 80,000
Add: Charges for freight & Insurance 12,000
Value of supply 92,000
IGST @ 5% (WN1) → 5% of ₹ 92,000 4,600
Invoice value of supply 96,600

Working Notes:

  1. It is a complete supply & principal element in Goods. Therefore the rate of Tax of principal element will be charged on the value.
  2. Surya agencies can claim ITC of GST paid on GTA services (₹ 1,440 = 12% of 12,000)

(ii) Supply at the Ex-factory price instead of door delivery basis

Particulars Amount (₹)
Supply of Goods 80,000
IGST @ 5% of value 4,000
Invoice value of supply 84,000

Note:
The above answer is based on the view that part (ii) of the question i is an independent case and thus, the information provided in the first paragraph of the question regarding payment of freight and transit insurance by Surya Agencies does not apply to it. Moreover, when the contract is ex-factory, it implies that the freight and insurance will be the buyer’s responsibility and seller will have no role, whatsoever, in delivering the j goods to the customer’s premises.

Value of Supply – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 2.
Vayu Ltd. provides you the following particulars relating to goods supplied by It to Agni Ltd.:

Particulars Amount (₹)
List price of the goods (exclusive of Taxes and discounts). 76,000
Special packing at the request of customer to be charged to the customer. 5,000
Duty levied by local authority on the sale or such goods. 4,000
CGST and SGST charged in invoice. 14,400
Subsidy received from a NGO (The price of ₹ 76,000 given above is after considering the subsidy) 5,000

Vayu Ltd. offers 3% dIscount of the list price of the goods which Is recorded in the invoice for the goods. Determine the value of taxable supplies made by Vayu Ltd.
Answer:
Computation of value of taxable supplies by Vayu Ltd.

Particulars Amount (₹)
List price of the goods 76,000
Add: Special packing [Note 1] 5,000
Duty levied by local authority on sale of goods [Note 2] 4,000
CGST and SGST charged [Note 2]
Subsidy received from a NGO [Note 3] 5,000
Less: Discount offered [3% of List price ie. ₹ 76,000 × 3%] [Note-4] 2,280
Value of taxable supplies 87,720

Notes:

  1. Being incidental expenses charged by the supplier to the recipient of supply, packing charges are includible in the value as per section 15(2) (c) of the CGST Act, 2017.
  2. Taxes, duties, etc. levied under any law for the time being in force other than CGST, SGST/UTGST, IGST are includible in the value as per section 15(2)(a) of CGST Act, 2017. Duty levied by local authority on sale of goods has been assumed to be recovered from Agni Ltd. and not included in the list price of the goods.
  3. Subsidy directly linked to the price received from a non-Government body is includible in the value in terms of section 15(2)(e) of CGST Act, 2017.
  4. Since discount is known at the time of supply, it is deductible from I the value in terms of section 15(3)(a) of CGST Act, 2017

Value of Supply – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 3.
Dushyant rents out a commercial building owned by him to Bharat for the month of December, for which he charges a rent of ₹ 19,50,000. Dushyant pays the maintenance charges of ₹ 1,00,000 (for the December month) as charged by the local society. These charges have been reimbursed to him by Bharat. Further, Bharat had given ₹ 2,50,000 to Dushyant as interest free refundable security deposit. Further, Dushyant has paid the municipal taxes of ₹ 2,85,000 which he has not charged from Bharat. You are required to determine the value of supply and the GST liability of Dushyant for the month of December, 2020 assuming CGST and SGST rates to be 9% each.

Note: All the amounts given above are exclusive of GST.
Answer:
Computation of the value of supply and the GST liability of Dushyant for the month of December, 2020

Particulars Amount (₹)
Rent of the commercial building 19,50,000
Maintenance charges paid to the local society, reimbursed by Bharat [Note 1] 1,00,000
Interest free refundable security deposit [Note 2] Nil
Municipal taxes paid by Dushyant [Note 3] Nil
Value of supply 20,50,000
CGST @ 9% 1,84,500
SGST @ 9% 1,84,500

Notes:

  1. Maintenance charges paid to the local society, reimbursed by Bharat, such charges ultimately form part of the rent paid by Bharat to Dushyant and thus, will form part of the value.
  2. Interest free refundable security deposit, Such security deposit does not constitute consideration in terms of section 2(37) of the CGST Act, 2017 and thus, is not includible in the value.
  3. Municipal taxes paid by Dushyant, the same is not includible in the value since such taxes are not charged to the recipient.

Value of Supply – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 4.
Shri Krishna Pvt. Ltd., a registered dealer, furnishes the following information relating to goods sold by it to Shri Balram Pvt. Ltd. in the course of Intra State.

Particulars Amount (₹)
(i) Price of the goods 1,00,000
(ii) Municipal Tax 2,000
(iii) Inspection charges 15,000
(iv) Subsidies received from Shri Ram Trust (As the products is going to be used by blind association) 50,000
(v) Late Fees for delayed payment. (Though Shri Balram Pvt. Ltd. made late payment but these charges are waived by Shri Krishna Pvt. Ltd.) 1,000
(vi) Shri Balram Pvt., Ltd. paid to Radhe Pvt. Ltd. (on behalf of Shri Krishna Pvt. Ltd.) weightment charges. 2,000

According to GST Law, determine the value of taxable, supply made by Shri Krishna Pvt. Ltd. It is given that the items given in Point (ii) to (vi) are not considered, while arriving at the price of the goods given in point no. (i). [May 2018 Old Course, 4 Marks]
Answer:
Computation of value of taxable supply made by Shri KrishnaPvt. Ltd.

Particulars Note Amount (₹)
(i) Price of the goods 1,00,000
(ii) Municipal Tax A 2,000
(iii) Inspection charges B 15,000
(iv) Subsidies received from Shri Ram Trust C 50,000
(v) Late Fees for delayed payment. D Nil
(vi) Weightment charges paid to Radhe Pvt. Ltd. by Shri Balram Pvt. Ltd. on behalf of Shri Krishna Pvt. Ltd. E 2,000
Value of Taxable Supply 1,69,000

Notes:
(A) Includible in the value as per section 15 of the CGST Act, 2017

(B) Being incidental expenses, the same are includible in the value as per section 15 of the CGST Act, 2017

(C) Since subsidy is received from a non-Government body, the same is includible in the value in terms of section 15 of the CGST Act, 2017. It has been assumed that the subsidy is directly linked to the price

(D) Not includible since waived off

(E) Liability of the supplier being discharged by the recipient, is includible in the value in terms of section 15 of the CGST Act, 2017

Value of Supply – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 5.
Worldwide Pvt. Ltd. (a registered Taxable Person) having the gross receipt of ₹ 50 Lakhs in the previous financial year provides the following information relating to their services for the month of July, 2020

Sr. No. Particulars Amount (₹)
(1) Running a boarding school 2,40,000
(2) Fees from prospective employer for campus interview 1,70,000
(3) Education Services for obtaining the qualification recognised by Law of Foreign Country 3,10,000
(4) Renting of Furnished Flats for Temporary Stay to different persons (Rent per day is less than ₹ 1,000 per person) 1,20,000
(5) Conducting Modular Employable Skill Course, Approved by National Council of Vocational Training 1,40,000
(6) Conducting Private Tuitions 3,00,000

Compute the value of Taxable Supply and the amount of GST Payable. The above receipts doesn’t include the GST Amount and the rate of GST is 18%. [Nov. 2018 Old Course, 6 Marks]
Answer:
Computation of value of taxable supply and amount of GST payable

Sr. No. Particulars Note Amount (₹)
(1) Running a boarding school A NIL
(2) Fees from prospective employer for campus interview B 1,70,000
(3) Education Services for obtaining the qualification recognised by Law of Foreign Country C 3,10,000
(4) Renting of Furnished Flats for Temporary Stay to different persons (Rent per day is less than ? 1,000 per person) D NIL
(5) Conducting Modular Employable Skill Course, Approved by National Council of Vocational Training E NIL
(6) Conducting Private Tuitions F 3,00,000
Value of taxable supply 7,80,000
GST payable @ 18% 1,40,000

Notes:
(A) Services provided by an educational institution to its students, faculty and staff are exempt.

(B) It is not exempt.

(C) An institution providing education services for obtaining qualification recognized by a foreign country does not qualify as educational institution. Thus, said services are not exempt.

(D) Exempt assuming that rent/declared tariff is less than ₹ 1,000 per day. It has been assumed that total rent per day is less than ₹ 1,000 per flat. However, if it is assumed that total rent per day exceeds ₹ 1,000 per flat, services of renting of flats become taxable and thus, value of taxable supply and GST payable is ₹ 9,00,000 and ₹ 1,62,000 respectively.

(E) An institution providing Modular Employable Skill Course qualifies as educational institution. Services provided by an educational institution to its students, faculty and staff are exempt.

(F) It is not exempt.

Value of Supply – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 6.
Koli Ltd. supplies machinery to Ghisa Ltd. (Dealer in same State), provides following particulars regarding the same. Determine the value of taxable supply of machinery. [May 2019 Old Course, 5 Marks]

Sr. No. Particulars Amount (₹)
1 Price of Machinery (exclusive of taxes and discounts) 5,50,000
2 One part is directly fitted in machinery at place of Ghisa Ltd. (Amount paid by Ghisa Ltd. directly to supplier, as per contract this amount should be paid by Koli Ltd. and not included in price) 20,000
3 Installation and testing charges for machinery (not included in price.) 25,000
4 Discount 2% on machinery price (Recorded in the invoice)
5 Koli Ltd. provides additional 1% discount at year end, based on additional purchase of other machinery

Answer:
Computation of taxable value of supply of machinery

Sl. No. Particulars Note Amount (₹)
1 Price of Machinery (exclusive of taxes and discounts) 5,50,000
2 Amount paid by Ghisa Ltd. directly to supplier, for a part directly fitted in machinery. A 20,000
3 Installation and testing charges for machinery B 25,000
4 Discount 2% on machinery price (₹ 5,00,000 × 2%) C (11,000)
5 Additional discount % at year end D Nil
Value of taxable supply 5,84,000

Notes: As per section 15 of CGST Act, 2017
(A) Any amount that the supplier is liable to pay in relation to a supply but which has been incurred by the recipient of the supply and not included in the price actually paid or payable for the goods shall be included in the value of supply.

(B) Any amount charged for anything done by the supplier in respect of the supply of goods at the time of, or before delivery of goods shall be included in the value of supply.

(C) Since discount is given at the time of supply of machinery and recorded in the invoice, the value of the supply shall not include such discount.

(D) Though the additional discount is established before or at the time of supply, it shall not be excluded from the value of supply on the assumption that the same is not linked to the relevant invoice and proportionate ITC has not been reversed by Ghisa Ltd.

Value of Supply – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 7.
Alfa Institute of Management (AIM), a private college, is registered under GST in the State of Punjab. AIM provides the following particulars for the month of April 2020 :

Sl. No. Particulars Amount (₹)
i Tuition Fee received from students pursuing management courses recognized by Punjab University, established by an Act of State Legislature 18,00,000
ii Tuition Fee received from students pursuing under-graduate courses recognized by Stan university, London under Dual Degree programmes. 8,50,000
iii Fee received from students of Competitive Exam training academy run by a Department of AIM 5,40,000
iv Mess fees received from students (Mess is run by AIM on its own) 3,20,000
v Amount paid to Local Municipal Corporation for premises taken on rent for conducting coaching classes for Competitive exams. 50,000
vi Legal services availed from Top Care and Co., a Partnership firm of advocates, for the Competitive Exam training academy (Intra-state transaction) 20,000

Note:

  • Rate of CGST, SGST and IGST are 9%, 9% and 18% respectively for both outward and inward supplies.
  • All the amounts given above are exclusive of taxes wherever applicable.
  • All the conditions necessary for availing the ITC have been fulfilled wherever applicable.
  • No opening balance of ITC under any head of tax.

From the information given above, you are required to calculate the Value of taxable Supply and net GST liability (CGST, SGST or IGST as the case may be) to be paid in cash, if any, by AIM for the month of April, 2020. [Nov. 2019 Old Course, 8 Marks]
Answer:
Computation of value of taxable supply by AIM for April, 2020

Sl. No. Particulars Note Amount (₹)
i Tuition Fee received from students pursuing management courses (1) Nil
ii Tuition Fee received from students pursuing under­graduate courses recognized by Foreign university (2) 8,50,000
iii Fee received from students of Competitive Exam training academy (3) 5,40,000
iv Mess fees received from students (4) Nil
Total value of taxable supply 13,90,000

Liability under REVERSE Charge Mechanism

Particulars Note CGST (₹) SGST (₹)
Rent paid to Local Municipal Corporation @ 9% of X 50,000 each (5) 4,500 4,500
Legal services received from Top Care & Co., a partnership firm of advocates @ 9% of X 20,000 each (6) 1,800 1,800
GST Liability under RCM payable in cash (A) (7) 6,300 6,300

Value of Supply – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Liability under FORWARD Charge Mechanism

Particulars Note CGST (₹) SGST (₹)
9% of Value of supply computed above (9% of × ₹ 13,90,000) (8) 1,25,100 1,25,100
Output tax payable against which ITC can be set off 1,25,100 1,25,100
Less .ITC of renting immovable property and legal services (6,300) (6,300)
Output tax payable after set off of ITC [B] 1,18,800 1,18,800

Computation of NET GST LIABILITY to be paid in cash by AIM for April, 2019

Particulars CGST (₹) SGST (₹)
Liability under RCM payable in cash (as per “A” calculated above) 6,300 6,300
Output tax payable after set off of ITC (as per “B” calculated above) 1,18,800 1,18,800
Net GST liability payable in Cash 1,18,800 1,18,800

Notes:-
(1) Services provided by an educational institution to its students are exempt. Further, educational institution means inter alia an institution providing services by way of education as a part of a curriculum for obtaining a qualification recognised by an Indian law. Therefore, tuition fee received by Punjab University, being an educational institution, is exempt, since it provides qualification recognised by Indian law.

(2) Tuition fee received by Stan University is taxable since Stan University is not an educational institution as qualification provided by it is not recognised by Indian law.

(3) Fee received from students of competitive exam training academy is taxable as Department of AIM is not an educational institution since competitive exam training does not lead to grant of a recognized qualification.

(4) Catering services provided by educational institutions to its students are exempt. It has been assumed that the mess fees has been charged from the students pursuing the qualification recognised by law.

(5) GST is payable under reverse charge in case of renting of immovable property services supplied by a local authority to a registered person.

(6) GST is payable under reverse charge in case of legal services supplied by a firm of advocates to a business entity.

(7) The amount available in the electronic credit ledger may be used for making payment towards output tax. However, tax payable under reverse charge is not an output tax. Therefore, tax payable under reverse charge cannot be set off against the input tax credit and thus, will have to be paid in cash.

(8) Since all the services provided are intra-State, CGST and SGST @ 9% is charged.

Value of Supply – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 8.
Candy Blue Ltd., Mumbai, a registered supplier, is manufacturing Chocolates and Biscuits. It provides the following details of taxable inter-state supply made by it for the month of October 2020:

Particulars Amount in (₹)
(0 List price of goods supplied inter-state 12,40,000
Item already adjusted in the price give in (i) above:
(1) Subsidy from Central Government for supply of Biscuits to Government School. 1,20,000
(2) Subsidy from Trade Association for supply of quality Biscuits. 30,000
Items not adjusted in the price given in (i) above:
(3) Tax levied by Municipal Authority 24,000
(4) Packing Charges 12,000
(5) Late fee paid by the recipient of supply for delayed Payment of invoice 5,000

Calculate the Value of taxable supply made by M/s Candy Blue Ltd. for the month of October 2020. [May 2018, 5 Marks]
Answer:
Computation of value of taxable supply made by Candy Blue Ltd.
(For the month of October, 2020)

Particulars Note Amount (₹)
List price of goods supplied inter-state 12,40,000
Subsidy from Central Government for supply of Biscuits to Government School. (1) Nil
Subsidy from Trade Association for supply of quality Biscuits. (2) 30,000
Tax levied by Municipal Authority (3) 24,000
Packing Charges (4) 12,000
Late fee paid by the recipient of supply for delayed Payment of invoice (5) 5,000
Value of taxable supply 13,11,000

Notes:

  1. Since subsidy is received from Government, the same is not includiblein the value in terms of section 15 of the CGST Act, 2017.
  2. Since subsidy is received from a non-Government body, the same is includible in the value in terms of section 15 of the CGST Act, 2017.
  3. Includible in the value as per section 15 of the CGST Act, 2017
  4. Being incidental expenses, the same are includible in the value as per section 15 of the CGST Act, 2017
  5. Includible in the value as per section 15 of the CGST Act, 2017.

Value of Supply – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 9.
Ms. Achintya a registered supplier in Kochi (Kerala State) has provided the following details in respect of her supplies made within Intra-State for the month of March 2020:

Particulars Amount ₹
(0 List price of goods supplied intra-state (The items given below from (ii) to (v) have not been adjusted in the list price.) 3,30,000
(ii) Taxes (other than GST)levied on sale of the goods 12,500
(iii) Packing expenses charged separately in the invoice 10,800
(iv) Discount of 1% on list price of goods was provided (recorded in the invoice of goods)
(V) Subsidy received from State Govt, for encouraging women entrepreneurs 5,000

Compute the value of taxable supply and the gross GST liability of Ms. Achintya for the month of March 2020 assuming rate of CGST to be 9% and SGST to be 9%. All the amounts given above are exclusive of GST. [Nov. 2018 Modified, 5 Marks]
Answer:
Computation of value of taxable supply and gross GST liability of Ms. Achintya (for the month of March, 2020)

Particulars Note Amount ₹
List price of goods 3,30,000
Non-GST Taxes levied on sale of the goods (1) 12,500
Packing expenses (2) 10,800
Subsidy received from State Govt. (3) (5,000)
Discount of 1% on list price ₹ 3,30,000 (4) (3,300)
Value of taxable supply 3,45,000
CGST@ 9% of ₹ 3,45,000 31,050
SGST@ 9% of ₹ 3,45,000 31,050

Notes:
As per section 15 of CGST Act, 2017

  1. My taxes, duties and cesses levied under any law other than CGST, SGST is includible in the value.
  2. Packing expenses being incidental expenses, are includible in the value.
  3. Since subsidy is received from State Government, the same is not includible in the value. It has been assumed that such subsidies are directly linked to the price of the goods. Further, since the same has not been adjusted in the list price, the same is to be excluded from the list price.
  4. Since discount is known at the time of supply, it is deductible from the value.

Value of Supply – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 10.
M/s Apna Bank Limited a Scheduled Commercial Bank has furnished the following details for the month of August, 2020 :

Particulars Amount (₹ in Crores) (Excluding GST)
Extended Housing Loan to its customers 100
Processing fees collected from its customers on sanction of loan 20
Commission collected from its customers on bank guarantee 30
Interest income on credit card issued by the bank 40
Interest received on housing loan extended by the bank 25
Minimum balance charges collected from current account and saving account holder 01

Compute the Value of Taxable supply. Give reasons with suitable assumptions. [May 2019, 6 Marks]
Answer:
Computation of value of taxable supply of M/s. Apna Bank Limited
(for the month of August, 2020)

Particulars Note Amount (₹ in Crores)
Extended Housing Loan to its customers (1) Nil
Processing fees collected from its customers on sanction of loan (2) 20
Commission collected from its customers on bank guarantee (3) 30
Interest income on credit card issued by the bank (4) 40
Interest received on housing loan extended by the bank (5) Nil
Minimum balance charges collected from current account and saving account holder (6) 01
Value of taxable supply 91

Notes:-

  1. Since money does not constitute goods, extending housing loan is not a supply.
  2. Interest does not include processing fee on sanction of the loan. Hence, the same is taxable.
  3. Any commission collected over and above interest on loan, advance or deposit are not exempt.
  4. Services by way of extending loans insofar as the consideration is represented by way of interest are exempt from tax. However, interest involved in credit card services is not exempt.
  5. Services by way of extending loans insofar as the consideration is represented by way of interest are exempt from tax.
  6. My charges collected over and above interest on loan, advance or deposit are not exempt.

Value of Supply – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 11.
Determine the value of supply and the GST liability, to be collected and paid by the owner, with the following particulars:

Particulars Amount ₹
Rent of the commercial building 18,00,000
Maintenance charges collected by local society from the owner and reimbursed by the tenant 2,50,000
Owner intends to charge GST on refundable advance, as GST is applicable on advance 6,00,000
Municipal taxes paid by the owner 3,00,000

Answer:
Computation of Value of Supply

Particulars Amount (₹)
Rent of the commercial building 18,00,000
Maintenance charges collected by the local society from the owner and reimbursed by the tenant [Note-1] 2,50,000
Refundable advance [Note-2] Nil
Municipal taxes paid by the owner [Note-3] Nil
Value of supply 20,50,000
CGST @ 9% 1,84,500
SGST@ 9% 1,84,500

Value of Supply – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Notes:-

  1. Being reimbursed by the tenant, such charges ultimately form part of the rent paid by the tenant to the owner and thus, will form part of the value.
  2. As per Section 2(31) of the CGST Act, 2017:- Being refundable, the advance is in the nature of security deposit which does not constitute consideration and thus, is not includible in the value.
  3. Being an expenditure incurred by the supplier, the same is not includible in the value, assuming that such taxes are not charged to the recipient.

The Company Audit – CA Inter Audit Notes

The Company Audit – CA Inter Auditing Notes is designed strictly as per the latest syllabus and exam pattern.

The Company Audit – CA Inter Auditing Notes

Question 1.
Examine the following: “Section 139(1) of the Companies Act, 2013 provides that every company shall, at the first annual general meeting appoint an auditor who shall hold office till the conclusion of its sixth annual general meeting”. [RTP-May 18]
Answer:
Appointment of Subsequent Auditors in case of Non-Government Companies:
Section 139(1) of the Companies Act, 2013 provides that every company shall, at the first AGM appoint an individual or a firm as an auditor who shall hold office from the conclusion of that meeting till the conclusion of its 6th AGM and thereafter till the conclusion of every 6th meeting.

The following points need to be noted in this regard:

  • The company shall place the matter relating to such appointment of ratification by member at every Annual General Meeting.
  • Before such appointment is made, the written consent of the auditor to such appointment, and a certificate from him or it that the appointment, if made, shall be in accordance with the conditions as may be prescribed, shall be obtained from the auditor.
  • The certificate shall also indicate whether the auditor satisfies the criteria provided in section 141.
  • The company shall inform the auditor concerned of his or its appointment, and also file a notice of such appointment with the Registrar within 15 days of the meeting in which the auditor is appointed.

Question 2.
Managing Director of PQR Ltd. (Non-Government company) himself wants to appoint Shri Ganpa- ti, a practicing Chartered Accountant, as first auditor of the company. Comment on the proposed action of the Managing Director.
Answer:
Appointment of First Auditor of Non-Govt, Company:
Section 139(6} of the Companies Act, 2013 lays down that “the first auditor or auditors of a company shall be appointed by the Boardof directors within 30 days from the date of registration of the company”.

In the instant case, the appointment of Shri Ganpati, a practicing Chartered Accountant as first auditors by the Managing Director of PQR Ltd. by himself is in violation of Section 139(6} of the Companies Act, 2013, which authorizes the Board of Directors to appoint the first auditor of the company.

Conclusion: In view of the above, the Managing Director of PQR Ltd. should be advised not to appoint the first auditor of the company.

Question 3.
The first auditor of M/s Healthy Wealthy Ltd., a Government company, was appointed by the Board of Directors. [MTP-March 19, RTP-May 19]
Answer:
Appointment of First Auditor of Govt. Company

  • Section 139(7) of the Companies Act, 2013 lays down that in the case of a Government company or any other company owned or controlled, directly or indirectly, by the Central Government, or by any State Government, or State Governments, or partly by the Central Government and partly by one or more State Governments, the first auditor shall be appointed by the CAG of India within 60 days of registration of the company.
  • In case the CAG of India does not appoint such auditor within the said period, the BOD of the company shall appoint such auditor within the next 30 days.
  • In the case of failure of the Board to appoint such auditor within the next 30 days, it shall inform the members of the company who shall appoint such auditor within the 60 days at an EGM.
  • Hence in the case of M/s Healthy Wealthy Ltd., being a government company, the first auditors shall be appointed by the CAG of India.
    Conclusion: The appointment of first auditors made by the Board of Directors of M/s Healthy
    Wealthy Ltd., is null and void.

The Company Audit – CA Inter Audit Notes

Question 4.
Nick Ltd. is a subsidiary of Ajanta Ltd., whose 20% shares have been held by Central Government, 25% by Uttar Pradesh Government and 10% by Madhya Pradesh Government. Nick Ltd. appointed Mr. P as statutory auditor for the year.
Answer:
Appointment of Auditor of Govt. Company:

  • As per Sec. 2 (45) of the Companies Act, 2 013, a Government company is defined “as any company in which not less than 51% of the paid-up share capital is held by the Central Government or by any State Government or Governments or partly by the Central Government and partly by one or more State Governments and includes a company which is a subsidiary of a Government Company as thus defined”.
  • Sec. 139(7) requires that the auditors of a government company shall be appointed or reappointed by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
  • In the given case Ajanta Ltd. is a government company as its 20% shares have been held by Central Govt., 25% by U.P. State Government and 10% by M.P. State Govt. Total 55% shares have been held by Central and State Governments.
  • Nick Ltd. will also be a government company, being subsidiary company of Ajanta Ltd. and hence the Auditor of Nick Ltd. can be appointed only by C & AG.

Conclusion: Appointment of ‘P’ is invalid and ‘P’ should not give acceptance to the Directors of Nick Ltd.

Question 5.
At the AGM of ICI Ltd., Mr. X was appointed as the statutory auditor. He, however, resigned after 3 months since he wanted to give up practice and join industry. State, how the new auditor will be appointed by ICI Ltd. and the conditions to be complied for.
Or
At the AGM of HDB Pvt. Ltd., Mr. R was appointed as the statutory auditor. He, however, resigned after 3 months since he wanted to purse his career in banking sector. The board of director has appointed Mr. L as the statutory auditor in board meeting within 30 days. Comment on the matter. With reference to the provisions of companies Act, 2013. [May 18 (5 Marks), RTP-Nov. 20]
Answer:
Filling of Casual vacancy:

  • As per Sec. 139(8) of the Companies Act, 2013, any casual vacancy in the office of an auditor may be filled by Board of Directors within thirty days.
  • However, if casual vacancy has been created by the resignation of the auditor, such appointment shall also be approved by the company at a general meeting convened within three months of the recommendation of the board.
  • The auditor so appointed shall hold office till the conclusion of the next annual general meeting.

Conclusion:
In this case the casual vacancy has been created on account of resignation. Therefore, Board of Directors will have to fill the vacancy within thirty days and such appointment shall be approved by the company at the general meeting within three months of the recommendations of the board. The new auditor so appointed shall hold office only till the conclusion of the next AGM.

Question 6.
Due to the resignation of the existing auditor(s), the Board of directors of X Ltd. appointed Mr. Hari as the auditor. Is the appointment of Hari as auditor valid₹
Answer:
Board’s Powers to Appoint an Auditor:

  • As per Sec. 139(8) of the Companies Act, 2013, any casual vacancy in the office of an auditor may be filled by Board of Directors within thirty days.
  • However, if casual vacancy has been created by the resignation of the auditor, such appointment shall also be approved by the company at a general meeting convened within three months of the recommendation of the board.
  • The auditor so appointed shall hold office till the conclusion of the next annual general meeting.

Conclusion: Appointment of auditor by Board of Directors will be Valid if it is made within 30 days of casual vacancy and such appointment is approved by the company at a general meeting within three months of the recommendations of the Board.

Question 7.
At an AGM of a listed company, Mr. R a retiring auditor after completing the tenure of 5 consecutive years of his service claims that he has been reappointed automatically, as the intended resolution of which a notice had been given to appoint Mr. P, could not be proceeded with, due to Mr. P’s death.
Answer:
Restrictions over tenure of Auditor (Rotation of Auditor)

  • As per Sec. 139(2) of the Companies Act, 2013, listed companies and other prescribed class of companies shall not appoint or reappoint an individual as auditor for more than one term of five consecutive years.
  • Sec. 139(10) of Companies Act, 2013 provides that if no auditor is appointed or reappointed at AGM, existing auditor will continue.
  • In the given case, notice has been given of an intended resolution to appoint some person or persons in the place of a retiring auditor, and by reason of the death, incapacity or disqualification of that person or of all those persons, as the case may be, the resolution cannot be proceeded with.
  • In the instant case, if Sec. 139(10) of the Companies Act, 2013 is invoked, it results into violation of Sec. 139(2). Hence, Mr. R cannot continue as auditor due to restrictions of Sec. 139(2).

Conclusion: Mr. R cannot continue as auditor of the company due to rotation provisions. Companies Act, 2013 does not provide any provision for such kind of situation, hence it can be concluded that vacancy arises in the office of auditor which need to be filled by company in EGM.

Question 8.
No AGM was held for the year ended 31st March, 2020, in XYZ Ltd., Mr. X is the auditor for the previous 5 years, whether he should continue to hold office for current year or not.
Answer:
Auditor’s position if no AGM is held:
Sec. 139(1) of the Companies Act, 2013 provides that every company shall, at the first AGM appoint an individual or a firm as an auditor who shall hold office from the conclusion of that meeting till the conclusion of its 6th AGM and thereafter till the conclusion of every 6th meeting.

In case the AGM is not held within the period prescribed, the auditor will continue in office till the AGM is actually held and concluded.
Conclusion: Mr. X shall continue to hold office till the conclusion of the AGM.

Question 9.
M/s Young & Co., a CA firm, and Statutory Auditors of Old Ltd., is dissolved on 1-4-2020 due to differ-ences of opinion among the partners. The Board of Directors of Old Ltd. in its meeting on 6-4-2020 appointed another firm M/s Sharp & Co. as their new auditors for one year.
Answer:
Filling of Casual Vacancy:

  • As per Sec. 139(8) of the Companies Act, 2013, any casual vacancy in the office of an auditor may be filled by Board of Directors within thirty days.
  • However, if casual vacancy has been created by the resignation of the auditor, such appointment shall also be approved by the company at a general meeting convened within three months of the recommendation of the board.
  • The auditor so appointed shall hold office till the conclusion of the next annual general meeting.

Conclusion: In the instant case the action of the board of directors in appointing M/s Sharp & Co. to fill up the casual vacancy due to dissolution of M/s Young & Co., is correct.
However, the board of directors are not correct in giving them appointment for one year. M/s Sharp & Co. can hold office until the conclusion of next AGM only.

The Company Audit – CA Inter Audit Notes

Question 10.
ABC Pvt. Ltd. is having paid up share capital of ₹ 18 Cr. but having public borrowing from nationalized banks and financial institutions of ₹ 72 Cr. Comment whether, manner of rotation of auditor will be applicable over ABC Pvt. Ltd. [RTP-May 18]
Answer:
Statement is Incorrect.

  • Provisions related with rotation of auditors are applicable in case of private companies having paid up capital of ₹ 50 Crore or more and to companies having paid up capital below ₹ 50 Crore, but having public borrowings from financial institutions, banks or public deposits of ₹ 50 Crore or More.
  • In the instant case, as borrowings is of ₹ 50 Crore, provisions related with rotation of auditors are applicable.

Question 11.
Jolly Ltd., a listed company, appointed M/s Polly & Co., a Chartered Accountant firm, as the statutory auditor in its AGM held at the end of September, 2020 for 11 years. Comment whether the appointment is valid.
Answer:
Rotation of Auditor & Cooling Off Period Provisions:

  • As per Section 139(2) of the Companies Act, 2013, no listed company or a company belonging to such class or classes of companies as prescribed, shall appoint or re-appoint
    • an individual as auditor for more than one term of five consecutive years; and
    • an audit firm as auditor for more than two terms of five consecutive years.
  • In the given case, Jolly Limited is a listed company, the provisions relating to rotation of auditor will be applicable.

Conclusion: Jolly Ltd. cannot appoint the auditor for more than two terms of five consecutive years each, i.e. M/s Polly & Co. shall hold office from the conclusion of this meeting upto conclusion of 6th AGM to be held in the year 2025 and thereafter can be re-appointed as auditor for one more term of five years i.e. upto year 2030. The appointment shall be subject to ratification by members at every AGM of the company. As a result, the appointment made by Jolly Ltd. for 11 years is void.

Question 12.
M/s XYZ & Co., is an audit firm having partner Mrs. X, Mr. Y and Mr. Z, whose tenure has expired in the company immediately preceding the financial year. M/s ABZ & Co., another audit firm in which Mr. Z is a common partner, appointed as auditor for next five years. Comment whether the appointment is valid.
Answer:
To Examine validity of appointment;

  • Sec. 139[2] of Companies Act, 2013 provides that no listed company or other prescribed companies, shall appoint or re-appoint an audit firm as auditor for more than two terms of five consecutive years.
  • An audit firm which has completed its term, shall not be eligible for re-appointment as auditor in the same company for five years from the completion of such term.
  • It is also provided that as on the date of appointment no audit firm having a common partner or partners to the other audit firm, whose tenure has expired in a company immediately preceding the financial year, shall be appointed as auditor of the same company for a period of five years.
  • In the present case, assuming that company is covered under rotational provisions and two tenures of 5 year each of XYZ & Co. expired, M/S ABZ cannot be appointed as auditor as Mr. Z is common partner.

Conclusion: Appointment is not valid.

Question 13.
Discuss the following: Filling of Casual Vacancy in respect of a Company Audit. [Nov 12 (5 Marks) RTP-Mav 18]
Answer:
Filling of Casual Vacancy:
As per Section 139 (8) of the Companies Act, 2013, any casual vacancy in the office of an auditor shall-
(i) In the case of a non-government company, be filled by the Board of Directors within 30 days. But, if such casual vacancy is as a result of the resignation of an auditor, such appointment shall also be approved by the company at a general meeting convened within 3 months of the recommendation of the Board and the auditor so appointed shall hold the office till the conclusion of the next AGM.

(ii) In the case of a government company, the casual vacancy be filled by the CAG of India within 30 days. But if the CAG does not fill the vacancy within the said period the Board of Directors shall fill the vacancy within next 30 days.

Question 14.
Under what circumstances the retiring auditor cannot be reappointed. [Nov. 13 (6 Marks)]
Answer:
Circumstances in which retiring auditor cannot be reappointed:

  1. A specific resolution has not been passed to reappoint the retiring auditor.
  2. The auditor proposed to be reappointed does not possess the qualification prescribed under section 141 of the Companies Act, 2013.
  3. The proposed auditor suffers from the disqualifications under sections 141(3), 141(4) and 144 of the Companies Act, 2013.
  4. He has given to the company notice in writing of his unwillingness to be reappointed.
  5. A Special resolution has been passed in AGM appointing somebody else or providing expressly that the retiring auditor shall not be reappointed.
  6. A written certificate has not been obtained from the proposed auditor to the effect that the appointment or reappointment, if made, will be in accordance within the limits specified under section 141(3)(g) of the Companies Act, 2013.

Question 15.
State the manner of rotation of auditors on expiry of their term. [May 15 (4 Marks)]
Or
What are the provisions regarding appointment of auditors by rotation, after expiry of the term of the current auditor that a company should consider? [May 17 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Manner of Rotation of Auditors:
Rule 6 of Companies (Audit & Auditors) Rules, 2014 prescribes the manner of rotation as below:
1. The Audit Committee shall recommend to the Board, the name of an individual auditor or of an audit firm who may replace the incumbent auditor on expiry of the term of such incumbent.

2. Where a company is required to constitute an Audit Committee, the Board shall consider the recommendation of such committee, and in other cases, the Board shall itself consider the matter of rotation of auditors and make its recommendation for appointment of the next auditor by the members in annual general meeting.

3. For the purpose of the rotation of auditors-
(i) in case of an auditor (whether an individual or audit firm), the period for which the individual or the firm has held office as auditor prior to the commencement of the Act shall be taken into account for calculating the period of five consecutive years or ten consecutive years, as the case may be;

(ii) the incoming auditor or audit firm shall not be eligible if such auditor or audit firm is associated with the outgoing auditor or audit firm under the same network of audit firms. The term “same network” includes the firms operating or functioning, hitherto or in future, under the same brand name, trade name or common control.

(iii) For the purpose of rotation of auditors:
(A) a break in the term for a continuous period of five years shall be considered as fulfilling the requirement of rotation;
(B) if a partner, who is in charge of an audit firm and also certifies the financial statements of the company, retires from the said firm and joins another firm of chartered accountants, such other firm shall also be ineligible to be appointed for a period of five years.

The Company Audit – CA Inter Audit Notes

Question 16.
Provisions regarding rotation of auditors affect only specified class of companies. Discuss.
Or
Specify the class of companies to whom rotation of auditor applies, under the provisions of Companies Act, 2013. [May 17 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Companies requiring rotation of auditors:
As per Section 139(2) of the Companies Act, 2013, no listed company or a company belonging to such class or classes of companies as prescribed, shall appoint or re-appoint-

  • an individual as auditor for more than one term of five consecutive years; and
  • an audit firm as auditor for more than two terms of five consecutive years.

Rule 5 of Companies (Audit and Auditors] Rules, 2014, prescribes the following classes of companies for the purpose of rotation:
a. all unlisted public companies having paid up share capital of ₹ 10 crore or more;
b. all private limited companies having paid up share capital of ₹ 20 crore or more;
c. all companies having paid up share capital of below threshold limit mentioned above, but having public borrowings from financial institutions, banks or public deposits of ₹ 50 crores or more.

Question 17.
Write short note on: Provisions regarding re-appointment of a retiring auditor at the Annual General Meeting, for a company not covered under auditor rotation provisions. [May 17 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Re-appointment of Auditor – Sec. 139(9):
Subject to the provisions of sub-section (1) and the rules made thereunder, a retiring auditor may be re-appointed at an AGM, if:
(a) he is not disqualified for re-appointment;

(b) he has not given the company a notice in writing of his unwillingness to be re-appointed; and

(c) a special resolution has not been passed at that meeting appointing some other auditor or providing expressly that he shall not be re-appointed.
Sec. 139(10) of Companies Act, 2013 provides that where at any AGM no auditor is appointed or reappointed, the existing auditor shall continue to be the auditor of the company.

Question 18.
Explain the manner and procedure of selection and appointment of auditors as per Rule 3 of Companies (Audit and Auditors) Rules, 2014. [RTP-May 19]
Answer:
Manner and Procedure of selection and appointment of auditors:
Manner and procedure of selection of auditors by the members of the company at AGM has been prescribed under Rule 3 of the Companies (Audit and Auditors) Rules, 2014. Accordingly:

1. In case of a company that is required to constitute an Audit Committee u/s 177, the committee, and, in cases where such a committee is not required to be constituted, the Board, shall take into consideration the qualifications and experience of the individual or the firm proposed to be considered for appointment as auditor and whether such qualifications and experience are commensurate with the size and requirements of the company:

While considering the appointment, the Audit Committee or the Board, as the case may be, shall have regard to any order or pending proceeding relating to professional matters of conduct against the proposed auditor before the ICA1 or any competent authority or any Court.

2. The Audit Committee or the Board, as the case may be, may call for such other information from the proposed auditor as it may deem fit.

3. Subject to the provisions of sub-rule (1), where a company is required to constitute the Audit Committee, the committee shall recommend the name of an individual or a firm as auditor to the Board for consideration and in other cases, the Board shall consider and recommend an individual or a firm as auditor to the members in the AGM for appointment.

4. If the Board agrees with the recommendation of the Audit Committee, it shall further recommend the appointment of an individual or a firm as auditor to the members in the AGM.

5. If the Board disagrees with the recommendation of the Audit Committee, it shall refer back the recommendation to the committee for reconsideration citing reasons for such disagreement.

6. If the AuditCommittee, after considering the reasons given by the Board, decides not to reconsider its original recommendation, the Board shall record reasons for its disagreement with the committee and send its own recommendation for consideration of the members in the AGM; and if the Board agrees with the recommendations of the Audit Committee, it shall place the matter for consideration by members in the AGM.

Question 19.
Where a company is required to constitute an Audit Committee, all appointments of an auditor under this section shall be made after taking into account the recommendations of such committee. Explain stating also the class of companies required to constitute Audit Committee. [MTP-March 19, May 20]
Answer:
Consideration as to recommendation of Audit Committee:
Sec. 139(11) of Companies Act, 2013 provides that where a company is required to constitute an Audit Committee u/s 177, all appointments, including the filling of a casual vacancy of an auditor under this section shall be made after taking into account the recommendations of such committee.

Companies required to constitute Audit Committee: As per Sec. 177 of Companies Act, 2013, in addition to listed public companies, following classes of companies shall constitute an Audit Committee:

  • all public companies with a paid-up share capital of ₹ 10 Cr. or more;
  • all public companies having turnover of ₹ 100 Cr. or more;
  • all public companies, having in aggregate, outstanding loans, debentures and deposits exceeding ₹ 50 Cr.

Explanation: The paid-up share capital or turnover or outstanding loans, debentures and deposits, as the case may be, as existing on the last date of latest audited F.S. shall be taken into account for this purpose.

Question 20.
Clue Ltd. is a Public unlisted company having paid-up share capital of₹ 9 crores and public borrowings from the financial institutions of ₹ 51 crores. They appointed M/s Pray and Co., a Chartered Accountant firm as the statutory auditor in its annual general meeting for 11 years.
(a) Is the manner of rotation of auditor applicable in case of Clue Ltd.₹
(b) Whether the appointment of M/s Pray and Co. is valid₹ [Nov. 20 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Appointment and Rotation of company auditor:
(i) Rotation of Auditor:

  • As per Rule 5 of Companies (Audit and Auditor’s) Rules, 2014, provisions related with rotation of auditors are applicable in case of public unlisted companies having paid up capital of ₹ 10 Crore or more and to companies having paid up capital below ₹ 10 Crore, but having public borrowings from financial institutions, banks or public deposits of ₹ 50 Crore or more.
  • In the instant case, as borrowings is of ₹ 50 Crore, provisions related with rotation of auditors are applicable.

(ii) Appointment of Auditor:
As per Section 139(2) of the Companies Act, 2013, no listed company or a company belonging to such class or classes of companies as prescribed, shall appoint or re-appoint-

  • an individual as auditor for more than one term of five consecutive years; and
  • an audit firm as auditor for more than two terms of five consecutive years.
    Clue Ltd. cannot appoint the auditor for more than two terms of five consecutive years each, i.e. M/s Pray & Co. shall hold office from the conclusion of this meeting upto conclusion of 6th AGM and thereafter can be re-appointed as auditor for one more term of five years. The appointment shall be subject to ratification by members at every AGM of the company. As a result, the appointment made by Clue Ltd. for 11 years is not valid.

Question 21.
Why Central Government permission is required, when the auditor is to be removed before expiry of their term, but the same is not needed when the auditors are changed after expiry of their term.
Answer:
Removal of an auditor before expiry of term:

  • Sec. 140(1) of Companies Act, 2013 requires prior approval of Central Government in case of removal of an auditor before the expiry of his term. This is a very stringent provision to ensure that any auditor who is inconvenient to the management cannot be removed so easily. Such a provision goes a long way to ensure independence of auditor.
  • Therefore, law has provided this safeguard so that Central Govt, can know the real reason of auditor’s removal before expiry of his term and if not satisfied with the reason, may not accord approval.
  • On the other hand, if the auditor has completed his term, i.e. has submitted his report and thereafter he is not re-appointed, then the matter is not serious enough for Central Govt, to call for its intervention.
  • In view of the above, Central Govt, permission is required when auditors are removed before expiry of their term and the same is not required when they are not re-appointed after the expiry of their term.

The Company Audit – CA Inter Audit Notes

Question 22.
PQR Company Ltd. removed their first auditor by passing a resolution in the meeting of the Board of Directors for his removal without obtaining prior approval from the Central Government. Offer your comments in this regard. [Nov. 10(4 Marks)]
Answer:
Removal of first Auditor:

  • As per Sec. 140(1) of the Companies Act, 2013, an auditor appointed u/s 139 may be removed from his office before the expiry of his term only by a special resolution of the company, after obtaining the prior approval of the Central Government.
  • For this purpose, an application to the Central Government for removal of auditor shall be made in Form ADT-2 and shall be accompanied with prescribed fees.
  • The application shall be made to the Central Government within thirty days of the resolution passed by the Board.
  • The company shall hold the general meeting within sixty days of receipt of approval of the Central Government for passing the special resolution.
  • In the instant case the first auditor appointed by the Board of Directors was removed by a resolution in the meeting of the Board of Directors inspite of the Special resolution of the Company and without the prior approval of the Central Government in that behalf.

Conclusion: Removal of Auditor is Invalid as Special Resolution has not been passed and approval of Central Govt, not obtained.

Question 23.
Comment on the following: Removal of auditor before expiry of term. [Nov. 11 (6 Marks)]
Or
Discuss about the provisions for removal of auditor before expiry of term. [Nov. 15 (6 Marks)]
Or
The auditor CA Z appointed under section 139 was removed from his office before the expiry of his term by an ordinary resolution of the company. Comment explaining clearly the procedure of removal of auditor before expiry of term. [MTP-Oct. 18]
Or
Board of Directors of “XYZ Ltd.” found the auditors of the Company acted in a fraudulent manner, and decided to remove the auditors in board’s meeting. Comment on the action of Board of Directors and describe correct procedure to be followed for removal of auditors before expiry of their term. [May 19 (4 Marks}]
Answer:
Removal of Auditor before expiry of term:
Sec. 140(1} of Companies Act, 2013 governs the provisions relating to removal of auditor before expiry of term. The salient features of Sec. 140(1} in reading with Rule 7 of Companies (Audit and Auditors} Rules, 2014 are:

  • The auditor appointed under section 139 may be removed from his office before the expiry of his term only by a special resolution of the company and after obtaining the previous approval of the Central Government by making an application in Form ADT-2 and shall be accompanied with the prescribed fees.
  • The application shall be made to the Central Government within 30 days of the resolution passed by the Board.
  • The Company shall hold the general meeting within 60 days of receipt of approval of the Central Government for passing the special resolution.
  • Before taking any action for removal of auditor before the expiry of his term, the auditor concerned shall be given a reasonable opportunity of being heard.

Conclusion:
Removal of auditor before expiry of tenure by ordinary resolution or Board resolution is not valid.

Question 24.
As one of the Joint auditors of X Ltd. a non listed company not covered u/s 139(2) for the immediately preceding five financial years, you have been considered for re-appointment by the members in the AGM as the sole auditor, while the said Joint auditors are not re-appointed. Comment. [Nov. 16 (6 Marks)]
Answer:
Appointment of Sole Auditor:
When one of the joint auditors of the previous years is considered for re-appointment by the members as the sole auditor for the next tenure, it is similar to non-re-appointment of one of the retiring joint auditors. As per Sec. 140(4} of the Companies Act, 2013, special notice shall be required for a resolution at an AGM appointing as auditor a person other than a retiring auditor, or providing expressly that a retiring auditor shall not be re-appointed, except where the retiring auditor has completed a consecutive tenure of five years or, as the case maybe, ten years, as provided u/s 139(2}.

Accordingly, provisions of the Companies Act, 2013 to be complied with are as under:
(a) Special Notice: Ascertain that special notice u/s 140 (4} of the Companies Act, 2013 was received by the company from requisite number of members (1% of total voting power or paid up capital not less than ₹ 5 Lacs} at least 14 days before the AGM date.

(b) Sending copy of notice: Check whether the said notice has been sent to all the members at least 7 days before the date of the AGM.

(c) Contents of Notice: Verify that the notice contains an express intention of a member for proposing the resolution for appointing a sole auditor in place of both the joint auditors who retire at the meeting but are eligible for re-appointment.

(d) Notice to Auditor: Ensure that the notice has also been sent to the retiring auditor.

(e) Sending the Representation: Verify whether any representation, received from the retiring auditor was sent to the members of the company.

(f) Consideration of representation: Verify from the minutes book whether the representation received from the retiring joint auditor was considered at the AGM.

Question 25.
CA. Donald was appointed as the auditor of PS Ltd. at the remuneration of ₹ 30,000. However, after 4 months of continuing his services, he could not continue to hold his office of the auditor as his wife got a government job at a distant place and he needs to shift along with her to the new place. Thus, he resigned from the company and did not perform his responsibilities relating to filing of statement to the company and the registrar indicating the reasons and other facts as may be relevant with regard to his resignation.
How much fine may he be punishable with under section 140(3) for non-compliance of section 140(2) of the Companies Act, 2013₹ [RTP-May 19, MTP-Oct. 19]
Answer:
Fine prescribed u/s 140(3) for non-compliance of Sec. 140(2):

  • Sec. 140(2) of Companies Act, 2013 provides that the auditor who has resigned from the company shall file within a period of 30 days from the date of resignation, a statement in the Form ADT-3 with the company and the Registrar.
  • In case of Govt, companies or Govt, owned/controlled companies, the auditor shall also file such statement with the CAG, indicating the reasons and other facts as may be relevant with regard to his resignation.
  • As per Sec. 140(3) of Companies Act, 2013, if the auditor does not comply with the provisions of Sec. 140(2), he or it shall be liable to a penalty of ₹ 50,000 or an amount equal to the remuneration of the auditor, whichever is less, and in case of continuing failure, with further penalty of ₹ 500 for each day after the first during which such failure continues, subject to a maximum of ₹ 5 lakh.

Question 26.
“Mr. A”, a practicing Chartered Accountant, is holding securities of “XYZ Ltd.” having face value of ₹ 900. Whether Mr. A is qualified for appointment as an Auditor of “XYZ Ltd.”₹ Would your answer will be changed if the securities are being hold by relative of Mr. A.
Answer:
Disqualification as to Security:
As per section 141(3) (d) (i) an auditor is disqualified to be appointed as an auditor if he, or his relative or partner holding any security of or interest in the company or its subsidiary, or of its holding or associate company or a subsidiary of such holding company.

Conclusion: In the present case, Mr. A is holding security of ₹ 900 in the XYZ Ltd., therefore he is not eligible for appointment as an Auditor of “XYZ Ltd”.

The Company Audit – CA Inter Audit Notes

Question 27.
“Mr. P” is a practicing Chartered Accountant and “Mr. Q”, the relative of “Mr. P”, is holding securities of “ABC Ltd.” having face value of ₹ 90,000. Whether “Mr. P” is Qualified from being appointed as an Auditor of “ABC Ltd”₹
Answer:
Disqualifications as to Securities:
As per section 141(3)(d) (i) an auditor is disqualified to be appointed as an auditor if he, or his relative or partner holding any security of or interest in the company or its subsidiary, or of its holding or associate company or a subsidiary of such holding company.

However, the relative of the auditor may hold the securities or interest in the company of face value not exceeding ₹ 1,00,000.

Conclusion: In the present case, Mr. Q (relative of Mr. P, an auditor), is having securities of ₹ 90,000 face Value in the ABC Pvt. Ltd., which is as per requirement of proviso to section 141 (3) (d) (i), Therefore, Mr. P will not be disqualified to be appointed as an auditor of ABC Ltd.

Question 28.
“BC & Co.” is an Audit Firm having partners “Mr. B” and “Mr. C”, and “Mr. A” the relative of “Mr. C”, is holding securities of “MWF Ltd.” having face value of ₹ 1,01,000. Whether “BC & Co.” is qualified from being appointed as an Auditor of “MWF Ltd”₹
Would you answer will be changed if Mr. A hold 5000 shares (face value of ₹ 10 each) in MWF Ltd. Having market value of ₹ 1,50,000.
Answer:
Disqualifications as to security:
As per section 141(3) (d) (i) an auditor is disqualified to be appointed as an auditor if he, or his relative or partner holding any security of or interest in the company or its subsidiary, or of its holding or associate company or a subsidiary of such holding company.
However, the relative of the auditor may hold the securities or interest in the company of face value not exceeding of ₹ 1,00,000.

Conclusion: In the instant case BC & Co, will be disqualified for appointment as an auditor of MWF Ltd. as the relative of Mr. C i.e. partner of BC & Co., is holding the securities in MWF Ltd. which is exceeding the limit mentioned in provison to section 141(3)(d)(i).
However, in the second case, BC & Co. is eligible to be appointed as auditor, as relative may hold securities of face value upto ₹ 1 Lac.

Question 29.
M/s. ABC & Co. is an audit firm, having patterns CA. A, CA. B and CA. C. The firm has been offered the appointment as an auditor of XYZ Ltd. for the financial year 2020-21.
Mr. D, the relative of CA. A, is holding 25,000 shares (face value of ₹ 10 each) in XYZ Ltd. having market value of₹ Rs. 90,000. Are M/s. ABC & Co. qualified to be appointed as auditors of XYZ Ltd. (May 18 (4 Marks), MTP-May 20, RTP-Nov. 20]
Answer:
Disqualifications as to security:

  • As per section 141 (3) (d) (i) an auditor is disqualified to be appointed as an auditor if he, or his relative or partner holding any security of or interest in the company or its subsidiary, or of its holding or associate company or a subsidiary of such holding company.
  • However, the relative of the auditor may hold the securities or interest in the company of face value not exceeding of ₹ 1,00,000.

Conclusion: In the instant case ABC & Co, will be disqualified for appointment as an auditor of XYZ Ltd. as the relative of Mr. C i.e. partner of BC & Co., is holding the securities in XYZ Ltd. of face value of ₹ 2,50,000 which is exceeding the limit mentioned in proviso to section 141(3)(d)(i).

Question 30.
A, a chartered accountant has been appointed as auditor of Laxman Ltd. in the AGM of the company held in Sep. 2019, which assignment he accepted. Subsequently in January, 2018 he joined B, another chartered accountant, who is the Manager Finance of Laxman Ltd., as partner. [RTP-May 19]
Answer:
Disqualification as to partner of employee:

  • Section 141(3)(c) of the Companies Act, 2013 prescribes that any person who is a partner or in employment of an officer or employee of the company will be disqualified to act as an auditor of a company.
  • Sec. 141(4) provides that an auditor who becomes subject, after his appointment, to any of the disqualifications specified in Sec. 141 (3), he shall be deemed to have vacated his office as an auditor.

Conclusion: In the present case, A, an auditor of M/s Laxman Ltd., joined as partner with B, who is Manager Finance of M/s Laxman Limited, will be disqualified by Sec. 141 (3)(c) and, therefore, he shall be deemed to have vacated office of the auditor of M/s Laxman Limited.

Question 31.
An auditor purchased goods worth ₹ 501,500 on credit from a company being audited by him. The company allowed him one month’s credit, which it normally allowed to all known customers.
Answer:
Disqualification as to indebtedness:

  • Section 141(3)(d) of the Companies Act, 2013 specifies that a person shall be disqualified to act as an auditor if he is indebted to the company for an amount exceeding ₹ 5 Lacs.
  • Sec. 141(4) provides that a person appointed as auditor incurs any of the disqualification mentioned u/s 141(3) after his appointment, he shall vacate the office immediately and it will be treated a casual vacancy.
  • Where an auditor purchases goods or services from a company audited by him on credit, he is considered to be indebted to the company and in case the outstanding amount exceeds ₹ 5 Lacs, he is disqualified to be appointed as auditor of the company.
  • It does not make any difference if the company allows him the same credit period as it allows to other customers.

Conclusion: In instant case, auditor has become indebted to the company and consequently he has
deemed to have vacated his office.

The Company Audit – CA Inter Audit Notes

Question 32.
Ram and Hanuman Associates, Chartered Accountants in practice have been appointed as Statutory Auditor of Krishna Ltd. for the accounting year 2019-2020. Mr. Hanuman holds 100 equity shares of Shiva Ltd., a subsidiary company of Krishna Ltd.
Answer:
Auditor holding securities of a company:

  • As per Sec. 141 (3) (d) of the Companies Act, 2013, a person shall not be eligible for appointment as an auditor of a company, who, or his relative or partner is holding any security of or interest in the company or its subsidiary, or of its holding or associate company or a subsidiary of such holding company.
  • In the present case, Mr. Hanuman, Chartered Accountant, a partner of M/s Ram and Hanuman Associates, holds 100 equity shares of Shiva Ltd. which is a subsidiary of Krishna Ltd.

Conclusion: The firm, M/s Ram and Hanuman Associates would be disqualified to be appointed as statutory auditor of Krishna Ltd., which is the holding company of Shiva Ltd., because one of the partner Mr. Hanuman is holding equity shares of its subsidiary.

Question 33.
Mr. Amar, a Chartered Accountant, bought a car financed at ₹ 7,00,000 by Chaudhary Finance Ltd., which is a holding company of Charan Ltd. and Das Ltd. He has been the statutory auditor of Das Ltd. and continues to be even after taking the loan.
Answer:
Disqualification as to indebtedness:

  • As per Sec. 141(3)(cf)(;7) of the Companies Act, 2013, a person is not eligible for appointment as auditor of any company, If he is indebted to the company, or its subsidiary, or its holding or associate company or a subsidiary of such holding company, in excess of ₹ 5 Lacs.
  • In the given case Mr. Amar is disqualified to act as an auditor u/s 141(3)(d)(;7) as he is indebted to M/s Chaudhary Finance Ltd. for more than ₹ 5 Lacs.
  • Further he cannot act as an auditor of any subsidiary of Chaudhary Finance Ltd. i.e. he is also disqualified to work in Charan Ltd. & Das Ltd.
  • Further Sec. 141 (4) provides that a person appointed as auditor incurs any of the disqualification mentioned u/s 141(3) after his appointment, he shall vacate the office immediately and it will be treated a casual vacancy.

Conclusion: Mr. Amar should vacate his office immediately and Das Ltd. must have to appoint any other CA as an auditor of the company.

Question 34.
Praveen, a member of the ICAI, does not hold a Certificate of practice. Is his appointment as an auditor valid₹
Answer:
Qualifications of an Auditor:

  • As per Sec. 141(1) a person shall be qualified for appointment as an auditor of a company, only if he is a Chartered Accountant within the meaning of the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949.
  • Under the Chartered Accountants Act, 1949, only a Chartered Accountant holding the certificate of practice can engage in public practice.

Conclusion: Mr. Praveen does not hold a certificate of practice and hence cannot be appointed as an auditor of a company.

Question 35.
‘B’ owes ₹ 5,01,000 to ‘C’ Ltd., of which he is an auditor. Is his appointment valid₹ Will it make any difference, if the advance is taken for meeting-out travelling expenses₹
Answer:
Indebtedness to the Company:
As per Section 141 (3) (d) (ii) of the Companies Act, 2013, a person who, or his relative or partner is indebted to the company, or its subsidiary, or its holding or associate company, or a subsidiary of its holding company, for an amount exceeding ₹ 5 Lacs, then he is not qualified for appointment as an auditor of a company.

Even if the advance was taken for meeting out travelling expenses particularly before commencement of audit work, his appointment is not valid because in such a case also the auditor shall be indebted to the company. The auditor is entitled to recover fees on a progressive basis only.

Conclusion: B’s appointment is not valid and he is disqualified as the amount of debt exceeds ₹ 5,00,000.

Question 36.
Mr. Aditya, a practising chartered accountant is appointed as a “Tax Consultant” of ABC Ltd., in which his father Mr. Singhvi is the Managing Director.
Answer:
Appointment of relative as tax consultant:

  • Sec. 141(3)(f) of Companies Act, 2013 disqualifies a person to be appointed as auditor whose relative is a director or is in employment of the company as director or key managerial personnel.
  • However, no such disqualification is prescribed under the law for appointing a person as a tax consultant therefore sec. 141(3)(f) will not be attracted.

Conclusion: Mr. Aditya can be appointed as a tax consultant irrespective that his father is the managing director of the company.

The Company Audit – CA Inter Audit Notes

Question 37.
CA. P is providing the services of investment banking to C Ltd. Later on, he was also offered to be appointed as an auditor of the company for the current financial year. Advise. [RTP-May 18]
Answer:
Services not to be Rendered by the Auditor:
Section 144 of the Companies Act, 2013 prescribes certain services not to be rendered by the auditor. ‘ An auditor appointed under this Act shall provide to the company only such other services as are approved by the Board of Directors or the audit committee, as the case may be, but which shall not include any of the following services (whether such services are rendered directly or indirectly to the company or its holding company or subsidiary company), namely:

  1. accounting and book keeping services;
  2. internal audit;
  3. design and implementation of any financial information system;
  4. actuarial services;
  5. investment advisory services;
  6. investment banking services;
  7. rendering of outsourced financial services;
  8. management services; and
  9. any other kind of services as may be prescribed.

Further section 141(3)(i) of the Companies Act, 2013 also disqualify a person for appointment as an auditor of a company who is engaged as on the date of appointment in consulting and specialized services as provided in section 144.

In the given case, CA Innocent was appointed as an auditor of Contravene Ltd. He was offered additional services of actuarial, investment advisory and investment banking which was also approved by the Board of Directors.

Conclusion: The auditor is advised not to accept the services as these services are specifically notified in the services not to be rendered by him as an auditor as per section 144 of the Act.

Question 38.
Mr. Y was appointed as an auditor of PQR Ltd. for the year ended 31-3-2021 at the AGM held on 16-8-2020. Mr. Y has been indebted to the company for sum of ₹ 5,10,000 as on 1-4-2020, the opening date of accounting year which has been subject to his audit. However, Mr. Y having come to know that he might be appointed as auditor, he repaid the amount on 10-8-2020. One of the shareholders, complains that the appointment of Mr. Y as an auditor was invalid because he incurred disqualification u/s 141 of the Companies Act, 2013. Comment. [May 10 (6 Marks)]
Answer:
Relevant Date for determining Disqualification:

  • As per Sec. 141(3) (d) of the Companies Act, 2013, a person who is indebted to the company for an amount exceeding ₹ 5,00,000 shall be disqualified to act as an auditor of such company.
  • The relevant date for determining whether a person is disqualified or not is the date of appointment. Hence, if a person has liquidated his debt before the appointment date, there is no disqualification to be construed for such appointment.
  • In the given case, Mr. Y was appointment as an auditor of PQR Ltd. for the year ended 31-3-2021 at the AGM held on 16-8-2020. He repaid the loan amount fully to the company on 10-8-2020 i.e. before the date of his appointment.

Conclusion:
The appointment of Mr. Y as an auditor is valid and the shareholder’s complaint is not acceptable.

Question 39.
Comment on the following: Sri & Company, a firm of Chartered Accountants was appointed as statutory auditors of Aaradhana Company Ltd. Aaradhana Company Ltd. holds 51% shares in Sarang Company Ltd. Mr. Sri, one of the partners of Sri & Company, owed ₹ 1,500 as on the date of appointment to Sarang Company Ltd. for goods purchased in normal course of business. [Nov. 10 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Disqualification as to indebtedness:
As per Section 141[3](d)(ii) of the Companies Act, 2013, a person who, or his relative or partner is indebted to the company, or its subsidiary, or its holding or associate company, or a subsidiary of its holding company, for an amount exceeding ₹ 5,00,000 then he is not qualified for appointment as an auditor of a company.

Conclusion: Mr Sri is not disqualified to be appointed as auditor of the company as he is indebted to the company for an amount not exceeding ₹ 5,00,000, consequently, Sri & Co., is not disqualified to be appointed as an auditor of Aaradhana Company Ltd.

Question 40.
M/s RM & Co. is an audit firm having partners CA. R and CA. M. The firm has been offered the ap-pointment as an auditor of Enn Ltd. for the Financial Year 2020-21. Mr. Bee, the relative of CA. R, is holding 5,000 shares (face value of₹ 10 each) in Enn Ltd. having market value of₹ 1,50,000. One of the shareholders, complains that the appointment of RM & Co. as an auditor is invalid because it incurred disqualification u/s 141 of the Companies Act, 2013. Analyse and advise. [MTP-March 18, RTP-May 18]
Answer:
Disqualification u/s 141(3)(d):
1. Section 141(3)(d)(i) of Companies Act, 2013 provides that a person shall not be eligible for appointment as an auditor of a company, who, or his relative or partner is holding any security of or interest in the company or its subsidiary, or of its holding or associate company or a subsidiary of such holding company. However, as per proviso to this section, the relative of the person may hold the securities or interest in the company of face value not exceeding of ₹ 1,00,000.

2. In the instant case, M/s RM & Co. is an audit firm having partners CA. R and CA. M. Mr. Bee is a relative of CA. Rand he is holding shares of Enn Ltd. of face value of₹ 50,000 only (5,000 shares × ₹ 10 per share).

Conclusion: M/s RM & Co. is not disqualified for appointment as an auditor of Enn Ltd. as the relative of CA. R (i.e. partner of M/s RM & Co.) is holding the securities in Enn Ltd. which is within the limit mentioned in proviso to section 141(3)(d)(i) of the Companies Act, 2013.

The Company Audit – CA Inter Audit Notes

Question 41.
RGS & Co. a firm of Chartered Accountants has three partners, namely, R, G & S. The firm is allotted the audit of BY Ltd. R, partner in the firm subsequently holds 100 shares in BY Ltd. Comment. [MTP-Oct. 18]
Answer:
Disqualification u/s 141(3)(d):
1. As per Sec. 141(3)(d) of Companies Act, 2013 read with Rule 10 of the Companies (Audit and Auditors) Rules, 2014, a person who, or his relative or partner is holding any security of or interest in the company or its subsidiary, or of its holding or associate company or a subsidiary of such holding company, shall not be eligible for appointment as an auditor of a company However, a relative may hold security or interest in the company of face value not exceeding ₹1 lakh.

2. Sec. 141(4) provides that where a person appointed as an auditor of a company incurs any of the disqualifications mentioned in Sec. 141(3) after his appointment, he shall vacate his office as such auditor and such vacation shall be deemed to be a casual vacancy in the office of the auditor.

3. In the instant case, RGS & Co. a firm of Chartered Accountants has three partners, namely, R, G & S. The firm is allotted the audit of BY Ltd. R, partner in the firm subsequently holds 100 shares in BY Ltd.

Conclusion: Applying the provisions of Sec. 141(3)(GQ and Sec. 141(4), it may be concluded that Firm of RGS, Chartered Accountants is not eligible to continue as auditors. Firm shall vacate its office as auditor and such vacation shall be treated as casual vacancy.

Question 42.
“CA. NM who is rendering management consultancy service to LA Ltd. wants to accept offer letter for appointment as an auditor of the LA Ltd. for the next financial year.” Discuss with reference to the provision of the Companies Act, 2013. [Nov. 18 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Disqualification u/s 141(3)(i):

  • Section 141 (3)(i) of Companies Act, 2013 provides that a person who directly or indirectly renders any service referred to in Sec. 144 to the company or its holding company or its subsidiary company shall not be eligible for appointment as an auditor of that company.
  • Sec. 144 of Companies Act, 2013 provides the list of services which an auditor of the company cannot render, directly or indirectly to the company, its holding or subsidiary company. Management services is included in the list of services prescribed under section 144.
  • In the instant case, CA. NM who is rendering management consultancy service to LA Ltd. wants to accept offer letter for appointment as an auditor of the LA Ltd. for the next financial year.

Conclusion:
CANM is disqualified by virtue of provisions of Sec. 141(3)(z) of Companies Act, 2013. Hence, he is advised not to accept the appointment as auditor as long as he is rendering management consultancy services to the company.

Question 43.
“ABC & Co.” is an Audit Firm having partners “Mr. A”, “Mr. B” and “Mr. C”, Chartered Accountants. “Mr. A”, “Mr. B” and “Mr. C” are holding appointment as an Auditor in 4,6 and 10 Companies respectively.
(i) Provide the maximum number of Audits remaining in the name of “ABC & Co.”
(ii) Provide the maximum number of Audits remaining in the name of individual partner i.e. Mr. A, Mr. B and Mr. C.
(iii) Can ABC & Co. accept the appointment as an auditor in 60 private companies having paid-up share capital less than ₹ 100 Cr., which has not committed default in filing its financial statements u/s 137 or annual return u/s 92 of Companies Act with the Registrar, 2 small companies and 1 dormant company?
(iv) Would your answer be different, if out of those 60 private companies, 45 companies are having paid-up share capital of ₹ 110 crore each? [MTP-Oct. 20]
Answer:
Ceiling on Number of Audit:
As per section 141(3) (g) of the Companies Act, 2013, a person shall not be eligible for appointment as an auditor if he is in full time employment elsewhere or a person or a partner of a firm holding appointment as its auditor, if such person or partner is at the date of such appointment or reappointment holding appointment as auditor of more than twenty companies;

As per section 141(3)(g), this limit of 20 company audits is per person. In the case of an audit firm having 3 partners, the overall ceiling will be 3 × 20 = 60 company audits. Sometimes, a chartered accountant is a partner in a number of auditing firms. In such a case, all the firms in which he is partner or proprietor will be together entitled to 20 company audits on his account.

Conclusion:
(i) ABC & Co. can hold appointment as an auditor of 40 more companies as computed below:
Total Number of Audits available to the Firm = 20 × 3 = 60
Number of Audits already taken by all the partners in their individual capacity = 4 + 6 + 10 = 20
Remaining number of Audits available to the Firm = 40

(ii) Mr. A can hold: 20 – 4 = 16 more audits.
Mr. B can hold 20 – 6 = 14 more audits and
Mr. C can hold 20 – 10 = 10 more audits.

(iii) ABC & Co. can hold appointment as an auditor in all the 60 private companies having paid-up share capital less than ₹ 100 crore, 2 small companies and 1 dormant company as these are excluded from the ceiling limit of company audits given under section 141 (3) (g) of the Companies Act, 2013.

(iv) ABC & Co. can accept the appointment as an auditor for 2 small companies, 1 dormant company, 15 private companies having paid-up share capital less than ₹ 100 crore, and 40 private companies having paid-up share capital of ₹ 110 crore each in addition to above 20 company audits already holding.

Question 44.
K8C & Co. a firm of Chartered Accountants has three partners, K, B & C; K is also in whole time employment elsewhere. The firm is offered the audit of ABC Ltd. and is already holding audit of 40 companies. Comment
Answer:
Ceiling on Number of Company Audits:

  • As per section 141(3) (g) of the Companies Act, 2013, a person shall not be eligible for appointment as an auditor if he is in full time employment elsewhere or a person or a partner of a firm holding appointment as its auditor, if such person or partner is at the date of such appointment or reappointment holding appointment as auditor of more than twenty companies, other than one person company, dormant companies, small companies and private companies having paid up capital less then 100 Crores.
  • In the firm of KBC & Co., K is in whole-time employment elsewhere, therefore, he will be excluded in determining the number of company audits that the firm can hold.
  • If B and C do not hold any audits in their personal capacity or as partners of other firms, the total number of company audits that can be accepted by KBC & Co., is forty, and in the given case company is already holding forty audits.

Conclusion: KBC & Co. can’t accept the offer for audit of ABC Ltd.

The Company Audit – CA Inter Audit Notes

Question 45.
PBS & Associates, a firm of Chartered Accountants, has three partners P, B and S. The firm is already having audit of 45 companies. The firm is offered 20 company audits. Decide and advise whether PBS & Associates will exceed the ceiling prescribed under Section 141(3)(g) of the Companies Act, 2013 by accepting the above audit assignments?
Answer:
Ceiling on Number of Company Audits:

  • As per section 141(3)(g) of the Companies Act, 2013, a person shall not be eligible for appointment as an auditor if he is in full time employment elsewhere or a person or a partner of a firm holding appointment as its auditor, if such person or partner is at the date of such appointment or reappointment holding appointment as auditor of more than twenty companies, other than one person company, dormant companies, small companies and private companies having paid up capital less than 100 Crores. which has not committed default in filing its financial statements u/s 137 or annual return u/s92 of Companies Act with the Registrar.
  • In the case of firm of auditors, it has been further provided that specified number of companies shall be construed as the number of companies specified for every partner of the firm who is not in full time employment elsewhere.
  • In the firm of PBS & Associates, the overall ceiling will be 3 × 20 = 60 company audits.
  • Assuming that the partners, P, B & S do not hold any audits in their personal capacity or as partners of other firms, the total number of company audits that can be accepted by PBS & Associates is sixty, and in the given case company is already holding forty five audits.

Conclusion: PBS & Associates can accept offer of audit of 15 Companies.

Question 46.
Discuss on the following: Ceiling on number of audit in a company to be accepted by an auditor. [Nov. 12 (5 Marks)]
Or
What are the provisions prescribed under Companies Act, 2013 in respect of ceiling on number of audits in a company to be accepted by an auditor? [MTP-April 19]
Or
What are the provisions prescribed under companies Act, 2013 in respect of ceiling on number of audits in a company to be accepted by an auditor? [MTP-April 19]
Answer:
Ceiling on number of audit;
1. Section 141(3)(g) of Companies Act, 2013 provides that a person is not eligible to be appointed as auditor of a company if he is in full time employment elsewhere or a person or a partner of a firm holding appointment as its auditor, if such persons or partner is at the date of such appointment or reappointment holding appointment as auditor of more than 20 Companies other than one person company, dormant companies, small companies and private companies having paid up share capital less than 100 Crores, which has not committed default in filing its financial statements u/s 13 7 or annual return u/s 92 of Companies Act with the Registrar.

2. In the case of firm of auditors, it has been further provided that specified number of companies shall be construed as the number of companies specified for every partner of the firm who is not in full time employment elsewhere.

3. Where any partner of the firm is also a partner of any other firm or firms of auditors, the number of companies which may be taken into account, by all the firms together, in relation to such partner shall not exceed the specified number, in the aggregate.

4. Where any partner of a firm of auditors is also holding office, in his individual capacity, as the auditor of one or more companies, the number of companies which may be taken into account in his case shall not exceed the specified number, in the aggregate.

Question 47.
“The remuneration of the auditor of a company shall be fixed in its general meeting or in such manner as may be determined therein.” Explain with reference to provisions of the Companies Act, 2013. [MTP-Oct. 19]
Answer:
Remuneration of Auditors:
As per Sec. 142 of the Act, the remuneration of the auditor of a company shall be fixed in its general meeting or in such manner as may be determined therein. However, board may fix remuneration of the first auditor appointed by it.

Further, the remuneration, in addition to the fee payable to an auditor, includes the expenses, if any, incurred by the auditor in connection with the audit of the company and any facility extended to him but does not include any remuneration paid to him for any other service rendered by him at the request of the company.

Hence, it may be concluded that the remuneration to auditor shall also include any facility provided to him.

Question 48.
“Auditor of a company shall have a right of access to the books of account and vouchers of the company” Explain.
Answer:
Auditor’s Right of Access to Books of account and vouchers of the company:
Sec. 143(1)of Companies Act, 2013 provides that every auditor of a company shall have aright of access at all times to the books of account and vouchers of the company, whether kept at the registered office of the company or at any other place.

The term ‘books of account and vouchers’ includes all books which have any bearing or are likely to have any bearing on the accounts, whether these be the usual financial books or the statutory or statistical books. Similarly, the term ‘voucher’ includes all or any of the correspondence which may in any way serve to vouch for the accuracy of the accounts.

When the auditor is denied access to books, etc., his only remedy would be to report to the members that he could not obtain all the information and explanations he had required or considered necessary for the performance of his duties as auditors.

Question 49.
Explain Auditor’s right and duties in relation to-
(a) Report to the members of the company on the accounts examined by him [RTP-Nov. 19]
(b) Obtain information and explanation from officers. [RTP-Nov. 18]
Answer:
Auditor’s Right and Duties in relation to report on the accounts examined:
Sec. 143(2] of the Companies Act, 2013 provides that the auditor shall make a report to the members of the company on the following:

  • accounts examined by him and
  • on every financial statement which are required by or under this Act to be laid before the company in general meeting and

The Auditor’s Report shall state that to the best of his information and knowledge, the said accounts, financial statements give a true and fair view of the state of the company’s affairs as at the end of its financial year and profit or loss and cash flow for the year and such other matters as may be prescribed.

Auditor’s Right and Duties to Obtain information and explanation from officers:

  • Sec. 143(1] of the Companies Act, 2013 provides that every Auditor shall be entitled to require from the officers of the company such information and explanation as he may consider necessary for the performance of his duties as auditor.
  • As per Sec. 2(59] of Companies Act, 2013, the term ‘officer’ includes any director, manager or key managerial personnel or any person in accordance with whose directions or instructions the BOD or any one or more of the directors is or are accustomed to act.
  • When the auditor is not provided the information required by him or is denied access to books, etc., his only remedy would be to report to the members that he could not obtain all the information and explanations he had required or considered necessary for the performance of his duties as auditors.

Question 50.
State the matters to be specified in Auditor’s Report in terms of provisions of Section 143(3) of the Companies Act, 2013.
Answer:
Matters to be specified in Auditor’s report in terms of provisions of Section 143(3):
Sec. 143(3) of Companies Act, 2013 requires that he auditor’s report shall also state the following:
(a) whether he has sought and obtained all the information and explanations which to the best of his knowledge and belief were necessary for the purpose of his audit and if not, the details thereof and the effect of such information on the financial statements;

(b) whether, in his opinion, proper books of account as required by law have been kept by the company so far as appears from his examination of those books and proper returns adequate for the purposes of his audit have been received from branches not visited by him;

(c) whether the report on the accounts of any branch office of the company audited u/s 143(8] by a person other than the company’s auditor has been sent to him under the proviso to that sub-section and the manner in which he has dealt with it in preparing his report;

(d) whether the company’s balance sheet and profit and loss account dealt with in the report are in agreement with the books of account and returns;

(e) whether, in his opinion, the financial statements comply with the accounting standards;

(f) the observations or comments of the auditors on financial transactions or matters which have any adverse effect on the functioning of the company;

(g) whether any director is disqualified from being appointed as a director under sub-section (2) of section 164;

(h) any qualification, reservation or adverse remark relating to the maintenance of accounts and other matters connected therewith;

(i) whether the company has adequate internal financial controls with reference to financial statements in place and the operating effectiveness of such controls;

(j) such other matters as may be prescribed.

The Company Audit – CA Inter Audit Notes

Question 51.
While conducting the audit of a limited company for the year ended 31st March, 2021, the auditor wanted to refer to the Minute Books. The Board of Directors refused to show the Minute Books to the auditor.
Or
During the audit of PQR Ltd. you as an auditor requested officers of the company to have access to secretarial records and correspondence which they refused to provide. Comment. [MTP-April 19]
Answer:
Right of Access to Books of Account:

  • Sec. 143(1) of the Companies Act, 2013 grants powers to the auditor that every auditor has a right of access, at all times, to the books of account and vouchers of the company.
  • The term books of account include all books which have any bearing or are likely to have any bearing on the accounts, whether these be the usual financial books or the statutory or statistical books.
  • In order to verify actions of the company and to vouch and verify some of the transactions of the company, it is necessary for the auditor to refer to the decisions of the shareholders and/ or the directors of the company.
  • It is, therefore, essential for the auditor to refer to the Minute Books. In the absence of the Minute Books, the auditor may not be able to vouch/verify certain transactions of the company.

Conclusion: In case the directors have refused to produce the Minute Books, the auditor may consider
extending the audit procedure as also consider qualifying his report in any appropriate manner.

Question 52.
The auditor of X Ltd. did not report on the matters, specified u/s 143(1) of the Companies Act, 2013, on which he inquired into, because of the reason that he was satisfied. But the management of the company wanted the auditor to report on those matters so that the members can also be aware of the true position of the company. Comment as to whether the auditor is required to report the matters, specified under the Act, he inquired into and whether the contention of the management is sustainable.
Answer:
Reporting of Matters contained under Section 143(1) of the Companies Act, 2013:
1. Sec. 143(1) of the Act deals with the duties of an auditor requiring him to make an inquiry in respect of specified propriety matters.

2. The matters in respect of which the inquiry has to be made by the auditor are relating to loans and advances on the basis of security, transactions represented merely by book entries, investments sold at less than cost price, loans and advances shown as deposits, personal expenses charged to revenue account etc.

3. The law requires the auditor to make an inquiry, the Research Committee of the Institute opined that the auditor is not required to report on these matters unless he has any special comments to make on any of the items referred to therein. If the auditor is satisfied as a result of the inquiries, he has no further duty to report that he is so satisfied.

4. Therefore, it could be said that the auditor should make a report to the members in case he finds answer to any of these matters in adverse,

Conclusion: The auditor of X Ltd. is correct in non-reporting on the matters specified in Sec. 143(1) of the Act and hence, the contention of the management is not sustainable.

Question 53.
“Travelling expenses of ₹ 2.25 lakhs shown in Statement of Profit and Loss of X Ltd., including a sum of₹ 1.10 lakhs spent by a Director on his foreign travel for company’s business accompanied by his mother for her medical treatment”. Comment.
Answer:
Personal Expenses of Directors

  • All payments to Directors as remuneration or perquisites whether in the case of a public or private company need to be authorised in accordance with the Companies Act as well as Articles of Association of the company.
  • If the terms of appointment of a Director include payment of expenses of a personal nature, then such expenses can be incurred by the company; otherwise, no such expense can be incurred or reimbursed by the company.
  • In the instant case the auditor has to ensure that the payment made by the company towards foreign travel of Director’s mother is covered by terms of appointment or approved by the company in general meeting.
  • This payment is also covered u/s 143(1), and hence auditor is required to inquire into the matter and make a disclosure in his report accordingly.

Question 54.
M/s XYZ & Co., auditors of Goodwill Education Foundation, a recognised non-profit organisation feels that the standards on auditing need not to be applied as Goodwill Education Foundation is a non-profit making concern.
Answer:
Compliance with Standards on Auditing;

  • As per Sec. 143(9) of the Companies Act, 2013, every auditor shall comply with the auditing standards. Further as per Sec. 143(10), the Central Government may prescribe the standards of auditing or any addendum thereto, as recommended by the ICAI, in consultation with and after examination of the recommendations made by the NFRA.
  • However, until any auditing standards are notified, standards of auditing specified by the ICAI shall be deemed to be the auditing standards.
  • Further, the Preface to Standards on Auditing requires that while discharging their attest function; it is the duty of the Chartered Accountant to ensure that SAs are followed in the audit of financial information covered by their audit reports.

Conclusion: In the given case, even though the client is a non-profit oriented entity the SAs shall apply and the auditor is required to ensure their compliance. In case he fails to discharge his duty he shall be guilty of professional misconduct.

Question 55.
An auditor became aware of a matter regarding a company, only after he had issued his audit opinion. Had he become aware of the same prior to his issuing the audit report, he would have issued a different opinion.
Answer:
Auditor’s duties w.r.t. subsequent events:

  • Sec. 146 of the Companies Act, 2013 requires the auditors of a company to attend the general meeting of the company unless otherwise exempted by the company.
  • Auditor shall have the right to be heard at such meeting on any part of the business which concerns him as auditors.
  • The discovery of a fact after issuance of the financial statements that existed at the date of the audit report which would have caused the revision of the audit report, requires the auditor to bring this to the notice of shareholders.
  • Further SA 560 “Subsequent Event” also prescribes the procedures which the auditor is required to perform.

Conclusion: It will be advisable for the auditor to attend the meeting with a view to bringing to the notice of the shareholders the matter which came to his knowledge subsequent to his signing the report and perform procedures are per the requirement of SA 560.

Question 56.
Y, is the auditor of X Pvt. Ltd. In which there are four shareholders only, who are also the Directors of the company. On account of bad trade and for reducing the expenses in all directions, the directors asked Y to accept a reduced fee and for that he has been offered not to carry out such full audit as he has done in the past. Y accepted the suggestions of the directors.
Answer:
Restricting Scope of Audit:

  • Auditor’s duties are governed by the provisions of Sec. 143 of Companies Act, 2013, which can not be restricted either by the director or even by the entire body of shareholders.
  • Further, remuneration is a matter of arrangement between the auditor and the shareholders. Section 142 specifies the remuneration of an auditor, shall be fixed by the company in general meeting or in such manner as the company in general meeting may determine.
  • Duties of auditor may not necessarily commensurate with his remuneration.

Conclusion: Y, should not accept the suggestions of the directors regarding the scope of the work to be done. If he accepts the suggestions of the directors regarding the scope of work to be done, it would not reduce his responsibility as an auditor under the law and he will be violating the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013.

Question 57.
At the Annual General Meeting of the Company, a resolution was passed by the entire body of shareholders restricting some of the powers of the Statutory Auditors. Whether powers of the Statutory Auditors can be restricted₹
Answer:
Restrictions on Powers of Statutory Auditors:
Section 143 of the Companies Act, 2013 provides that an auditor of a company shall have right of access at all times to the books and account and vouchers of the company whether kept at the Head Office or other places and shall be entitled to require from the offices of the company such information and explanations as the auditor may think necessary for the purpose of his audit.

These specific rights have been conferred by the statute on the auditor to enable him to carry out his duties and responsibilities prescribed under the Act, which cannot be restricted or abridged in any manner.

Further it was held in the case of Newton v. Birmingham Small Arms Co. that any resolution even if passed by entire body of shareholders which preclude the auditors from availing themselves of all the information for which they are entitled to under the Company Law are inconsistent with the Act and therefore null and void.

Conclusion: Any resolution restricting the scope of statutory right of auditor even if passed by entire body of shareholders is ultra virus and therefore void.

Question 58.
Mr. Rajendra, a fellow member of the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India, working as Manager of Shrivastav and Co., a Chartered Accountant firm, signed the audit report of Ora Ltd. on behalf of Shrivastav & Co.
Answer:
Signature on Audit Report:
Section 145 of the Companies Act, 2013 requires that the person appointed as an auditor of the company shall sign the auditor’s report or sign or certify any other document of the company in accordance with the provisions of Sec. 141(2), i.e. where a firm including a LLP is appointed as an auditor of a company, only the partners who are CAs shall be authorized to act and sign on behalf of the firm.

In the present case, Mr. Rajendra, a fellow member of the Institute and a manager of M/s Shrivastav & Co., Chartered Accountants, cannot sign on behalf of the firm in view of the specific requirements of the Companies Act, 2013. If any auditor’s report or any document of the company is signed or authenticated otherwise than in conformity with the requirements of Section 145, the auditor concerned and the person, if any, other than the auditor who signs the report or signs or authenticates the document shall, if the default is will ful, be punishable with a fine.

Question 59.
The members of C. Ltd. preferred a complaint against the auditor stating that he has failed to send the auditors report to them.
Answer:
Dispatch of Auditor’s Report to Shareholders:

  • Section 143 of the Companies Act, 2013 lays down the powers and duties of auditor. As per provisions of the law, it is no part of the auditor’s duty to send a copy of his report to members of the company.
  • The auditor’s duty concludes once he forwards his report to the company. It is the responsibility of company to send the report to every member of the company.
  • In case of Allen Graig and Company (London) Ltd., it was held that duty of the auditor after having signed the report to be annexed to a balance sheet is confined only to forwarding that report to the secretary of the company. It will be for the secretary or the director to convene a general meeting and send the balance sheet and report to the members (or other person) entitled to receive it.

Conclusion: Auditor cannot be held liable for the failure to send the report to the shareholders.

Question 60.
One of the directors of Hitech Ltd. is attracted by the disqualification under Section 164(2) of the Companies Act, 2013.
Answer:
Disqualification of a Director under section 164(2) of the Companies Act, 2013:

  • Section 143(3)(g) of the Companies Act, 2013 imposes a specific duty on the auditor to report whether any director is disqualified from being appointed as directors under section 164(2) of the Companies Act, 2013.
  • The auditor has to ensure that written representation have been obtained by the Board from each director that one is not hit by Section 164(2).

Conclusion: In this case, one of the director is attracted by disqualification u/s 164(2) of the Act, the auditor shall state in his report as per Sec. 143 about the disqualification of the particular director.

Question 61.
The Board of Directors of a company have filed a complaint with the 1CA1 against their statutory auditors for their failing to attend the AGM of the Shareholders in which audited accounts were considered.
Answer:
Auditor’s Attendance at Annual General Meeting:
♦ Section 146 of the Companies Act, 2013 requires the auditor of a company to attend either by himself or through his qualified authorised representative to attend the general meeting, unless exempted.

♦ The said section provides that all notices and other communications relating to any general meeting of a company shall also be forwarded to the auditor.

♦ Further, it has been provided that the auditor shall have right to be heard at such meeting on any part of the business which concerns him as an auditor.

Conclusion:
Complaint filed by the Board of Directors is valid if the auditor was not being exempted by the company.

The Company Audit – CA Inter Audit Notes

Question 62.
Mr. X, a Director of M/s KP Private Ltd., is also a Director of another company viz., M/s GP Private Ltd., which has not filed the financial statements and annual return for last three years 2018-19 to 2020-21. Mr. X is of the opinion that he is not disqualified u/s 164(2) of the Companies Act, 2013, and auditor should not mention disqualification remark in his audit report.
Answer:
Disqualification of a Director under section 164(2) of the Companies Act, 2013:
1. Section 143(3)(g) of the Companies Act, 2013 imposes a specific duty on the auditor to report whether any director is disqualified from being appointed as director u/s 164(2) of the Companies Act, 2013.

2. As per provisions of Section 164(2), if a director is already holding a directorship of a company which has not filed the financial statements or annual returns for any continuous period of 3 financial years shall not be eligible to be reappointed as a director of that company or appointed in other company for a period of five years from the date on which the said company fails to do so.

Conclusion: In this case, Mr. X is a director of M/s KP Private Ltd. as well as of M/s GP Private Ltd., And, M/s GP Private Ltd., has not filed the financial statements and annual return for last three years. Hence the provisions of section 164(2) are applicable to him and as such he is disqualified from directorship of both the companies. Therefore, the auditor shall report about the disqualification u/s 143(3)(g) of the Companies Act, 2013.

Question 63.
Comment: Contravene Ltd. appointed CA Innocent as an auditor for the company for the current financial year. Further the company offered him the services of actuarial, investment advisory and investment banking which was also approved by the Board of Directors.
Answer:
Services not to be Rendered by the Auditor:
Section 144 of the Companies Act, 2013 prescribes certain services not to be rendered by the auditor. An auditor appointed under this Act shall provide to the company only such other services as are approved by the Board of Directors or the audit committee, as the case may be, but which shall not include any of the following services (whether such services are rendered directly or indirectly to the company or its holding company or subsidiary company), namely:

  • accounting and book keeping services;
  • internal audit;
  • design and implementation of any financial information system;
  • actuarial services;
  • investment advisory services;
  • investment banking services;
  • rendering of outsourced financial services;
  • management services; and
  • any other kind of services as may be prescribed.

Further section 141(3)(i) of the Companies Act, 2013 also disqualify a person for appointment as an auditor of a company who is engaged as on the date of appointment in consulting and specialized services as provided in section 144.

In the given case, CA Innocent was appointed as an auditor of Contravene Ltd. H e was offered additional services of actuarial, investment advisory and investment banking which was also approved by the Board of Directors.

Conclusion: The auditor is advised not to accept the services as these services are specifically notified in the services not to be rendered by him as an auditor as per section 144 of the Act.

Question 64.
Mr. Budiha, Statutory AuiJitors of Secret Ltd. was not permitted by the Board of Directors to attend general meeting of the company on the ground that his right to attend general meetings is restricted only to those meetings at which the accounts audited by him are to be presented and discussed.
Answer:
Auditor’s Attendance at Annual General Meeting:

  • Section 146 of the Companies Act, 2013 requires the auditor of a company to attend either by himself or through his qualified authorised representative to attend the general meeting, unless exempted.
  • The said section provides that all notices and other communications relating to any general meeting of a company shall also be forwarded to the auditor.
  • Further, it has been provided that the auditor shall, have right to be heard at such meeting on any part of the business which concerns him as an auditor.
  • In the present case Mr. Budha, Statutory Auditors of Secret Ltd. was not permitted by the Board of Directors to attend general meeting of the company on the ground that his right to attend general meetings is restricted only to those meetings at which the accounts audited by him are to be presented and discussed.

Conclusion: Action of Board of Directors is contrary to the provisions of Section 146 as auditor’s
duties and rights with respect of general meetings are extended to ali general meetings.

Question 65.
Explain the auditor’s duties with respect to reporting over fraud under Companies Act, 2013.
Or
Mr. A is appointed as statutory auditor of a company for the financial year ended 31st March, 2019. During the course of audit, it was found that few doubtful transactions had been committed by finance manager who retired in March, 2019. The fraud was going on since last 3 years and the total amount misappropriated exceeding ₹ 100 lakhs. As a statutory auditor, what would be reporting responsibilities of Mr. A? [May 18 (5 Marks}]
Answer:
Auditor’s duties to report fraud to the Central Government:
Section 143(12] of Companies Act, 2013 requires that if an auditor of a company in the course of the performance of his duties as auditor, has reason to believe that an offence of fraud involving such amount or amounts as may be prescribed, is being or has been committed in the company by its officers or employees, the auditor shall report the matter to the Central Government within such time and in such manner as may be prescribed. For this purpose, Rule 13 prescribes the amount of ₹ 1 Cr. or more.

However, in case of a fraud involving lesser than the specified amount, i.e. below ₹ 1 Cr., the auditor shall report the matter to the audit committee constituted u/s 177 or to the Board in other cases within such time and in such manner as may be prescribed:

The companies, whose auditors have reported frauds to the audit committee or the Board but not reported to the Central Government, shall disclose the details about such frauds in the Board’s report in such manner as may be prescribed.

Rulel3 of Companies (Audit and Auditors) Rules, 2014 prescribes the manner of Reporting of Frauds in various cases.

Question 66.
Explain the manner of Reporting of fraud under Companies Act, 2013
Answer:
Manner of Reporting of Fraud:
Rulel3 of Companies (Audit and Auditors] Rules, 2014 prescribes the manner of Reporting of Frauds as below:
1. If an auditor of a company, in the course of the performance of his duties as statutory auditor, has reason to believe that an offence of fraud, which involves or is expected to involve individually an amount of ₹ 1 Cr. or above, is being or has been committed against the company by its officers or employees, the auditor shall report the matter to the CG.

2. The auditor shall report the matter to the CG as under:
(a) the auditor shall report the matter to the Board or the Audit Committee, as the case may be, immediately but not later than 2 days of his knowledge of the fraud, seeking their reply or observations within 45 days;

(b) on receipt of such reply or observations, the auditor shall forward his report and the reply or observations of the Board or the Audit Committee along with his comments (on such reply or observations of the Board or the Audit Committee) to the CG within 15 days from the date of receipt of such reply or observations;

(c) in case the auditor fails to getany reply or observations from the Board or the Audit Committee within the stipulated period of 45 days, he shall forward his report to the CG along with a note containing the details of his report that was earlier forwarded to the Board or the Audit Committee for which he has not received any reply or observations;

(d) the report shall be sent to the Secretary, Ministry of Corporate Affairs in a sealed cover by Registered Post with Acknowledgement Due or by Speed Post followed by an e-mail in confirmation of the same;

(e) the report shall be on the letter-head of the auditor containing postal address, e-mail address and contact telephone number or mobile number and be signed by the auditor with his seal and shall indicate his Membership Number; and

[f] the report shall be in the form of a statement as specified in Form ADT-4.

3. In case of a fraud involving amount less than ₹ 1 Cr., the auditor shall report the matter to Audit Committee constituted u/s 177 or to the Board immediately but not later than 2 days of his knowledge of the fraud and he shall report the matter specifying the following:
(a) Nature of Fraud with description;
(b) Approximate amount involved; and
(c) Parties involved.

4. The following details of each of the fraud reported to the Audit Committee or the Board under sub-rule (3) during the year shall be disclosed in the Board’s Report:
(a) Nature of Fraud with description;
(b) Approximate Amount involved;
(c) Parties involved, if remedial action not taken; and
(d) Remedial actions taken.

The Company Audit – CA Inter Audit Notes

Question 67.
Explain the term “Auditor’s Lien”. [Nov. 12 (4 Marks)]
Or
Though legally auditor may exercise right of Lien in case of companies, it is mostly impracticable for legal and practicable constraints. Do you agree₹ [May 19 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Auditor’s Lien:

  • Lien refers to the right of a person for lawful possession of somebody’s else property on which he has worked. Right of lien is exercised for non-payment of his dues for the work done.
  • The auditor can exercise right of lien on the client’s books and documents in his possession for non-payment of fees by the client, for the work done on the books and documents.
  • In respect of auditor exercising the lien, The institute of Chartered Accountants of England and Wales has expressed a similar view subject to the following conditions:
    • Documents must belong to the client who owes the money,
    • These documents must come to the possession of the auditor on the client’s authority.
    • The auditor can retain such documents, only if he has done work on such documents, on which fees have not been paid.

In view of the conditions as stated above, it appears that though legally auditor may exercise right of Lien in case of companies, it is mostly impracticable for legal and practicable constraints.

It is to be noted in this regard that Ethical Standard Board of ICAI held that a chartered accountant cannot exercise lien over the client documents/records for non-payment of his fees.

Question 68.
State the services which are not to be rendered by an auditor as per the provisions of Companies Act, 2013. [Nov. 16 (6 Marks)]
Answer:
Services not to be Rendered by the Auditor:
Section 144 of the Companies Act, 2013 prescribes certain services not to be rendered by the auditor. An auditor appointed under this Act shall provide to the company only such other services as are approved by the Board of Directors or the audit committee, as the case may be, but which shall not include any of the following services (whether such services are rendered directly or indirectly to the company or its holding company or subsidiary company), namely:

  • accounting and book keeping services;
  • internal audit;
  • design and implementation of any financial information system;
  • actuarial services;
  • investment advisory services;
  • investment banking services;
  • rendering of outsourced financial services;
  • management services; and
  • any other kind of services as may be prescribed.

Question 69.
Write short note on: Audit enquiry w.r.t. Companies Act, 2013. [Nov. 16 (4 Marks)]
Or
The auditor is not required to report on the matters specified in sub-section (1) of Section 143 unless he has any special comments to make on any of the items referred to therein. If he is satisfied as a result of the inquiries, he has no further duty to report that he is so satisfied. Explain clearly stating the matters for which the auditor has to perform his duty of inquiry under this section. [MTP-Aug. 18]
Or
Explain the duties of Auditor to inquire under Section 143(1) of the Companies Act, 2013. [RTP-Nov. 18]
Or
The auditor has to make inquires on certain matters under section 143(1) of Companies Act, 2013. Discuss those matters. [MTP-Oct, 20]
Answer:
Audit Inquiry u/s 143(1):
Section 143(1) of Companies Act, 2013 provides that amongst other matters, auditor is required to
inquire into the following matters, namely:
(a) whether loans and advances made by the company on the basis of security have been properly secured and whether the terms on which they have been made are prejudicial to the interests of the company or its members;
(b) whether transactions of the company which are represented merely by book entries are prejudicial to the interests of the company;
(c) where the company not being an investment company or a banking company, whether so much of the assets of the company as consist of shares, debentures and other securities have been sold at a price less than that at which they were purchased by the company;
(d) whether loans and advances made by the company have been shown as deposits;
(e) whether personal expenses have been charged to revenue account;
(f) where it is stated in the books and documents of the company that any shares have been allotted for cash, whether cash has actually been received in respect of such allotment, and if no cash has actually been so received, whether the position as stated in the account books and the balance sheet is correct, regular and not misleading.

Note: In the opinion of Research Committee of the ICAI, reporting in these matters is required only if the auditor finds answer to any of these matters in adverse.

Question 70.
Auditors have right to attend only those general meeting at which the accounts audited by them are to be discussed. Comment. [May 19 (3 Marks)]
Answer: Auditor’s right as to attend general meetings:
1. Sec. 146 of Companies Act, 2013 provides that all notices of, and other communications relating to, any general meeting shall be forwarded to the auditor of the company, and the auditor shall, unless otherwise exempted by the company, attend either by himself or through his authorised representative, who shall also be qualified to be an auditor, any general meeting and shall have right to be heard at such meeting on any part of the business which concerns him as the auditor.

2. Sec. 146 states that auditor is required to attend, either by himself or through his authorised representative any general meeting of the company. Hence the statement that auditors have right to attend only those general meeting at which the accounts audited by them are to be discussed does not seems to be correct.

Note: From the language of the provisions of Sec. 146, it appears thatto attend general meeting is auditor’s duty, not his right. Auditor has a right to be heard at such meeting on any part of the business which concerns him as the auditor.

Question 71.
According to Companies Act, 2013, the person appointed as an auditor of the company shall sign the auditor’s report in accordance with the relevant provisions of the Act. Explain clearly the relevant provisions relating to signing of report. [RTP-Nov. 19]
Answer:
Signing of Audit Report:

  • As per section 145 of the Companies Act, 2013, the person appointed as an auditor of the company shall sign the auditor’s report or sign or certify any other document of the company, in accordance with the provisions of section 141(2).
  • Section 141(2) of the Companies Act, 2013 states that where a firm including a limited liability partnership is appointed as an auditor of a company, only the partners who are chartered accountants shall be authorised to act and sign on behalf of the firm.
  • The qualifications, observations or comments on financial transactions or matters, which have any adverse effect on the functioning of the company mentioned in the auditor’s report shai! be read before the company in general meeting,

Question 72.
The head accountant of a company entered fake invoices of credit purchases in the books of account i aggregate of ₹ 50 lakh and cleared all the payments to such bogus creditor. How will you deal as an auditor? [RTP-May 20]
Answer:
Reporting of Fraud:

  • As per requirement of Sec. 143[12] of Companies Act, 2013 read with Rule 13 of Companies (Audit and Auditor’s] Rules, 2 014, the auditor of the company is required to report the fraudulent activity to the Board or Audit Committee (as the case may be] within 2 days of his knowledge of fraud.
  • Company is also required to disclose the same in Board’s Report.
  • It may be noted that the auditor need not to report the Central Government as the amount of fraud involved is less than ₹ 1 crore, however, reporting under CARO, 2016 is required.

Question 73.
Examine the applicability of CARO, 2020 in the below mentioned cases:
(a) Educating Child is a limited company registered under section 8 of the Companies Act, 2013.
(b) Ashu Pvt. Ltd. having paid capital and reserves of ₹ 50 lakh. During the year, the company had borrowed ₹ 70 lakh each from a bank and a financial institution independently. Turnover for the year was ₹ 900 lakh.
Answer:
Applicability of CARO, 2020
CARO, 2020 shall apply to every company including a foreign company as defined in Sec. 2(42] of the Companies Act, 2013, except:

  • a banking company;
  • n insurance company;
  • a company licensed to operate u/s 8 of the Companies Act;
  • a One Person Company as defined in Sec. 2(62) of the Companies Act and a Small Company as defined in Sec. 2(85) of the Companies Act; and
  • a private limited company, not being a subsidiary or holding of a public company,
    • having a Paid up capital & Reserves & Surplus not more than ₹ 1 Cr. as on the balance sheet date, and
    • which does not have total borrowings exceeding ₹ 1 Cr. from any bank or financial institution at any point of time during the financial year, and
    • which does not have a total revenue as disclosed in Schedule III to the Companies Act, 2013 (including revenue from discontinuing operations) exceeding ₹ 10 Cr. during the financial year as per the financial statements.

Conclusion: (a] CARO, 2020 is not applicable in case of Educating Child as it is registered under section 8 of the Companies Act, 2013 (b] In case of Ashu Pvt. Ltd., CARO, 2020 is applicable as borrowings in aggregate exceeds ₹ lCr.

The Company Audit – CA Inter Audit Notes

Question 74.
Write short note on: Reporting requirement under CARO, 2020 w.r.t. physical verification of Property, Plant and Equipment.
Answer:
Reporting requirement under CARO w.r.t. Physical Verification of Property, Plant and Equipment:
1. Para 3 of CARO 2020 requires the auditor to comment “Whether the Property, Plant and Equipment have been physically verified by the management at reasonable intervals; whether any material discrepancies were noticed on such verification and if so, whether the same have been properly dealt with in the books of account.

2. The term “Reasonable Intervals” has not been defined and hence depends upon the circumstances of each case considering the number of assets, nature of assets, relative value of assets, difficulty in verifications, situation of the assets etc.

3. The management may decide about the periodicity of physical verification of fixed assets, While an annual verification may be reasonable; it may be impracticable to carry out the same in some cases. In such cases the verification should be programmed in such manner that all assets are verified at least once in every three years.

4. Auditor is also required to obtain a written representation from management confirming that the fixed assets are physically verified by the management in accordance with the policy of the company. The representation should mention the periodicity of the physical verification, details of the material discrepancies noticed during the physical verification. If no discrepancies were noticed during the physical verification, the representation should also mention this fact clearly.

Question 75.
The company has dispensed with the practice of taking inventory of their inventories at the year- end as in their opinion the exercise is redundant, time consuming and intrusion to normal functioning of the operations. Explain reporting requirement under CARO, 2020.
Answer:
Reporting Requirements w.r.t. Inventory:
Para 3[ii] of CARO, 2020 requires the auditor to comment on the following:
(a) whether physical verification of inventory has been conducted at reasonable intervals by the management; and
(b) whether, in the opinion of the auditor, the coverage and procedure of such verification by the management is appropriate;
(c) whether any discrepancies of 10% or more in the aggregate for each class of inventory were noticed and if so, whether they have been properly dealt with in the books of account;

Question 76.
Comment: No cost accounting records are maintained though the company is required to maintain the same.
Answer:
Non-maintenance of Cost Records;

  • As per the CARO, 2020, where maintenance of cost records has been prescribed by the C. G., auditor of the company is specifically required to state whether such accounts and records as prescribed have been made and maintained.
  • Though the auditor is not required to conduct detailed audit but the auditor is expected to conduct a general review of the cost records to determine whether the prescribed accounts and records are prima facie complete.
  • Therefore, whether cost audit is ordered or not the auditor should report upon the non maintenance of the cost records.

Question 77.
Comment on the following: ABC Ltd. Has not deposited provident fund contributions of ₹ 20 lakhs to the authorities, but accounted in the books.
Answer:
Non-Deposit of Provident Fund Dues:

  • The auditor’s report under CARO, 2020 has to specifically state whether the company is regular in depositing undisputed statutory dues including PF with the appropriate authority and, if not, the extent of the arrears of outstanding statutory dues as at the last day of the FY year concerned for a period of more than six months from the date they became payable, shall be indicated by the auditor.
  • In this case, the failure of ABC Ltd. To deposit provident fund of ₹ 20 lakhs will be reported by the auditor as per CARO, 2020 issued u/s 143(11) of the Companies Act, 2013.
  • In indicating the arrears, the period to which the arrears relate should preferably be also given.

Question 78.
Comment on the following: XYZ (Pvt.) Ltd. has paid up capital and Reserves of ₹ 110 lacs and secured Loans of Nationalized Banks having sanctioned limit of ₹ 28 lacs and outstanding balance of₹ 23 lacs. The turnover of the company is 10.10 crores for the year ended 31-3-2021. Customer returns goods worth 40 lacs on 2-4-2021, out of sales made during the year ended 31-3-2021. The management is of the opinion that CARO is not applicable to the company. [May 10 (6 Marks)]
Answer:
Applicability of CARO:
CARO is not applicable to a private limited company:

  • having a paid up capital & Reserves & Surplus not more than ₹ 1 Cr. as on the balance sheet date, and
  • which does not have total borrowings exceeding ₹ 1 Cr. from any bank or financial institution at any point of time during the financial year, and
  • which does not have a total revenue as disclosed in Schedule III to the Companies Act, 2013 (including revenue from discontinuing operations) exceeding ₹ 10 Cr. during the financial year as per the financial statements.

In the given case, the paid up capital and reserves of XYZ (Private) Ltd. is ₹ 110 lacs. Outstanding loan amount is ₹ 23 lacs although sanction limit is ₹ 28 lacs. Company’s turnover is ₹ 10.10 crores.
Sales return are deducted from the turnover in the year in which return takes place.

Conclusion: Contention of the management that provision of CARO are not applicable over the company is not correct and the auditor is required to report on the matter specified in the said order.

Question 79.
On what companies the CARO, 2020 is applicable and what companies are not covered by it₹
Or
What is CARO? Explain the companies which are not covered by CARO. [Nov. 11 (8 Marks)]
Or
Write short note on: Companies not covered under CARO [Nov. 14 (4 Marks)]
Or
Discuss which class of companies are specifically exempt from the applicability of CARO. [Nov. 16 (6 Marks)]
Answer:
Applicability of CARO, 2020:
CARO, 2020 shall apply to every company including a foreign company as defined in Sec. 2(42) of the Companies Act, 2013, except:
(i) a banking company;
(ii) an insurance company;
(iii) a company licensed to operate u/s 8 of the Companies Act;
(iv) a One Person Company as defined in Sec. 2(62) of the Companies Act and a Small Company as
defined in Sec. 2(85) of the Companies Act; and
(v) a private limited company, not being a subsidiary or holding of a public company,

  • having a Paid up capital & Reserves & Surplus not more than ₹ 1 Cr. as on the balance sheet date, and
  • which does not have total borrowings exceeding ₹ 1 Cr. from any bank or financial institution at any point of time during the financial year, and
  • which does not have a total revenue as disclosed in Schedule 111 to the Companies Act, 2013 (including revenue from discontinuing operations) exceeding ₹ 10 Cr. during the financial year as per the financial statements.
    The order would be applicable for unlimited companies irrespective of the size of their paid up capital and reserves, turnover or borrowings.

Question 80.
Discuss the matters to be included in the auditor’s report regarding statutory dues and repayment of loans or borrowing to a financial institution, bank, Government or dues to debenture holders as per CARO, 2020.
Answer:
Reporting under CARO, 2020
(a) Statutory Dues:

  • Whether the company is regular in depositing undisputed statutory dues including GST, provident fund, employees’ state insurance, income-tax, sales-tax, service tax, duty of customs, duty of excise, value added tax,cess and any other statutory dues to the appropriate authorities and if not, the extent of the arrears of outstanding statutory dues as at the last day of the financial year concerned for a period of more than six months from the date they became payable, shall be indicated.
  • Where statutory dues referred above have not been deposited on account of any dispute, then the amounts involved and the forum where dispute is pending shall be mentioned.

(b) Repayment of Loans and Borrowings:
Whether the company has defaulted in repayment of loans or other borrowings or in the payment of interest thereon to any lender, if yes, the period and amount of default to be reported as per the format below:
The Company Audit – CA Inter Audit Notes 1
lender wise details to be provided in case of defaults to banks, financial institutions and Government.

(b) whether the company is a declared wilful defaulter by any bank or financial institution or other lender

The Company Audit – CA Inter Audit Notes

Question 81.
State the matters to be included in the auditor’s report as per CARO, 2020 regarding-
(a) Default in repayment of loans or borrowing to a financial institution, bank etc.
(b) Fraud by the company or on the Company by its officers or employees.
Answer:
Reporting under CARO, 2020
(a) Default in Repayment of Loans and Borrowings:
Whether the company has defaulted in repayment of loans or other borrowings or in the payment of interest thereon to any lender, if yes, the period and amount of default to be reported as per the format below:
The Company Audit – CA Inter Audit Notes 1
lender wise details to be provided in case of defaults to banks, financial institutions and Government.

(b) Fraud by the company or on the company [Para 3(xi)]:

  • Whether any fraud by the company or any fraud on the Company has been noticed or reported during the year; If yes, the nature and the amount involved is to be indicated.
  • Whether any report u/s 143(12) of the Companies Act has been filed by the auditors in Form ADT-4 as prescribed under rule 13 of Companies (Audit and Auditors) Rules, 2014 with the Central Government;
  • Whether the auditor has considered whistle-blower complaints, if any, received during the year by the company.

Question 82.
State the matters to be included in the auditor’s report as per CARO, 2020 regarding-
(i) Private placement of preferential issue.
(ii) Utilisation of IPO and further public offer. [May 18 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Reporting requirements under CARO, 2020:
(i) Private Placement of Preferential issues:
Para 3(x) of CARO, 2020 requires the following:

  • Whether the company has made any preferential allotment or private placement of shares or convertible debentures (fully, partially or optionally convertible) during the year and if so,
  • Whether the requirements of section 42 and section 62 of the Companies Act, 2013 have been complied with and the funds raised have been used for the purposes for which the funds were raised, if not, provide details in respect of amount involved and nature of noncompliance;

(ii) Utilisation of IPO and Further Public Offer:
Para 3(x) of CARO, 2020 requires the following:

  • Whether moneys raised by way of initial public offer or further public offer (including debt instruments) during the year were applied for the purposes for which those are raised, if not,
  • The details together with delays or default and subsequent rectification, if any, as may be applicable, be reported.

Question 83.
State the matters to be included in the auditor’s report as per CARO, 2020 regarding-
(i) Property Plant and Equipment
(ii) Statutory dues
Or
Explain the Reporting requirements the auditor should ensure under CARO, 2020 related to Property Plant and Equipment. [May 19 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Matters to be included in the Auditor’s Report under CARO, 2020:
The auditor’s report on the accounts of a company to which CARO applies shall include a statement on the following matters, namely-
(i) Property, Plant and Equipment:
As per clause (i) of Para 3 of CARO, 2020, reporting requirements in respect of property, plant and equipment are:

Adequacy of Records:

  • Whether the company is maintaining proper records showing full particulars, including quantitative details and situation of Property, Plant and Equipment.
  • Whether the company is maintaining proper records showing full particulars of intangible assets.

Physical verification:

  • Whether these Property, Plant and Equipment have been physically verified by the management at reasonable intervals;
  • Whether any material discrepancies were noticed on such verification and if so,
  • Whether the same have been properly dealt with in the books of account.

Title Deeds:

  • Whether the title deeds of all the immovable properties (Other than properties where the company is the lessee and the lease agreements are duly executed in favour of the lessee) disclosed in the financial statements are held in the name of the company.
  • If not, provide details in Specific format.

Revaluation of Property, Plant and Equipment:

  • Whether the company has revalued its Property, Plant and Equipment (including Right of Use assets) or intangible assets or both during the year and,
  • If so, whether the revaluation is based on the valuation by a Registered Valuer; specify the amount of change, if change is 10% or more in the aggregate of the net carrying value of each class of Property, Plant and Equipment or intangible assets;

Proceedings for holding Benami Property:

  • Whether any proceedings have been initiated or are pending against the company for holding any benami property under the Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Act, 1988 and rules made thereunder,
  • If so, whether the company has appropriately disclosed the details in its financial statements.

(ii) Statutory Dues:

  • Whether the company is regular in depositing undisputed statutory dues including GST, provident fund, employees’ state insurance, income-tax, sales-tax, service tax, duty of customs, duty of excise, value added tax,cess and any other statutory dues to the appropriate authorities and if not, the extent of the arrears of outstanding statutory dues as at the last day of the financial year concerned for a period of more than six months from the date they became payable, shall be indicated.
  • Where statutory dues referred above have not been deposited on account of any dispute, then the amounts involved and the forum where dispute is pending shall be mentioned.

Question 84.
“The company has raised funds by issuing fully convertible debentures. These funds were raised for the expansion and diversification of the business. However, the company utilized these funds for repayment of long term loans and advances.” Advise the auditor regarding requirements under CARO, 2020. [Nov. 18 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Reporting requirements under CARO, 2020:
Para 3(x) of CARO, 2020 requires the following:

  • Whether moneys raised by way of initial public offer or further public offer (including debt instruments) during the year were applied for the purposes for which those are raised, if not,
  • The details together with delays or default and subsequent rectification, if any, as may be applicable, be reported.
  • In the instant case, company has raised funds by issuing fully convertible debentures. These funds were raised for the expansion and diversification of the business. However, the company utilized these funds for repayment of long-term loans and advances.

Conclusion: Auditor is required to report the fact that funds raised for the expansion and diversification
of the business by issue of fully convertible debentures were utilized for repayment of long term
loans and advances.

Question 85.
M Ltd. has given certain loans to related parties and also has accepted certain deposits. As an auditor, how you include the above items in paragraph 3 of CARO, 2020₹ [Nov. 19 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Reporting under CARO, 2020:
(i) Loans to related parties:
Whether during the year the company has granted any loans or advances in the nature of loans, secured or unsecured, to companies, firms, Limited Liability Partnerships or any other parties, if so,
a. whether during the year the company has provided loans or provided advances in the nature of loans, if so, indicate-
i. the aggregate amount during the year, and balance out standing at the balance sheet date with respect to such loans or advances to subsidiaries, joint ventures and associates;
ii. the aggregate amount during the year, and balance outstanding at the balance sheet date with respect to such loans or advances to parties other than subsidiaries, joint ventures and associates;

b. whether the terms and conditions of the grant of all loans and advances in the nature of loans and guarantees provided are not prejudicial to the company’s interest;

c. in respect of loans and advances in the nature of loans, whether the schedule of repayment of principal and payment of interest has been stipulated and whether the repayments or receipts are regular;

d. if the amount is overdue, state the total amount overdue for more than 90 days, and whether reasonable steps have been taken by the company for recovery of the principal and interest;

e. whether any loan or advance in the nature of loan granted which has fallen due during the year, has been renewed or extended or fresh loans granted to settle the overdues of existing loans given to the same parties, if so, specify the aggregate amount of such dues renewed or extended or settled by fresh loans and the percentage of the aggregate to the total loans or advances in the nature of loans granted during the year [not applicable to companies whose principal business is to give loans];

f. whether the company has granted any loans or advances in the nature of loans either repayable on demand or without specifying any terms or period of repayment, if so, specify the aggregate amount, percentage thereof to the total loans granted, aggregate amount of loans granted to Promoters, related parties as defined in Sec. 2(76) of the Companies Act, 2013.

(ii) Public Deposits:
In case the company has accepted deposits from the public, Para 3(v) of CARO, 2020 requires the auditor to report the following:
(a) Whether the directives issued by the RBI and the provisions of sections 73 to 76 or any other relevant provisions of the Companies Act and the rules framed thereunder, where applicable, have been complied with. If not, the nature of contraventions be stated;

(b) If an order has been passed by Company Law Board or National Company Law Tribunal or Reserve Bank of India or any Court or any other Tribunal, whether the same has been complied with or not₹

Question 86.
Write short note on: Joint audit [Nov. 08 (5 Marks)]
Or
Explain the concept of Joint Audit. Discuss its advantages and Disadvantages. [May 11 (8 Marks)]
Or
Discuss the following: Advantages and Disadvantages of Joint Audit. [Nov. 14 (5 Marks)]
Or
The practice of appointing Chartered Accountants as joint auditors is quite widespread in big companies and corporations. Explain stating the advantages of the joint audit. [RTP-Nov. 19]
Answer:
Joint Audit – Meaning, Advantages and Disadvantages:
Meaning: Joint audit means that more than one firm/individuals is appointed as the Statutory Auditors of the company. It implies pooling together the resources and expertise of two or more firms to perform an expert job. SA 299 “Joint Audit of financial statements” deals with the professional responsibilities which the auditors undertake in accepting appointments as joint auditors.

Advantages:
(a) Poling and sharing of expertise.
(b) Better quality of work performance
(c) Advantage of mutual consultation.
(d) Improved services to client.
(e) Lower costs to carry out the audit work.
(f) Healthy competition towards a better performance

Disadvantages:
(a) Co-ordination problems in conduct of work.
(b) Lack of clear definition of responsibility.
(c) Different standings of joint auditee.
(d) Negligence of areas of common concern.
(e) Sharing of fees.
(f) Uncertainty about the liability for the work done.

Question 87.
A joint auditor is not bound by the views of the majority of the joint auditors regarding matters to be covered in the report, lustily this statement in the light of responsibilities of Joint Auditors under SA 299. [May 10 (5 Marks}]
Answer:
Reporting Responsibilities of Joint Auditor:
(a) The statement that a joint auditor is not bound by the views of the majority of the joint auditors regarding the matters to be covered in the report is true.

(b) SA 299 “Joint Audit of Financial Statements” provides the following in respect of reporting responsibilities of joint auditor:

  • Joint auditors are required to issue common audit report.
  • However, in case of any disagreement among joint auditors with regard to the opinion or any matters to be covered by the audit report, they shall express their opinion in a separate audit report.
  • A joint auditor is not bound by the views of the majority of the joint auditors regarding the opinion or matters to be covered in the audit report and shall express opinion formed by the said joint auditor in separate audit report in case of disagreement.
  • In case of separate reports, the audit report(s) issued by the joint auditor(s) shall make a reference to the separate audit report(s) issued by the other joint auditor(sj. Such reference shall be made under the heading “Other Matter Paragraph” as per SA 706

The Company Audit – CA Inter Audit Notes

Question 88.
Write short note on: Responsibilities of Joint Auditor.
Or
In joint Audit, “each joint auditor is responsible only for the work allocated to him”. [May 12 (5 Marks)]
Or
You have been appointed as an auditor of a company along with 2 other auditors. What steps would you like to take to ensure a smooth and effective audit? To what extent do you think you will be responsible in relation to the work performed by yours co-auditors and vice versa?
Or
Mention the points/areas in which all the joint auditors are jointly and severally responsible. [Nov. 15 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Areas of Joint Responsibility in case of Joint auditors:
SA 299 “Joint Audit of Financial Statements” deals with the responsibilities of joint auditors. Accordingly, in respect of audit work divided among the joint auditors, each joint auditor shall be responsible only for the work allocated to such joint auditor including proper execution of the audit procedures.
All the joint auditors shall be jointly and severally responsible for:
1. the audit work which is not divided among the joint auditors and is carried out by all joint auditors;

2. decisions taken by all the joint auditors under audit planning in respect of common audit areas concerning the NTE of the audit procedures to be performed by each of the joint auditors;

3. matters which are brought to the notice of the joint auditors by any one of them and on which there is an agreement among the joint auditors;

4. examining that the F.S. of the entity comply with the requirements of the relevant statutes;

5. presentation and disclosure of the F.S. as required by the applicable FRF;

6. ensuring that the audit report complies with the requirements of the relevant statutes, the applicable Standards on Auditing and the other relevant pronouncements issued by ICAI.
It shall be the responsibility of each joint auditor to determine the NTE of audit procedures to be applied in relation to the areas of work allocated to said joint auditor.
It is the individual responsibility of each joint auditor to study and evaluate the prevailing system of internal control and assessment of risk relating to the areas of work allocated to said joint auditor.

Question 89.
“Before the commencement of audit, the joint auditors should discuss and develop a joint audit plan.” Discuss the points to be considered in developing the joint audit plan by the joint auditors. [Nov. 19 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Points to be considered in developing the joint audit plan
As per SA 299 “Joint Audit of Financial Statements” Prior to the commencement of the audit, the
joint auditors shall discuss and develop a joint audit plan. In developing the joint audit plan, the
joint auditors shall:
(a) Identify division of audit areas and common audit areas amongst the joint auditors that define the scope of the work of each joint auditor;
(b) Ascertain the reporting objectives of the engagement to plan the timing of the audit and the nature of the communications required;
(c) Consider and communicate among all joint auditors the factors that, in their professional judgment, are significant in directing the engagement team’s efforts;
(d) Consider the results of preliminary engagement activities and, where applicable, whether knowledge gained on other or similar engagements performed earlier by the respective engagement partner(s) for the entity is relevant.
(e) Ascertain the NTE of resources necessary to perform the engagement.

Question 90.
X Ltd. has a branch office in Malaysia. The company has appointed Mr. X, who is qualified to audit accounts as per Malaysian laws. Mr. Z, the statutory auditor objects to the same, contending that he alone can audit the branch office accounts. Discuss.
Answer:
Eligibility criteria for appointment as Branch Auditor
As per Sec. 143(8) of the Companies Act, 2013, where the branch office is situated in a country outside India, the accounts of the branch office shall be audited either by the company’s auditor or by an accountant or by any other person duly qualified to act as an auditor of the accounts of the branch office in accordance with the laws of that country.

Hence, a company can appoint as auditor of a foreign branch an accountant duly qualified to act as an auditor in accordance with the laws of the foreign country.
Conclusion: Mr. Z contention that he alone can audit the branch office accounts is not valid.

Question 91.
When the accounts of the branch are audited by a person other than the company’s auditor, there is need for a clear understanding of the role of such auditor and the company’s auditor in relation to the audit of the accounts of the branch and the audit of the company as a whole. Explain. [RTP-Nov. 18, MTP-Oct. 20]
Answer:
Role and Responsibilities of Company Auditor and Branch Auditor:
SA 600 “Using the work of Another Auditor” establishes the standard when an auditor, reporting on the financial statements of a company, uses the work of another auditor on the financial information of one or more components included in the financial statements of the entity. There should be sufficient liaison between the principal auditor and the other auditor. SA 600 provides the following in this regard:

1. Where another auditor has been appointed for the component, the principal auditor would normally be entitled to rely upon the work of such auditor unless there are special circumstances to make it essential for him to visit the component and/or to examine the books of account and other records of the said component. Further, it requires that the principal auditor should perform procedures to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence, that the work of the other auditor is adequate for the principal auditor’s purposes, in the context of the specific assignment.

2. When using the work of another auditor, the principal auditor should ordinarily perform the following procedures:
(a) advise the other auditor of the use that is to be made of the other auditor’s work and report and make sufficient arrangements for co-ordination of their efforts at the planning stage of the audit. The principal auditor would inform the other auditor of matters such as areas requiring special consideration, procedures for the identification of inter-component transactions that may require disclosure and the time-table for completion of audit; and
(b) advise the other auditor of the significant accounting, auditing and reporting requirements and obtain representation as to compliance with them.

3. The principal auditor might discuss with the other auditor the audit procedures applied or review a written summary of the other auditor’s procedures and findings which may be in the form of a completed questionnaire or check-list.

4. The principal auditor may also wish to visit the other auditor. The nature, timing and extent of procedures will depend on the circumstances of the engagement and the principal auditor’s knowledge of the professional competence of the other auditor. This knowledge may have been enhanced from the review of the previous audit work of the other auditor.

Question 92
Explain the audit procedure when principal auditor is using the work of another auditor. [Nov. 14 (8 Marks)]
Answer:
Audit Procedure when principal auditor is using the work of another auditor:
As per SA 600 “Using the work of Another Auditor” when the principal auditor is using the work of another auditor, he is supposed to perform the following:

(a) When principal auditor plans to use the work of another auditor, he should consider the professional competence of the other auditor in the context of specific assignment if the other auditor is not a member of the ICAI.

(b) The principal auditor should perform procedures to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence, that the work of the other auditor is adequate for the principal auditor’s purposes, in the context of the specific assignment.

(c) The principal auditor should consider the significant findings of the other auditor.

(d) The principal auditor should document in his audit working papers the followings

  • Components audited by another;
  • Audit procedures adopted and results thereof;
  • Conclusion that particular component is not material;
  • Manner of dealing with modification in another auditor’s report

(e) When the principal auditor concludes, based on his procedures, that the work of the other auditor cannot be used and the principal auditor has not been able to perform sufficient additional procedures regarding the financial information of the component audited by the other auditor, the principal auditor should express a qualified opinion or disclaimer of opinion because there is a limitation on the scope of audit.

(f) When the principal auditor has to base his opinion on the financial information of the entity as a whole relying upon the statements and reports of the other auditors, his report should state clearly the division of responsibility for the financial information of the entity by indicating the extent to which the financial information of components audited by the other auditors have been included in the financial information of the entity.

Question 93.
There should be a sufficient liaison between a principal auditor and other auditors”. Discuss the above statement and state in this context the reporting consideration, when the auditor uses the professional work performed by other auditor.
Answer:
Coordination between Principal Auditor and Other Auditor:
SA 600 “Using the work of Another Auditor” applies in situation where an auditor [principal auditor), reporting on the financial information of an entity, uses the work of another auditor [other auditor) with respect to the financial information of one or more components included in the financial information ofthe entity. To ensure coordination among both of them, SA 600 provides the followings:
1. There should be sufficient liaison between the principal auditor and the other auditor.

2. For this purpose, the principal auditor may find it necessary to issue written communication(s) to the other auditor.

3. The other auditor, knowing the context in which his work is to be used by the principal auditor, should co-ordinate with the principal auditor.

  • Adhering to time-table.
  • Bringing to the attention of Principal auditor any significant finding.
  • Compliance with relevant statutory requirements.
  • Respond to detailed questionnaire.

Reporting Considerations:
1. When the principal auditor concludes, based on his procedures, that the work of the other auditor cannot be used,
2. The principal auditor has not been able to perform sufficient additional procedures regarding the financial information of the component audited by the other auditor, and
3. The principal auditor should express a qualified opinion or disclaimer of opinion because there is a limitation on the scope of audit.

The Company Audit – CA Inter Audit Notes

Question 94.
ABC Ltd. is a company incorporated in India. It has branches within and outside India. Explain who can be appointed as an auditor of these branches within and outside India. Also explain to whom branch auditor is required to report. [RTP-May 20]
Answer:
Branch Auditor:
Sec. 143(8) of the Companies Act, 2013, prescribes the duties and powers of the company’s auditor with reference to the audit of the branch and the branch auditor. Accordingly, where a company has a branch office, the accounts of that office shall be audited by either of following:

  • the auditor appointed for the company, i.e. company auditor, or
  • any other person qualified for appointment as an auditor of the company under this Act, or
  • where the branch office is situated in a country outside India, the accounts of the branch office shall be audited either by the company’s auditor or by an accountant or by any other person duly qualified to act as an auditor of the accounts of the branch office in accordance with the laws of that country.

The branch auditor shall prepare a report on the accounts of the branch examined by him and send it to the auditor of the company who shall deal with it in his report in such manner as he considers necessary.
Rule 12 of the Companies (Audit and Auditors) Rules, 2014, provides the following in relation to branch audit and branch auditor:
1. The duties and powers of the company’s auditor with reference to the audit of the branch and the branch auditor, if any, shall be as contained in sub-sections (1) to (4) of section 143.
2. The branch auditor shall submit his report to the company’s auditor.

Question 95.
RJ Limited is in the business of trading of cycles having Head Office at Delhi and branch at Mumbai. Statutory audit of Head Office was to be done by CA. D and statutory audit of branch at Mumbai was to be done by CA. M. During the course of audit by CA. D at head office, CA. D wanted to visit branch at Mumbai and verily the inventory records at Mumbai. The management of RJ Limited did not allow CA. D to visit Mumbai office and verify the inventory records as the branch audit of Mumbai was already being undertaken by another CA. M. In the above situation, discuss the rights available with CA. D in terms of the Companies Act, 2013. [Nov. 20 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Right of Access of Company Auditor for Branch Records:

  • As per Sec. 143(8) of the Companies Act, 2013 the audit of the branches can be done by the company auditor himself or by another auditor. Even where, the branch accounts are audited, the company auditor has right to visit the branch if he deems it necessary to do so for the performance of his duties as auditor.
  • Company Auditor has also right of access at all times to the books and accounts and vouchers of the company maintained at the branch office. He can appropriately deal with the report of the branch auditor in framing his main report. He will disclose how he had dealt with the branch audit report.
  • In this case, the audits of two branches were done by the company auditor and one branch was done by a separate branch auditor.

Conclusion: Management’s objection that the company auditor is transgressing the scope of audit areas agreed, is absolutely, wrong. The right of company auditor in visiting and accessing the records of branch cannot be forfeited. Even where the branch accounts are audited by another local auditor, the company auditor has right to visit the branch and can have access to the books and vouchers of the company maintained at the branch office.

Question 96.
Briefly discuss the following with respect to applicable provisions under the Companies Act, 2013 and rules made thereunder:
(a) Maintenance of Cost Records
(b) Applicability of Cost Audit
(c) Non-applicability of Cost Audit.
Answer:
Cost Records and Audit Provisions:
(a) Maintenance of Cost records: Sec. 148(1) of Companies Act, 2013 provides that the Central Government may, by order, in respect of such class of companies engaged in the production of such goods or providing such services as may be prescribed, direct that particulars relating to the utilisation of material or labour or to other items of cost as may be prescribed shall also be included in the books of account kept by that class of companies.
Rule 3 of Companies (Cost Records and Audit) Rules, 2014 provides that the specified class of companies, including foreign companies, engaged in the production of the goods or providing services, having an overall turnover from all its products and services of ₹ 35 Cr. or more during the immediately preceding financial year, shall include cost records for such products or services in their books of account.

A company which is classified as a micro enterprise or a small enterprise under the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development Act, 2006 are exempted from compliance of these provisions.

Specified Class of Companies are classified in two categories:
1. Regulated Sectors: It covers Telecommunication, Electricity, Petroleum and Gas, Drugs and Pharma, Fertilizers and Sugar
2. Non-Regulated Sectors: It includes a number of companies including those engaged in Arms and ammunitions, Steel, Rubber and Allied products, Coffee, tea, Cement etc.

(b) Applicability of Cost Audit:
Section 148(2) of Companies Act, 2013 provides that if the Central Government is of the opinion, that it is necessary to do so, it may, by order, direct that the audit of cost records of class of companies, which are covered under Sec. 148(1) and which have a net worth of such amount as may be prescribed or a turnover of such amount as may be prescribed, shall be conducted in the manner specified in the order.

Rule 4 of Companies (Cost Records and Audit) Rules, 2014 provides the following:

Regulated Sector Industries: Cost records are required to be audited if the overall annual turnover of the company from all its products and services during the immediately preceding financial year is ₹ 5 0 Cr. or more and the aggregate turnover of the individual product or products or service or services for which cost records are required to be maintained under rule 3 is ₹ 25 Cr. or more.

Non-Regulated Sectors: Cost records are required to be audited if the overall annual turnover of the company from all its products and services during the immediately preceding financial year is ₹ 100 Cr. or more and the aggregate turnover of the individual product or products or service or services for which cost records are required to be maintained under rule 3 is ₹ 35 Cr. or more.

(c) Non-Applicability of Cost Audit:
The requirement for cost audit under these rules shall not apply to a company which is covered in rule 3; and
(i) whose revenue from exports, in foreign exchange, exceeds seventy five per cent of its total revenue; or
(ii) which is operating from a special economic zone.

The Company Audit – CA Inter Audit Notes

Question 97.
Elucidate the provisions of Companies Act, 2013 relating to submission of cost audit report to the Board and Central Government.
Answer:
Submission of Cost Audit report:

  • Every cost auditor, who conducts an audit of the cost records of a company, shall submit the cost audit report along with his or its reservations or qualifications or observations or suggestions, if any, in Form CRA-3.
  • Every cost auditor shall forward his duly signed report to the Board of Directors of the company within a period of 180 days from the closure of the financial year to which the report relates and the Board of Directors shall consider and examine such report particularly any reservation or qualification contained therein.
  • Every company covered under these rules shall, within a period of thirty days from the date of receipt of a copy of the cost audit report, furnish the Central Government with such report along with full information and explanation on every reservation or qualification contained therein, in Form CRA-4 in XBRL format in specified manner along with specified fees.

Question 98.
Write short note on: Cost Audit. [May 05 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Cost Audit:

  • Section 148(2) of Companies Act, 2013 provides that if the Central Government is of the opinion, that it is necessary to do so, it may, by order, direct that the audit of cost records of class of companies, which are covered under Sec. 148(1) and which have a net worth of such amount as may be prescribed or a turnover of such amount as may be prescribed, shall be conducted in the manner specified in the order. The audit conducted under this section shall be in addition to the audit conducted under section 143 of the Companies Act, 2013.
  • The audit shall be conducted by a Cost Accountant in Practice who shall be appointed by the Board of such remuneration as may be determined by the members in such manner as may be prescribed. No person appointed under section 139 as an auditor of the company shall be appointed for conducting the audit of cost records.
  • The auditor conducting the cost audit shall comply with the cost auditing standards.
  • The report on the audit of cost records shall be submitted to the Board of Directors of the company and company shall within 30 days from the date of receipt of a copy of the cost audit report prepared furnish the Central Government with such report along with full information and explanation on every reservation or qualification contained therein.

Question 99.
“Mr. A is offered by ABC Ltd. for appointment as cost auditor and asked to certify certain requirements before such appointment.” Discuss those requirements with reference to the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013. [Nov. 18 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Requirements as to Certificate from Cost Auditor:
As per Rule 6 of the Companies (Cost Records and Audit) Rules, 2014, the Cost Auditor appointed
shall submit certificate that-
(a) the individual or the firm, as the case may be, is eligible for appointment and is not disqualified for appointment under the Act, the Cost and Works Accountants Act, 1959 and the Rules or regulations made thereunder.
(b) the individual or the firm, as the case may be, satisfies the criteria provided in Sec. 141, so far as may be applicable.
(c) the proposed amendment is within the limits laid down by or under the authority of the Act.
(d) the list of proceedings against the cost auditor or audit firm or any partner of the audit firm pending with respect to professional matters of conduct, as disclosed in the certificate, is true and correct.

Objective Type Questions – Correct/Incorrect

Question 1.
Where at any AGM, no auditor is appointed or re-appointed, the existing auditor shall continue be the auditor of the company.
Answer:
Statement is correct.

  • As per section 139(10) of the Companies Act, 2013, where at any AGM, no auditor is appointed or re-appointed, the existing auditor shall continue to be the auditor of the company.

The Company Audit – CA Inter Audit Notes

Question 2.
If the auditor appointed at the AGM refuses to accept the same, the Company can appoint another person by holding General Meeting. [May 07 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect:

  • If the auditor appointed at the AGM refuses to accept the same, it will be held that no auditor is appointed at the AGM.
  • Sec. 139(10) of Companies Act, 2013 will apply which provides that if no auditor is appointed at AGM, the existing auditor will continue to be the auditor of the company.

Question 3.
Government companies are also to be considered for the ceiling on number of audits. [Nov. 07 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is correct. Section 141(3)(g) of Companies Act, 2013 provides that a person is not eligible to be appointed as auditor of a company if he is in full time employment elsewhere or a person or a partner of a firm holding appointment as its auditor, if such persons or partner is at the date of such appointment or reappointment holding appointment as auditor of more than 20 Companies other than one person company, dormant companies, small companies and private companies having paid up share capital less than 100 Crores.

Question 4.
If appointment of a person as an auditor is void-ab-initio, it should be treated as a casual vacancy. [Nov. 07 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.

  • If appointment of a person as an auditor is void-ab-initio, it should not be treated as a casual vacancy.
  • Sec. 139(10) of Companies Act, 2013 will apply which provides that if no auditor is appointed at AGM, the existing auditor will continue to be the auditor of the company.

Question 5.
An auditor can be appointed as first auditor of a newly formed company simply because his name has been stated in the Articles of Association. [May 08 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.

  • Section 139(6) of the Companies Act, 2013 lays down that “the first auditor or auditors of a company shall be appointedby the Board of directors within 30 days from the date of registration of the company”.
  • In the case of failure of the Board to appoint first auditor, it shall inform the members of the company, who shall within 90 days at an EGM shall appoint the auditor.

Question 6.
C.A. Mr. X is the Auditor of PQ Ltd. in which one of his relative is having substantial interest, whether Mr. X is qualified to be an Auditor₹ [Nov. 08 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.

  • Sec. 141 disqualifies a person to be appointed as auditor if he or his relative or his partner is holding any security in the company. However relative may hold securities of face value not exceeding ₹ 1 Lac. Assuming that the interest of the relative exceeds face value of ₹ 1 Lac, Mr. X is disqualified.
  • Further as per provisions of Chartered Accountant Act, 1949, a CA will be considered as guilty of professional misconduct if he expresses any opinion on the financial statements of an entity in which he or his partner or his relative has substantial interest.

Question 7.
An Auditor may be removed from Office before the expiry of his term, by the company in General Meeting. [Nov. 08 (2 Marks)]
or
The first auditor appointed by the board of directors can be removed by the board at its subsequent meeting. [Nov. 07 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.

  • As per Sec. 140(1) of the Companies Act, 2013, an auditor appointed u/s 139 may be removed from his office before the expiry of his term only by a special resolution of the company, after obtaining the prior approval of the Central Government.
  • For this purpose, an application to the Central Government for removal of auditor shall be made in Form ADT-2 and shall be accompanied with prescribed fees.
  • The application shall be made to the Central Government within thirty days of the resolution passed by the Board.

Question 8.
An auditor of a company in which not less than 25% of authorized capital is held by public financial institution is to be appointed by a special resolution in general meeting. [June 09 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.

  • There is no special provision under the Companies Act, 2013, as to the requirement of special resolution for appointment of auditor of a company in which not less than 25% of authorized capital is held by public financial institution.
  • Appointment will be made as per the requirement of section 139(1) of Companies Act, 2013, which does not require any special resolution.

Question 9.
While conducting audit of Government Companies, the auditors are paid their Professional Fees as prescribed by the Government. [May 10 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.
As per sec. 142(1) of the Companies Act, 2013, the fees of auditors of a company is fixed by the company in its general meeting or in such a manner as the company in general meeting may determine.

Question 10.
Audit Committee is to be formed by each and every company and the auditor has no compulsion to attend the meeting of the Audit Committee. [May 10 (2 Mhrks)]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.

  • As per sec. 177 of the Companies Act, 2013 Audit committee is to be formed by every listed companies, all public companies with a paid up capital of ₹ 10 Cr. or more, all public companies having turnover of ₹ 100 Cr. or more, all public companies having in aggregate, outstanding loans or borrowings or debentures or deposits exceeding ₹ 50 Cr. or more.
  • Further, the Auditor shall have the right to be heard in the meetings of the Audit Committee when it considers the Auditor’s Report but shall not have the right to vote.

Question 11.
The auditor should study the Memorandum and Articles of Association to see the validity of his appointment. [May 10. Nov. 15 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.

  • Memorandum of Association lays down the object to be carried on and Articles of Associations reflects the regulations of the company to govern its internal management and to regulate the rights of the members.
  • Auditor should ascertain whether the company has complied with provisions of sections 139 and 140 to ensure validity of his appointment.

Question 12.
A casual vacancy caused by resignation of the auditor can be filled by the Board of Directors. [Nov. 09 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.

  • As per sec. 139(8) of Companies Act, 2013, casual vacancy caused by the resignation of an auditor cannot be filled in by the Board of Directors itself.
  • Such appointment shall also be approved by the company at general meeting convened within three months of the recommendation of the board and the auditor so appointed shall hold office till the conclusion of the next annual general meeting.

Question 13.
Comment on the following: AGM is not held in time, auditor automatically vacates his office. [May 13 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is false.

  • Section 139(1) of Companies Act, 2013 provides that an auditor is appointed for a particular period, i.e., from conclusion of one AGM until conclusion of the 6th AGM subject to ratification of such appointment at every AGM.
  • In case the AGM is not held within the period prescribed, the auditor will continue in office till the AGM is actually held and concluded.
  • Therefore, auditor shall continue to hold office till the conclusion of the AGM. Auditor’s office is not vacated automatically if AGM is not held in time.

Question 14.
Rajat, an Auditor recovers his fees on progressive basis is said to be indebted to the company. [Nov. 13 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.

  • If the auditor recovers fees from the company on a progressive basis, even though the audit has not been completed he cannot be said to be indebted to the company.
  • Only when the auditor recovers the fees as an advance, he will be said to be indebted to the company and attracts disqualification u/s 141(3)(d)(z7) of Companies Act, 2013.

Question 15.
The first auditor of PQR Ltd., a Government Company was appointed by the board of directors of company. fNov. 13 (2 Marks)!
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.

  • Sec. 139(7] of the Companies Act, 2013 provides that the first auditor of a Government Company shall be appointed by the CAG.
  • Board of Directors appoints first auditors in case of other companies as per sec. 139(6] of Companies Act, 2013.

Question 16.
Mr. ‘R’, a practicing Chartered Accountant, is appointed as a “Tax Consultant” of MN Ltd., in which his father Mr. ‘C is the managing director. [Nov. 13 (2 Marks]]
Answer:
Appointment is valid.

  • A member of the ICAI will be held guilty of professional misconduct if he or partner of his firm or their relatives hold substantial interest in an enterprise and he expresses his opinion on the F.S. of such enterprise.
  • In this case, Mr. R is a “Tax Consultant” and not a “Statutory Auditor” of ABC Ltd., hence he is not disqualified to be appointed as tax consultant.

Question 17.
Audit of Private Limited Companies are to be excluded while calculating ceiling on number of audits. [Nov. 13 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.

  • Sec. 141 (3]Cg] of Companies Act, 2013 does not exclude audit of private limited companies while calculating ceiling on number of audits.

Question 18.
The Board of Directors can fill the casual vacancy caused by resignation of an auditor, who shall hold office until the conclusion of the next AGM. [May 14 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.

  • As per sec. 139(8] of Companies Act, 2013, casual vacancy caused by the resignation of an auditor cannot be filled in by the Board of Directors itself.
  • Such appointment shall also be approved by the company at general meeting convened within three months of the recommendation of the board and the auditor so appointed shall hold office till the conclusion of the next annual general meeting.

The Company Audit – CA Inter Audit Notes

Question 19.
The first Auditor is generally appointed by the company at a General Meeting. [Nov. 14(2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect:

  • As per section 139(6) of the Companies Act, 2013, the first auditor(s) of a company shall be appointed by the Board of Directors within 30 days from the date of registration of the company.
  • General Meeting is authorized to appoint the subsequent auditor u/s 139(1).

Question 20.
The first auditor of a Government Company was appointed by the Board in its meeting after 10 days from the date of registration. [May 15 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.

  • As per section 139(7] of the Companies Act, 2013, the first auditor of a government company shall be appointed by the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India within 60 days from the date of registration of the company.
  • If CAG does not appoint the first auditor within 60 days, the Board shall appoint in next 30 days.

Question 21.
Director’s relative can act as an auditor of the company. [May 15 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect:
As per section 141(3) of the Companies Act, 2013, a person shall not be eligible for appointment as an auditor of a company whose relative is a Director or is in the employment of the Company as a director or key Managerial Personnel.

Question 22.
If an LLP (Limited Liability Partnership Firm) is appointed as an auditor of a company, every partner of a firm shall be authorized to act as an auditor. [May 15 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect:
As per section 141(2) of the Companies Act, 2013, where a firm including a limited liability partnership (LLP) is appointed as an auditor of a company, only the partners who are Chartered Accountants shall be authorised to act and sign on behalf of the firm.

Question 23.
AB & Co. is an audit firm having partners Mr. A and Mr. B Mr. C, the relative of Mr. B is holding se-curities having face value of₹ 2,00,000 in XYZ Ltd. AB & Co. is qualified for an auditor of XYZ Ltd. [Nov. 15 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.

  • Sec. 141(3)(d)(i) of the Companies Act, 2013, disqualifies a person to be appointed as auditor of a company if the person or his relative or his partner is holding securities in the company. However Relative may hold securities of face value up to ₹ 1,00,000.
  • AB & Co. is disqualified to be appointed as auditor of XYZ Ltd. as relative of Mr. B, the partner of the AB & Co. is holding securities of face value of₹ 2,00,000.

Question 24.
Manner of rotation of auditor will not be applicable to company A, which is having paid up share capital of ₹ 15 crores and having public borrowing from nationalized bank of ₹ 50 crore because it is a Private Limited Company. [Nov. 15 (2 Marks), RTP-May 18]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.

  • Provisions related with rotation of auditors are applicable in case of private companies having paid up capital of ₹ 20 Crore or more and to companies having paid up capital below ₹ 20 Crore, but having public borrowings from financial institutions, banks or public deposits of ₹ 5 0 Crore or More.
  • In the instant case, as borrowings is of ₹ 50 Crore, provisions related with rotation of auditors are applicable.

Question 25.
Managing director of A Ltd. himself appointed the first auditor of the company. [Nov. 15 (2 Marks), MTP-Oct. 19]
Or
Managing Director of Pigeon Ltd. himself wants to appoint CA. Champ, a practicing Chartered Accountant, as first auditor of the company. [MTP-May 20]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.

  • Sec. 139(6) of Companies Act, 2013 provides that the first auditor of the company is to be appointed by the Board of Directors within 30 days of registration of the company. If the Board fails, members shall within 90 days appoint the auditor in EGM. In case of Government company, the first auditor is to be appointed by CAG of India.
  • Appointment of first auditor by the managing director is not correct.

Question 26.
A Chartered Accountant holding securities of S Ltd. having face value of ₹ 950 is qualified for appointment as an auditor of S Ltd. [Nov. 15 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.

  • Sec. 141(3)(d)(z) of the Companies Act, 2013, disqualifies a person to be appointed as auditor of a company if the person or his relative or his partner is holding securities in the company.
    Chartered accountant is disqualified to be appointed as auditorofS Ltd. as he is holding securities of face value of ₹ 950.

Question 27.
Mr. N, a member of the Institute of Chartered Accountant of England and Wales, is qualified to be appointed as auditor of Indian Companies. [Nov. 15 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.

  • As per Section 141(1) of Companies Act, 2013, a person shall be eligible to be appointed as auditor of an Indian company only if he is a Chartered Accountant. Chartered Accountant implies the member of Institute of Chartered Accountant of India holding certificate of practice.
  • Mr. N, member of Institute of Chartered Accountant of England and Wales is disqualified to be appointed as auditor of Indian companies.

Question 28.
The first auditors of a Government Company were appointed by the Board of Directors. [May 16 (2 Marks))
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.

  • Section 139(7) of the Companies Act, 2013 lays down that in the case of a Government company the first auditor shall be appointed by the CAG of India within 60 days of registration of the company.
  • In case the CAG of India does not appoint such auditor within the said period, the BOD of the company shall appoint such auditor within the next 30 days.
  • In the case of failure of the Board to appoint such auditor within the next 30 days, it shall inform the members of the company who shall appoint such auditor within the 60 days at an EGM.

The Company Audit – CA Inter Audit Notes

Question 29.
Mr. Pawan, a practicing Chartered Accountant, is appointed as “Tax-Consultant” of ABC Ltd., in which his father. Mr. Singh is Managing Director. [May 16 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is correct.

  • Sec. 141(3)(f) of Companies Act, 2013 disqualifies a person to be appointed as auditor whose relative is a director or is in employment of the company as a director or key managerial personnel.
  • However no such disqualification is prescribed under the law for appointing a person as a tax consultant, therefore sec. 141(3)(f) will not be attracted.
  • Mr. Pawan can be appointed as a tax consultant irrespective that his father is the managing director of the company.

Question 30.
Central Government permission is required when auditors are to be removed before expiry of their term, but not so when auditors are changed after expiry of their term. [Nov. 16 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is correct.
Removal of auditor before expiry of his term is a serious matter and may adversely affect his independence. Hence, the permission of the Central Government is required when auditors are removed before expiry of their term and the same is not needed when they are not re-appointed after expiry of their term.
Chartered accountant is disqualified to be appointed as auditor of S Ltd. as he is holding securities of face value of₹ 950.

Question 31.
If the Board of Directors fails to appoint the first auditor in case of a company other than a Govern- | ment Company, then the Central Government shall appoint the auditor. [May 17 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.
As per section 139(6) of Companies Act, 2013, in case of non-government companies, if Board fails to appoint the first auditor, it shall inform the members of the company, who shall within 90 days at an EGM shall appoint the auditor.

Question 32.
If LLP is appointed as an auditor of a company, every partner of a firm shall be authorized to act as an auditor. [RTP-May 18]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.
As per section 141(2) of the Companies Act, 2013, where a firm including LLP is appointed as an auditor of a company, only the partners who are Chartered Accountants shall be authorised to act and sign on behalf of the firm.

Question 33.
PQR & CO., Chartered Accountants, resigned from the audit of a government company and filed the resignation with the company and the registrar within 30 days. Comment, whether PQR & CO. has complied with the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013. [May 18 (2 Marks), MTP-April 19]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.
As per Sec. 140(2) of Companies Act, 2013, in case of Govt, companies or Govt, owned/controlled companies, the auditor shall also file statement of resignation with the Comptroller and Auditor General of India, indicating the reasons and other facts as may be relevant with regard to his resignation.

Question 34.
K Ltd., a non-government company, was incorporated on 01.10.2017. Mr. B, managing Director of K Ltd., himself appointed the first auditor of the company on 31.12.2017. [May 18 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.

  • AsperSec. 139(6) of Companies Act, 2013, the first auditor of a company, other than a Government company, shall be appointed by the Board of Directors. The appointment shall be made within 30 days from the date of registration of the company.
  • In the case of failure of the Board to appoint first auditor, it shall inform the members of the company, who shall within 90 days at an EGM shall appoint the auditor.

Question 35.
The Board of Director of ABC Ltd., a listed company at Bombay Stock Exchange, is required to fill the casual vacancy of an auditor only after taking into account the recommendations of the audit committee. [Nov. 18 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is correct:
As per Sec. 139(11) of Companies Act, 2013, where a company is required to constitute an Audit Committee u/s 177, all appointments, including the filling of a casual vacancy of an auditor under Sec. 139 shall be made after taking into account the recommendations of such committee.

Question 36.
Any partner of an LLP, who is appointed as an auditor of a company, can sign the audit report. [Nov. 18 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.
As per Sec. 141(2) of Companies Act, 2013, where a firm including a LLP is appointed as an auditor of a company, only the partners who are CA shall be authorised to act and sign on behalf of the firm.

Question 37.
Where the firm of appointed as an auditor of the entity the audit report is signed only in the name of audit firm. [May 19 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.

  • AsperSec. 145 of the Companies Act, 2013, the person appointed as an auditor of the company shall sign the auditor’s report or sign or certify any other document of the company, in accordance with the provisions of section 141(2). Sec. 141(2) of the Companies Act, 2013 states that where a firm including a LLP is appointed as an auditor of a company, only the partners who are chartered accountants shall be authorised to act and sign on behalf of the firm.
  • As per SA 700 “Forming an Opinion and Reporting on Financial Statements” where the firm is appointed as the auditor, the report is signed in the personal name of the auditor and in the name of the audit firm.

Question 38.
Bhartiya Gas Ltd. a Government Company, the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India shall, in respect of a financial year, appoint an auditor duly qualified to be appointed as an auditor of companies under this Act, within a period of 180 days from the end of the financial year, who shall hold office till the end of the next financial year. [May 19 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.
In the case of a Government company, the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India shall, in respect of a financial year, appoint an auditor duly qualified to be appointed as an auditor of companies under this Act, within a period of 180 days from the commencement of the financial year, who shall hold office till the conclusion of the annual general meeting.

Question 39.
As per Section 139(6), the first auditor of a company, including a Government company, shall be appointed by the Board of Directors within 60 days from the date of registration of the company. [RTP-Nov. 19]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.
As per Sec. 139(6) of the Companies Act, 2013, the first auditor of a company, other than a Government company, shall be appointed by the Board of Directors within 30 days from the date of registration of the company.

The Company Audit – CA Inter Audit Notes

Question 40.
As per section 140(2) of the Act, the auditor who has resigned from the company need not inform the Registrar of Companies. [RTP-Nov. 19]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.
As per Sec. 140(2) of the Companies Act, 2013, the auditor who has resigned from the company shall file within a period of 30 days from the date of resignation, a statement in the prescribed Form ADT-3 (as per Rule 8 of CAAR) with the company and the Registrar.

Question 41.
CA. K has resigned as auditor, after 2 months from appointment of NML Ltd. He needs to file ADT-3 with the Registrar within 60 days from the date of resignation. [Nov. 19 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.
As per Sec. 140(2) of the Companies Act, 2013, the auditor who has resigned from the company shall file within a period of 30 days from the date of resignation, a statement in the Form ADT-3 with the company and the Registrar.

Question 42.
All public companies, having in aggregate, outstanding loans or borrowings or debentures or deposits exceeding hundred crore rupees or more shall constitute an Audit Committee. [RTP-May 20]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.
As per Sec. 177 of Companies Act, 2013, all public companies, having in aggregate, outstanding loans or borrowings or debentures or deposits exceeding fifty crore rupees or more shall constitute an Audit Committee.

Question 43.
According to Section 140(1), the auditor appointed under section 139 may be removed from his office before the expiry of his term only by a general resolution of the company. [RTP-May 20]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.
As per Sec. 140(1), the auditor appointed u/s 139 may be removed from his office before the expiry of his term only by a special resolution of the company, after obtaining the previous approval of the Central Government in that behalf as per Rule 7 of CAAR, 2014.

Question 44.
As per sub-section (5) of the section 140, the Tribunal cannot direct the company to change its auditors. [RTP-May 20]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.
As per Sec. 140(5), the Tribunal either suo motu or on an application made to it by the Central Government or by any person concerned, if it is satisfied that the auditor of a company has, whether directly or indirectly, acted in a fraudulent manner or abetted or colluded in any fraud by, or in relation to, the company or its directors or officers, it may, by order, direct the company to change its auditors.

Question 45.
Audit committee is to be constituted by every public company to ensure better standards of corporate governance. [MTP-Oct. 20]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.
As per Sec. 177 of Companies Act, 2013 audit committee is to be constituted by every listed public company and following classes of public companies only:

  • the Public Companies having paid up share capital of₹ 10 crore or more; or
  • the Public Companies having turnover of ₹ 100 crore; or
  • the Public Companies which have, in aggregate, outstanding loans, debentures and deposits, exceeding ₹ 50 crore.

Question 46.
The term “relative”, as defined under the Companies Act, 2013, means anyone who is closely related to another. [RTP-Nov. 20]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.
The term “relative”, as defined under the Companies Act, 2013, means anyone who is related to another as members of a Hindu Undivided Family; husband and wife; Father (including step- father), Mother (including step-mother), Son (including step-son), Son’s wife, Daughter, Daughter’s husband, Brother (including step-brother), Sister (including step-sister).

Question 47.
According to Section 140(1), the auditor appointed under section 139 may be removed from his office before the expiry of his term only by passing a Board resolution. [RTP-Nov. 20]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.
According to Section 140(1), the auditor appointed under section 139 may be removed from his office before the expiry of his term only by a special resolution of the company, after obtaining the previous approval of the Central Government in that behalf as per Rule 7 of CAAR, 2014

Question 48.
Auditor’s lien on his client’s books and record is not unconditional. [May 07 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is correct.
Auditor’s lien is subject to following conditions:

  • Documents must belong to the client who owes the money.
  • These documents must come to the possession of the auditor on the client’s authority.
  • The auditor can retain such documents, only if he has done work on such documents, on which fees have not been paid.

Question 49.
The auditor of a company is entitled to attend any General Meeting of the company as his duty. [Nov. 08 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is correct.
Section 146 of the Companies Act, 2013 requires the auditor of a company to attend either by himself or through his qualified authorised representative to attend the general meeting, unless exempted. Company is required to forward all notices and other communications relating to any general meeting of a company to the auditor.

Auditor shall have right to be heard at such meeting on any part of the business which concerns him as an auditor.

Question 50
Mr. X, a Chartered Accountant, is an employee of M/s M & N Co., a firm of Chartered Accountants of India. The firm is the Auditors of ABC & Co. Ltd. After auditing the accounts of the Company the Auditor firm allowed Mr. X, their employee, to sign the audit report which he did. [Nov. 09 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.

  • An employee Chartered Accountant cannot sign the auditor’s report on behalf of the auditing firm.
  • Only a partner in the firm can sign the audit report in compliance with the provisions of sec. 145 read with section 141(2) of the Companies Act, 2013.

Question 51.
It is the responsibility of the Auditor to ensure that statement of profit and Loss and Balance Sheet of the company shall comply with the Accounting Standards. [Nov. 14 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect:

  • As per section 143(3) of Companies Act, 2013, it is the duty of the auditor to report whether, in his opinion, the financial statements comply with the accounting standards.
  • To ensure that statement of profit and loss and balance sheet of the company comply with the accounting standards is the responsibility of the company.

Question 52
C&AG orders to conduct test audit of the accounts of a Government company. [May 15 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is correct.
As per Sec. 143(7) of Companies Act, 2013, CAG may in case of government company, if he considers necessary, by an order cause test audit to be conducted of the accounts of such company.

Question 53.
The auditor of A Ltd. Company wanted to refer to the minute books during audit but boards of directors refused to show the minute books to the auditors. [Nov. 15 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.

  • Sec. 141(3) of Companies Act, 2013 provides that every auditor of a company shall have a right of access at all times to the books of account and vouchers of the company, whether kept at the registered office of the company or at any other place.
  • The term ‘books of account and vouchers’ includes all books which have any bearing, or are likely to have any bearing on the accounts, whether these be the usual financial books or the statutory or statistical books.

The Company Audit – CA Inter Audit Notes

Question 54.
The auditor has to report to Central Govt, within 90 days of his knowledge of an offence involving fraud. [Nov. 15 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.

  • Sec. 141(12) of Companies Act, 2013 provides that if an auditor of a company, in the course of the performance of his duties as auditor, has reason to believe that an offence of fraud which involves an amount of ₹ 1 Cr. or above is being or has been committed against the company by officers or employees of the company, he shall report the matter to the CG.
  • Rule 13 of Companies [Audit and Auditor’s) Rules, 2014 provides that auditor shall report to the Board or the Audit Committee immediately but not later than 2 days of his knowledge of fraud, seeking their reply within 45 days.
  • On receipt of reply, he shall forward his report to the Central Government within 15 days from the receipt of such reply.

Question 55.
The members of XYZ Ltd. preferred a complaint against the auditor stating that he has failed to send the auditor’s report to them. [May 16 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.

  • Section 143 of the Companies Act, 2013 lays down the powers and duties of auditor. As per provisions of the law, it is no part of the auditor’s duty to send a copy of his report to members of the company.
  • In case of Allen Graig and Company [London) Ltd., it was held that duty of the auditor after having signed the report to be annexed to a balance sheet is confined only to forwarding that report to the secretary of the company. It will be for the secretary or the director to convene a general meeting and send the balance sheet and report to the members [or other person) entitled to receive it.

Question 56.
Auditor’s right of lien is unconditional. [Nov. 16 [2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is not correct.
Auditor’s lien is subject to following conditions:

  • Documents must belong to the client who owes the money.
  • These documents must come to the possession of the auditor on the client’s authority.
  • The auditor can retain such documents, only if he has done work on such documents, on which fees have not been paid.

Question 57.
Fraud against the company shall be reported by the auditor to the Central Government within 45 days of his knowledge, [May 17 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.

  • As per Rule 13 of Companies [Audit & Auditor’s) Rules, 2014, the auditor shall report the fraud to the CG within 15 days of reply received from the Board or Audit Committee, as the case may be.
  • In case auditor does not receive any reply within the stipulated period of 45 days, he shall forward his report to the CG within next 15 days.

Question 58.
The auditor has to report under section 143 of Companies Act, 2013whether company has adequate internal controls in place and overall effectiveness of such internal controls. [MTP-Oct. 20]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.

  • As per Sec. 143 of the Companies Act, 2013, auditor has to report whether the company has adequate internal financial controls with reference to financial statements in place and operating effectiveness of such controls.
  • The auditor has to report on adequacy and effectiveness of internal financial controls only and not internal controls.

Question 59.
CARO, 2020 does not apply to a foreign company. [May 13 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.
CARO, 2020 applies to all companies including foreign companies except Banking, Insurance, Sec. 8 Companies, One Person Company, Small Companies and Private Ltd, companies subject to certain conditions.

Question 60.
CARO, 2020 shall not apply to a Private Limited Company whose paid up capital and reserves are not more than ₹ 50 Lacs. [May 14 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is correct.
CARO, 2020 is not applicable over a private limited company, not being a subsidiary or holding of a public company, if following conditions are satisfied:

  • having a Paid up capital & Reserves & Surplus not more than ₹ 1 Cr. as on the balance sheet date, and
  • which does not have total borrowings exceeding ₹ 1 Cr. from any bank or financial institution at any point of time during the financial year, and
  • which does not have a total revenue as disclosed in Schedule III to the Companies Act, 2013 (including revenue from discontinuing operations) exceeding ₹₹0 Cr. during the financial year as per the financial statements.

Question 61.
Provisions of Companies (Auditor’s Report) Order, 2020, apply to clubs, chambers of commerce, research institutes etc., which have been established under section 8 of the Companies Act, 2013. [Nov. 09 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is Incorrect.
CARO, 2020 applies to all companies including foreign companies except Banking, Insurance, sec. 8 Companies, One Person Company, Small Companies and Private Ltd. companies subject to certain conditions.

Question 62.
CARO 2020 is also applicable to the audit of branch of a company, except where the company is exempt from the applicability of the order.
Answer:
Statement is correct.
Provisions of CARO are equally applicable in case of branches also, because under sec. 143(8), a branch auditor has same duties as of company auditor.

Question 63.
Provision of CARO, 2020 is not applicable to ABC Pvt. Ltd., a subsidiary of XYZ Ltd. (a public company) having fully paid Capital and Reserves & Surplus of ₹ 50 lakhs, Secured loan from bank of ₹ 90 Lakhs and Turnover of ₹ 5 Crore, for the financial year 2020-21. [Nov. 19 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.
CARO, 2020 is not applicable over a private limited company, not being a subsidiary or holding of a public company, if following conditions are satisfied:

  • having a paid-up capital & Reserves & Surplus not more than ₹ 1 Cr. as on the balance sheet date, and
  • which does not have total borrowings exceeding ₹ 1 Cr. from any bank or financial institution at any point of time during the financial year, and
  • which does not have a total revenue as disclosed in Schedule III to the Companies Act, 2013 (including revenue from discontinuing operations) exceeding ₹ 10 Cr. during the financial year as per the financial statements.
    In this case, CARO is applicable as ABC Pvt. Ltd is a subsidiary of another public company.

The Company Audit – CA Inter Audit Notes

Question 64.
Internal auditor of the company cannot also be its cost auditor. [Nov. 07 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is correct.

  • Cost auditor should not be the internal auditor of a company for the period for which he is conducting the cost audit.
  • If the cost auditor is also the internal auditor, he would not be able to discharge his duties properly.

Question 65.
Comment on the following: ABC Ltd. having turnover of ₹ 100 crores during financial year 2015-16, need not get its branch audited whose turnover is ₹ 1.5 crores during the same year. [May 13 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.
As per section 143(8) of Companies Act, 2013 where a company has a branch office, the accounts of that office shall be audited by either of following:

  • the auditor appointed for the company, i.e. company auditor, or
  • any other person qualified for appointment as an auditor of the company under this Act, or
  • where the branch office is situated in a country outside India, the accounts of the branch office shall be audited either by the company’s auditor or by an accountant or by any other person duly qualified to act as an auditor of the accounts of the branch office in accordance with the laws of that country.

Question 66.
A joint auditor is not bound by the views of the majority of the joint auditors regarding matters to be covered in the auditor’s report. [May 17 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is correct.
SA 299 “Joint Audit of financial statements” provides the following in respect of reporting responsibilities of joint auditor:

  • Normally, the joint auditors are able to arrive at an agreed report.
  • However, where the joint auditors are in disagreement with regard to any matters to be covered by the report, each one of them should express his own opinion through a separate report.
  • A joint auditor is not bound by the views of the majority of the joint auditors regarding matters to be covered in the report and should express his opinion in a separate report in case of a disagreement.

Question 67.
Joint auditor is always bound by the views of majority of the joint auditors regarding matters to be covered in report. [May 19 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect:
SA 299 “Joint Audit of Financial Statements” provides that a joint auditor is not bound by the views of the majority of the joint auditors regarding matters to be covered in the report and should express his opinion in a separate report in case of a disagreement.

The Company Audit – CA Inter Audit Notes

Question 68.
Rule 3 of the Companies (Cost Records and Audit) Rule, 2014 provides the classes of companies, engaged in the production of goods of providing services, having an overall turnover of Rs. 25 crore or more during the immediately preceding financial year, required to include cost records in their books of account. [May 19 (2 MarksJl
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.
Rule 3 of the Companies (Cost Records and Audit) Rule, 2014, provides that for the purposes of Sec. 148(1) of the Companies Act, 2013, the specified class of companies, including foreign companies, engaged in the production of the goods or providing services, having an overall turnover from all its products and services of ₹ 35 Cr. or more during the immediately preceding financial year, shall include cost records for such products or services in their books of account.

Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Banking Companies – CA Inter Advanced Accounting Study Material is designed strictly as per the latest syllabus and exam pattern.

Banking Companies – CA Inter Advanced Accounting Study Material

Theory Questions

Question 1.
Mention the condition when a cash credit overdraft account is treated as ‘out of order’. (May 2010) (2 Marks)
Answer:
A cash credit overdraft account is treated as NPA if it remains out of order for a period of more than 90 days. An account is treated as ‘out of order’ if any of the following conditions is satisfied:
(a) The outstanding balance remains continuously in excess of the sanctioned limit/drawing power.
(b) Though the outstanding balance is less than the sanctioned limit /drawing power:

  1. there are no credits continuously for more than 90 days as on the date of balance sheet; or
  2. credits during the aforesaid period are not enough to cover the interest debited during the same period.

(c) Further any amount due to the bank under any credit facility is ‘overdue’ if it is not paid on the due date fixed by the bank.

Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Question 2.
Write short note on classification of advances in case of Banking Company. (May 2016) – (4 Marks)
Answer:
Banks are required to classify their advances into four broad groups:

(i) Standard Assets – Standard assets are those which do not disclose any problems and which do not carry more than normal risk attached to the business. Such an asset is not a NPA (Non-performing asset).

(ii) Sub standard Assets – Sub-standard asset is one which has been classified as NPA for a period not exceeding 12 months. In other words, such
an asset will have well defined credit weaknesses that jeopardize the liquidation of the debt and are characterized by the distinct possibility that the bank will sustain some loss, if deficiencies are not corrected.

(iii) Doubtful Assets – A doubtful asset is one which has remained sub-standard for a period of at least 12 months. A loan classified as doubtful has all the weaknesses inherent in assets that were classified as sub-standard with added characteristic that the weaknesses make collection or liquidation in full, on the basis of currently known facts, conditions and values, highly questionable and improbable.

(iv) Loss Assets – A loss asset is one where loss has been identified by the bank or internal or external auditors or the RBI inspectors but the amount has not been written off, wholly or partly. In other words such assets are considered uncollectable or if collected of such low value that their being shown as bankable assets is not warranted even though there may be some salvage or recoverable value.

The classification of advances should be done taking into account

  1. Degree of well defined credit weakness and
  2. Extent of dependence on collateral security for the recovery of dues.

This classification is meant for the purpose of computing the amount of provision to be made in respect of advances.

Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Tier I and II Capital

Question 3.
A Commercial Bank has the following capital funds and assets. Segregate the capital funds into Tier I and Tier II capitals. Find out the risk adjusted asset and risk weighted assets ratio. (Nov. 2010) (8 Marks)
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 1
Answer:
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 2
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 3

Risk Weighted Assets Ratio:
\(\frac{\text { Capital fund } \times 100}{\text { Risk adjusted assets }}\)
(824.8/11,392.60) × 100 = 7.24%

Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Question 4.
A Commercial Bank has the following capital funds and assets. Segregate the capital funds into Tier-I and Tier-II Capitals. Find out the risk- adjusted and risk weighted assets and capital adequacy ratio: (May 2012) (8 Marks)
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 4
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 12
Answer:
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 13
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 5
Capital Adequacy Ratio = \(\frac{\text { Capital fund }}{\text { Risk adjusted assets }}\) × 100
= \(\frac{₹ 1,103 \text { crores } \times 100}{₹ 13,989 \text { crores }}\) = 7.89%

Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Question 5.
A commercial bank has the allowing capital funds and assets. Segregate the capital funds into Tier I and Tier II capitals. Find out the risk adjusted asset and risk weighted asset ratio. State your observation on the risk weighted asset ratio. (Nov. 2014) (8 Marks)
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 6
Answer:
Computation of Tier I and Tier II Capital Fund
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 7

Risk Adjusted Assets
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 8
Risk Weighted Assets Ratio:
\(\frac{\text { Capital fund } \times 100}{\text { Risk adjusted assets }}\)
= (726.10/11,183) × 100
= 6.49%
At present capital adequacy ratio as per RBI norms is 9%. Therefore, Bank has to improve the ratio by introducing further Tier-I capital or by reducing risk adjusted assets.

Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Question 6.
A commercial bank has the following capital funds and assets. You are required to segregate the capital funds into Tier-I and Tier-II capitals and also find out the risk adjusted assets and capital adequacy ratio. (May 2017) (8 Marks)
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 9
Answer:
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 10
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 11
Capital to Risk Weighted Assets Ratio (Capital Adequacy Ratio):
Capital Fund/(Risk Adjusted Assets + Off-Balance Sheet items) × 100
(2,206/15,978) × 100 = 13.8196

Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Question 7.
Astha Bank has the following Capital Funds and Assets as at 31st March, 2018:
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 14
You are required to:
(i) Segregate the capital funds into Tier I and Tier II capitals.
(ii) Find out the risk-adjusted assets and risk weighted assets ratio. (May 2018 – New Course) (10 Marks)
Answer:
(i) Capital Funds-
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 15

(ii) Risk Adjusted Assets
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 16

Risk Weighted Assets Ratio:
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 17
= (1,145+11.25)/(9,636 +7,300)
= (1,156.25/16.936) × 100 = 6.83% (rounded off)

Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Interest Recognition

Question 8.
Find out the income to be recognised by ABC Bank Ltd. for the year ended 31st March, 2014 in respect of interest on advances [₹ in Lakhs] as detailed below: (Nov. 2014) (4 Marks)
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 18
Answer:
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 19
Note : Interest on Performing assets to be recognised on accrual basis, but interest on Non-Performing assets should be recognised on cash basis.

Classification Of Advances

Question 9.
The outstanding amount (funded as well as unfunded) as on 31st March, 20X1 was: ₹ 10,000. The realizable value of security of the same was ₹ 8,000.
Period for which the advance has remained in ‘doubtful’ category as on 31st March, 20X1 was: 2.5 years.
Answer:
Provisioning requirement:
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 20

Provisioning for Advances (Without Ecgc and Dicgc Cover)

Question 10.
From the following information of details of advances of Zenith Bank Ltd., calculate the amount of provisions to be made in Profit and Loss Account for the year ended on 31-3-2010: (Nov. 2010) (5 Marks)
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 21
Answer:
Statement showing provisions
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 22
Note: It is assumed that sub-standard assets and all doubtful assets are fully secured.

Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Question 11.
From the following information, compute the amount of provisions to be made in the Profit and Loss Account of a Commercial Bank for the year ending on 31-03-2012. (May 2012) (5 Marks)
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 23
Answer:
Statement showing the amount of provisions
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 24

Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Question 12.
From the following information of STP Bank Ltd. pertaining to the financial year 2012-13, compute the provisions to be made in the Profit and Loss Account: (Nov. 2013) (4 Marks)
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 25
Answer:
Statement showing amount of provision
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 26

Provisioning for Advances (With Ecgc and Dicgc Cover)

Question 13.
In ABC Bank, the doubtful assets (more than 3 years) as on 31.3.20X1 is ₹ 1,000 lakhs. The value of security (including DICGC 100% cover of ₹ 100 lakhs) is ascertained at ₹ 500 lakhs. How much provision must be made in the books of the Bank towards doubtful assets?
Answer:
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 27

Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Question 14.
A loan account remains out of order as on the date of Balance Sheet of a Bank. The account has been classified as doubtful assets (up to 1 year).
Details of the accounts are:
Outstanding – ₹ 6,73,000
ECGC coverage – 25% (Limited to ₹ 1,00,000)
Value of security held – ₹ 1,50,000
Compute the necessary provision to be made by a Bank as per applicable rates. (Nov. 2012) (5 Marks)
Answer:
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 28

Question 15.
A loan account remains out of order as on the date of Balance Sheet of a Bank. The account has been classified as doubtful assets (up to 3 years). i Detail of the account is:
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 29
Compute the necessary provision to be made by bank as per applicable rate. (May 2014) (4 Marks)
Answer:
Computation of provision to be made by a Bank
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 30

Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Question 16.
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 31
You are required to calculate provisions as per applicable rules. (May 2018) (4 Marks)
Answer:
Provision required to be made as on 31.3.2018
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 32

Rebate On Bills Discounted

Question 17.
The following facts have been taken out from the records of C Bank Ltd. as on 31st March, 2015:
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 33
An analysis of the bills discounted is as follows:
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 34
You are required to:
(i) Calculate Rebate on Bill Discounted as on 31st March, 2015.
(ii) The amount of discount to be credited to the profit and loss account.
Answer:
(i) Computation showing Rebate on bills discounted
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 35

(ii) Amount of discount [to be credited to the Profit and Loss Account]
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 36

Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Question 18.
Given below is an extract from the that balance of T.K. Bank Limited as on 31st December, 2009:
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 37
An analysis of the bills discounted is shown below:
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 38
Show the workings, how the relevant items will appear in the bank’s Profit and Loss account as on 31st December, 2009 and in bank’s Balance Sheet as on 31st December, 2009. (May 2010) (8 Marks)
Answer:
Profit & Loss Account (extract) for the period ending 31.12.2009
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 39

Balance Sheet (Extract) as on 31.12.2009
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 40

Statement of rebate on bills discounted as on 31.12.2009
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 41

Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Question 19.
The following particulars are extracted from the records of M/s. Engco Bank Limited for the year ended 31st March, 2011:
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 42

An analysis of the bills discounted is a follows:
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 43
The rate of discount is 12% per annum. You are required to:

  1. Calculate rebate on bills discounted as on 31st March, 2011.
  2. Determine the amount of discount to be credited to the profit and loss account for the year ended 31st March, 2011.
  3. Show the necessary journal entries in the books of M/s. Engco Bank Ltd. as on 31st March, 2011. (Nov. 2011) (8 Marks)

Answer:
(i) Computation showing Rebate on Bills Discounted as on 31st March, 2011
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 44
Amount of rebate on bills = ₹ 11,43,38,000 x 1296 × 1/365 = ₹ 37,591 (approx.)
Note: Alternatively rebate on each bill can be calculated individually.

(ii) Amount of discount (to be credited to the Profit and Loss Account for the year ended 31st March, 2011)
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 45

In the books of Engco Bank Ltd. Journal Entries
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 46

Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Question 20.
The following information is available in the books of X Bank Limited as on 31st March, 2013:
Bills discounted – ₹ 1,37,05,000
Rebate on bills discounted (as on 1-4-2012) – ₹ 2,21,600
Discount received – ₹ 10,56,650
Details of bills discounted are as follows:
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 47
Calculate the rebate on bills discounted as on 31-3-2013 and give necessary Journal Entries in the books of X Bank Ltd. as on 31st March, 2013. (May 2013) (8 Marks)
Answer:
Computation showing of Rebate on bills discounted
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 48

Journal Entries in the books of X Bank Ltd.
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 49

Working Note:
Amount of discount (to be credited to the Profit and Loss Account)
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 50

Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Question 21.
The following is an extract from the trial balance of Novel Bank Limited as on 31st March, 2017:
Rebate on bills discounted as on 1st April 2016 – ₹ 78,566 (Cr. bal.)
Discount Received – ₹ 1,60,572 (Cr. bal.)
An analysis of bills discounted is as follows:
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 51
Find out the amount of discount to be credited to Profit and Loss Account for the year ending on 31st March, 2017 and pass the necessary journal entries. The rate of discount shall be taken at 10% per annum. (Nov. 2017) (6 Marks)
Answer:
Computation showing Rebate on bill (discounted as on 31-3-2017)
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 52

Amount of discount (to be credited to the profit and loss account)
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 53

Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Question 22.
Forward Bank Ltd. furnishes the following information as on 31st March, 2018.
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 54
Details of bills discounted is as given below:
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 55
(i) Calculate the rebate on bills discounted as on 31st March, 2018.
(ii) Pass necessary Journal Entries. (Nov. 2018 – New Course) (5 Marks)
Answer:
Computation showing Rebate on Bill discounted (as on 31-3-2018)
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 56

Working Note:
Amount of discount (to be credited to the Profit and Loss Account)
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 57

Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Bills for Collection

Question 23.
On 01.04.20X1 bills for collection was 7 lacs. During 20X1-X2 bills received for collection amounted to 64.5 lacs. Bills collected were 47 lacs. Bills dishonoured was 5.5 lacs. Prepare Bills for collection (Assets) and Bills for Collection (Liabilities) Accounts.
Answer:
Bills for Collection (Assets) Account
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 58

Bills for Collection (Liabilities) Account
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 59

Acceptances, Endorsements and Other Obligations

Question 24.
From the following details prepare ‘Acceptances, Endorsements and other Obligation A/c’ as would appear in the General Ledger.

On 1.4.20X1 Acceptances not yet satisfied stood at ₹ 22,30,000. Out of which ₹ 20 lacs were subsequently paid off by clients and bank had to honour the rest. A scrutiny of the Acceptance Register (for transactions during the year) revealed the following:
Client Acceptances/Guarantees
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 60
Answer:
Acceptances, Endorsements and other Obligation Account (in general ledger)
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 61

Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Mix Question (Rebate On Bills Discounted; Bills For Collection; Acceptances, Endorsements And Other Obligations)

Question 25.
(a) Following facts have been taken out from the records of M/s. Sneha Bank Ltd. in respect of the year ending March 31, 2015:
(i) On 1-4-2014 Bills for collection were ₹ 10,15,000. During 2014-15 bills received for collection amounted to ₹ 89,75,000, bills collected were ₹ 64,50,000 and bills dishonoured and returned were ₹ 11,25,000. Prepare Bills for collection (Assets) Account and bills for Collection (Liability) Account.

(ii) On 1 -4-2014, Acceptance, Endorsement, etc. not yet satisfied amounted to ₹ 27,50,000. During the year under question, Acceptances, Endorsements, Guarantees etc., amounted to ₹ 67,50,000. Bank honoured acceptances to the extent of ₹ 44,50,000 and client paid of ₹ 15,00,000 against the guaranteed liability. Clients failed to pay ₹ 4,00,000 which the Bank had to pay.
Prepare the ‘Acceptances, Endorsements and other obligations Account’ as it would appear in the General Ledger.

(iii) It is found from the books, that a loan of ₹ 50,00,000 was advanced on 30.09.2014 @ 14% p.a. Interest payable half yearly; but the loan was outstanding as on 31.3.2015 without any payment recorded in the meantime, either towards principal or towards interest. The security for the loan was ₹ 1,00,000 fully paid shares of ₹ 100 each (the market value was ₹ 98 per share as per the Stock Exchange information as on 30th September, 2014). But due to fluctuations, the price fell to ₹ 45 per share in January, 2015. On 31-3-2015, the price as per Stock Exchange rate was ₹ 85 per share.
State how would you classify the loan as secured/unsecured in the Balance Sheet of the Company.

(iv) The following balances are extracted from the Trial Balance as on 31.3.2015:
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 62
It is ascertained that the proportionate discounts not yet earned for bills to mature in 2014-15 amount to ₹ 24,000. Prepare ledger accounts.

(b) From the following information of M/s. XY Bank Ltd. for the year ended 31st March, 2014, compute the provisions to be made in the Bank’s Books for Doubtful Assets: (May 2015)
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 63
Answer:
(a)(i) Bills for Collection (Assets) A/c
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 64

(ii) In the general ledger
Acceptances, Endorsement & other Obligation Account
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 65

(iii) For classifying loans as fully secured or otherwise, the value of the security as on the last date of the year is considered. The value of the security is ₹ 85,00,000 covering the loan and the interest due comfortably. Hence, it is to be treated as good and fully secured.

Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

(iv) Rebate on Bills Discounted Account
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 66

(b) Computation of provision in the books of XY Bank Ltd.
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 67

Question 26.
From the following facts drawn from the records of Honest Bank for the year ended 31st March, 2015, prepare the accounts as mentioned below:
(i) 1-4-2014 Bills for Collection were ₹ 28,00,000. During 2014-15, bills received for collection were ₹ 2,58,00,000. Bills collected were ₹ 1,88,00,000. Bills dishonoured and returned were ₹ 22,00,000. Prepare Bills for Collection (Assets) Account and Bills for Collection (Liability) Account.

(ii) On 1st April, 2014, Acceptance, Endorsement etc. not yet satisfied amounted to ₹ 58,00,000. During the year, Acceptances, Endorsements, Guarantees etc. were ₹ 1,76,00,000. The Bank honoured acceptances of ₹ 1,00,00,000 and a client paid ₹ 40,00,000 against guaranteed liabilities. The Bank paid ₹ 4,00,000 which clients failed to pay.
Prepare ‘Acceptances, Endorsements and Other Obligations Account’ in the General Ledger.

(iii) A loan of ₹ 24,00,000 advanced by the Bank on 30th August, 2014 @10 per annum, whose interest is payable half-yearly. The loan was outstanding as on 31st March, 2015. Nothing was paid either towards Principal or Interest of this loan. The security for the loan was 40,000 fully paid shares of ₹ 100 each. The shares were quoted on the stock exchange on 30th September, 2014 at t 90 per share. Due to fluctuations, the price felt to ₹ 50 per share in January, 2015. On 31st March, 2015 the share price quoted on the stock exchange was ₹ 96 per share. State giving reasons, whether the loan would be classified as secured or unsecured in the Balance Sheet of the Company as on 31st March, 2015.

(iv) The following balances were taken from the Trial Balance as on 31st March, 2015.
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 68
Proportianate discounts not yet earned for Bills to mature in 2015-2016 were ₹ 56,000. Prepare the following Accounts:
(a) Rebate on Bills Account
(b) Interest and Discount Account. (Nov. 2016) (10 Marks)
Answer:
(i) Bills for Collection (Assets) A/c
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 69

Bills for Collection (Liabilities) Account
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 70

(ii) In the General Ledger
Acceptances, Endorsement & other Obligations Account
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 71

(iii) For classifying loans as fully secured or otherwise, the value of the security as on the last date of the year is considered. The value of the security is ₹ 38,40,000 (40,000 shares ₹ ₹ 96 per share) covering the loan and the interest due comfortably. Hence it is to be treated as good and fully secured loan.

(iv) Rebate on Bills Discounted Account
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 72

Interest & Discount Account
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 73

Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Final Accounts – P&L

Question 27.
The following figures are extracted from the books of XYZ Bank Ltd. as on 31-03-20X2:
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 74

The following further information is given:

  1. A customer to whom a sum of ₹ 10 lakhs was advanced has become insolvent and it is expected only 55% can be recovered from his estate.
  2. There was also other debts for which a provisions of ₹ 2,00,000 was found necessary.
  3. Rebate on bill discounted on 31-03-20X1 was ₹ 15,000 and on 31-03- 20X2 was ₹ 20,000.
  4. Income tax of ₹ 2,00,000 is to be provided.

The directors desire to declare 5% dividend.
Prepare the Profit and Loss account of XYZ Bank Ltd. for the year ended 31-03-20X2 and also show, how the Profit and Loss account will appear in the Balance Sheet if the Profit and Loss account opening balance was NIL as on 31-03-20X1
Answer:
XYZ Bank Limited
Profit and Loss Account for the year ended 31st March, 20X2
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 75

Profit & Loss Account balance of ₹ 3,75,445 will appear under the head ‘Reserves and Surplus’ in Schedule 2 of the Balance Sheet.

SCHEDULES:
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 76

Working Mote I:
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 77

Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Question 28.
The following figures have been taken from the books of XYZ Bank Limited as on 31st March, 2014:
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 78

The following additional information is given to you:

  1. One customer to whom a sum of ₹ 10 lakhs was advanced, has become insolvent and it is expected that only 50% of the amount will be recovered from his estate.
  2. Auditors find that a provision of ₹ 1.5 lakhs is necessary against other debts.
  3. Rebate on bills discounted on 31st March, 2013 was ₹ 12,000 and on 31st March, 2014 was ₹ 16,000.
  4. Provide ₹ 6,50,000 for income tax.
  5. The Board of Directors decides to declare dividend @ 10% after transfer of 25% of the year’s profit to Statutory Reserve.

You are required to prepare Profit and Loss Account of the bank with all the necessary schedules for the year ended 31st March, 2014. Ignore figures for the previous year and corporate dividend tax.
Answer:
XYZ Bank Limited
Profit and Loss account for the year ended 31st March, 2014
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 79

Schedule 13 – Interest earned
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 80

Schedule 14 – Other Income
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 81

Schedule 15-Interest Expended
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 82

Schedule 16-Operating Expenses
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 83

Working Notes:
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 84

Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Question 29.
From the following information of ABC Bank Limited, Prepare Profit and Loss Account for the year ended 31st March, 2018:
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 85

Other Information:
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 86
(iii) Provide 35% of the profits towards provision for taxation.
(iv) Transfer 25% of the profit to Statutory Reserves.
Answer:
ABC Bank Limited Profit and Loss Account
For the year ended 31st March, 2018
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 87

Schedule 13 – Interest Earned
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 88
Note: Interest on NPA is recognized on cash basis, hence difference of accrued interest not received have been reduced from the total accrued interest.

Schedule 14 – Other Income
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 89

Schedule 15 – Interest Expended
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 90

Schedule 16 – Operating Expenses
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 91

Working Note:
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 92

Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Question 30.
From the following information, you are required to prepare Profit and Loss Account of Zee Bank Ltd., for the year ending 31st March, 2009:
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 93
Additional information:
(a) Rebate on bills discounted to be provided for? 15,000
(b) Classification of advances:
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 94
(c) Make tax provision @ 35%
(d) Profit and Loss A/c (Cr.) ₹ 40,000. (Nov. 2009) (8 Marks)
Answer:
Form B’
Zee Bank Ltd.
Profit & Loss Account for the year ended 31st March, 2009
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 95

Schedule 13: Interest Earned
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 96

Working Notes:
I. Calculation of provisions on non-performing assets
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 97

II. Calculation of provision for tax
Tax = 35% of [Total income – Total expenditure (excluding tax)].
Tax = 35% of [₹ 44,30,000 + ₹ 1,25,000 – (₹ 13,60,000 + ₹ 13,31,000 + ₹ 5,90,250 + ₹ 15,000)]
Tax = ₹ 451063

III. Total amount of provisions and contingencies
= Provision for non-performing assets + Provision for tax + Rebate on bills discounted
= ₹ 5,90,250 + ₹ 4,51,063 + ₹ 15,000
= ₹ 10,56,313

Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Question 31.
From the following information prepare the Profit & Loss Account of Jawahar Bank Limited for the year ended 31st March, 2011. Also give necessary Schedules.
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 98
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 99
Bank should not keep more than 25% of its investments as ‘held-for-maturity’ investment. The market value of its best 75% investments is ₹ 9,00,000 as on 31st March, 2011. (May 2011) (16 Marks)
Answer:
Jawahar Bank Limited
Profit & Loss Account for the year ended 31st March, 2011
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 100

Schedule 13 – Interest Earned
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 101

Schedule 14 – Other Income
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 102

Schedule 15 – Interest Expended
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 103

Schedule 16 – Operating Expenses
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 104
** Note 25% of investments classified as held for maturity’ need not be marked to market as per RBI Guidelines. However, the remaining 75% investments have been marked to market according to RBI Guidelines.

Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Question 32.
The following figures are extracted from the books of KLM Bank Ltd. as on 31-03-2012:
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 105

The following further information is given:

  1. A customer to whom a sum of ₹ 10 lakhs was advanced has become insolvent and it is expected only 55% can be recovered from his estate.
  2. There was also other debts for which a provisions of ₹ 2,00,000 was found necessary.
  3. Rebate on bill discounted on 31-03-2011 was ₹ 15,000 and on 31-032012 was ₹ 20,000.
  4. Income tax of ₹ 2,00,000 is to be provided.

The directors desire to declare 5% dividend.
Prepare the Profit and Loss account of KLM Bank Ltd. for the year ended 31-03-2012 and also show, how the Profit and Loss account will appear in the Balance Sheet if the Profit and Loss account opening balance was NIL as on 31-03-2011. (Nov. 2012) (8 Marks)
Answer:
KLM Bank Limited
Profit and Loss Account for the year ended 31st March, 2012
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 106

Note: Profit & Loss Account balance of ₹ 3,75,445 will appear under the head ‘Reserves and Surplus’ in Schedule 2 of the Balance Sheet.
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 107

Working Note:
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 108

Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Question 33.
From the following information of Wealth Bank Limited, Prepare Profit and Loss Account for the year ended 31st March, 2016:
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 109

Other Information:
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 110
(iii) Investments : Bank should not keep more than 25% of its investment as ‘held-for-maturity’ investment; the market value of its rest 75% investment is ₹ 3,95,00,000 as on 31.03.2016.
(iv) Provide 35% of the profits towards provision for taxation.
(v) Transfer 20% of the profit to Statutory Reserves. (May 2016) (10 Marks)
Answer:
Wealth Bank Limited Profit and Loss Account
For the year ended 31st March, 2016
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 111

Schedule 13 – Interest Earned
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 112

Schedule 14 – Other Income
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 113

Schedule 15 – Interest Expended
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 114

Schedule 16 – Operating Expenses
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 115

Working Note:
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 116

Note:
1. Cost of investment is missing in the question. Therefore, it is assumed that cost of 75% of the investments, other than the investments held for maturity, is same as its market value. Hence no diminution in the value is provided for in the given solution.

Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Question 34.
The following are the figures extracted from the books of National Bank Limited as on 31-3-2018.
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 117

The following further information is given:

  1. A customer to whom a sum of ₹ 16 lakhs has been advanced has become insolvent and it is expected only 40% can be recovered from his estate.
  2. There were also other debts for which a provision of ₹ 2,10,000 was found necessary by the auditors.
  3. Rebate on bills discounted on 31-3-2017 was ₹ 19,000 and on 31-3-2018 was ₹ 25,000.
  4. Preliminary expenses are to be fully written off during the year.
  5. Provide ₹ 9,00,000 for Income-tax.
  6. Profit and loss account opening balance was Nil as on 31 -3-2017.
  7. The directors desire to declare 10% dividend after transfer of 25% of the year’s profit to statutory reserve.

You are required to prepare profit & loss Account of the National Bank Ltd. with all the necessary schedules for the year ended 31st March 2018. Ignore figures for the Previous year and corporate dividend tax. (May 2018) (8 Marks)
Answer:
National Bank Limited
Profit and Loss Account for the year ended 31st March, 2018
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 118

Note: The Profit & Loss Account balance of ₹ 254.60 thousand will appear in the Balance Sheet under Schedule 2 ‘Reserves and Surplus’.
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 119

Working Notes:
I.
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 120

II. Provisions and Contingencies
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 121

Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Question 35.
The following are the figures extracted from the books of PQR Bank Limited as on 31.3.2017.
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 122

The following further information is given:

  1. A customer to whom a sum of ₹ 16 lakhs has been advanced has become insolvent and it is expected only 40% can be recovered from his estate.
  2. There were also other debts for which a provision of ₹ 2,10,000 was found necessary by the auditors.
  3. Rebate on bills discounted on 31.3.2016 was ₹ 19,000 and on 31.3.2017 was ₹ 25,000.
  4. Preliminary expenses are to be fully written off during the year.
  5. Provide ₹ 9,00,000 for Income-tax.
  6. Profit and Loss account opening balance was Nil as on 31.3.2016.

You are required to Prepare the Profit and Loss account of PQR Bank Limited for the year ended 31.3.2017.
Answer:
PQR Bank Limited
Profit and Loss Account for the year ended 31st March, 2017
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 123
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 124

Working Note:
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 125

Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Final Accounts – Balance Sheet

Question 36.
How will you disclose the following Ledger balances in the Final accounts of DVD bank:
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 126

Additional information:

  1. Included in the current accounts ledger are accounts overdrawn to the extent of ₹ 250 lacs.
  2. One of the cash credit account of ₹ 10 lacs (including interest ₹ 1 lac) is doubtful.
  3. 60% of term loans are secured by government guarantees, 20% of cash credits are unsecured, other portion is secured by tangible assets. (May 2010) (4 Marks)

Answer:
Relevant Schedules
Schedule 3: Deposits
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 127

Schedule 9: Advances
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 128

Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Schedule 5: Other Liabilities & Provisions
Banking Companies – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 129

*Note: It is assumed that the cash credit has been in the ‘doubtful’ category for more than three years.

CA Inter Auditing Case Studies – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Students should practice these CA Inter Auditing Case Studies – CA Inter Audit MCQ based on the latest syllabus.

CA Inter Auditing Case Studies – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Integrated Case Study – 1
Moon Group of companies is a retail chain involved in the selling of daily consumer needs directly to the customer. They are in the process of appointing an audit firm for the audit of their accounts for the financial year 2019-20. Moon Group is a South Indian based consumer store having a total of 16 outlets across 4 cities in South India.
Sumant & Co. is appointed as the principal auditor for the entire group. Companies Act, 2013 prescribes in detail the terms of this audit engagement. Further, there are many branch auditors appointed for the outlets in the other cities. The company also has an internal audit function conducted on quarterly basis by Ram & Co. Following are the observations during the course of the statutory audit:
(a) One of the discounts offered by the store is in the form of payback cards where reward points are accumulated and the customer can redeem the same on subsequent purchase. The management and internal auditors are of the opinion that the points redeemed are to be treated as trade discount. The external auditors are doubtful on the matter.
One of the outlet in Chennai region is in the verge of getting closed and is only left with low value stock to be cleared before closure. During the year, the sales were only around Rs. 1,40,000 and the auditor considers this component immaterial. All other outlets are performing well with good revenue share.
The gratuity valuation of the employees of the retail chain is done by an external valuer. The auditor, considering the quantum involved appoints an external auditor’s expert for the verification of the actuarial calculation of gratuity.

From the above facts, answer the following questions by choosing the correct answer:
Question 1.
As per SA 210 – Agreeing the Terms of Audit Engagement, which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Though law prescribes in sufficient detail the terms of the audit engagement, the auditor still needs to record them in a written agreement and also seek written agreement from management that it acknowledges and understands that it has responsibility for the preparation of financial statements.
(b) Since law prescribes in sufficient detail the terms of the audit engagement, the auditor need not record them in a written agreement except for the fact that law or regulation applies and also seek written agreement from management that it acknowledges and understands that it has responsibility for the preparation of financial statements.
(c) The auditor has to take an extract of the law prescribing the details of the terms of the audit engagement and obtain the counter signature of the management in it.
(d) Though law prescribes in sufficient detail the terms of the audit engagement, the auditor still needs to record them in a written agreement, however it need not seek written agreement from management that it acknowledges and understands that it has responsibility for the preparation of financial statements.
Answer:
(b) Since law prescribes in sufficient detail the terms of the audit engagement, the auditor need not record them in a written agreement except for the fact that law or regulation applies and also seek written agreement from management that it acknowledges and understands that it has responsibility for the preparation of financial statements.

Reason:
As per SA 210, if law or regulation prescribes in sufficient detail the terms of the audit engagement, the auditor need not record them in a written agreement, except for the fact that such law or regulation applies and that management acknowledges and understands its responsibilities.

Question 2.
With respect to the treatment of discount on redemption of points in payback card, what should be the action of the external auditor?
(a) The auditor can place reliance and go by the opinion of the branch auditor and internal auditor as they have only done a thorough and detailed audit of the accounts
(b) The auditor can place reliance on the management’s accounting policy as prima facie they are only responsible for preparation of financial statements.
(c) The external auditor has sole responsibility for the audit opinion expressed and hence he should perform procedures to satisfy himself on the correct treatment and issue opinion accordingly.
(d) The auditor can advise management on correct treatment but cannot qualify his opinion as branch auditor’s opinion has higher authority than external auditor’s opinion.
Answer:
(c) The external auditor has sole responsibility for the audit opinion expressed and hence he should perform procedures to satisfy himself on the correct treatment and issue opinion accordingly.

Reason:
As per SA 600 and SA 610, Statutory auditor may use the work performed by Another Auditor and Interna! Auditor respectively, however, ultimate responsibility for opinion expressed is of Statutory auditor. Hence, he should perform procedures to satisfy himself on the correct treatment and issue opinion accordingly.

CA Inter Auditing Case Studies – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 3.
What is the main objective of the external auditor, when he uses the work of the internal audit function of Ram & Co.?
(a) To determine as to which areas, what extent the work can be used and whether that work is adequate for the purposes of the audit.
(b) To appropriately direct, supervise and review the work of the internal audit function
(c) Review the internal audit report and audit the areas not covered by the internal audit function
(d) Enquire from management on the special points that arose during internal audit and follow up on the course of action on those points.
Answer:
(a) To determine as to which areas, what extent the work can be used and whether that work is adequate for the purposes of the audit.

Reason:
As per SA 610, the objectives of the external auditor, if using the work of the internal audit function, is to determine whether that work is adequate for purposes of the audit.

Question 4.
The external auditor finds that the branch auditor of the outlet in the Chennai region, which is in the verge of closing down, is audited by an auditor who is not a member of the Institute of Chartered accountants of India. What should the external auditor do?
(a) Since the professional competence of the auditor is in question, the external auditor should himself visit the premise and audit the accounts.
(b) Since the financial statement of the component is immaterial, the provisions of SA 600 do not apply.
(c) The auditor can rely on the financial statements of that component by obtaining written representation from management that the branch auditor is otherwise well qualified.
(d) Since the professional competence of the auditor is in question, the external auditor should coordinate with the branch auditor and call for the books of account and other explanations.
Answer:
(b) Since the financial statement of the component is immaterial, the provisions of SA 600 do not apply.

Reason:
As per SA 600, when the principal auditor concludes that the financial information of a component is immaterial, the procedures outlined in SA 600 do not apply. When several components, immaterial in themselves, are together material in relation to the financial information of the entity as a whole, the procedures outlined in SA 600 should be considered.

Question 5.
Which of these is not a factor affecting the external auditor’s evaluation of the objectivity of the internal audit function?
(a) Whether the organizational status of the internal audit function supports the ability of the function to be free from bias, conflict of interest or undue influence of others to override professional judgment.
(b) Whether the internal audit function is free of any conflicting responsibilities.
(c) Whether the internal auditors have adequate technical training and proficiency in auditing.
(d) Whether those charged with governance oversee employment decisions related to internal audit function.
Answer:
(c) Whether the internal auditors have adequate technical training and proficiency in auditing.

Reason:
As per SA 610, in evaluation of the objectivity of the internal audit function, external auditor considers organisational status of internal audit function, conflicting responsibilities, oversight functions of TCWG w.r.t. employment decisions related to the internal audit function.

Integrated Case Study – 2
M/s JK & Associates have been appointed as auditors of Venus Ltd. for the financial year 2019-20. The team consist of Mr. J & Mr. K both Chartered Accountants as also the engagement partners and the audit staff consisting of 2 article assistants. While starting the audit work of Venus Ltd., the engagement partners briefed the audit staff about the audit work, areas to be covered and the various auditing concepts and their application in the audit of Venus Ltd. along with applicable Standard on Auditing.
Various topics like audit planning, overall audit strategy, audit programme were discussed in detail. The team was told about the purpose and implication of various statements and guidance notes issued by the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI) from time to time. Mr. K also briefed the team about the concept of materiality to be applied while planning and performing audit. The team was also explained in detail about the area where benchmark materiality can be applied in case of Venus Ltd.

Based on the above facts, answer the following:
Question 1.
sets the scope, timing & direction of the audit and guides the development of the more detailed plan.
(a) Audit Programme
(b) Overall Audit Strategy
(c) Completion Memorandum
(d) Audit Plan
Answer:
(b) Overall Audit Strategy

Reason:
As per SA 300, the auditor shall establish an overall audit strategy that sets the scope, timing and direction of the audit, and that guides the development of the audit plan

Question 2.
Statement 1: The establishment of the overall audit strategy and the detailed audit plan are not necessarily discrete or sequential process but are closely inter-related.
Statement 2: The auditor shall establish an overall audit strategy that guides the development of audit plan.
(a) Only Statement 1 is correct
(b) Only Statement 2 is correct
(c) Both Statements 1 & 2 are correct
(d) Both Statements 1 & 2 are incorrect
Answer:
(c) Both Statements 1 & 2 are correct

Reason:
As per SA 300, the establishment of the overall audit strategy and the detailed audit plan are not necessarily discrete or sequential processes, but are closely inter-related since changes in one may result in consequential changes to the other.

CA Inter Auditing Case Studies – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 3.
means the amount set bv the auditor at less than materialitv for the financial statements as a whole to reduce to an appropriately low level the probability that the aggregate of uncorrected and undetected misstatement exceeds materiality for the financial statements as a whole:
(a) Benchmark Materiality
(b) Materiality in Planning
(c) Performance Materiality
(d) Materiality.
Answer:
(c) Performance Materiality

Reason:
As per SA 320, performance materiality means the amount or amounts set by the auditor at less than materiality for the financial statements as a whole to reduce to an appropriately low level the probability that the aggregate of uncorrected and undetected misstatements exceeds materiality for the financial statements as a whole.

Question 4.
Which of the following is not an example of benchmark that can be used in determining the materiality in the case of financial statements:
(a) Total Revenue
(b) Profit before tax
(c) Net Asset Value
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(d) None of the above

Question 5.
(i) Guidance notes issued by ICAI provide guidance to members on matters which may arise in the course of their professional work.
(ii) Statements are issued by ICAI with a view to secure compliance by members on some matters,
(iii) Guidance notes are recommendatory in nature.
(iv) Statements are mandatory in nature.
(a) All the above statements are correct
(b) Statements 1 & 2 are correct
(c) Statements 1, 2 & 3 are correct
(d) Statements 1,2 & 4 are correct
Answer:
(a) All the above statements are correct

Integrated Case Study – 3
Anvisha Ltd. is a company engaged in the business of software development. It is one of the largest companies in this sector with a turnover of ? 25,000 crores. The operations of the company are increasing constantly, however, the focus of the management is more on cost cutting in the coming years to improve its profitability. Shares of Anvisha Ltd. are listed on Bombay Stock Exchange.
Company in its AGM held on 26.08.2018, appointed M/s ABC and Associates, Chartered Accountants, as their auditors for five years.
In respect of the financial statements of the company for the year 2018-19, which are used by various stakeholders, some fraud was observed in respect of assets reported therein due to which those stakeholders suffered damages. As a result, those stakeholders applied to Tribunal for change of auditor on the basis that auditor is colluded in the fraud.
In the meanwhile, ABC and Associates, resigned from the company without assigning any reason. As per the requirements of Sec. 140(2) of Companies Act, 2013, the auditor who has resigned from the company shall file within a period of 30 days from the date of resignation, a statement in the Form ADT-3 with the company and the Registrar. However, no such statement is filed by ABC and Associates.

Based on the above facts, answer the following:
Question 1.
In case of an listed entity, for the purpose of appointment of a person as auditor of the company, qualifications and experience of the individual or the firm proposed to be considered for appointment as auditor and whether such qualifications and experience are commensurate with the size and requirements of the company, is to be considered by:
(a) Audit Committee
(b) Board of Directors
(c) Audit Committee and SEBI
(d) Board of Directors and SEBI
Answer:
(a) Audit Committee

Reason:
As per Rule 3 of Companies (Audit and Auditor’s) Rules, 2014, in case of a company that is required to constitute an Audit Committee u/s 177, the audit committee, shall take into consideration the qualifications and experience of the individual or the firm proposed to be considered for appointment as auditor and whether such qualifications and experience are commensurate with the size and requirements of the company.

Question 2.
After appointment of the auditor in AGM, Anvisha Ltd. shall inform ABC and Associates of their appointment. and also file a notice in Form ______ of such appointment with ______ within of the meeting in which the auditor is appointed.
(a) Form ADT -1, SEBI, 15 Days
(b) Form ADT -1, Registrar, 15 days.
(c) Form ADT – 2, SEBI, 30 days
(d) Form ADT – 2, Registrar, 30 days.
Answer:
(b) Form ADT -1, Registrar, 15 days.

Reason:
As per Proviso to Sec. 139(1) of the Companies Act, 2013, the company shall inform the auditor concerned of his or its appointment, and also file a notice (Form ADT-1) of such appointment with the Registrar within 15 days of the meeting in which the auditor is appointed.

Question 3.
Which of the following stands true in respect of application made by shareholders to Tribunal for change of auditor on the basis that auditor is colluded in the fraud?
(a) Application will be rejected by Tribunal as application for change of auditor can be made only by Central Government.
(b) Application will be rejected by Tribunal as Only Tribunal may suo motu take action for change of auditor.
(c) If Tribunal is satisfied that the auditor of a company has, whether directly or indirectly, acted in a fraudulent manner or abetted or colluded in any fraud by, or in relation to, the company or its directors or officers, it may, by order, direct the company to change its auditors.
(d) Approval of Central Government is required before making application to Tribunal for change of auditors.
Answer:
(c) If Tribunal is satisfied that the auditor of a company has, whether directly or indirectly, acted in a fraudulent manner or abetted or colluded in any fraud by, or in relation to, the company or its directors or officers, it may, by order, direct the company to change its auditors.

Reason:
As per Sec. 140(5) of Companies Act, 2013, the Tribunal either suo mo to or on an application made to it by the Central Government or by any person concerned, if it is satisfied that the auditor of a company has, whether directly or indirectly, acted in a fraudulent manner or abetted or colluded in any fraud by, or in relation to, the company or its directors or officers, it may, by order, direct the company to change its auditors.

Question 4.
An auditor, whether individual or firm, against whom final order has been passed by the Tribunal u/s 140(5) of Companies Act, 2013 shall not be eligible to be appointed as an auditor of any company for a period of from the date of passing of the order and the auditor shall also be liable for action under section .
(a) 5 years; Sec. 147
(b) 10 Years; Sec. 147
(c) 5 Years; Sec. 447
(d) 10 years; Sec. 447
Answer:
(c) 5 Years; Sec. 447

Reason:
As per Sec. 140(5) of Companies Act, 2013, an auditor, against whom final order has been passed by the Tribunal under this section shall not be eligible to be appointed as an auditor of any company for a period of 5 years from the date of passing of the order and the auditor shall also be liable for action u/s 447.

CA Inter Auditing Case Studies – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 5.
If the auditor does not comply with the provisions of Sec. 140(2) of Companies Act, 2013, he or it
shall be liable to a penalty of:
(a) ₹ 50,000 or an amount equal to the remuneration of the auditor, whichever is less, and in case of continuing failure, with further penalty of ? 100 for each day after the first during which such failure continues, subject to a maximum of ₹ 1 lakh.
(b) ₹ 50,000 or an amount equal to the remuneration of the auditor, whichever is higher, and in case of continuing failure, with further penalty of? 100 for each day after the first during which such failure continues, subject to a maximum of ₹ 1 lakh.
(c) ₹ 50,000 or an amount equal to the remuneration of the auditor, whichever is less, and in case of continuing failure, with further penalty of ? 100 for each day after the first during which such failure continues, subject to a maximum of ₹ 5 lakh.
(d) ₹ 50,000 or an amount equal to the remuneration of the auditor, whichever is less, and in case of continuing failure, with further penalty of? 500 for each day after the first during which such failure continues, subject to a maximum of ₹ 5 lakh.
Answer:
(d) ₹ 50,000 or an amount equal to the remuneration of the auditor, whichever is less, and in case of continuing failure, with further penalty of? 500 for each day after the first during which such failure continues, subject to a maximum of ₹ 5 lakh.

Reason:
As per Sec. 140(3) of Companies Act, 2013, if the auditor does not comply with the provisions of Sec. 140(2), he or it shall be liable to a penalty of ? 50,000 or an amount equal to the remuneration of the auditor, whichever is less, and in case of continuing failure, with further penalty of? 500 for each day after the first during which such failure continues, subject to a maximum of ₹ 5 lakh.

Integrated Case Study – 4
M/s NSG & Associates have been appointed as auditors of Viaan Ltd. for the financial year 2019-20. The processes, operations, accounting and decisions are carried out by using computers in Viaan Ltd. The auditors understand that there are several aspects that they should consider to determine the level of automation and complexity in the business environment of Viaan Ltd. While planning the audit work, the engagement partners discussed with the audit staff about the various types of controls in the automated environment.
The different types of audit tests that can be used in audit of an automated business environment were also discussed within the engagement team. The responsibility regarding the Internal Financial Controls was also discussed in detail. Further the tools and techniques that can be used to deal with the enormous data and information of Viaan Ltd. were briefed to the audit staff by the engagement partners.

From the above facts, answer the following questions by choosing the correct answer:
Question 1.
______ are the manual controls that make use of some form of data or information or report produced from the IT systems and applications.
(a) Application Controls
(b) IT dependent Controls
(c) Automated Controls
(d) General IT Controls
Answer:
(b) IT dependent Controls

Question 2.
Statement 1: Application controls include both manual and automated controls that operate at a business process level.
Statement 2: General IT Controls apply to mainframe, miniframe as well as end user environment.
(a) Only Statement 1 is correct
(b) Only Statement 2 is correct
(c) Both Statements 1 & 2 are correct
(d) Both Statements 1 & 2 are incorrect
Answer:
(c) Both Statements 1 & 2 are correct

Question 3.
______ are also known as pervasive or indirect controls:
(a) General IT Controls
(b) Application Controls
(c) IT dependent Controls
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) General IT Controls

Question 4.
Which of the following are not the types of audit tests that can be used in the audit in an automated environment?
(a) Observation
(b) Inspection
(c) Re performance
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(d) None of the above

Question 5.
______ is the combination of Drocesses. tools and techniaues that are used to taD vast amounts of electronic data to obtain meaningful information:
(a) Computer Assisted Audit Techniques
(b) Automated Controls
(c) Data Analytics
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Data Analytics

CA Inter Auditing Case Studies – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Integrated Case Study – 5
You are an audit manager at RMT & Co. and you are considering a number of ethical issues which have arisen on some of the firm’s long-standing audit clients.
ABC Ltd.
RMT & Co. is planning its external audit of ABC Ltd. Yesterday, the audit engagement partner, Ramesh, discovered that a significant fee for information security services, which were provided to ABC Ltd. by RMT & Co., is overdue. Mr. Ramesh hopes to be able to resolve the dispute amicably and has confirmed that he will discuss the matter with the finance director, Mr. Keshav, at the weekend, as they are both attending a party to celebrate the engagement of Ramesh’s daughter and Keshav’s son.
XYZ (P) Ltd.
RMT & Co. is the external auditor of XYZ (P) Ltd. and also provides other non-audit services to the company. While performing the audit for the current year, the audit engagement partner was taken ill and took an indefinite leave of absence from the firm. The ethics partner has identified the following potential replacements and is keen that independence is maintained to the highest level:

  • Mr. Pankaj Garg who is also the partner in charge of the tax services provided to XYZ (P) Ltd.
  • Mr. Mohit Taneja who was the audit engagement partner for the preceding five years.
  • Mr. Chetanya Garg who introduced XYZ (P) Ltd. as a client when he joined the firm as an audit partner
    five years ago.
  • Mr. Nikunj Garg who is also the partner in charge of the payroll services provided to XYZ (P) Ltd. MN Ltd.

MN Ltd. is a large public company, and has been an audit client of RMT & Co. for several years. Aadish Jain, a partner of RMT & Co., has acted as the engagement quality control reviewer (EQCR) on the last two audits. At a recent meeting, he advised that he can no longer be EQCR on the engagement as he is considering accepting appointment as a non-executive director and will sit on the audit committee of MN Ltd.
The board of directors has also asked RMT & Co. if they would be able to provide internal audit services to the company.
PQR Ltd.
PQR Ltd., a listed company, is one of RMT & Co.’s largest clients. Last year the fee for audit and other services was ₹ 1.2 Cr. and this year it is expected to be ₹ 1.5 Cr. which represents 18% and 19.6% of RMT & Co.’s total income respectively.

Question 1.
Which of the following statements correctly explains the possible threats to RMT & Co.’s independence and recommends an appropriate safeguard in relation to their audit of ABC Ltd.?
(1) An intimidation threat exists due to the overdue fee and ABC Ltd. should be advised that all fees must be paid prior to the auditor’s report being signed.
(2) A self-review threat exists due to the nature of the non-audit work which has been performed and an engagement quality control review should be carried out.
(3) A self-interest threat exists due to the relationship between Ramesh and Keshav and Ramesh should be removed as audit partner.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (h) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 3 only
Answer:
(d) 3 only

Reason:
In line with Code of Ethics, a self-interest threat would arise due to the personal relationship between the audit engagement partner and finance director. A self-interest threat, not intimidation threat, would arise as a result of the overdue fee and due to the nature of the non-audit, work, it is unlikely that a self-review threat would arise.

Question 2.
Taking into account the concern of the ethics partner, which of the partners identified as potential replacements should take over the audit of XYZ (P) Ltd. for the current year?
(a) Mr. Pankaj Garg
(b) Mr. Mohit Taneja
(c) Mr. Chetanya Garg
(d) Mr. Nikunj Garg
Answer:
(c) Mr. Chetanya Garg

Reason:
In order to maintain independence, Chetanya Garg would be the most appropriate re-placement as audit engagement partner as he has no ongoing relationship with XYZ (P) Ltd. Appointing any of the other potential replacements would give rise to self-review or familiarity threats to independence.

Question 3.
Which of the following correctly identifies the threats to RMT & Co.’s independence and proposes an appropriate course of action for the firm if Aadish Jain accepts appointment as a nonexecutive director of MN Ltd.?

Threats Course of action
(a) Self-interest and familiarity Can continue with appropriate safeguards
(b) Self-interest and self-review Must resign as auditor
(c) Self-review and familiarity Must resign as auditor
(d) Familiarity only Can continue with appropriate safeguards

Answer:
(b)

Reason:
If Aadish Jain accepts the position as a non-executive director for MN Ltd., self-interest and self-review threats are created which are so significant that no safeguards can be implemented. Further as per Code of Ethics, no partner of the firm should serve as a director of an audit client and as such, RMT & Co. would need to resign as auditor.

Question 4.
You are separately considering MN Ltd.’s request to provide internal audit services and the remit of these services if they are accepted.
Which of the following would result in RMT & Co. assuming a management responsibility in relation to the internal audit services?
(1) Taking responsibility for designing and maintaining internal control systems.
(2) Determining which recommendations should take priority and be implemented.
(3) Determining the reliance which can be placed on the work of internal audit for the external audit.
(4) Setting the scope of the internal audit work to be carried out.
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4 only
Answer:
(c) 1, 2 and 4

Reason:
Assuming a management responsibility is when the auditor is involved in leading or directing the company or making decisions which are the remit of management. Designing and maintaining internal controls, determining which recommendations to implement and setting the scope of work are all decisions which should be taken by management.

Question 5.
Which of the following actions should RMT & Co. take to maintain their objectivity in relation to the level of fee income from PQR Ltd.?
(1) The level of fee income should be communicated to those charged with governance
(2) Separate teams should be used for the audit and non-audit work
(3) Request payment of the current year’s audit fee in advance of any work being performed
(4) Request a pre issuance review be conducted by an external accountant
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer:
(a) 1 and 4 only

Reason:
PQR Ltd. is a listed company and the fees received by RMT & Co. from the company is substantially high. As per Code of Ethics, this should be disclosed to TC WG and an appro-priate safeguard should be implemented. In this case, it would be appropriate to have a pre-issuance review carried out prior to issuing the audit opinion for the current year.

CA Inter Auditing Case Studies – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Integrated Case Study – 6
ABC Ltd., is one of the leading companies in the pharmaceuticals manufacturing industry. 75% Equity shares of ABC Ltd. was acquired by XYZ Ltd. five years ago and is being retained by XYZ Ltd. till date. Total shareholding of XYZ Ltd. includes the following:

  • The Government of Punjab and Government of Haryana each hold 18% of the paid -up share capital,
  • The Government of Rajasthan’s share is 15.5%.

On 29th Oct. 2019, Mr. Shyam, the auditor of ABC Ltd. had resigned from his post, citing medical reasons. However, he had forgotten to inform about his resignation to the concerned authorities. Casual vacancy so created was filled up with the appointment of RMT & Co. Chartered Accountants as statutory auditors of ABC Ltd.
As far as RMT & Co. Chartered Accountants are concerned, Mr. R, who is one of the partners of the firm had borrowed a sum of ₹ 3.00 lakhs from XYZ Ltd. He had also purchased goods worth ₹ 1.89 lakhs from the company. Both the sum borrowed and the cost of the goods bought are not yet paid by Mr. R does not sign the financials of ABC Ltd.
During the course of audit for the financial year 2019-20, the following observations with respect to the company were made by the auditors:
1. The company was not maintaining proper records with respect to the fixed assets maintained by it. The value of fixed assets of the company amounts to ₹ 1.50 crores approximately.
2. Physical verification for the same was not carried outat regular intervals. The last physical verification was conducted on 31st July 2018.
As a result of the above observations, the auditors decided to report the same in the Companies (Auditors Report) Order 2016. However, the management of the company was against the decision of the auditors and insisted that the observations need not be reported. After several discussions between the auditors and the management, RMT & Co. decided not to report the issues.

Question 1.
To whom should have Mr. Shyam informed about his resignation? What could be the possible consequence for his non-compliance?
(a) He should have informed the registrar and ABC Ltd. As a consequence of his failure, he is liable to a penalty not exceeding ₹ 5 lakhs.
(b) He should have informed the registrar alone. As a consequence of his failure, he is liable to a penalty not less than ₹ 50,000.
(c) He should have informed the registrar and RMT & Co, As a consequence of his failure, he is liable to a fine of ₹ 500 per day for each day of failure.
(d) He should have informed the registrar & comptroller and auditor general. As a consequence of his failure, he is liable to a fine of ₹ 45,000.
Answer:
(d) He should have informed the registrar & comptroller and auditor general. As a consequence of his failure, he is liable to a fine of ₹ 45,000.

Reason:
As per Sec. 140(2} of Companies Act, 2013, statement of resignation is required to be filed with Registrar, company and CAG (in case of Govt, company). As per Sec. 140(3) of Companies Act, 2013, minimum penalty for non-compliance of Sec. 140(2) is lower of audit fees and ₹ 50,000.

Question 2.
With respect to the acts carried out by Mr. R, the partner of the audit firm, what can you infer about the appointment of RMT & Co. as auditors of ABC Ltd.?
(a) It is valid since the indebtedness is within prescribed limits.
(b) It is not valid since the indebtedness exceeds prescribed limit of ₹ 1 lakhs,
(c) It is valid since Mr. R is not signing the financials of ABC Ltd.
(d) It is valid since the indebtedness is not with ABC Ltd.
Answer:
(a) It is valid since the indebtedness is within prescribed limits.

Reason:
As per Sec. 141(3)(c/) of Companies Act, 2013, a firm is disqualified to be appointed as auditor if any of the partner is indebted to the company, or its subsidiary, or its holding or associate company or a subsidiary of such holding company, in excess of ₹ 5 Lacs,

Question 3.
Is the decision of RMT & Co. of not reporting the issues of ABC Ltd. in CARO 2016 justified? If so, under what reason?
(a) No. CARO 2016 is applicable to ABC Ltd. and hence the same has to be reported under clause (z) of CARO.
(b) Yes. CARO 2016 is not applicable to ABC Ltd. and hence the same need not to be reported.
(c) No. As per SA 240, the auditor has to maintain professional skepticism when it comes to issues in the area of fixed assets and hence the same has to be reported.
(d) Yes. As per SA 320, the auditor after taking into account the materiality of the issue, he may either choose to report or not report about the same.
Answer:
(a) No. CARO 2016 is applicable to ABC Ltd. and hence the same has to be reported under clause (z) of CARO.

Reason:
Reporting under CA.RO, 2016 is required in case of a public company.

Question 4.
Based on the shareholding pattern of ABC Ltd. and XYZ Ltd., please select the correct answer as to classification of these companies.
(a) Both ABC Ltd. and XYZ Ltd. will he classified as government companies.
(b) ABC Ltd. will be classified as government company, whereas XYZ Ltd. will be classified as non-government company.
(c) ABC Ltd. will be classified as non-government company, whereas XYZ Ltd. will be classified as government company.
(d) Both ABC Ltd. and XYZ Ltd. will be classified as classified as non-government companies.
Answer:
(a) Both ABC Ltd. and XYZ Ltd. will he classified as government companies.

Reason:
As per Sec. 2(45) of Companies Act, 2013, “Govt, company” means any company in which not less than 51% of the paid-up share capital is held by the C.G., or by any S.G.(s), or partly by the C.G. and partly by one or more S.G. (s), and includes a company which is a subsidiary company of such a Government company.

Question 5.
Casual Vacancy created in the office of auditor in the case of a company whose accounts are subject to audit by an auditor appointed by the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India, be filled by the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India within___ days:
Provided that in case the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India does not fill the vacancy within the said period, the Board of Directors shall fill the vacancy within next ______ days.
(a) 30 days; 60 days
(b) 60 days; 30 days
(c) 60 days; 60 days
(d) 30 days; 30 days
Answer:
(d) 30 days; 30 days

CA Inter Auditing Case Studies – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Integrated Case Study – 7
CGN Ltd. is a large company engaged in the business of oil exploration in India. The Tamil Nadu Government and the Central Government hold 37% and 20% respectively of the paid-up share capital of CGN Ltd.
During the year 2017-18, CGN Ltd. acquires 50.4% shares of NPR Ltd., a company engaged in construction activities and having an annual turnover of? 1200 Crores for financial year 2018-19.
The C&AG appointed the statutory auditors of CGN Ltd. and NPR Ltd. as per requirements of the Companies Act 2013. The company had a concern regarding this appointment because both companies wanted to appoint other auditors as per their assessment, however, considering the legal hassles which would have got involved, both companies decided to go ahead with the appointments made by C&AG.
The audit of the financial statement for the year ended 31 March 2019 got completed by the auditors appointed by the C&AG. Subsequent to this, the C&AG also issued an order for supplementary audit of financial statements of the CGN Ltd, which was objected by the management of CGN Ltd.
The management objected saying that the complete set of financial statements have been audited by auditors appointed by the C&AG and hence this order is not acceptable because this would lead to duplication of work.
Moreover, the management of CGN Ltd. has also written to the C&AG that for the next financial year, the existing auditors should either resign so that the management may bring in their own auditors or the C&AG should have faith in the work of the auditors appointed by them.

C&AG refuses to accept the request of CGN Ltd, and appoint auditor for the financial year ended 31st March 2020 on 20.08.2019.
The audit ofthe financial sta t .ement»of NPR Ltd, for the finarn iai year ended 31 March 2019 got completed but NPR Ltd, observed th t dui ing the course of audit, there was lot of intervention of C&AG, wherein C&AG was giving directions to the auditors on the manner in which audit should he conducted in respect
of certain areas. Further, it also received comments from C&AG on the audit report of the auditors. NPR Ltd. is seeking legal opinion to go against C&AG so that they can avoid unnecessary interference of C&AG and is also looking to have new auditors appointed by NPR Ltd. with whom they will have an engagement letter with the terms that those auditors don’t accept any interference of C&AG which the existing auditors have not been able to avoid.

Question 1.
Which of the following option is correct as to appointment of auditors in CGN Ltd. and NPR Ltd. by C&AG?
(a) Appointment of auditor in CGN Ltd. by C&AG is valid; Appointment of auditor in NPR Ltd. by C&AG is not valid.
(b) Appointment of auditor in CGN Ltd. by C&AG is not valid; Appointment of auditor in NPR Ltd. by C&AG is valid.
(c) Appointment of auditors in CGN Ltd. as well as NPR Ltd. by C&AG are valid.
(d) Appointment of auditors in CGN Ltd. as well as NPR Ltd. by C&AG are not valid.
Answer:
(c) Appointment of auditors in CGN Ltd. as well as NPR Ltd. by C&AG are valid.

Reason:
As per Sec. 139(5) ofCompaniesAct,2013,in the case ofa Government company, the C&AG shall, in respect of a financial year, appoint an auditor duly qualified to be appointed as an auditor of companies under this Act, within a period of 180 days from the commencement of the financial year, who shall hold office till the conclusion of the AGM.

As per Sec. 2(45) of Companies Act, 2013, “Govt, company” means any company in which not less than 51% of the paid-up share capital is held by the C.G., or by any S.G.(s), or partly by the C.G. and partly by one or more S.G.(s), and includes a company which is a subsidiary company of such a Government company.

Question 2.
Please suggest how to resolve the matter as to objection of management of CGN Ltd. over the order of C&AG as to Supplementary audit.
(a) The management’s stand is not correct. The C&AG may order supplementary audit as per the requirements of the Companies Act 2013.
(b) The management’s stand is not correct. The C&AG may order supplementary audit as per the requirements of the Indian Penal Code.
(c) The management is correct and in this situation they get the right to appoint another auditor considering the fact that the C&AG has lost faith in the work of auditors appointed by them.
(d) Such type of matters should be taken to arbitration as per the requirements of the Arbitration Act.
Answer:
(a) The management’s stand is not correct. The C&AG may order supplementary audit as per the requirements of the Companies Act 2013.

Reason:
As per Sec. 143(6) of Companies Act, 2013, the CAG shall within 60 days from the date of receipt of the audit report have a right to, conduct a supplementary audit of the financial statement of the company by such person or persons as he may authorise in this behalf.

Question 3.
Which of the following is correct as to order of supplementary audit by C&AG?
(a) The CAG shall within 60 days from the date of audit report have a right to, conduct a supplementary audit of the books of account of the company by such person or persons as he may authorise in this behalf.
(b) The CAG shall within 90 days from the date of receipt of the audit report have a right to, conduct a supplementary audit of the books of account of the company by such person or persons as he may authorise in this behalf.
(c) The GAG shall within 60 days from the date of receipt of the audit report have a right to, conduct a supplementary audit of the financial statement of the company by such person or persons as he may authorise in this behalf.
(d) The CAG shall within 90 days from the date of audit report have a right to, conduct a supplementary audit of the financial statement of the company by company auditor.
Answer:
(c) The GAG shall within 60 days from the date of receipt of the audit report have a right to, conduct a supplementary audit of the financial statement of the company by such person or persons as he may authorise in this behalf.

Reason:
As per Sec. 143(6) of Companies Act, 2013, the CAG shall within 60 days from the date of receipt of the audit report have a right to, conduct a supplementary audit of the financial statement of the company by such person or persons as he may authorise in this behalf.

Question 4.
In the case of a Government company, the CAG shall appoint the auditor and direct such auditor the manner in which the accounts of the Government company are required to be audited. The auditor so appointed shall submit a copy of the audit report to the CAG which, among other things, include the following:
(i) directions, if any, issued by the C&AG
(ii) action taken on directions issued by C& AG
(iii) impact of directions on the accounts of the company.
(iv) impact of directions on the financial statements of the company.
(v) impact of directions on the audit of the company.
(a) (i), (ii) and (v)
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) (ii), (iii) and (v)
(d) (i), (ii), (iv) and (v)
Answer:
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Reason:
As per Sec. 143(5) of Companies Act, 2013, in the case of a Government company, the CAG shall appoint the auditor and direct such auditor the manner in which the accounts of the Government company are required to be audited. The auditor so appointed shall submit a copy of the audit report to the CAG which, among other things, include the following:
1. directions, if any, issued by the CAG,
2. the action taken thereon and
3. its impact on the accounts and financial statement of the company.

Question 5.
In the context of directions being issued by C&AG to auditor of NPR Ltd. and stand of NPR Ltd. to seek legal opinion to go against C&AG so as to avoid unnecessary interference of C&AG, piease advise which of the following should be correct?
(a) The stand of the existing auditors should have been better i.e. not to accept any interference of C&AG.
(b) Management could have planned the audit work better by including the same terms in engagement letter with existing auditors instead of appointing another auditor.
(c) C&AG involvement could have been accepted if this was the audit of CGN Ltd. but not in case of NPR Ltd. and hence NPR Ltd. should also reach out to its parent company to get this resolved.
(d) Stand of NPR Ltd. is wrong as the C&AG may get involved in the audit of NPR Ltd.
Answer:
(d) Stand of NPR Ltd. is wrong as the C&AG may get involved in the audit of NPR Ltd.

Reason:
As per Sec. 143(5) of Companies Act, 2013, in the case of a Government company, the CAG shall appoint the auditor and direct such auditor the manner in which the accounts of the Government company are required to be audited.

CA Inter Auditing Case Studies – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Integrated Case Study – 8
ALT company manufactures and sells toys to the wholesale market. It has prepared its financial statements for the financial year 2018-19. You are an audit assistant with RMT & Co., a firm of Chartered Accountant in New Delhi and you have been assigned the current liabilities balances in the audit work plan.
You have calculated the payables payment period to be 66 days for the year ending 31.03.2019 (45 days
for the preceding financial year) and have asked the directors of ALT Company to provide an explanation as to the increase in days.
ALT Company receives monthly statements from its main suppliers and performs regular supplier statement reconciliations.
There were inconsistencies noted in respect of the following at 31.03.2019:

Supplier Balance per purchase ledger (₹) Balance per supplier statement (₹)
Digital Toys 145,321 221,130
Analog Toys (89,973) 99,600
Hybrid Toys 94,658 1,09,650

Digital Toys
ALT Co. has a credit agreement with Digital Toys under which it receives goods 14 days before the supplier raises the invoice. ALT Co. received goods worth ₹ 75,809 on 18 March 2019 for which the invoice was received shortly after the year end in accordance with the agreement. ALT Co. entered the transaction into its accounting records at the date of invoice.

Analog Toys
The difference on this balance has still to be investigated.

Hybrid Toys
ALT Co.’s finance director has informed you that there was an error in closing the purchase ledger and it was closed three days early. Invoices received 29,30 and 31 March 2019 were posted to the 2019-20 ledger. The directors of ALT Co have confirmed that following the discovery of this error, a manual adjustment was made using the journal book.

Question 1.
Which of the following supplier balances would indicate a high risk in relation to the COMPLETENESS of the liability recorded at the year end?
(a) A supplier with a high balance at the year end and with a low volume of transactions during the year,
(b) A supplier with a low balance at the year end and with a high volume of transactions during the year.
(c) A supplier with a low balance at the year end and with a low volume of transactions during the year.
(d) A supplier with a high balance at the year end and with a high volume of transactions during the year.
Answer:
(b) A supplier with a low balance at the year end and with a high volume of transactions during the year.

Reason:
A supplier with a low balance at the year-end but with a high volume of transactions during the year may indicate that not all liabilities have been recorded at the year-end date.

Question 2.
Which of the following would correctly explain why the payables payment period has increased from 45 days in 2018-19 to 66 days in 2019-20?
(a) ALT Co. received a prompt payment discount from one of its suppliers for the first time in 2018-19,
(b) ALT Co. obtained a trade discount from one of its biggest suppliers which has reduced the amount owed to that supplier by 10% in the year.
(c) ALT Co. purchased an unusually high level of goods in March 2019 to satisfy a large order and had not paid for those goods by the year end.
(d) ALT Co. took advantage of extended credit terms offered by a new supplier in respect of a large order which it had fully settled by the year end.
Answer:
(c) ALT Co. purchased an unusually high level of goods in March 2019 to satisfy a large order and had not paid for those goods by the year end.

Reason:
A purchase of a large volume of goods close to the year-end would increase the payables payment period.
The prompt payment and trade discounts would both decrease the payables payment period, and the extended credit terms in this instance would have no impact as there is no closing balance with the new supplier.

Question 3.
Which of the following is an appropriate action in respect of the inconsistency in the balance with Digital Toys?
(a) The auditor should take no further action as this is a timing difference which was resolved upon receipt and posting of the invoice.
(b) The auditor should request that the purchase ledger balance is amended at the reporting date to reflect the recent invoice.
(c) The auditor should contact the Supplier and request a supplier statement as at the current date.
(d) The auditor should request that an accrual is created in respect of the goods received but not yet invoiced.
Answer:
(d) The auditor should request that an accrual is created in respect of the goods received but not yet invoiced.

Reason:
The difference of ₹ 75,809 with Digital Toys relates to goods which were received by ALT Co. prior to the year-end but were not recorded in the accounting records until after the year-end date. As ALT Co. had a liability to pay for the goods at the date of receipt, an accrual should be created for the goods received not yet invoiced.

Question 4.
Which of the following would be a valid explanation for the difference in respect of Analog Toys?
(1) An invoice for ₹ 189,573 has been paid twice.
(2) An invoice for ₹ 189,573 has been posted as a debit note.
(3) An invoice for ₹ 189,573 has been received and processed prior to receipt of the goods.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
Answer:
(a) 1 only

Reason:
The difference in respect of Analog Toys may have arisen if the invoice had been paid twice in error as an additional ₹ 189,573 will have been debited to the supplier account.

Question 5.
Which of the following would NOT provide sufficient and appropriate audit evidence over the COMPLETENESS of the purchase ledger balance in respect of Hybrid Toys?
(a) Obtain the journal book and confirm that all invoices recorded as received from Hybrid Toys dated 29-31 March have been manually adjusted for.
(b) Review the accruals listing to ensure goods received from Hybrid Toys post year end for which an invoice has not been received have been recorded in the correct period.
(c) For post year-end cash book payments to Hybrid Toys, confirm date of matching invoice and if pre year end agree to liability.
(d) Review a sample of invoices received from Hybrid Toys recorded post year end and match to GRN to determine if they should have been recorded at the year end.
Answer:
(b) Review the accruals listing to ensure goods received from Hybrid Toys post year end for which an invoice has not been received have been recorded in the correct period.

Reason:
Reviewing the accruals listing would not help the auditor confirm the purchase ledger balance with Bath Co. as accruals are recorded separately from the purchase ledger balance.

Integrated Case Study – 9
M/s TPR & Associates have been appointed as the auditors of Octopus Ltd. for the Financial Year 2019-20. During the course of audit, the auditor notices that there is significant change in the’number of debtors of the company. The auditor decided to check the debtors account in detail.
Further the company has made various provisions like the provisions for taxation, provision for bad & doubtful debts.
Also, during the current Financial Year, the auditor attended the physical verification of the inventory being carried out by the management.
The auditor notices that there is no substantial change in the bifurcation of amount of items representing the liabilities side of the balance sheet of Octopus Ltd. Still the auditor understands that he needs to check the liability side in detail.
Further the company has also recognised various income like interest income and dividend income which auditor understands need to be checked in detail.
The auditor is of the understanding that certain matters need to be reported under Companies Auditors Report Order (CARO).

Based on the above facts, answer the following:
Question 1.
______ is a possible obligation that arises from the past events and whose existence will be confirmed only by the occurrence/non-occurrence of one or more uncertain future events not wholly within the control of the entity:
(a) Provision
(b) Reserve
(c) Contingent Liability
(d) Liability
Answer:
(c) Contingent Liability

Reason:
As per AS 29 “Provisions, Contingent Liabilities and Contingent Assets” a contingent liability is a possible obligation that arises from past events and the existence of which will be confirmed only by the occurrence or non-occurrence of one or more uncertain future events not wholly within the control of the enterprise.

Question 2.
Which of the following is not correct with respect to the inventory held by Octopus Limited:
(a) All inventory units held by the company should have been recorded and recognized in the financial statements.
(b) Any inventory held by a third party on behalf of the company should not be included as part of the inventory balance.
(c) Inventory should be recognized at cost or net realizable value whichever is lower,
(d) Inventory balance as at the year end does not include any element of next year.
Answer:
(b) Any inventory held by a third party on behalf of the company should not be included as part of the inventory balance.

Reason:
Any inventory held by a third party on behalf of the company should be included as part of the inventory balance, being owned by the company.

Question 3.
if the management of Octopus Ltd. refuses to allow the auditor, to send the confirmation request to the debtors, the auditor should:
(a) Withdraw from the engagement.
(b) Not listen at all to any requests of the management.
(c) Consider the management’s request for refusal and assess its validity and decide the nature, timing, extent of his audit procedures accordingly.
(d) Agree to management request and proceed with audit of other items of the financial statements.
Answer:
(c) Consider the management’s request for refusal and assess its validity and decide the nature, timing, extent of his audit procedures accordingly.

Reason:
As per SA 505 “External Confirmations”, if management refuses to allow the auditor to send a confirmation request, the auditor shall:
(a) Inquire as to management’s reasons for the refusal, and seek audit evidence as to their validity and reasonableness;
(b) Evaluate the implications of management’s refusal on the auditor’s assessment of the relevant risks of material misstatement, including the risk of fraud, and on the nature, timing and extent of other audit procedures; and
(c) Perform alternative audit procedures designed to obtain relevant and reliable audit evidence.

Question 4.
Which of the following statements is not true so far as the liabilities of a company are concerned:
(a) Liabilities are the financial obligations of a company including owner’s funds.
(b) Liabilities include borrowing, trade payable and other current liabilities and provisions.
(c) Verification of liabilities is an important as that of assets.
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(a) Liabilities are the financial obligations of a company including owner’s funds.

Reason:
As per AS 29 “Provisions, Contingent Liabilities and Contingent Assets”, a liability is a present obligation’of the enterprise arising from past events, the settlement of which is expected to result in an outflow from the enterprise of resources embodying economic benefits.

Question 5.
Statement 1: Confirmations as well as undelivered letters should begiven/returned to the auditor and not to the client.
Statement 2: When no reply is received, the auditor should perform alternate procedures regarding the balances.
(a) Only statement 1 is correct
(b) Only statement 2 is correct
(c) Both 1 & 2 are correct
(d) Both 1 & 2 are incorrect
Answer:
(c) Both 1 & 2 are correct

Reason:
As per SA 505 “External Confirmations”, in the case of each non-response, the auditor shall perform alternative audit procedures to obtain relevant and reliable audit evidence.

CA Inter Auditing Case Studies – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Integrated Case Study -10
ABC Ltd, is a company dealing in products namely chocolate and coffee. ABC Ltd. approached audit firm XYZ & Associates for the statutory audit of its financial statements for the year ended 31.03.2019. The Gross turnover of the company is ₹ 105 crores, out of which turnover from one of its product namely coffee is of ₹ 95 crores during the immediate preceding Financial Year.
During the course of Audit, XYZ & Associates found certain delay in the payment of the Employees Provident Fund by ABC Ltd. They understand that the same need to be reported under the relevant provisions of Companies (Auditors Report) Order 2016.
During the FY 2018-2019, Mrs. X wife of CA Mr. X who is partner in XYZ & Associates acquires certain shares of ABC Ltd. The audit firm is of the opinion that this may call fora disqualification for the firm for being working as the auditor of the company under the relevant provisions of the Companies Act, 2013.
Further, ABC Ltd. also approached the auditors to provide them the Investment Banking service to which the auditors denied as per the provisions of Companies Act, 2013.
During the course of audit, XYZ & Associates has reason to believe that an offence of fraud involving some amount has been committed in the ABC Ltd. by its General Manager. The auditors understand that there is a requirement for reporting of fraud by the auditors under the Companies Act and the relevant rules.
Based on the above facts, answer the following:

Question 1.
After the appointment of XYZ & Associates, ABC Ltd. should inform the auditor and file a notice of such appointment with registrar within:
(a) 60 days
(b) 30 days
(c) 15 days
(d) 20 days
Answer:
(c) 15 days

Reason:
Proviso to Sec. 139(1) of Companies Act, 2013, requires that the company shall inform the auditor concerned of his or its appointment, and also file a notice of such appointment with the Registrar within 15 days of the meeting in which the auditor is appointed.

Question 2.
If Mrs. X acquires security exceeding the prescribed limit in the ABC Ltd., then XYZ & Associates shall take corrective actions within ______ days. What is the prescribed limit:
(a) 100 days, Market Value ₹ 1,00,000
(b) 60 days, Face value ₹ 1,00,000
(c) 90 days, Face value ₹ 1,00,000
(d) 15 days, Market Value ₹ 1,00,000
Answer:
(b) 60 days, Face value ₹ 1,00,000

Reason:
Refer Rule 10 of Companies (Audit and Auditor’s) Rules, 2014.
For the purpose of proviso to Sec. 141 (3) (d) (/), a relative of an auditor may hold securities in the company of face value not exceeding ₹ 1 lakh:
Provided further that in the event of acquiring any security or interest by a relative, above the threshold prescribed, the corrective action to maintain the limits as specified above shall be taken by the auditor within 60 days of such acquisition or interest.

Question 3.
Under which section reporting of fraud by an auditor to the Central Government is required and what is the amount of fraud:
(a) Section 143(12), 1 crore & above
(b) Section 139(12), 1 crore & above
(c) Section 143(12), 2 crore & above
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Section 143(12), 1 crore & above

Reason:
Refer Sec. 143(12) of Companies Act, 2013 and Rule 13 of Companies (Audit and Audi¬tor’s) Rules, 2014
Sec. 143(12): If an auditor of a company in the course of the performance of his duties as auditor, has reason to believe that an offence of fraud involving such amount or amounts as may be prescribed, is being or has been committed in the company by its officers or employees, the auditor shall report the matter to the Central Government within such time and in such manner as may be prescribed.
Rule 13: If an auditor of a company, in the course of the performance of his duties as stat-utory auditor, has reason to believe that an offence of fraud, which involves or is expected to involve individually an amount of ₹ 1 Cr. or above, is being or has been committed against the company by its officers or employees, the auditor shall report the matter to the Central Government.

Question 4.
What is the requirement for ABC Ltd. as per the relevant provisions regarding maintenance of cost records:
(a) Maintenance of cost records is mandatory, in Form CRA 1.
(b) Maintenance of cost records is mandatory, in Form CRA. 2.
(c) Maintenance of cost records is mandatory, in any genera! format.
(d) No requirement of maintenance of cost records.
Answer:
(a) Maintenance of cost records is mandatory, in Form CRA 1.

Reason:
Refer Rule 5 of Companies (Cost Records and Audit) Rules, 2014
Every company under these rules includingall units and branches thereof, shall, in respect of each of its financial year commencing on or after the 1st day of April, 2014, maintain cost records in Form CRA 1.

Question 5.
Under relevant clause of CARO,2016, XYZ & Associates is required to report the extent of arrears of Employees Provident Fund as at the balance sheet date:
(a) Exceeding 9 months
(b) Exceeding 3 months
(c) Exceeding 6 months
(d) Exceeding 12 months
Answer:
(c) Exceeding 6 months

Reason:
Refer Para 3(vii)(i) of CARO, 2016
Whether the company is regular in depositing undisputed statutory dues including provident fund, employees’ state insurance, income-tax, sales-tax, service tax, duty of customs, duty of excise, value added tax, cess and any other statutory dues to the appro¬priate authorities and if not, the extent of the arrears of outstanding statutory dues as on the last day of the financial year concerned for a period of more than 6 months from the date they became payable, shall be indicated.

CA Inter Auditing Case Studies – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Integrated Case Study – 11
Mr. Laxman is appointed as statutory auditor of Best Limited for the Financial Year ended 31st March, 2021.
During the course of audit, it was found that few doubtful transactions had been committed by finance manager who retired in March, 2021.
The fraud wasgoingon since last 4-5 years and the tola! amount misappropriated is approximately ₹ 75 lacs.
Balance sheet of Best Ltd. reflected a cash balance of ₹ 7 crores. The company has taken a loan of ₹ 2 crores from the bank despite of the huge cash balance with the company.
Also, Companies Act bestows some duties on auditors to report matters to Central Government in case of fraud.

Question 1.
Mr. Laxman shall obtain that the financial statements are free from fraud and misstatement.
(a) Absolute assurance
(b) Reasonable assurance
(c) Management’s assurance
(d) Chief Financial Officer assurance
Answer:
(b) Reasonable assurance

Reason:
As per SA 200, in conducting an audit of financial statements, the overall objective of the auditor is to obtain reasonable assurance about whether the financial statements as a whole are free from material misstatement, whether due to fraud or error, thereby enabling the auditor to express an opinion on whether the financial statements are prepared, in all material respects, in accordance with an applicable financial reporting framework.

Question 2.
Mr. Laxman suspects that cash payments were inflated. Out of the below which could be probable reason for such inflated cash payments.
(a) Not accounting for cash sales completely
(b) Making payments against purchase vouchers
(c) Making payments against inflated vouchers
(d) Teeming and Lading
Answer:
(c) Making payments against inflated vouchers

Reason:
Reasons for inflated cash payments:
(a) Making payments against fictitious vouchers.
(b) Making payments against vouchers, the amounts whereof have been inflated.
(c) Manipulating totals of wage by including names of dummy workers in wage rolls.
(d) Over casting for petty cash expenditure.

Question 3.
As per Section 143(12) of Companies Act, 2013 & Rule 13 of CAAR, 2014; Mr. Laxman shall
(a) report the matter to the audit committee constituted under section 177 or to the Board in other cases within such time and in such manner as prescribed.
(b) report the matter to the audit committee constituted under section 177 within such time and in such manner as prescribed.
(c) report the matter to the audit committee constituted under section 177 and also to the Board within such time and in such manner as prescribed.
(d) report the matter to the Board within such time and in such manner as prescribed.
Answer:
(a) report the matter to the audit committee constituted under section 177 or to the Board in other cases within such time and in such manner as prescribed.

Reason:

Question 4.
Owing to the limitations of an audit, there is risk that some material misstatements of the financial statements will not be detected, even though the audit is properly planned and performed in accordance with the SAs.
(a) Inherent, unavoidable
(b) Inherit, complete
(c) Management, unavoidable
(d) Regulatory, control
Answer:
(a) Inherent, unavoidable

Reason:
If an auditor of a company in the course of the performance of his duties as auditor, has reason to believe that an offence of fraud involving such amount as may be prescribed, is being or has been committed in the company by its officers or employees, the auditor shall report the matter to the Central Government within such time and manner as prescribed:
Provided that in case of a fraud involving lesser than the specified amount, the auditor shall report the matter to the audit committee constituted u/s 177 or to the Board in other cases within such time and in such manner as may be prescribed.

Question 5.
As an auditor what conclusion can Mr. Laxman draw looking at the huge cash reserve of the company and corresponding bank loan?
(a) Report this matter to the Central Government u/s 143(12) as there is a possibility of fraud
(b) Obtain sufficient and appropriate audit evidence of existence of fraud
(c) Report the matter under CARO, 2020
(d) There is nothing to report as it’s a normal financial decision
Answer:
(b) Obtain sufficient and appropriate audit evidence of existence of fraud

Reason:
As stated in SA 200 and SA 240, owing to the inherent limitations of an audit, there is an unavoidable risk that some material misstatements of the financial statements may not be detected, even though the audit is properly planned and performed in accordance with the SAs.

CA Inter Auditing Case Studies – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Integrated Case Study – 12
Roop & Co. are the auditors of Onda group of Hotels. This is the first time the firm is auditing an industry in food and beverages and it is day one of the audit. The engagement partner along with his team wants to make a thorough understanding of the entity and its environment in order to identify and assess the risks of material misstatements, whether due to fraud or error. The following are some of the points identified by them on Day 1.
1. The hotel.has two banquet halls. The documentation available for verification of banquet hall revenue is only the invoice raised by the hotel and some mail conversations on customer enquiry and finalization of price. In audit trail, it is found that finance approval of the transaction is only after invoice is sent to them for accounting at final settlement. Advance paid by the clients are not vetted through finance team. The auditor suspects a weakness in this system.
2. The auditor also finds a control deficiency in the process of procurement of stores. A goods receipt note is not prepared at the time of receipt of goods. On enquiry with management, the auditor finds that there exists a system control wherein goods receipt note isautomatically prepared and approved in the system once the quantity and price of goods is entered against specific vendor. This entry is on real-time basis and system does not allow back dated entries.
3. The auditor enquires of the management as to what is risk assessment process followed by the entity for prevention and detection of risk of material misstatement due to fraud and error. The auditor finds there is no documented risk assessment process.
With the help of the above facts, answer the following questions by choosing the correct option.

Question 1.
What kind of a risk is portrayed in the booking of revenue with respect to Banquet halls?
(a) Inherent risk in the class of transaction
(b) Control risk in the class of transaction
(c) Detection risk in the audit procedures
(d) Audit risk in the opinion on the financial statements.
Answer:
(b) Control risk in the class of transaction

Reason:
The risk that a misstatement that could occur in an assertion about a class of transaction, account balance or disclosure and that could be material, either individually or when aggregated with other misstatements, will not be prevented, or detected and corrected, on a timely basis by the entity’s internal control is known as Control Risk.

Question 2.
Which among the following statement is incorrect in the context of Audit Risk?
(a) The more extensive the audit procedures performed, the lower is the detection risk
(b) Greater the risk of material misstatement the auditor believes exist, less is the detection risk that can be accepted and accordingly more persuasive evidence is required by the auditor.
(c) Audit risk means the risk that the auditor gives an appropriate audit opinion when the financial statement are materially misstated.
(d) Risk of material misstatement at the assertion level is of two kinds – control risk and inherent risk.
Answer:
(c) Audit risk means the risk that the auditor gives an appropriate audit opinion when the financial statement are materially misstated.

Reason:
Audit risk may be defined as the risk that the auditor gives an inappropriate audit opinion when the financial statements are materially misstated. Thus, it is the risk that the auditor may fail to express an appropriate opinion in an audit assignment.

Question 3.
In the case of procurement of stores, the auditor has tested more than one control for the same assertion. In that given case, what should be his reliance on the control?
(a) Since compensating controls are identified, if tested and evaluated to be effective, the auditor can rely on the control.
(b) Even though compensating controls are there, since one control is ineffective, the auditor should not rely on control for this assertion and should perform extensive procedures.
(c) Documentation in electronic medium cannot be accepted, hence, he cannot rely only on system control.
(d) Even though compensating controls are there, since one control is ineffective, the auditor should not rely on control for this assertion as well as associated assertions.
Answer:
(a) Since compensating controls are identified, if tested and evaluated to be effective, the auditor can rely on the control.

Question 4.
In the context of SA 315, which among the following is NOT a risk assessment procedure?
(a) Inquiries of management, of appropriate individuals within internal audit function and of others within the entity
(b) Analytical Procedures
(c) Observation and Inspection
(d) Audit Planning.
Answer:
(d) Audit Planning.

Reason:
As per SA 315, components of risk assessment procedures comprise of:
(a) Inquiries of management, of appropriate individuals within internal audit function and of others within the entity
(b) Analytical Procedures
(c) Observation and Inspection

Question 5.
What should be the course of action of the auditor for the entity not having a documented risk assessment process?
(a) The auditor should obtain management written representations on how risks are identified
(b) The auditor shall discuss with management on how risks are identified, addressed and determine whether the absence is appropriate in the circumstances or whether it represents a significant deficiency in internal control.
(c) The auditor should advise the management to document the same immediately and accordingly opine on the same in his audit report too.
(d) The auditor shall discuss with management on how risks are identified by system and place reliance on the same as documentation in this context is immaterial.
Answer:
(b) The auditor shall discuss with management on how risks are identified, addressed and determine whether the absence is appropriate in the circumstances or whether it represents a significant deficiency in internal control.

CA Inter Auditing Case Studies – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Integrated Case Study -13
M/JJ & Associates having office in Chennai are statutory auditors under Companies Act, 2013 of a s company viz. Sweet Aroma Private Limited engaged in business of obtaining and manufacturing rice from paddy catering to both domestic as well as international market mainly in Gulf nations. The company has a huge plant capacity for rice extraction in one of the states in Northern India. Needless to state that inventories are in huge quantity in such type of business consisting of raw material, work in progress and finished goods. The auditors want to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence regarding inventories.
In above context, answer the following questions;

Question 1.
Which of the following is most likely correct in relation to obtaining of sufficient appropriate audit evidence regarding existence and condition of inventory?
(a) It is mandatory for the auditor to attend physical inventory counting on the date of financial statements in all circumstances.
(b) Physical inventory counting may be attended by auditor on the date of financial statement or at a date other than date of financial statements in his discretion mandatorily in all circumstances.
(c) The attendance of auditors at physical inventory counting is impracticable due to time and costs involved because of auditor’s office location vis-a-vis company’s plant location. Hence, attendance at physical inventory counting may be skipped and alternative audit procedures may be performed to obtain sufficient appropriate evidence.
(d) The auditor shall attend at physical inventory counting unless impracticable. However, issue of time and costs involved because of auditor’s office location vis-a-vis company’s plant location is not a valid basis for skipping physical inventory counting.
Answer:
(d) The auditor shall attend at physical inventory counting unless impracticable. However, issue of time and costs involved because of auditor’s office location vis-a-vis company’s plant location is not a valid basis for skipping physical inventory counting.

Question 2.
Below are given certain cluster of matters which are relevant in planning attendance of auditor at physical inventory counting. Which of the following clusters consists of a likely inappropriate combination?
(a) Nature of inventory, timing of physical inventory counting and stages of completion of work in progress
(b) Nature of inventory, timing of physical inventory counting and valuation method of inventory
(c) Nature of inventory, timing of physical inventory counting, considerations regarding maintenance of a perpetual inventory system
(d) Risks of material misstatements related to inventory, nature of internal control pertaining to inventory, considerations regarding maintenance of a perpetual inventory system
Answer:
(b) Nature of inventory, timing of physical inventory counting and valuation method of inventory

Question 3.
Which of the following is the most likely logical sequence of steps in relation to attendance at physical inventory counting by auditor?
(a) Observance of performance of management’s count procedures, inspection of inventory, performing test counts and evaluation of management’s procedures for recording and controlling results of physical inventory counting
(b) Observance of performance of management’s count procedures, performing test counts, inspection of inventory and evaluation of management’s procedures for recording and controlling results of physical inventory counting
(c) Performing test counts, inspection of inventory, Observance of performance of management’s count procedures and evaluation of management’s procedures for recording and controlling results of physical inventory counting
(d) Evaluation of management’s procedures for recording and controlling results of physical inventory counting, Observance of performance of management’s count procedures, inspection of inventory and performing test counts
Answer:
(d) Evaluation of management’s procedures for recording and controlling results of physical inventory counting, Observance of performance of management’s count procedures, inspection of inventory and performing test counts

Question 4.
During attendance at physical inventory counting, the auditor inspects inventory. Following outcomes stated as 1, II & III are given below of this inspection procedure: –
Outcome I — Existence of inventory
Outcome II —- Ownership of inventory
Outcome III Condition of inventory
Which of following statements is most likely true?
(a) Outcomes I, II and III are all necessarily established after inspection.
(b) Only Outcomes I and III are established after inspection and Outcome II is never established.
(c) Outcomes I and III are established after inspection. However, outcome II may not be necessarily established.
(d) Outcome II and III are established after inspection. However, outcome I may not be necessarily established.
Answer:
(c) Outcomes I and III are established after inspection. However, outcome II may not be necessarily established.

Question 5.
It was observed by auditors that, out of total rice physically counted on 31st March, 2020 about 67 quintals of rice belonged to M/s PQR, a proprietary concern which had sent paddy to this company’s plant for extraction of rice. What would be treatment of this item in financial statements of company?
(a) The value of 67 quintals rice would be reflected in company’s financial statements as per method of valuation adopted by the company.
(b) The value of 67 quintals rice would be reflected in company’s financial statements as per method of valuation adopted by the proprietary concern.
(c) The value of 67 quintals rice would not be reflected in company’s financial statements.
(d) The value of 67 quintals rice would be reflected in proprietary concern’s financial statements as per method of valuation adopted by the company.
Answer:
(c) The value of 67 quintals rice would not be reflected in company’s financial statements.

CA Inter Auditing Case Studies – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Integrated Case Study – 14
A partnership firm of Chartered Accountants, YZ and Associates were appointed as auditor of company UV Private Limited. The financial year for which YZ and Associates were to audit books of account of UV Private Limited began on 1 April, 2020 and ended on 31 March, 2021.
YZ and Associates consisted of four partners namely Mr. Y, Mr. Z, Mr. G and Mr. H.
While auditing books of accounts of UV Private Limited for the period beginning on 1 April, 2020 and ending on 31 March, 2021, one of the partners of YZ and Associates namely Mr. H took up the expenses part for the purpose of audit.
The management of UV Private Limited had adopted various accounting policies and principles related to expenses which Mr. H as auditor of UV Private Limited was unable to understand. Some of the issues which Mr. H was unable to understand are mentioned as follows:
(1) Power and Fuel expenses paid for the months of April, 2021 and May, 2021 have been included and shown as Power and Fuel expenses for the period beginning 1 April, 2020 and ending 31 March, 2021.
(2) Personal Rent Expenses of the son of one of the director, Mr. T of UV Private Limited have been shown as Rent Expenses of business of UV Private Limited.
(3) Repair and Maintenance Expenses for the months of February 2021 and March 2021 were still outstanding and were not shown in Balance Sheet of UV Private Limited.
(4) Repair and Maintenance Expenses for the financial year 1 April, 2020 to 31 March, 2021 were very high as compared to financial year 1 April, 2019 to 31 March, 2020. The auditor Mr. H asked the appropriate authority about the reasons for such huge differences in amounts of two financial years.
(5) While verifying the insurance expenses, the insurance policies were not shown to auditor Mr. H. The above mentioned five points were some of the issues which Mr. H was unable to understand.

Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
As per the point number (1) mentioned in the above case, the Power and Fuel Expenses paid for the months of April 2021 and May 2021 must be shown under asset side of balance sheet of UV Private Limited as on 31 March, 2021 as:
(a) Outstanding Power and Fuel Expenses
(b) Prepaid Power and Fuel Expenses
(c) Power and Fuel Expenses
(d) Power and Fuel Expenses Payable
Answer:
(b) Prepaid Power and Fuel Expenses

Question 2.
As per point number (2) mentioned above in the case, the Personal Rent Expenses of the son of one of the director Mr. T were added to Rent Expenses of business of UV Private Limited. The amount of persona! rent expenses of the son of the director Mr. T must be:
(a) Subtracted from Rent Expenses of business of UV Private Limited
(b) Remain Added to Rent Expenses of business of UV Private Limited
(c) Again Added to Rent Expenses of business of UV Private Limited
(d) Subtracted twice from Rent Expenses of business of UV Private Limited
Answer:
(a) Subtracted from Rent Expenses of business of UV Private Limited

Question 3.
As per point number (3) mentioned above in the case, the Repair and Maintenance Expenses outstanding for the months of February 2021 and March 2021 must be shown under liability side of balance sheet of UV Private Limited as on 31 March, 2021 as:
(a) Prepaid Repair and Maintenance Expenses
(b) Repair and Maintenance Expenses
(c) Repair and Maintenance Expenses paid in advance
(d) Repair and Maintenance Expenses Payable
Answer:
(d) Repair and Maintenance Expenses Payabl

Question 4.
As per point number (4) mentioned in the case above, the auditor Mr. H asked the appropriate authority for reasons of huge differences in the amount of two financial years of repair and maintenance expenses. By appropriate authority Mr. H was referring to:
(a) All employees of UV Private Limited
(b) Management of UV Private Limited
(c) Members of UV Private Limited
(d) Any one director of UV Private Limited
Answer:
(b) Management of UV Private Limited

Question 5.
As per point number (5) mentioned in the case above, in verifying insurance expenses the insurance policies would provide auditor Mr. H as:
(a) Invalid Supporting
(b) No Supporting
(c) Lack of proper Supporting
(d) Valid Supporting
Answer:
(d) Valid Supporting

Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Consolidated Financial Statements – CA Inter Advanced Accounting Study Material is designed strictly as per the latest syllabus and exam pattern.

Consolidated Financial Statements – CA Inter Advanced Accounting Study Material

Question 1.
E Ltd. acquires 70% of equity shares of Z Ltd. as on 31st March, 2017 at a cost of ₹ 70 lakhs. The following information is available from the balance sheet of Z Ltd. as on 31st March, 2017:

₹ in lakhs
Fixed Assets 120
Investments 55
Current Assets 70
Loans & Advances 15
15% Debentures 90
Current Liabilities 50

The following revaluations have been agreed upon (not included in the above figures):
Fixed Assets Up by 20%
Investments Down by 10%
Z Ltd. declared and paid dividend @ 20% on its equity shares as on 31st March, 2017. E Ltd. purchased the shares of Zed Ltd. @ ₹ 20 per share.
Calculate the amount of goodwill/capital reserve on acquisition of shares of Z Ltd.
Answer:
Revalued net assets of Z Ltd. as on 31st March, 2017
Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 1
Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 2

W Note :
Total Cost of 70% Equity of Z Ltd. ₹ 70 lakhs
÷ Purchase Price of each share ₹ 20
⇒ Number of shares purchased [70 lakhs/₹ 20] 3.5 lakhs
Dividend @ 20 % ie. ₹ 2 per share ₹ 7 lakhs
Also, dividend received is for pre-acquisition period, which has been reduced from the cost of investment as per AS-13.

Question 2.
A Ltd. acquired 70% of equity shares of B Ltd. as on 1st January, 2010 at a cost of ₹ 10,00,000 when B Ltd. had an equity share capital of ₹ 10,00,000 and reserves and surplus of ₹ 80,000. Both the companies follow calendar year as the accounting year. In the four consecutive years, B Ltd. fared badly and suffered losses of ₹ 2,50,000,4,00,000, ₹ 5,00,000 and ₹ 1,20,000 respectively. Thereafter in 2014, B Ltd. experienced turnaround and registered an annual profit of ₹ 50,000. In the next two years i.e. 2015 and 2016, B Ltd. recorded annual profits of ₹ 1,00,000 and ₹ 1,50,000 respectively.
Show the minority interests and cost of control at the end of each year for the purpose of consolidation.
Answer:
Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 3
Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 4

Note 1. In the year 2012, the minority’s share of losses actually comes to ₹ 1,50,000. But since minority interest as on 31.12.2011 was less than the share of loss, the excess of loss of ₹ 21,000 is to be added to A Ltd.’s share of losses.

Note 2: For the year 2013, the entire loss of B Ltd. is to be adjusted against A Ltd.’s profits for the purpose of consolidation. Therefore, upto 2013, the minority’s share of B Ltd.’s losses of ₹ 57,000 are to be borne by A Ltd. Thereafter, the entire profits of B Ltd. will be allocated to A Ltd. unless the minority’s share of losses previously absorbed 57,000) has been recovered. Such recovery is fully made in 2016 and therefore minority interest of ₹ 33,000 is shown after adjusting fully the share of losses of minority previously absorbed by A Ltd.

Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Question 3.
From the following data, determine the amount of holding company’s profit in the consolidated Balance Sheet assuming holding company’s own Profit & Loss Account to be ₹ 2,00,000 in each case:
Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 5
Answer:
The balance in the Profit & Loss Account on the date of acquisition (1.1.2018) is Capital profit, as such the balance of Consolidated Profit & Loss Account shall be equal to Holding Co.’s profit.
On 31.12.2018 in each case the following amount shall be added or deducted from the balance of holding Co.’s Profit & Loss account.

% Share
holding
(1)
P & L as on
31.12.2018
(2)
P & L as on
consolidation
date (3)
P & L post
acquisition
(3 – 2) = 4
Amount to be added/
(deducted) from
holding’s P & L (4 X 1)
1 90% 50,000 70,000 20,000 18,000
2 85% 30,000 20,000 (10,000) (8,500)
3 8096 20,000 20,000 Nil Nil
4 100% 40,000 55,000 15,000 15,000

Question 4.
X Ltd. purchased 80% shares of A Ltd. on 1st January, 2016 for ₹ 2,80,000. The issued capital of A Ltd., on 1st January, 2016 was ₹ 2,00,000 and the balance in the Profit & Loss Account was ₹ 1,20,000.
During the year ended 31 st December, 2016, A Ltd. earned a profit of ₹ 40,000 and at year end, declared and paid a dividend of ₹ 60,000.

Show by an entry how the dividend should be recorded in the books of X Ltd.
You are required to compute amount of minority interest as on 1st January, 2016 and 31st December, 2016?
Answer:
Total dividend paid = ₹ 60,000
Out of post-acquisition profit = ₹ 40,000
Out of pre-acquisition profit = ₹ 20,000
Hence, 2/3rd of dividend received by X will be credited to P & L and l/3rd will be credited to Investment.
X Ltd.’s share of dividend = ₹ 60,000 × 80% = ₹ 48,000
In the books of X Ltd.
Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 6
Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 7

Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Question 5.
The Summarised Balance Sheet of X Ltd. and its subsidiary Y Ltd. as on 31st March, 2017 areas follows:
Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 8

The following information is also given to you

(a) 10% dividend on Equity shares was declared by Y Ltd. on 31st March, 2016 for the year ended 31st March, 2016. X Ltd. credited the dividend received to its Profit & Loss Account.
(b) Credit Balance of Profit & Loss account of Y Ltd. as on 1st April, 2016 was ₹ 650 Lakhs.
(c) General Reserve of Y Ltd. stood at same ₹ 1,450 Lakhs as on 1st April, 2016.
(d) Y Ltd.’s Plant & machinery showed a balance of ₹ 4,000 Lakh on 1st April 2016. At the time of purchase of shares in Y Ltd., X Ltd. revalued Y’s Ltd. Plant & Machinery upward by ₹ 1,000 Lakh.
(e) Included in Trade Payables of Y Ltd. are ₹ 50 Lakh for goods supplied by X Ltd.
(f) On 31st March, 2017, Y’s Ltd. inventory included goods for ₹ 150 lakhs which it had purchased from X Ltd. X Ltd. sold goods to Y Ltd. at cost plus 25%.
You are required to prepare a Consolidated Balance Sheet of X Ltd. and its subsidiary Y Ltd. as on 31st March, 2017 giving working notes. (Ignoring dividend on preference shares).
Answer:
Consolidated Balance Sheet of X Ltd. and its subsidiary Y Ltd. as on 31st March, 2017.
Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 9
Notes to Accounts
Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 10
Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 11
Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 12
Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 13

Working Notes

(i) Calculation of Post-Acquisition Profits
Y’s Ltd. Profit & Loss Account
Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 14

Depreciation provided on Plant & Machinery
Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 15

(ii) Calculation of Pre – Acquisition Profits
Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 16

(iii) Calculation of Capital Reserve
Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 17
Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 18

(iv) Unrealised Profit
₹ 150 Lakh × 25/125 = 30 lakh

(v) Plant & Machinery of YLtd.
Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 19

Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Question 6.
The following summarised Balance Sheets of H Ltd. and its subsidiary S Ltd. were prepared as on 31st March, 2017:
Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 20

Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 21

H Ltd. acquired the 80% shares of S. Ltd. on 1st April, 2016. On the date of acquisition, General Reserve and Profit Loss Account of S Ltd. stood at ₹ 50,000 and ₹ 30,000 respectively.

Machinery (hook value ₹ 2,00,000) and Furniture (book value ₹ 40,000) of S Ltd. were revalued at ₹ 3,00,000 and ? 30,000 respectively on 1 st April, 2016 for the purpose of fixing the price of its shares (rates of depreciation computed on the basis of useful lives: Machinery 10% and Furniture 15%). Trade Payables of H Ltd. include ?

35,000 due to S Ltd. for goods supplied since the acquisition of the shares. These goods are charged at 10% above cost. The inventories of H Ltd. includes goods costing ₹ 55,000 purchased from S Ltd.

You are required to prepare the Consolidated Balance Sheet as at 31st March, 2017. (May 2018 – New Course) (20 Marks)
Answer:
Consolidated Balance Sheet of H Ltd. and its Subsidiary S Ltd. as at 31st March, 2017
Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 22

Notes to Accounts

Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 23Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 24
Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 25

Working Notes:

I. Profit or loss on revaluation of assets
Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 26

II. Calculation of short/excess depreciation
Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 27

III. Analysis of profits of S Ltd. as on 31.03.2017
Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 28

IV. Minority Interest

Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 29

V Cost of Controls Goodwill
Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 30

Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Question 7.
Consider the following summarized balance sheets of subsidiary N Ltd.:
Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 31

Also consider the following information:

  1. N Ltd. is a subsidiary of S Ltd. Both the companies follow calendar year as the accounting year.
  2. S Ltd. values inventory on LIFO basis while N Ltd. used FIFO basis. To bring N Ltd.’s values in line with those of S Ltd. its value of inventory is required to be reduced by ₹ 6,000 at the end of 2015 and ₹ 17,000 at the end of 2016.
  3. N Ltd. deducts 1 % from Trade Receivables as a general provision against doubtful debts.
  4. Prepaid expenses in N Ltd. include advertising expenditure carried forward of ₹ 30,000 in 2015 and ₹ 15,000 in 2016, being part of initial advertising expenditure of ₹ 45,000 in 2015 which is being written off over three years. Similar amount of advertising expenditure of S Ltd. has been fully written off in 2015.

You are required to restate the balance sheet of N Ltd. as on 31st December,
2016 after considering the above information, for the purpose of consolidation.
Make the necessary restatement which is necessary to make the accounting
policies adopted by S Ltd. and N Ltd. uniform.
Answer:
Working Note I
Computation of Adjusted revenue reserves of N Ltd.
Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 32
Note: Since N Ltd. follows FIFO basis, it is assumed that opening inventory has been sold out during the year 2015. Therefore, reduction in inventory would have been taken care of by sale value. Hence no adjustment has been made for the same.

Restated Balance Sheet of N Ltd. as at 31st December, 2016
Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 33
Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 34

Notes to Accounts

Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 35

Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Question 8.
On 31st March, 2011, P Ltd. acquired 1,05,000 shares of Q Ltd. for ₹ 12,00,000. The Balance Sheet of Q Ltd. on that date was as under:
Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 36
On 31st March, 2017 the summarized Balance Sheets of two companies were as follows:
Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 37

Directors of Q Ltd. made bonus issue on 31st March, 2017 In the ratio of one equity share of 10 each fully paid for every two equity shares held on that date.
Calculate as on 31st March, 2017 (i) Cost of Control/Capital Reserve; (ii) Minority Interest; (iii) Consolidated Profit and Loss Account In each of the following cases:
(i) Before Issue of bonus shares.
(ii) Immediately after issue of bonus shares.
It may be assumed that bonus shares were issued out of post-acquisition profits by using General Reserve.
Prepare a Consolidated Balance Sheet after the bonus issue. –
Answer:
Consolidated Balance Sheet of P Ltd. and its subsidia, Q Ltd. as on 31st March, 2017
Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 38
Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 39

Notes to Accounts

Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 40

Shareholding pattern

Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 41

(i) Before issue of bonus shares

Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 42

(ii) Immediately after issue of bonus shares
Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 43

Working Note I:

Analysis of Profits of Q Ltd.
Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 44

Note: Share of P Ltd. in General reserve has been adjusted in Consolidated Profit and Loss Account.

Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Question 9.
Given below are the Profit & Loss Accounts of H Ltd. and its subsidiary Ltd. for the year ended 31st March, 2017:
Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 45

Other Information:

H Ltd. sold goods to S Ltd. of ₹ 120 lacs at cost plus 20%. Inventory of S Ltd. includes such goods valuing ₹ 24 lacs. Administrative expenses of S Ltd. include ₹ 5 lacs paid to H Ltd. as consultancy fees. Selling and distribution expenses of H Ltd. include ₹ 10 lacs paid to S Ltd. as commission.

H Ltd. holds 80% of equity share capital of ₹ 1,000 lacs in S Ltd. prior to 2015-2016. H Ltd. took credit to its Profit and Loss Account, the proportionate amount of dividend declared and paid by S Ltd. for the year 2015-2016.
You are required to prepare a consolidated profit and loss account of H Ltd. and its subsidiary S Ltd. for the year ended on 31st March, 2017.
Answer:
Consolidated Profit & Loss Account of H Ltd. and its subsidiary S Ltd. for the year ended on 31st March, 2017
Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 46
Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 47

Notes to Accounts

Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 48
Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 49
Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 50

Question 10.
The Profit and Loss Accounts of A Ltd. and its subsidiary B Ltd. for the year ended 31st March, 2018 are given below:
Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 51
The following information is also given:

  1. A Ltd. sold goods of ₹ 180 Lakhs to B Ltd. at cost plus 25%. (1/6 of such goods were still in inventory of B Ltd. at the end of the year)
  2. Administrative expenses of B Ltd. include ₹ 8 Lakhs paid to A Ltd. as consultancy fees.
  3. Selling and distribution expenses of A Ltd. include ₹ 15 Lakhs paid to B Ltd. as commission.
  4. A Ltd. holds 72% of the Equity Capital of B Ltd. The Equity Capital of B Ltd. prior to 2016-17 is ₹ 1,500 lakhs

Prepare a consolidated Profit and Loss Account for the year ended 31 st March, 2018. (November 2018 – New Course) (10 Marks)
Answer:
Consolidated Profit & Loss Account of A Ltd. and its subsidiary B Ltd. for the year ended on 31st March, 2018
Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 52
Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 53

Notes to Accounts

Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 54
Consolidated Financial Statements – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 55

Assumption: It is assumed that dividend adjustment has not be done in sales & other income of A Ltd. i.e. dividend received from B Ltd. is not included in other income of A Ltd.

Audit of Different Types of Entities – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Students should practice these Audit of Different Types of Entities – CA Inter Audit MCQ based on the latest syllabus.

Audit of Different Types of Entities – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 1.
A Limited Liability Partnership shall maintain such proper books of account as may be prescribed relating to its affairs for each year of its existence. Books are prescribed _________
(a) under Section 34 of LLP Act, 2008
(b) under Rule 24 of LLP Rules, 2009
(c) under Section 44AA of the Income-tax Act, 1961
(d) under Section 129 of the Companies Act, 2013
Answer:
(b) under Rule 24 of LLP Rules, 2009

Question 2.
As per Section 34 of LLP Act, 2008, every LLP shall, prepare a Statement of Account and Solvency in prescribed form _________
(a) within a period of 3 months from the end of each financial year
(b) within a period of 6 months from the end of each financial year
(c) within a period of 30 days from the end of each financial year
(d) within a period of 60 days from the end of each financial year
Answer:
(b) within a period of 6 months from the end of each financial year

Question 3.
As per Rule 24 of LLP Rules, 2009, Statement of Account and Solvency shall be filed in with the _________, within a period of
(a) Form 5, SEBI, 30 days from the end of 3 months of the financial year to which the Statement of Account and Solvency relates
(b) Form 5, Registrar, 30 days from the end of 6 months of the financial year to which the Statement of Account and Solvency relates
(c) Form 8, SEBI, 30 days from the end of 3 months of the financial year to which the Statement of Account and Solvency relates
(d) Form 8, Registrar, 30 days from the end of 6 months of the financial year to which the Statement of Account and Solvency relates
Answer:
(d) Form 8, Registrar, 30 days from the end of 6 months of the financial year to which the Statement of Account and Solvency relates

Question 4.
Considering the provisions of Rule 24 of LLP Rules, 2009, state which of the following is correct:
(a) An LLP whose turnover does not exceed, in any financial year ₹ 50 Lacs, or whose contribution does not exceed ₹ 25 Lacs shall not be required to get its accounts audited
(b) An LLP whose turnover does not exceed, in any financial year ₹ 40 Lacs, or whose contribution does not exceed ₹ 20 Lacs shall not be required to get its accounts audited
(c) An LLP whose turnover does not exceed, in any financial year ₹ 40 Lacs, or whose contribution does not exceed ₹ 25 Lacs shall not be required to get its accounts audited
(d) An LLP whose turnover does not exceed, in any financial year ₹ 50 Lacs, or whose contribution does not exceed ₹ 40 Lacs shall not be required to get its accounts audited
Answer:
(c) An LLP whose turnover does not exceed, in any financial year ₹ 40 Lacs, or whose contribution does not exceed ₹ 25 Lacs shall not be required to get its accounts audited

Question 5.
Auditor of an LLP shall be appointed for:
(a) each financial year
(b) two financial years
(c) three financial years
(d) five financial years
Answer:
(a) each financial year

Question 6.
Auditor for the first financial year of an LLP may be appointed by the designated partners:
(a) within 3 0 days of incorporation of LLP
(b) within 3 months of incorporation of LLP
(c) at any time but before the end of the first financial year
(d) within 30 days of end of the first financial year
Answer:
(c) at any time but before the end of the first financial year

Audit of Different Types of Entities – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 7.
The designated partners may appoint an auditor for each financial year {other than first financial year) of LLP:
(a) within 90 days of the commencement of each financial year
(b) within 180 days of the commencement of each financial year
(c) at least 30 days prior to the end of each financial year
(d) at least 90 days prior to the end of each financial year
Answer:
(c) at least 30 days prior to the end of each financial year

Question 8.
Auditor of an LLP shall hold office in accordance with the terms of his or their appointment and shall continue to hold such office till the period
(a) the new auditors are appointed
(b) they are re-appointed
(c) the new auditors are appointed, or they are re-appointed
(d) the new auditors are appointed, or they are re-appointed, whichever is later
Answer:
(c) the new auditors are appointed, or they are re-appointed

Question 9.
As per Section 3 5 of LLP Act, 2008, every LLP shall file _________ duly authenticated with the Registrar within _________
(a) Annual Return; 60 days of closure of its financial year
(b) Annual Return; 120 days of closure of its financial year
(c) Financial Statements and Audit Report; 30 days of closure of its financial year
(d) Financial Statements and Audit Report; 60 days of closure of its financial year
Answer:
(a) Annual Return; 60 days of closure of its financial year

Question 10.
As per Section 36 of LLP Act, 2008, documents of LLP maintained with Registrar can be inspected by:
(a) Designated Partner Only
(b) Any Partner
(c) Any partner and the lenders
(d) Any person
Answer:
(d) Any person

Question 11.
An auditor ofa Co-operative Society is appointed by the
(a) Governing body of Co-operative Society
(b) Members of Co-operative Society
(c) Registrar of Co-operative Societies
(d) None of the above .
Answer:
(c) Registrar of Co-operative Societies

Question 12.
As per Section 5 of the Co-operative Societies Act, 1912, in the case ofa society where the liability of a member of the society is limited, no member of a society other than a registered society can hold such portion of the share capital of the society as would exceed a maximum of _________ of the total number of shares or of the value of shareholding to _________
(a) 10%; ₹ 1,000
(b) 20%; ₹ 1,000
(c) 10%; ₹ 10,000
(d) 20%; ₹ 10,000
Answer:
(b) 20%; ₹ 1,000

Question 13.
A society may invest its funds in any one or more of the following:
(i) In the Central or State Co-operative Bank
(ii) In any of the securities specified in Section 20 of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882
(iii) In the shares, securities, bonds or debentures of any other society with limited liability
(iv) In the Shares of Public Sector Undertakings
(v) In the Securities of Public Listed companies
(vi) In any Co-operative Bank, other than a Central or State co-operative bank, as approved by the Registrar on specified terms and conditions
Select the appropriate one:
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(b) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) only
(c) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) only
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (vi) only
Answer:
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (vi) only

Question 14.
A co-operative society is required to transfer _________ to Reserve Fund, before distribution as dividends or bonus to members
(a) 10% of the profits
(b) 20% of the profits
(c) 25% of the profits
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) 25% of the profits

Question 15.
A registered society may, with the sanction of the Registrar, contribute an amount _________
(a) not exceeding 10% of the net profits remaining after the compulsory transfer to the reserve fund for any charitable purpose
(b) not less than 10% of the net profits remaining after the compulsory transfer to the reserve fund for any charitable purpose
(c) not exceeding 10% of the net profits before transfer to the reserve fund, for any charitable purpose
(d) not less than 10% of the net profits before transfer to the reserve fund, for any charitable purpose
Answer:
(a) not exceeding 10% of the net profits remaining after the compulsory transfer to the reserve fund for any charitable purpose

Question 16.
In respect of examination of overdue debts of a co-operative society, auditor is required to perform which of the following:
(a) Overdue debts for a period from 30 days to 6 months and more than 6 months will have to be classified and shall have to be reported by an auditor
(b) The auditor will have to ascertain whether proper provisions for doubtful debts is made and whether the same is satisfactory
(c) The percentage of overdue debts to the paid-up capital will have to be compared with last year, so as to see whether the trend is increasing or decreasing
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) The auditor will have to ascertain whether proper provisions for doubtful debts is made and whether the same is satisfactory

Audit of Different Types of Entities – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 17.
In case of co-operative societies, bad debts and irrecoverable losses before being written off against Bad Debts Funds, Reserve Fund etc. should be certified as bad debts or irrecoverable losses by the _________
(a) auditor where the law so requires
(b) the managing committee of the society, when law is silent as to certification by auditor
(c) the managing committee of the society, irrespective of the provisions ofthe law
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) both (a) and (b)

Question 18.
During the course of audit of co-operative society, if the auditor notices that there are some serious irregularities in the working of the society, he may report these special matters to the _________
(a) Registrar
(b) Members
(c) Managing Committee
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Registrar

Question 19.
Circumstances in which auditor of co-operative society is required to submit special report includes:
(a) Personal profiteering by members of managing committee
(b) Weak Internal Control
(c) Errors noticed in the books of account
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) Personal profiteering by members of managing committee

Question 20.
First Auditor of Multi-State Co-operative Society shall be appointed by _________
(a) Board of Directors within one month of registration
(b) Registrar within one month of registration
(c) Managing Committee within 60 days of registration
(d) Members within 60 days of registration
Answer:
(a) Board of Directors within one month of registration

Question 21.
Subsequent auditor of a multi-state co-operative society is to be appointed:
(a) by Registrar
(b) at each AGM
(c) at first AGM and thereafter at every 6th AGM
(d) by BOD
Answer:
(b) at each AGM

Question 22.
A person who is a Chartered Accountant can only be appointed as auditor of a multi-state co-operative society. However, a person who is indebted to multi-state co-operative society or who has given guarantee in connection with a loan of third party to multi state co-operative society for an amount exceeding _________ cannot be appointed as auditor
(a) ₹ 1,000
(b) ₹ 10,000
(c) ₹ 1,00,000
(d) ₹ 5,00,000
Answer:
(a) ₹ 1,000

Question 23.
Which of the following matter is not required to be inquired by auditor of multi-state co-operative society under Sec. 73(2) of Multi-State Co-operative Societies Act, 2002:
(a) Whether loans and advances made on the basis of security have been properly secured and whether the terms on which they have been made are not prejudicial to the interests of the society or its members;
(b) Whether transactions which are represented merely by book entries are not prejudicial to the interest of Society;
(c) Whether personal expenses have been charged to revenue account; and
(d) Whether loans and advances shown as deposits
Answer:
(d) Whether loans and advances shown as deposits

Question 24.
As per Section 77 of Multi-State Co-operative Societies Act, 2002, Central Government may pass an order for the special audit if they are of opinion
(a) that the affairs of any Multi-State Co-operative society are not being managed in accordance with co-operative principles or prudent commercial practices or with sound business principles
(b) that any Multi-State Co-operative society is being managed in a manner likely to cause serious injury or damage to the interests of the trade industry or business to which it pertains
(c) that the financial position of any Multi-State Co-op-erative society is such as to endanger its solvency
(d) any of the above
Answer:
(d) any of the above

Question 25.
Special Auditor under section 77 of Multi-State Co-operative Societies Act, 2002 can be:
(a) Auditor of Multi-State Co-operative Society
(b) Any Chartered Accountant other than auditor of Multi-State Co-operative Society
(c) Any person, may or maybe a Chartered Accountant
(d) Either (a) or (b)
Answer:
(d) Either (a) or (b)

Question 26.
An inquiry may be ordered by Central Registrar u/s 78 of Multi-State Co-operative Societies Act, 2002, on a request received from:
(a) not less than 1 /3rd of the members of the board or not less than 1 /5th of the total number of members of a multi-state cooperative society
(b) not less than 1/5th of the members of the board or not less than 1/3rd of the total number of members of a multi-state cooperative society
(c) not less than 1/3rd of the members of the board or not less than 1/3rd of the total number of members of a multi-state cooperative society
(d) not less than 1/5thofthe members of the board or not less than 1/5th of the total number of members of a multi-state cooperative society
Answer:
(a) not less than 1 /3rd of the members of the board or not less than 1 /5th of the total number of members of a multi-state cooperative society

Audit of Different Types of Entities – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 27.
An inquiry may be ordered by Central Registrar u/s 78 of Multi-State Co-operative Societies Act, 2002, on a request received from certain category of person. However, no inquiry shall be held unless
a notice of not less than has been
given to the Multi-State Co-operative Society
(a) 10 days
(b) 15 days
(c) 30 days
(d) 45 days
Answer:
(b) 15 days

Question 28.
An inquiry may be ordered by Central Registrar u/s 78 of Multi-State Co-operative Societies Act, 2002, on a request received from certain category of person. Scope of inquiry related to:
(a) the constitution and managing committee of the Multi-State Co-operative Society
(b) the working of a Multi-State Co-operative Society
(c) the financial condition of a Multi-State Co-operative Society
(d) the constitution, working and financial condition of a Multi-State Co-operative Society
Answer:
(d) the constitution, working and financial condition of a Multi-State Co-operative Society

Question 29.
Person conducting inquiry u/s 78 of Multi-State Co-operative Societies Act, 2002 haspowerto require the officers of the society to call a general meeting of
the society by giving notice of not less than _________ at such time and place atthe headquarters ofthe society to consider such matters, as may be directed by him
(a) 7 days
(b) 14 days
(c) 21 days
(d) 21 clear days
Answer:
(a) 7 days

Question 30.
Person conducting inspection u/s 79 of Multi¬State Co-operative Societies Act, 2002 may exercise which of the following powers:
(a) access to all books, accounts, papers, vouchers, securities, stock and other property of that society and may, in the event of serious irregularities dis-covered during inspection, take them into custody
(b) verify the cash balance of the society
(c) call a meeting ofthe Board and also a general meet¬ing ofthe society where such general meeting is, in his opinion, necessary
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(d) all of the above

Audit of Banks – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Students should practice these Audit of Banks – CA Inter Audit MCQ based on the latest syllabus.

Audit of Banks – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 1.
Regulating body in case of banks is:
(a) SEBI
(b) IRDA
(c) RBI
(d) ICAI
Answer:
(c) RBI

Question 2.
Long Form Audit report is to be submitted by:
(a) 30th April every year
(b) 30th June every year
(c) 30th Sep. every year
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) 30th June every year

Question 3.
The matters which the banks require their auditors to deal with in the long form audit report have been specified by the
(a) Central Government
(b) State Bank of India
(c) Board of Directors of respective banks
(d) Reserve Bank of India
Answer:
(d) Reserve Bank of India

Question 4.
During stage of initial considerations in a bank audit, which of the following aspect is not covered:
(a) Acceptance & Continuance
(b) Terms of Audit Engagements
(c) Communication with Previous Auditor
(d) Engagement Team Discussions
Answer:
(d) Engagement Team Discussions

Audit of Banks – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 5.
During stage of “understanding the business operations” in a bank audit, auditor is required to obtain understanding of various aspects. Which of the following aspect is not covered?
(a) Bank and its Environment including Internal Control
(b) Bank’s Accounting Process
(c) Risk Management Process
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(d) None of the above

Question 6.
During stage of “Risk Assessment” in a bank audit, auditor is required to identify and assess risks. Risks to be identified and assessed include:
(a) Risks of Material Misstatements and Risk of Fraud including Money Laundering
(b) Risks of Material Misstatements and Risk of Fraud including Money Laundering and Specific Risks
(c) Risk Associated with Outsourcing of activities and Risk of Fraud including Money Laundering
(d) Risks of Material Misstatements, Risk of Fraud including Money Laundering, Specific Risks and Risk Associated with Outsourcing of activities
Answer:
(d) Risks of Material Misstatements, Risk of Fraud including Money Laundering, Specific Risks and Risk Associated with Outsourcing of activities

Question 7.
Which of the following activity is generally not form part of execution stage in a bank audit:
(a) Establish Engagement Team
(b) Engagement Team Discussions
(c) Response to the Assessed Risks
(d) Appropriateness of Going Concern
Answer:
(a) Establish Engagement Team

Question 8.
You are at the planning stage for one of your firm’s clientXYZBankfor the year ended 31st March 2019. The bank is a commercial bank that provides a number of products and services to the general public and other segments of the economy in the area of South Mumbai. You are assigned the audit of one of the branches of XYZ Bank. The audit engagement team was called to have a detailed discussion on the following matters. Which one of the following should not be included in the discussion for the audit of banks?
(a) Appointment and remuneration to be received on this engagement
(b) Errors of last year in the application of accounting policies of the bank
(c) Methods of fraud if any perpetrated by the bank employee within particular balances and/or dis-closures
(d) Effect of the results of the risk assessment procedures on other aspects to decide the nature, timing and extent of further audit procedures
Answer:
(a) Appointment and remuneration to be received on this engagement

Question 9.
Which of the following activity is generally not form part of execution stage in a bank audit:
(a) Engagement Team Discussions
(b) Response to the Assessed Risks
(c) Understanding of bank accounting policies
(d) Audit Planning Memorandum
Answer:
(c) Understanding of bank accounting policies

Question 10.
Which of the following is fund based advance?
(a) Term loans
(b) Cash credits
(c) Demand Loans
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Audit of Banks – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 11.
Which of the following is not classification of NPA?
(a) Impaired
(b) Sub Standard
(c) Doubtful
(d) Loss
Answer:
(a) Impaired

Question 12.
Agricultural advances are classified as NPA if interest and/or Instalment of principal is overdue for __________ in case loans granted for Short Duration crops and __________ in case loans granted for Long Duration crops (i.e. more than 1 year)
(a) two crop seasons; one crop season.
(b) one crop season; one crop season.
(c) two crop seasons; two crop seasons.
(d) one crop season; two crop season.
Answer:
(a) two crop seasons; one crop season.

Question 13.
Your firm has been appointed as auditors of a branch of a nationalised Bank. The bank is a consortium member of Cash Credit Facilities of ₹ 5 0 crores to X Ltd. Bank’s own share is ₹ 10 crores only. During the last two quarters against a debit of ₹ 1.75 crores towards interest, the credits in X Ltd. account are to the tune of ₹ 1.2 5 crores only. Based on the certificate of lead bank, the bank has classified the account of X Ltd. as performing
(a) Classification of advance as performing is in order as in case of consortium advances, classification is to be done on the basis of certificate of lead bank
(b) Classification of advance as performing is in order subject to confirmation from branch statutory auditor
(c) Classification of advance as performing is in order subject to confirmation from Central Statutory auditor
(d) Classification of advance as performing is not in order
Answer:
(d) Classification of advance as performing is not in order

Question 14.
M/s. S Ltd. is a MSME unit. The company does multiple banking. The company is availing cash credit limit from U Bank of ₹ 25 crores. The limit availed remained less than ₹ 5.00 crores during all the days of F.Y. 2017-18. The company has not done any credit in cash credit account during the year as it is operating current account in newly opened another bank branch adjoining to company premises. The company is having sufficient security of stocks and debtors and DP of ₹ 25.00 crores remains all over the year. The company is availing term loans from other bank branches. Now the Bank Manager is insisting to route the sale proceeds through U Bank, otherwise cash credit limit and term loan accounts with other banks will be treated as Non-Performing Accounts
(a) Cash credit facility with U Bank need to be classified as NPA as there are no credit in the account to serve the interest charged in the account. Classification of term loan with other banks depends upon the payment made to that bank
(b) Cash credit facility with U Bank as well term loans with other bank branches need to be classified as NPA
(c) Cash credit facility with U Bank as well term loans with other bank branches need to be classified as performing
(d) Cash credit facility with U Bank need to be classified as performing whereas classification of term loan with other banks depends upon the payment made to that bank
Answer:
(a) Cash credit facility with U Bank need to be classified as NPA as there are no credit in the account to serve the interest charged in the account. Classification of term loan with other banks depends upon the payment made to that bank

Question 15.
Which of the following is correct in case of Banks?
(a) The policy ofincomerecognitionshouldbe objective
(b) The policy of income recognition should be subjective
(c) The policy of income recognition maybe objective or subjective
(d) The policy of income recognition should be objective and based on record of recovery rather than on any subjective considerations
Answer:
(d) The policy of income recognition should be objective and based on record of recovery rather than on any subjective considerations

Question 16.
In course of audit of Good Samaritan Bank as at 31st March 2019 you observed the following: in a particular account there was no recovery in the past 18 months. The bank has not applied the NPA norms as well as income recognition norms to this particular account. When queried the bank management replied that this account was guaranteed by the central government and hence these norms were not applicable. The bank has not invoked the guarantee
(a) Bank is correct to the extent of not applying the NPA norms for provisioning purpose. But this exemption is not available in respect of income recognition norms
(b) Bank is not correct to the extent of not applying the NPA norms for provisioning purpose. But this exemption is available in respect of income recognition norms
(c) Bank is correct in not applying the NPA norms and income recognition norms
(d) Bank is not correct in not applying the NPA norms and income recognition norms
Answer:
(a) Bank is correct to the extent of not applying the NPA norms for provisioning purpose. But this exemption is not available in respect of income recognition norms

Audit of Banks – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 17.
In carrying out audit of deposits and liabilities in a bank, the auditor is primarily concerned with obtaining __________ that all known liabilities are recorded and stated at appropriate amounts
(a) Absolute assurance
(b) Reasonable assurance
(c) Moderate assurance
(d) Limited assurance
Answer:
(b) Reasonable assurance

Question 18.
Management develops controls and uses performance indicators to aid in managing key business and financial risks. Requirements of Risk Management System in a Bank may include:
1. Oversight by Those Charged with Governance
2. Identification, measurement and monitoring of risks
3. Control activities
4. Monitoring activities
5. Reliable information systems
6. Assess the Risk of Fraud including Money Laun-dering by audit team
7. Identifying and Assessing the Risks of Material Misstatements by auditor
8. Assess Specific Risks at engagement level that may cause material misstatement
Identify the reqc irements:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 5, 6, 7 and 8
(c) 1, 2, 3,4 and 5
(d) 6, 7 and 8
Answer:
(b) 5, 6, 7 and 8

Question 19.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) Sub-section (1) of section 30 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 requires that the balance sheet and profit and loss account of a banking company should be audited by a Firm of Chartered Accountants only.
(b) Sub-section (1) of section 30 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 requires that the balance sheet and profit and loss account of a banking company should be audited by a person duly qualified under any law for the time being in force to be an auditor of companies.
(c) Sub-section (1) of section 30 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 requires that the balance sheet and profit and loss account of a banking company ; should be audited by a CAG Auditor only.
(d) Sub-section (1) of section 30 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 requires that the balance sheet and profit and loss account of a banking company should be audited by a person duly qualified under Banking Law.
Answer:
(b) Sub-section (1) of section 30 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 requires that the balance sheet and profit and loss account of a banking company should be audited by a person duly qualified under any law for the time being in force to be an auditor of companies.

Question 20.
A Ltd. has been assigned a Cash Credit limit of INR 20 lacs as against its Book Debts furnished as security. What kind of Security creation is it?
(a) Pledge
(b) Mortgage
(c) Assignment
(d) Set-off
Answer:
(c) Assignment

Audit Documentation and Audit Evidence – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Students should practice these Audit Documentation and Audit Evidence – CA Inter Audit MCQ based on the latest syllabus.

Audit Documentation and Audit Evidence – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 1.
SA 230 defines the term audit documentation as to the record of:
(a) audit procedures performed and audit evidence obtained
(b) audit evidence Obtained and Conclusion the auditor reached
(c) Audit procedure performed and conclusion the auditor reached
(d) Audit procedure performed, relevant audit evidence obtained and conclusion the auditor reached
Answer:
(d) Audit procedure performed, relevant audit evidence obtained and conclusion the auditor reached

Question 2.
As per SA 230 auditor is required to prepare audit documentation that provides a ________ and ________ record of the basis of the auditor’s report
(a) Complete and Exhaustive
(b) Sufficient and Reliable
(c) Sufficient and Appropriate
(d) None of the Above
Answer:
(c) Sufficient and Appropriate

Question 3.
________ refers to one or more folders or other storage media, in physical or electronic form, containing the records that comprise the audit documentation for a specific engagement
(a) Completion Memorandum
(b) Audit File
(c) Audit Report
(d) Audit Summary
Answer:
(b) Audit File

Question 4.
The auditor shall assemble the audit documentation in an audit file and complete the administrative process of assembling the final audit file on a timely basis within ________ of the date of the auditor’s report
(a) 30 days
(b) 60 days
(c) 90 days
(d) 120 days
Answer:
(b) 60 days

Audit Documentation and Audit Evidence – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 5.
The completion of the assembly of the final audit file after the date of the auditor’s report is ________
(a) an administrative process that does not involve the performance ofnewauditproceduresbutcertainly involves the drawing of new conclusions
(b) an administrative process that involves the performance of new audit procedures or the drawing of new conclusions
(c) an administrative process that does not involve the performance of new audit procedures or the drawing of new conclusions
(d) a statutory process
Answer:
(c) an administrative process that does not involve the performance of new audit procedures or the drawing of new conclusions

Question 6.
SA 500 defines the term audit evidence as informa-tion used by the auditor in arriving at the conclusions on which the auditor’s opinion is based. The term information as used in definition of audit evidence comprises of:
(a) Information contained in accounting records
(b) Information obtained from other sources
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Both of the above

Question 7.
Procedures performed to obtain understanding of the entity and its environment including the entity internal control, to identify and assess the risk of material misstatement whether due to fraud or error at the financial statement and assertion level are known as
(a) Risk Assessment procedures
(b) Compliance procedures
(c) Substantive procedures
(d) Analytical procedures
Answer:
(a) Risk Assessment procedures

Question 8.
Substantive procedures comprise of:
(a) Tests of Control and Tests of Details
(b) Risk Assessment procedures and Tests of details
(c) Tests of Control and Substantive Analytical Procedures
(d) Tests of details and Substantive Analytical Procedures
Answer:
(d) Tests of details and Substantive Analytical Procedures

Audit Documentation and Audit Evidence – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 9.
Which of the following statement is false?
(a) Reliability of audit evidence is increased when it is obtained from independent sources outside the entity
(b) Audit evidence obtained indirectly are more reliable than audit evidence obtained directly by the auditor
(c) Audit evidence in documentary form, whether paper, electronic, or other medium, is more reliable than evidence obtained orally
(d) Audit evidence provided by original documents are more reliable than audit evidence provided by photocopies
Answer:
(b) Audit evidence obtained indirectly are more reliable than audit evidence obtained directly by the auditor

Question 10.
Audit evidence is necessary to support the au-ditor’s opinion and report. It is ________ in nature and is primarily obtained from audit procedures performed during the course of the audit
(a) Cumulative
(b) Regressive
(c) Selective
(d) Objective
Answer:
(a) Cumulative

Question 11.
As per SA 330, which of the following factors do not warrant retesting of controls:
(a) Effective control environment
(b) Personnel changes that significantly affect the application of the control
(c) Significant manual element to the relevant controls
(d) Both (b) and (c) above
Answer:
(a) Effective control environment

Question 12.
As per SA 330, external confirmations may be used as substantive procedure. Areas in which ex-ternal confirmations may be obtained are:
(a) Amount due to lenders, including terms of repayment
(b) Salary paid to employees
(c) Profits transferred to reserves
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(a) Amount due to lenders, including terms of repayment

Question 13.
In the context of an audit of financial statements, substantive tests are audit procedures that
(a) may be eliminated under certain conditions
(b) may be either tests of transactions, direct tests of financial balances, or analytical tests
(c) will increase proportionately with the auditor’s reliance on internal control
(d) are designed to discover significant subsequent events
Answer:
(b) may be either tests of transactions, direct tests of financial balances, or analytical tests

Question 14.
The auditor’s decision on whether to rely on audit evidence obtained in previous audits for controls that:(a) have not changed since they were last tested; and (b) are not controls that mitigate a significant risk; is a matter of professional judgment. In addition, the length of time between retesting such controls is also a matter of professional judgment, but is required to be at least
(a) once in every year
(b) once in every two year
(c) once in every third year
(d) once in every fifth year
Answer:
(c) once in every third year

Audit Documentation and Audit Evidence – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 15.
When deviations from controls upon which the auditor intends to rely are detected, the auditor shall make specific inquiries to understand these matters and their potential consequences, and shall determine whether:
(a) The tests of controls that have been performed provide an appropriate basis for reliance on the controls
(b) Additional tests of controls are necessary
(c) The potential risks of misstatement need to be addressed using substantive procedures
(d) Any of the above
Answer:
(d) Any of the above

Question 16.
A written statement by management provided to the auditor to confirm certain matters or to support other audit evidence is known as
(a) Letter of Engagement
(b) External Confirmation
(c) Written Representation
(d) Third party confirmation
Answer:
(c) Written Representation

Question 17.
Which of the following is true?
(a) Written representation shall be in the form of a representation letter addressed to TCWG
(b) Date of written representation shall be as near as practicable to the date of financial statements
(c) If based on written representation received, auditor claims that there is sufficient doubt about integrity of management, he shall issue an adverse opinion
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(d) None of the above

Question 18.
Which statement is correct regarding written representations?
(a) Although written representations provide necessary audit evidence, they do not provide sufficient appropriate audit evidence on their own about any of the matters with which they deal
(b) Written representations provide sufficient appropriate audit evidence on their own about any of the matters with which they deal
(c) Written representations neither provide necessary audit evidence nor they provide sufficient appropriate audit evidence
(d) Written representations are not related to audit evidence
Answer:
(a) Although written representations provide necessary audit evidence, they do not provide sufficient appropriate audit evidence on their own about any of the matters with which they deal

Question 19.
As per SA 580 “Written Representations” the auditor shall disclaim the opinion on the financial statements in accordance with SA 705 if;
(a) Auditor has concerns about the competence, integrity, ethical values or diligence of management
(b) Written representations are inconsistent with other audit evidences
(c) Management does not provide the written representation
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Management does not provide the written representation

Question 20.
While auditing a lawyer company, Mr. X, the statutory auditor of the company, was unable to get the confirmation about the existence and value of certain books existed in the library worth ₹ 35 lakh. However, the management gave him a certificate to prove the existence and value of the books as appearing in the books of account. The auditor accepted the same without any further procedure and signed the audit report. Is he right in his approach?
(a) The approach adopted by the auditor is right, as “Written Representations” are considered as suf-ficient appropriate audit evidence in the absence of other audit evidences
(b) The approach adopted by the auditor is not right, as “Written Representations” cannot be a substitute for other audit evidence that the auditor could reasonably expect to be available
(c) The approach adopted by the auditor can be considered as right, if he discloses this fact in the audit report as “Key Audit Matter”
(d) The approach adopted by the auditor can be considered as right, if he discloses the fact in the audit report in “Emphasis of Matter” Para
Answer:
(b) The approach adopted by the auditor is not right, as “Written Representations” cannot be a substitute for other audit evidence that the auditor could reasonably expect to be available

Audit Documentation and Audit Evidence – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 21.
As per SA 501, auditor is required to obtain sufficient and appropriate audit evidences as to:
(a) Valuation of Inventory
(b) Completeness of Litigation and Claims
(c) Presentation and Disclosures of Financial Instruments
(d) All of the Above
Answer:
(b) Completeness of Litigation and Claims

Question 22.
If physical inventory counting is conducted at a date other than the date of the financial statements, the auditor shall
(a) perform audit procedures to obtain audit evidence about whether changes in inventory between the count date and the date of the financial statements are properly recorded
(b) shall make or observe some physical counts on an alternative date, and perform audit procedures on intervening transactions
(c) perform alternative audit procedures to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence regarding the existence and condition of inventory. If it is not possible to do so, the auditor shall modify the opinion in the auditor’s report in accordance with SA 705
(d) obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence regarding the existence and condition of that inventory by requesting confirmation from the third party as to the quantities and condition of inventory held on behalf of the entity
Answer:
(a) perform audit procedures to obtain audit evidence about whether changes in inventory between the count date and the date of the financial statements are properly recorded

Question 23.
When inventory under the custody and control of a third party is material to the financial statements, the auditor shall obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence regarding the existence and condition of that inventory by
(a) Request confirmation from the third party as to the quantities and condition of inventory held on behalf of the entity
(b) Perform inspection or other audit procedures appropriate in the circumstances
(c) Either or Both of the above
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Either or Both of the above

Question 24.
“If inventory is material to the financial state-ments, theauditor shall obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence regarding the existence of inventory by attending the physical inventory counting unless impracticable.” Purpose of attending inventory count is to:
1. Evaluate management’s instructions and procedures for recording and controlling the results of the entity’s physical inventory counting
2. Observe the performance of management’s count procedures;
3. Inspect the inventory;
4. Perform test counts
5. Valuation of the inventory
6. Identify the weaknesses to be informed to those charged with governance as per requirement of SA 260
7. Determine the key audit matters so as to be incorporated in the audit report as per require-ments of SA 701
Select the main purpose:
(a) 1,2, 6 and 7
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1,2, 5, 6 and 7
(d) 5, 6 and 7
Answer:
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Question 25.
ABC Ltd. is dealing in trading of electronic goods. Huge inventory {60% approximately) of the company is lying on consignment (i.e. under the custody of third party). CA. Mohit, the auditor of the company, wants to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence regarding the existence and condition of the inventory lying on consignment. Thus, he requested & obtained confirmation from the third party as to the quantities and condition of inventory held on behalf of the entity, however, it raised doubts about the integrity and objectivity ofthe third party. Which of the following other audit procedures may be performed by CA. Mohitto obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence regarding the existence and condition of the inventory under the custody of third party?
(a) Attend third party’s physical counting of inventory
(b) Arrange for another auditor to attend third party’s physical counting of inventory
(c) Inspect warehouse receipts regarding inventory held by third parties
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 26.
A request that the confirming party respond directly to the auditor indicating whether the confirming party agrees or disagrees with the information in the request, or providing the requested information is known as:
(a) Positive Confirmation request
(b) Negative Confirmation request
(c) Third party confirmation
(d) Request for Written representation
Answer:
(a) Positive Confirmation request

Audit Documentation and Audit Evidence – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 27.
While designing external confirmation request, which ofthe following factors need to be considered:
(a) Method of communication
(b) Management authorisation/encouragement to Confirming Party to respond to auditor
(c) Ability of Confirming Party to provide/confirm requested info
(d) All of the Above
Answer:
(d) All of the Above

Question 28.
As per SA 505, if management refuses to allow the auditor to send a confirmation request, the auditor:
(a) need not to inquire the reasons from management and may modify the opinion directly
(b) need not to inquire the reasons from management & perform alternate procedures
(c) need to inquire the reasons and perform alternate audit procedures
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) need to inquire the reasons and perform alternate audit procedures

Question 29.
As per SA 505 “External Confirmations”, if man-agement refuses the auditor to send a confirmation request, the auditor shall:
(a) Determine the implications for the audit and audi-tor’s opinion in accordance with SA 705
(b) Evaluate the implications ofthe assessment ofthe relevant risk of material misstatements, including the risk of fraud
(c) Consider the matter as Key Audit matter and report as per SA 701
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Evaluate the implications ofthe assessment ofthe relevant risk of material misstatements, including the risk of fraud

Question 30.
In which of the following circumstances would the use of the negative form of accounts receivable confirmation most likely be justified?
(a) A substantial number of accounts maybe in dispute and the accounts receivable balance arises from sales to a few major customers
(b) A small number of accounts may be in dispute and the accounts receivable balance arises from sales to many customers with small balances
(c) A small number of accounts may be in dispute and the accounts receivable balance arises from sales to a few major customers
(d) A substantial number of accounts maybe in dispute and the accounts receivable balance arises from sales to many customers with small balances
Answer:
(b) A small number of accounts may be in dispute and the accounts receivable balance arises from sales to many customers with small balances

Audit Documentation and Audit Evidence – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 31.
Initial Audit Engagement is an engagement in which prior period financial statements are:
(a) not audited
(b) audited by the predecessor auditor
(c) audited by same auditor
(d) either (a) or (b)
Answer:
(d) either (a) or (b)

Question 32.
Which of the following is false?
(a) If the auditor is unable to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence regarding the opening balances, the auditor shall express a qualified opinion or a disclaimer of opinion, as appropriate in accordance with SA 705
(b) If the auditor concludes that the opening balances contain a misstatement that materially affects the current period’s financial statements and the effect of the misstatements is not properly accounted for or adequately presented or disclosed, the auditor shall express a qualified opinion or an adverse opinion as appropriate in accordance with SA 705
(c) If the auditor concludes that the current period accounting policies are consistency applied in relation to opening balances in accordance with applicable FRF, the auditor shall express a qualified opinion or an adverse opinion as appropriate in accordance with SA 705
(d) If the auditor concludes that a change in accounting policies is not properly accounted for or not adequately presented or disclosed in accordance with the applicable FRF, the auditor shall express a qualified opinion or an adverse opinion as appropriate in accordance with SA
Answer:
(c) If the auditor concludes that the current period accounting policies are consistency applied in relation to opening balances in accordance with applicable FRF, the auditor shall express a qualified opinion or an adverse opinion as appropriate in accordance with SA 705

Question 33.
Which of the following is false in case of initial audit engagement?
(a) The auditor shall read the most recent F.S., if any, and the predecessor auditor’s report thereon, if any, for information relevant to opening balances
(b) If the auditor obtains audit evidence that the opening balances contain misstatements that could materially affect the current period’s F.S., the auditor shall perform such additional audit procedures as appropriate to determine the effect on the current period’s F.S.
(c) Auditor shall obtain SAAE about whether the accounting policies reflected in the opening balances have been consistently applied in the current period’s F.S.
(d) If the auditor is unable to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence regarding the opening balances, the auditor shall express an adverse opinion
Answer:
(d) If the auditor is unable to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence regarding the opening balances, the auditor shall express an adverse opinion

Question 34.
Which of the below mentioned standards deals with the related party disclosures in the financial statements and auditor’s responsibilities regarding related party relationships and transactions when performing an audit of financial statements
(a) AS 18 and SA 540
(b) AS 17 and SA 550
(c) AS 18 and SA 550
(d) AS 17 and SA 540
Answer:
(c) AS 18 and SA 550

Audit Documentation and Audit Evidence – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 35.
As per SA 550 “Related Parties”, if the auditor identifies related parties or significant related party transactions that management has not previously identified or disclosed to the auditor, the auditor shall:
(a) Determine whether the underlying circumstances confirm the existence of those relationships or transactions
(b) Request management to identify all transactions with the newly identified related parties for the auditor’s further evaluation
(c) Report the matter to the Central Government
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) Request management to identify all transactions with the newly identified related parties for the auditor’s further evaluation

Question 36.
If the auditor identifies related parties or significant related party transactions that management has not previously identified or disclosed to the auditor, the auditor shall:
(a) Promptly communicate the relevant information to Regulatory authorities
(b) Perform appropriate substantive aud it procedures relating to such newly identified related parties or significant related party transactions
(c) Reconsider the risk that other related parties or significant related party transactions may exist that auditor fails to identify
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(b) Perform appropriate substantive aud it procedures relating to such newly identified related parties or significant related party transactions

Question 37.
For identified significant related party transactions outside the entity’s normal course of business, the auditor shall evaluate whether
(a) The business rationale (or lackthereof) ofthe trans-actions suggests that they may have been entered into to engage in fraudulent financial reporting or to conceal misappropriation of assets
(b) The terms of the transactions are consistent with management’s explanations
(c) The transactions have been appropriately accounted for and disclosed in accordance with the applicable financial reporting framework
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 38.
If the auditor identifies significant transactions outside the entity’s normal course of business when performing the audit procedures, the auditor shall
(a) inquire of management about the nature of these transactions and whether related parties could be involved
(b) perform the procedures as prescribed in SA 240
(c) ask a written representation from the management in this regard
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) inquire of management about the nature of these transactions and whether related parties could be involved

Question 39.
Which of the following is false?
(a) Nature of related party relationships and transactions may, in some circumstances, give rise to higher risks of material misstatement of the financial statements than transactions with unrelated parties
(b) Where the applicable FRF establishes requirements of related party disclosures, auditor has no respon-sibility to perform audit procedures to identify, assess and respond to the RMM arising from the entity’s failure to appropriately account for or disclose related party relationships, transactions or balances
(c) In case of identification of significant Related party transaction outside the entity normal course of business, auditor shall obtain evidence that transactions have been appropriately authorised & approved
(d) All of the Above
Answer:
(b) Where the applicable FRF establishes requirements of related party disclosures, auditor has no respon-sibility to perform audit procedures to identify, assess and respond to the RMM arising from the entity’s failure to appropriately account for or disclose related party relationships, transactions or balances

Question 40.
As per SA 560, subsequent events are events oc- curringbetween the date ofthe financial statements and the ________ and facts that become known to the auditor after the date of the auditor’s report
(a) Date of approval of financial statement
(b) Date of the auditor’s report
(c) Date of the annual general meeting
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Date of the auditor’s report

Question 41.
SA 560 “Subsequent Events” deals with the auditor’s responsibilities as to:
(a) Subsequent events in an audit of financial statements
(b) “Other Information” obtained after the date of auditor’s report
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the Above
Answer:
(a) Subsequent events in an audit of financial statements

Audit Documentation and Audit Evidence – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 42.
As per SA 560, if auditor identifies events or conditions that require adjustments or disclosures in the financial statements, the auditor
(a) has no obligation to perform any audit procedures regarding the financial statements after the date of the auditor’s report
(b) shall modify the audit opinion
(c) shall determine whether each such event is appropriately reflected in financial statements
(d) Any of the above
Answer:
(c) shall determine whether each such event is appropriately reflected in financial statements

Question 43.
If a fact becomes known to the auditor that, had it been known to the auditor at the date of the auditor’s report, may have caused the auditor to amend the auditor’s report, the auditor shall
(a) discuss the matter with management
(b) determine whether the financial statements need amendment
(c) if financial statements need to be amended, inquire how management intends to address the matter in the financial statements
(d) All of the Above
Answer:
(d) All of the Above

Question 44.
AS 4 discusses the treatment of events occurring after period end in the financial statement. Events are classified in two categories;
I. Events that provide further evidence of conditions that existed at period end
II. Events that are indicative of conditions that arose subsequent to period end
How are the following two types of significant event treated?
(a) Adjust Financial Statement for Type I and Disclosure in Type II
(b) Adjust Financial Statement for Type I and Type II
(c) Disclosure for Type I and Type II
(d) Disclosure for Type I and Adjust Financial Statement in Type II
Answer:
(a) Adjust Financial Statement for Type I and Disclosure in Type II

Question 45.
Which of the following is not an example of sub-sequent events relating to conditions that existed at period end which require adjustment in the financial statements?
(a) disposal of equipment not being used in operations at a price below current book value
(b) an uninsured loss of inventories as a result of fire
(c) settlement of litigation at an amount different from the amount recorded on the books
(d) sale of investments at a price below recorded cost
Answer:
(b) an uninsured loss of inventories as a result of fire

Question 46.
Which of the below mentioned indicators are classified as financial indicators that may cast doubt about going concern assumption:
(a) loss of key management without replacement
(b) non-compliance with capital requirements
(c) shortage of important supplies
(d) in ability to pay creditors on due dates
Answer:
(d) in ability to pay creditors on due dates

Question 47.
As per SA 570, if auditor concludes that use of going concern basis of accounting by management in preparation of financial statements is inappropriate, auditor shall issue ________
(a) Qualified Opinion
(b) Adverse Opinion
(c) Disclaimer of Opinion
(d) Unmodified opinion with a separate section titled as “Material Uncertainty relatingto Going Concern”
Answer:
(b) Adverse Opinion

Question 48.
As per SA 570, if events or conditions have been identified that may cast significant doubt on the entity’s ability to continue as a going concern, the auditor shall determine whether or not a material uncertainty exists that may cast significant doubt on the entity’s ability to continue as a going concern through performing additional audit procedures. Additional Procedures may comprise of:
(a) Evaluating Management Plans for future actions (h) Evaluating the reliability of cash flow forecast
(c) Requesting Written Representations from manage-ment regarding feasibility for future plans
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 49.
When an auditor concludes there is substantial doubt about a continuing audit client’s ability to continue as a going concern for a reasonable period of time, the auditor’s responsibility is to
(a) Consider the adequacy of disclosure about the client’s possible inability to continue as a going concern
(b) Report to the client’s audit committee that management’s accounting estimates may need to be adjusted
(c) Issue a qualified or adverse opinion, depending upon materiality, due to the possible effects on the financial statements
(d) Reissue the prior year’s auditor’s report and add an explanatory paragraph that specifically refers to “substantial doubt” and “going concern.”
Answer:
(a) Consider the adequacy of disclosure about the client’s possible inability to continue as a going concern

Question 50.
Which of the following is false?
(a) If the financial statements have been prepared using the going concern basis of accounting but, in the auditor’s judgment, management use of the going concern basis of accounting in the preparation of the financial statements is inappropriate, the auditor shall express an adverse opinion
(,b) If management is unwilling to make or extend its assessment when requested to do so by the auditor, the auditor shall consider the implications for the auditor’s report
(c) If use of going concern basis of accounting is appropriate but a material uncertainty exists and adequate disclosure aboutthe material uncertainty is made in the financial statements, the auditor shall express a modified opinion and auditor report shall include a separate section under the heading “Material Uncertainty related to Going Concern”
(d) If use of going concern basis of accounting is ap-propriate but a material uncertainty exists and adequate disclosure aboutthe material uncertainty is not made in the financial statements, the auditor shall express a qualified opinion or adverse opinion as appropriate in accordance with SA 705
Answer:
(c) If use of going concern basis of accounting is appropriate but a material uncertainty exists and adequate disclosure aboutthe material uncertainty is made in the financial statements, the auditor shall express a modified opinion and auditor report shall include a separate section under the heading “Material Uncertainty related to Going Concern”

Audit Documentation and Audit Evidence – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 51.
Audit evidence is necessary to support the auditor’s opinion and report. It is in nature and is primarily obtained from audit procedures performed during the course of the audit.
(a) cumulative
(b) regressive
(c) selective
(d) objective
Answer:
(a) cumulative

Question 52.
________ refer to the audit procedures performed to obtain an understanding of the entity and its environment, including the entity’s internal control, to identify and assess the risks of material misstatement, whether due to fraud or error, at the financial statement and assertion levels.
(a) Audit assessment procedures
(b) Substantive procedures
(c) Test of control
(d) Risk assessment procedures
Answer:
(d) Risk assessment procedures

Question 53.
If the auditor is unable to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence regarding the opening balances, the auditor shall express:
(a) a disclaimer opinion
(b) a qualified opinion
(c) a qualified opinion or a disclaimer of opinion, as appropriate, in accordance with SA 705.
(d) unmodified opinion
Answer:
(c) a qualified opinion or a disclaimer of opinion, as appropriate, in accordance with SA 705.

Question 54.
A failure of the confirming party to respond, or fully respond, to a positive confirmation request, or a confirmation request returned undelivered is called ________
(a) Negative confirmation request
(b) Non-response
(c) Exception
(d) Positive confirmation request
Answer:
(b) Non-response

Question 55.
Which of the following is correct:
(a) The auditor shall assemble the audit documentation in an audit file and complete the administrative process of assembling the final audit file on a timely basis after the date of the auditor’s report,
(b) The auditor shall assemble the audit documentation in an audit file and shall not complete the administrative process of assembling the final audit file.
(c) The auditor shall assemble the audit documentation in an audit file and complete the administrative process of assembling the final audit file on a timely basis before the date of the auditor’s report.
(d) The auditor shall not assemble the audit documentation in an audit file.
Answer:
(a) The auditor shall assemble the audit documentation in an audit file and complete the administrative process of assembling the final audit file on a timely basis after the date of the auditor’s report,

Question 56.
Audit evidence includes
(a) information contained in the accounting records underlying the financial statements
(b) both information contained in the accounting records underlying the financial statements and other information.
(c) other information.
(d) information contained in the accounting records underlying the financial statements or other information.
Answer:
(d) information contained in the accounting records underlying the financial statements or other information.

Audit Documentation and Audit Evidence – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 57.
Most of the auditor’s work in forming the auditor’s opinion consists of:
(a) obtaining audit evidence.
(b) evaluating audit evidence.
(c) obtaining or evaluating audit evidence.
(d) obtaining and evaluating audit evidence.
Answer:
(d) obtaining and evaluating audit evidence.

Question 58.
A difference between the amount, classification, presentation, or disclosure of a reported financial statement item and the amount, classification, presentation, or disclosure that is required for the item to be in accordance with the applicable financial reporting framework is:
(a) Misstatement
(b) Error
(c) Fraud
(d) Any of the above
Answer:
(a) Misstatement

Question 59.
If the auditor is unable to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence regarding the opening balances,
(a) the auditor shall express a qualified opinion in accordance with SA 705.
(b) the auditor shall express a disclaimer of opi nion in accordance with SA 705.
(c) the auditor shall express a qualified opinion or adverse opinion, as appropriate, in accordance with SA 705.
(d) the auditor shall express a qualified opinion or a disclaimer of opinion, as appropriate, in accordance with SA 705.
Answer:
(d) the auditor shall express a qualified opinion or a disclaimer of opinion, as appropriate, in accordance with SA 705.

Question 60.
Audit documentation provides:
(a) evidence of the auditor’s basis for a conclusion about the achievement of the overall objectives of the auditor; or evidence that the audit was planned and performed in accordance with SAs and applicable legal and regulatory requirements.
(b) evidence of the auditor’s basis for a conclusion about the achievement of the overall objectives of the auditor; and evidence that the audit was planned and performed in accordance with SAs and applicable legal and regulatory requirements.
(c) evidence of the auditor’s basis for a conclusion about the achievement of the overall objectives of the auditor
(d) evidence thatthe audit was planned and performed in accordance with SAs and applicable legal and regulatory requirements.
Answer:
(b) evidence of the auditor’s basis for a conclusion about the achievement of the overall objectives of the auditor; and evidence that the audit was planned and performed in accordance with SAs and applicable legal and regulatory requirements.

Question 61.
Which of the following is not an example of audit documentation?
(a) Audit programmes
(b) Summaries of significant matters
(c) Audit file
(d) Checklists.
Answer:
(c) Audit file

Question 62.
Which of the following is incorrect?
(a) Inquiry consists of seeking information of unknown persons, both financial and non-financial, within the entity or outside the entity.
(b) Inquiry is used extensively throughout the audit in addition to other audit procedures.
(c) Inquiries may range from formal written inquiries to informal oral inquiries. Evaluating responses to inquiries is an integral part of the inquiry process.
(d) Responses to inquiries may provide the auditor with information not previously possessed or with corroborative audit evidence.
Answer:
(a) Inquiry consists of seeking information of unknown persons, both financial and non-financial, within the entity or outside the entity.

Audit Documentation and Audit Evidence – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 63.
Which of the following is incorrect?
(a) Written representations are necessary information that the auditor requires in connection with the audit of the entity’s financial statements.
(b) Similar to responses to inquiries, written repre-sentations are audit evidence.
(c) Written representations are requested from those responsible for the preparation and presentation of the financial statements.
(d) Written representations provide necessary audit evidence and also they provide sufficient appro-priate audit evidence on their own about any of the matters with which they deal.
Answer:
(d) Written representations provide necessary audit evidence and also they provide sufficient appro-priate audit evidence on their own about any of the matters with which they deal.

Question 64.
The auditor has no obligation to perform any audit procedures regarding the financial statements after the date ofthe auditor’s report. However, when, after the date ofthe auditor’s report but before the date the financial statements are issued, a fact becomes known to the auditor that, had it been known to the auditor at the date of the auditor’s report, may have caused the auditor to amend the auditor’s report, the auditor shall:
(a) Discuss the matter with management and, where appropriate, those charged with governance.
(b) Determine whether the financial statements need amendment.
(c) Inquire how management intends to address the matter in the financial statements.
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) Discuss the matter with management and, where appropriate, those charged with governance.

Question 65.
A request that the confirming party respond directly to the auditor only if the confirming party disagrees with the information provided in the request is ________
(o) Positive confirmation request
(b) Non-response
(c) Exception
(d) Negative confirmation request
Answer:
(d) Negative confirmation request

Question 66.
The auditor shall design and perform audit procedures in order to identify litigation and claims involving the entity which may give rise to a risk of material misstatement, including:
(a) Inquiry of management and, where applicable, others within the entity, including in-house legal counsel.
(b) Reviewing minutes of meetings of those charged with governance and correspondence between the entity and its external legal counsel.
(c) Reviewing legal expense accounts.
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 67.
CA. Bobby is a recently qualified Chartered Accountant. He is appointed as an auditor of Droopy Ltd. for the current Financial Year 2017-18. He is quite conservative in nature which is also replicated in his professional work. CA. Bobby is of the view that he shall record all the matters related to audit, audit procedures to be performed, audit evidence obtained and conclusions reached. Thus, he maintained a file and recorded each and every of his Findings during the audit. His audit file, besides other thing, includes audit programmes, notes reflecting preliminary thinking, letters of confir-mation, e-mails concerning significant matters, etc. State which of the following need not be included in the audit documentation?
(a) Audit programmes.
(b) Notes reflecting preliminary thinking.
(c) Letters of confirmation.
(d) E-mails concerning significant matters.
Answer:
(b) Notes reflecting preliminary thinking.

Question 68.
Statement 1: Audit procedures consist of Risk Assessments Procedures and other procedures.
Statement 2: Substantive procedures consist of test of details and analytical procedures.
(a) Only Statement 1 is correct
(b) Only Statement 2 is correct
(c) Both 1 & 2 are correct
(d) Both 1 & 2 are incorrect
Answer:
(c) Both 1 & 2 are correct

Question 69.
A request that the confirming party respond directly to the auditor only if the confirming party disagrees with the information provided in the request is ________
(a) Positive confirmation request
(b) Non-response
(c) Exception
(d) Negative confirmation request
Answer:
(d) Negative confirmation request

Audit Documentation and Audit Evidence – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 70.
If the auditor is unable to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence regarding the opening balances, the auditor shall express;
(a) a disclaimer opinion
(b) a qualified opinion
(c) a qualified opinion or a disclaimer of opinion, as appropriate, in accordance with SA 705.
(d) unmodified opinion
Answer:
(c) a qualified opinion or a disclaimer of opinion, as appropriate, in accordance with SA 705.

Question 71.
Which of the following is not an example of an event or condition that may cast significant doubt on entity’s ability to continue as a going concern:
(a) Loss of key management without replacement
(b) Adverse key financial ratios
(c) Inability to pay creditors on due date
(d) Current year profit turns to loss after providing depreciation
Answer:
(d) Current year profit turns to loss after providing depreciation