Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process, Liquidation & Winding-up: An Overview

Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process, Liquidation & Winding-up: An Overview – Setting Up of Business Entities and Closure Important Questions

Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process, Liquidation & Winding-up: An Overview – Setting Up of Business Entities and Closure Important Questions

Question 1.
Distinguish between: Insolvency & Bankruptcy.
Answer:
Following are the main points of difference between insolvency and bankruptcy:

Points Insolvency Bankruptcy
Meaning When an individual, corporation, or other organization cannot meet its financial obligations for paying debts as they are due it is called insolvency. Bankruptcy occurs when Tribunal has determined insolvency, and given legal orders for it to be resolved.
Situation Insolvency describes a situation where the debtor is unable to meet his obligations. Bankruptcy is a legal scheme in which an insolvent debtor seeks relief.
Solvency If Insolvency is resolved it leads to Solvency State which is positive If Insolvency is not resolved it leads to bankruptcy in the case of individual and liquidation in the case of corporates
State or Conclusion Insolvency is a state Bankruptcy is conclusion

Question 2.
Write a short note on Insolvency Professional
Answer:
Insolvency Professional [Section 3(19)]: Insolvency professional means a person enrolled u/s 206 with an insolvency professional agency as its member and registered with the Insolvency & Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) as an insolvency professional u/s 207.

Work of Insolvency & Bankruptcy: The Insolvency & Bankruptcy Code, 2016 envisages a very big role for insolvency professionals. It is envisaged that most of the work relating to insolvency and bankruptcy will be handled by insolvency professionals.

Person: Since the word used is ‘person’, thus insolvency professional can I be only an individual, LLP, partnership firm, or a company.

Code of Conduct: The insolvency professional should follow the code of conduct as specified in Section 208(2) and in First Schedule to the IBBI (Insolvency Professional) Regulation, 2016.

Disciplinary Action: Disciplinary action against insolvency professional agency and insolvency professional can be initiated by the IBBI as per I provisions of sections 217 to 220 of the Code.

Question 3.
To which Corporate Debtors provisions relating to insolvency resolution and liquidation as contained in PART II of the Insolvency & Bankruptcy Code, 2016 applies.
Answer:
PART II (Sections 4 to 77) of the Insolvency & Bankruptcy Code, 2016 deals with insolvency resolution and liquidation for corporate persons. Application [Section 4]: Part II shall apply to matters relating to the insolvency and liquidation of corporate debtors where the minimum amount I of the default is Rs 100 lakh.

Question 4.
Who may initiate the corporate insolvency resolution process under the Insolvency & Bankruptcy Code, 2016?
Answer:
Persons who may initiate corporate insolvency resolution process [Section 6]: Where any corporate debtor commits a default, they may initiate corporate insolvency resolution process in respect of such corporate debtor.

  • Financial Creditor
  • Operational Creditor
  • Corporate Debtor itself

Question 5.
Who shall not be entitled to make an application to initiate the corporate insolvency resolution process under the Insolvency & Bankruptcy Code, 2016?
Answer:
Persons not entitled to make application [Section 11]: Following persons shall not be entitled to make an application to initiate corporate insolvency resolution process, namely:

  1. A corporate debtor undergoing a corporate insolvency resolution process.
  2. A corporate debtor having completed the corporate insolvency resolution process 12 months preceding the date of making of the application.
  3. A corporate debtor or a financial creditor who has violated any of the terms of resolution plan which was approved 12 months before the date of making of an application.
  4. A corporate debtor in respect of whom a liquidation order has been made.

Question 6.
What is the time limit for completion of the corporate insolvency process under the Insolvency & Bankruptcy Code, 2016?
Answer:
Time-limit for completion of insolvency resolution process [Section 12]:
1. The corporate insolvency resolution process shall be completed within a period of 180 days from the date of admission of the application to initiate such a process.

2. The resolution professional shall file an application to the Adjudicating Authority to extend the period of the corporate insolvency resolution process beyond 180 days if instructed to do so by a resolution passed | at a meeting of the committee of creditors by a vote of 6696 of the voting shares.

3. On receipt of an application, if the Adjudicating Authority is satisfied that the subject matter of the case is such that the corporate insolvency resolution process cannot be completed within one hundred and eighty days, it may by order extend the duration of such process beyond one hundred and eighty days by such further period as it thinks fit, but not exceeding 90 days.

However, any extension of the period of the corporate insolvency resolution process under this section shall not be granted more than once.

Question 7.
Referring to the provisions of the Insolvency & Bankruptcy Code, 2016, answer the following:
1. Who appoints the interim resolution professional in a corporate insolvency resolution process?
Answer:
Appointment and tenure of the interim resolution professional [Section 16]:
The Adjudicating Authority shall appoint an interim resolution professional within 14 days from the insolvency commencement date.

2. What is the time limit for such an appointment?
Answer:
Where the application for corporate insolvency resolution process is made by a financial creditor or the corporate debtor, the resolution professional, as proposed respectively, shall be appointed as the interim resolution professional, if no disciplinary proceedings are pending against him.

3. What are the conditions in relation to such an appointment?
Answer:
Where the application for corporate insolvency resolution process is made by an operational creditor and –
(a) no proposal for an interim resolution professional is made, the Adjudicating Authority shall make a reference to the Board for the recommendation of an insolvency professional who may act as an interim resolution professional;

(b) a proposal for an interim resolution professional is made u/s 9(4), the resolution professional as proposed, shall be appointed as the interim resolution professional if no disciplinary proceedings are pending against him.

4. For what term interim resolution professional is appointed?
Answer:
The Board shall, within 10 days of the receipt of a reference from the Adjudicating Authority, recommend the name of an insolvency professional to the Adjudicating Authority against whom no disciplinary proceedings are pending.

The term of the interim resolution professional shall continue till the date of appointment of resolution professional u/s 22.

Question 8.
XYZ Ltd. was incorporated in the year 2015 in the State of Maharashtra. The Company was incorporated by a joint venture between QPR Ltd. & RSP Ltd. to manufacture five thousand electric cars in India. On completion of the venture the company intends to initiate a voluntary liquidation process under the Insolvency & Bankruptcy Code, 2016. The company has some debts but no such debt comes under the ‘default debt’ category. As a practicing professional in insolvency work, you are required to state the procedure to be followed such voluntary liquidation under the Insolvency & Bankruptcy Code, 2016.
Answer:
A corporate person who intends to liquidate itself voluntarily and has not committed any default may initiate voluntary liquidation.

Below is the brief procedure of voluntary liquidation of a corporate person under the Insolvency & Bankruptcy Code, 2016:

Step 1: Submission of declaration to ROC, stating that the company is able to pay its dues and is not being liquidated to default in debt.

Step 2: Pass special resolution for approving the proposal of voluntary liquidation and appointment of a liquidator, within 4 weeks of the aforesaid declaration. If a corporate person owes debts, approval of creditors having a 2/3rd majority would also be required.

Step 3: Public announcement inviting claims of all stakeholders, within 5 days of such approval, in the newspaper as well as on the website of the corporate person.

Step 4: Intimation to the ROC and the Board about the Approval, within 7 days of such Approval.

Step 5: Preparation of preliminary report about the capital structure, estimates of assets and liabilities, proposed plan of action, etc., and submission of the same to a corporate person within 45 days of such Approval.

Step 6: Verification of claims, within 30 days from the last date for receipt of claims and preparation of a list of stakeholders, within 45 days from the last date for receipt of claims.

Step 7: Opening of a bank account in the name of the corporate person followed by the words ‘involuntary liquidation’, in a scheduled bank, for the receipt of all money due to the corporate person.

Step 8: Sale of assets, recovery of monies due to corporate person, the realization of uncalled capital or unpaid capital contribution.

Step 9: Distribution of the proceeds from realization within 6 months from the receipt of the amount to the stakeholders.

Step 10: Submission of the final report by the liquidator to the corporate person, ROC, and the Board and application to the National Company Law

Step 11: Submission of NCLT order regarding the dissolution, to the concerned ROC within 14 days of the receipt of order.

Question 9.
RKG Infrastructure Ltd. was incurring continuous losses and its financial position went from bad to worse. Now’, the Company is undergoing a corporate resolution process. Dinesh who is one of the senior employees of the company has not been paid his salary for 3 months amounting to ₹ 4,50,000. He files an application for initiating the corporate insolvency resolution process with an Adjudicating Authority. Analyze and state whether Dinesh is entitled to make an application to initiate the corporate insolvency resolution process. [Dec. 2018 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Facts of Case: RKG Infrastructure Ltd. was incurring continuous losses and its financial position went from bad to worse. Now, the Company is undergoing a corporate resolution process. Dinesh who is one of the senior employees of the company has not been paid his salary for 3 months amounting to ₹ 4,50,000. He files an application for initiating corporate insolvency resolution process with an Adjudicating Authority Provision: As per Section 4 of the Insolvency & Bankruptcy Code, 2016, if the corporate debt is more than RslOO lakh corporate insolvency resolution and liquidation process can be initiated.

As per Section 6, where any corporate debtor commits a default, a Financial Creditor, an Operational Creditor, or the Corporate Debtor itself may initiate the corporate insolvency resolution process in respect of such a corporate debtor.

As per section 5(20), an operational creditor includes a person to whom an operational debt is owed. As per section 5(21), operational debt includes means of a claim in respect of employment.

Conclusion: Thus, an employee of the company to whom a salary of more than Rs 100 lakh is due can initiate corporate insolvency process being an operational creditor of the company under the Insolvency & Bankruptcy Code, 2016 and therefore senior employee whose salary of Rs 4,50,000 is pending cannot alone file application of Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process.

Question 10.
Time-limit an extension of the period in Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process under Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016. Comment. [June 2019 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Time-limit for completion of insolvency resolution process [Section 12]:
1. The corporate insolvency resolution process shall be completed within a period of one hundred and eighty days from the date of admission of the application to initiate such a process.

2. The resolution professional shall file an application to the Adjudicating Authority to extend the period of the corporate insolvency resolution process beyond one hundred and eighty days if instructed to do so by a resolution passed at a meeting of the committee of creditors by a vote of 66% of the voting shares.

3. On receipt of an application, if the Adjudicating Authority is satisfied that the subject matter of the case is such that the corporate insolvency resolution process cannot be completed within one hundred and eighty days, it may by order extend the duration of such process beyond one hundred and eighty days by such further period as it thinks fit, but not exceeding ninety days.

However, any extension of the period of the corporate insolvency resolution process under this section shall not be granted more than once.

4. It shall mandatorily be completed within a period of three hundred and thirty days from the insolvency commencement date including any extension of the period of CIRP granted under section 12 and the time taken in legal proceedings in relation to such resolution process of the corporate debtor.

Question 11.
Elaborate ‘Waterfall Arrangement’ under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016. [June 2019 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Waterfall arrangement or waterfall payment scheme describes the order in which creditors are paid. In a debt context, it is used to describe the sonority of debt liabilities.

Section 53 of the Insolvency & Bankruptcy Code, 2016 provides for the manner of distribution of assets in case of liquidation and order of priority of distribution. This order of priority is also known as the “waterfall arrangement” since each category of persons comes in priority after the previous one.

Distribution of assets [Section 53]: Notwithstanding anything to the contrary contained in any law enacted by the Parliament or any State Legislature for the time being in force, the proceeds from the sale of the liquidation assets shall be distributed in the following order of priority and within such period and in such manner as may be specified, namely:
1. The insolvency resolution process costs and the liquidation costs paid in full.

2. The following debts which shall rank equally between and among the following:
(a) Workmen’s dues for the period of 24 months preceding the liquidation commencement date, and
(b) Debts owed to a secured creditor in the event such secured creditor has relinquished security in the manner set out in section 52.

3. Wages and any unpaid dues owed to employees other than workmen for the period of 12 months preceding the liquidation commencement date.

3. Financial debts owed to unsecured creditors.

5. The following dues shall rank equally between and among the following:
(a) any amount due to .the Central Government and the State Government including the amount to be received on account of the Consolidated Fund of India and the Consolidated Fund of a State, if any, in respect of the whole or any part of the period of two years preceding the liquidation commencement date;

(b) debts owed to a secured creditor for any amount unpaid following the enforcement of security interest.

6. Any remaining debts and dues.

7. Preference shareholders, if any; and

8. Equity shareholders or partners, as the case may be.
Any contractual arrangements between recipients with equal ranking, if disrupting the order of priority shall be disregarded by the liquidator.

The fees payable to the liquidator shall be deducted proportionately from the proceeds payable to each class of recipients and the proceeds to the relevant recipient shall be distributed after such deduction.

Question 12.
Yogendra is an allottee of a flat in a real estate project promoted by the company, but he has not been delivered flat as per the Agreement. He has approached you to know, whether he can make an application under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, and in what status he can make an application. Also, brief the timelines for the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process. [Dec. 2019 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Facts of Case: Yogendra is an allottee of a flat in a real estate project promoted by the company, but he has not been delivered flat as per the Agreement. He has approached you to know, whether he can make an application under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, and in what status he can make an application.

Provision: As per Section 5(7) of the Insolvency & Bankruptcy Code, 2016, a financial creditor means any person to whom a financial debt is owed and includes a person to whom such debt has been legally assigned or transferred.

As per Section 5(8)(/), financial debt includes any amount raised under the transaction, including any forward sale or purchase agreement, having the commercial effect of a borrowing.

Explanation to Section 5(8) clarifies that any amount raised from an allottee under a real estate project shall be deemed to be an amount having the commercial effect of a borrowing.

Conclusion: Thus, Yogendra being an allottee of a flat in a real estate project can make an application under the Insolvency & Bankruptcy Code, 2016 in the status of ‘financial creditor’.

Question 13.
ABC Ltd. has initiated insolvency proceedings against RS Ltd., for recovery of debt of ₹ 2.86 crores. ABC Ltd. intends to appoint Rahul, one of the employees of its statutory auditors, M/s ASA & Associates, Chartered Accountants, as its resolution professional. In the light of the statutory provisions, examine whether Rahul can be appointed as a resolution professional. [Dec. 2019 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Facts of the case: ABC Ltd., has initiated insolvency proceedings against RS Ltd., for recovery of debt of ₹ 2.86 crores. ABC Ltd. intends to appoint Rahul, one of the employees of its statutory auditors, M/s ASA & Associates, Chartered Accountants, as its resolution professional

Provision: Resolution Professional [Section 5(27)]: Resolution professional means an insolvency professional appointed to conduct the corporate insolvency resolution process and includes an interim resolution professional.

Eligibility of criteria for appointing a person as insolvency professional is specified in Regulation 3 of the IBBI (Insolvency Resolution Process for Corporate Person) Regulations, 2016.

He should not be a related party or employee. He shall fulfill the criteria for appointment as an independent director. He should make a disclosure as specified in the Code of Conduct.

Conclusion: Keeping in view of the above provisions Rahul being an employee of ABC Ltd. cannot be appointed as the resolution professional.

Question 14.
Describe the procedure mentioned under Section 53 of Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), 2016 for distribution of assets in case of liquidation. [Dec. 2019 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Waterfall arrangement or waterfall payment scheme describes the order in which creditors are paid. In a debt context, it is used to describe the sonority of debt liabilities.

Section 53 of the Insolvency & Bankruptcy Code, 2016 provides for the manner of distribution of assets in case of liquidation and order of priority of distribution. This order of priority is also known as the “waterfall arrangement” since each category of persons comes in priority after the previous one.

Distribution of assets [Section 53]: Notwithstanding anything to the contrary contained in any law enacted by the Parliament or any State Legislature for the time being in force, the proceeds from the sale of the liquidation assets shall be distributed in the following order of priority and within such period and in such manner as may be specified, namely:
1. The insolvency resolution process costs and the liquidation costs paid in full.

2. The following debts which shall rank equally between and among the following –
(a) Workmen’s dues for the period of 24 months preceding the liquidation commencement date, and
(b) Debts owed to a secured creditor in the event such secured creditor has relinquished security in the manner set out in section 52.

3. Wages and any unpaid dues owed to employees other than workmen for the period of 12 months preceding the liquidation commencement date.

4. Financial debts owed to unsecured creditors.

5. The following dues shall rank equally between and among the following:
(a) any amount due to .the Central Government and the State Government including the amount to be received on account of the Consolidated Fund of India and the Consolidated Fund of a State, if any, in respect of the whole or any part of the period of two years preceding the liquidation commencement date;

(b) debts owed to a secured creditor for any amount unpaid following the enforcement of security interest.

6. Any remaining debts and dues.

7. Preference shareholders, if any; and

8. Equity shareholders or partners, as the case may be.
Any contractual arrangements between recipients with equal ranking, if disrupting the order of priority shall be disregarded by the liquidator.

The fees payable to the liquidator shall be deducted proportionately from the proceeds payable to each class of recipients and the proceeds to the relevant recipient shall be distributed after such deduction.

Question 15.
National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) has passed an order for the Commencement of Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process (CIRP) of Dora Travels Ltd., one of its directors has approached you to know the effects of “Moratorium” upon the commencement of CIRP. [Dec. 2019 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
On commencement of the CIRP, the adjudicating authority passes an order declaring moratorium for prohibiting all of the following by virtue of section 14 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016:
(a) Institution of suits or continuation of pending suits or proceedings against the corporate debtor including execution of any judgment, decree, or order in any court of law, tribunal, arbitration panel, or other authority.

(b) Transferring, encumbering, alienating, or disposing of by the corporate debtor any of its assets or any legal right or beneficial interest therein.

(c) Any action to foreclose, recover or enforce any security interest created by the corporate debtor in respect of its property including any action under SARFAESI Act, 2002.

(d) The recovery of any property by an owner or lessor where such property is occupied by or in the possession of the corporate debtor.

The order of moratorium shall have effect from the date of order till the completion of CIRP or date of approval of resolution plan or order of liquidation as the case may be.

Question 16.
Write a short note on Modes of winding-up. [June 2009 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Meaning of Winding up: Winding up is the process of closing down the legal existence of a company or LLP. During this process, the assets of the entity are realized, its liabilities are paid off and any surplus is distributed amongst the contributors.

Company Act, 2013: Winding up is not defined in Companies Act, 2013
Under the Companies Act, 2013, the company may be wound up by any of the following modes:

  • By the NCLT Le. compulsory winding-up
  • Voluntary winding-up-Voluntary winding up is dealt with in Section 59 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016
  • Winding-up by the Central Government under summary procedure.

Section 271 of Companies Act, 2013 deals with winding up by Tribunal, and Section 272 of Companies Act, 2013 deals with who can file an application for winding up.

Question 17.
Distinguish between: Winding-up and Insolvency. [June 2010 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Following are the main points of distinction between winding-up and insolvency:

Points Winding-up Insolvency
Meaning Winding-up is a proceeding by means of which a company is dissolved and in the course of such dissolution its assets are collected, its debts are paid off out of the assets or from contributions by its members. If the surplus is still left, it is distributed among the members. Insolvency is the inability of a debtor to pay debts as they fall due. A person is said to be insolvent when his liabilities exceed his assets and against whom Tribunal makes an order of adjudication.
Law The law relating to winding-up is contained in the Companies Act, 2013 and Insolvency & Bankruptcy Code, 2016 The law relating to insolvency in India is contained in the Insolvency & Bankruptcy Code, 2016.
When A company can be wound-up even if is Ímnanciallv sound e.g. voluntary winding-up. A person can be adjudged insolvent only when he is unable to pay his liabilities.
Effect of proceedings After completion of winding-up proceedings, the company is dissolved. After completion of insolvency proceedings, the insolvent person is discharged from all his liabilities.

Question 18.
Who can present the petition for winding-up? [Dec. 2011 (6 Marks)]
Answer:
Petition for winding-up [Section 272(1)]: An application for the wind- ) ing-up of a company can be presented by following:

  • Company itself.
  • Any creditor or creditors, including any contingent or prospective creditor or creditors.
  • Any contributory or Contributories.
  • Any combination of company, creditors, or Contributories.
  • Registrar of companies.
  • Any person authorized by the Central Government.
  • Central or State Government.

Question 19.
The terms ‘Winding-up’ and ‘Dissolution’ can be used interchangeably to denote cessation of the existence of a legal entity. [June 2019 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
The entire procedure for bringing about a lawful end to the life of a company is divided into two stages: ‘winding-up’ and ‘dissolution’. Wind-ing-up is the first stage in the process whereby assets are realized, liabilities are paid off and the surplus, if any, distributed among its members. Dissolution is the final stage whereby the existence of the company is withdrawn by the law.

Following are the main points of distinction between winding-up and dissolution:

Points Winding-up Dissolution
Meaning Winding-up is a proceeding by means of which a company is dissolved and in the course of such dissolution its assets are collected, its debts are paid off out of the assets or from contributions by its members. If the surplus is still left, it is distributed among the members. Dissolution brings an end to the company’s legal existence.
Stage Winding-up precedes the dissolution. In other words, first, winding-up of state of affairs occurs and after winding-up and all other proceedings, the company is dissolved. Dissolution is the final stage that leads to the corporate death of the company.
Effect In winding-up, the assets are realized and liabilities are paid but, the corporate status of the company continues. After dissolution, the corporate status of the company does not continue.
Liquidator The liquidator can present the company in winding-up proceedings. Once the order of dissolution is made, the liquidator cannot represent the company.
Proceedings Any person can proceed against the company which is being wound up. No proceedings can be started against the company which has been dissolved.
Order of Court Winding-up proceedings can be started without the intervention of the Court. Order of Court is essential for the dissolution of the company.

Question 20.
Yuvan Infra Ltd. is continuously making losses and the Directors of the Company are planning to voluntarily wind up the Company. As a Company Secretary advise on conditions and also advise them briefly on procedures for voluntary liquidation. [Dec. 2019 (5 Marks each)]
Answer:
Section 59(3) of the Insolvency & Bankruptcy Code prescribes the following conditions for voluntary liquidation.
1. A declaration by the majority of the directors of the company (in an affidavit) stating that they have made a full inquiry into the affairs of the company and formed an opinion that either the company has no debt or it will be able to pay its debts in full from the proceeds of assets to be sold in the voluntary liquidation.

2. Company is not being liquidated to defraud any person. The brief procedure of voluntary liquidation of a corporate person under IBC includes:

  1. Submission of declaration that the company will be able to pay its dues and ¡s not being liquidated to defraud any person to ROC
  2. Passing special resolution for approving the proposal of voluntary liquidation and appointment of liquidator
  3. Public announcement inviting claims of all stakeholders
  4. Intimation to the ROC and the Board about the approval
  5. Preparation of preliminary report about the capital structure, estimates of assets and liabilities, proposed plan of action
  6. Verification of claims
  7. Opening of a bank account in the name of the corporate person followed by the words ‘involuntary liquidation’ in a scheduled bank
  8. Sale of assets, recovery of monies due to corporate person, the realization of uncalled capital or unpaid capital contribution
  9. Distribution of the proceeds from realization
  10. Submission of the final report by the liquidator to the corporate per-son, ROC, and the Board and application to the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)
  11. Submission of NCLT order regarding the dissolution.

Setting Up of Business Entities and Closure Questions and Answers

Introduction to Company Accounts-Issue of Debentures – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting Notes

Introduction to Company Accounts-Issue of Debentures – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting Notes

Go through this Introduction to Company Accounts-Issue of Debentures – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting and Auditing Notes will help students in revising the entire subject quickly.

Meaning:

  • A debenture is a bond issued by a company acknowledging a debt and containing provisions for repayment of interest and principal.
  • It refers to the loan capital of the company or a source of long-term borrowing.
  • The interest on debentures is a charge against profits of the company.
  • The holders of debentures are known as the debenture holders.
  • Debenture holders are not the owner of the company and hence, do not have voting rights.
  • Debentures may or may not create a charge on the assets of the company.
  • Debentures may be issued at par, premium or discount.
  • Interest on debenture is to be paid even if the company does not earn any profits i.e. at loss also.

Distinction between Shares and Debentures:

Shares Debentures
1. Shareholders are owners of company. Debenture holders are creditors of the company.
2. Shareholders have voting rights. Debenture holders do not have voting rights.
3. Dividend on equity shares is not fixed and is an appropriation of profit. Interest on debentures is at a fixed rate and is a charge against profit.
4. Shares are owned capital of the company. Debentures are the loan capital of the company.
5. In Balance Sheet, shares are shown under Shareholders fund. Debentures are shown in the Balance Sheet under the head Non-Current liabilities.

Types of Debentures:

  • Secured Debentures: These are secured by a charge on the assets of the company.
  • Unsecured Debentures: These are not secured by any charge on the assets of the company.
  • Convertible Debentures: Debentures which have an option of conversion into equity shares at some point of time are called convertible debentures.
  • Non-convertible Debentures: These can never be converted into equity shares.
  • Redeemable Debentures: These debentures have to be redeemed after a fixed period of time.
  • Irredeemable Debentures: Also known as perpetual debentures, these are not redeemable and will be repaid only at the time of liquidation.
  • Registered Debentures: These debentures are payable only to that person whose name is present in the Register of Debenture holders. These are not transferred by mere delivery.
  • Bearer Debentures: Debentures which are transferred by mere delivery and not entered in Register are bearer debentures.

Issue of Debentures:
Introduction to Company Accounts-Issue of Debentures – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting Notes 3
1. Issue of Debentures for cash:
(a) Debentures issued at par and redeemable at par –
→ If full amount is paid at once:
(i) Bank A/c                                   Dr.
To Debenture Application A/c (Being receipt of application money)

(ii) Debenture Application A/c      Dr.
To Debentures A/c (Being debentures allotted)

→ If payment is made in installments:
(i) Bank A/c                                    Dr.
To Debenture Application A/c (Being amount received on application)

(ii) Debenture Application A/c       Dr.
To Debenture A/c (Being debentures allotted)

(iii) Debenture Allotment A/c         Dr.
To Debenture A/c (Being allotment due)

(iv) Bank A/c                                   Dr.
To Debenture Allotment A/c (Being allotment money received)

(v) Debenture Calls A/c                   Dr.
To Debenture A/c (Being call due)

(vi) Bank A/c                                    Dr.
To Debenture Call A/c (Being call amount received)

(b) Issue of Debentures at a premium:
If premium is to be received at the time of allotment:
Debenture Allotment A/c                Dr.
To Debenture A/c To Securities Premium A/c

(c) Issue of Debentures at discount:
Debenture Allotment A/c                Dr.
Discount on issue of debenture A/c Dr.
To Debentures A/c
(Being Debentures issued at a discount)
All other entries will be same.

Note:
Discount on issue of debenture being a Capital Loss must be shown specifically on the asset side under the heading Non-Current Assets. Discount on issue of debentures should be written off as quickly as possible. However, it can be treated as deferred revenue expenditure and written off over the life of the debentures.

Introduction to Company Accounts-Issue of Debentures MCQ Questions

1. Unless written off, the loss on issue of debentures is shown:
(a) On the assets side of Balance Sheet
(b) On the debit side of Profit and Loss Account
(o) By way of deduction from the amount of debentures
(d) On the liabilities side of Balance Sheet.
Answer:
(a) On the assets side of Balance Sheet

2. If debentures are issued as consideration for purchase of any fixed asset, the entry is:
(a) Debit Asset A/c; Credit Vendor A/c
(b) Debit Asset A/c; Credit Bank A/c
(c) Debit Asset A/c; Credit Debentures A/c
(d) Debit Debenture A/c; Credit Asset A/c.
Answer:
(c) Debit Asset A/c; Credit Debentures A/c

3. When debentures are issued as collateral security, the final entry for recording the transaction in the books is:
(a) Credit Debentures A/c and Debit Cash A/c
(b) Debit Debenture Suspense A/c and Credit Cash A/c
(c) Debit Debentures Suspense A/c and Credit Debenture A/c
(d) Debit Cash A/c and Credit the Loan A/c for which security is given.
Answer:
(c) Debit Debentures Suspense A/c and Credit Debenture A/c

4. Interest payable on debentures is:
(a) an appropriation of profits of the company
(b) a charge against profit of the company
(c) transferred to sinking fund investment account
(d) transferred to general reserve.
Answer:
(b) a charge against profit of the company

5. A company issues 14%, debentures of ₹ 10,00,000 at a discount of 10%. The discount allowed will be treated in the account books as:
(a) Capital Expenditure
(b) Revenue Expenditure
(c) Deferred Revenue Expenditure
(d) Capital Loss
Answer:
(d) Capital Loss

6. Which of the following statements is false?
(a) At maturity, debenture holders get back their money
(b) Debentures can be forfeited for non – payment of call money.
(c) In company’s balance sheet, debentures are shown under the head Secured Loans.
(d) Interest on debentures is charged against profits.
Answer:
(b) Debentures can be forfeited for non – payment of call money.

7. Discount on issue of debentures is a:
(a) revenue loss to be charged in the year of issue
(b) capital loss to be written off from capital reserve
(c) capital loss to be written off over the period of the debentures
(d) capital loss to be shown as goodwill.
Answer:
(c) capital loss to be written off over the period of the debentures

8. When debentures are issued at par and are redeemable at premium, the credit given to Premium of Redemption of Debenture Account is in the nature of:
(a) Personal Account
(b) Real Account
(c) Nominal A/c – Exps.
(d) Nominal Account – Income
Answer:
(a) Personal Account

9. Loss on issue of debentures is treated as:
(a) Intangible Asset
(b) Non Current Asset
(c) Non Current Liability
(d) Miscellaneous Expenditure
Answer:
(b) Non Current Asset

10. Which of the following is false?
(a) A Company can issue redeemable debentures.
(b) A Company can issue debentures with voting rights.
(c) A Company can issue convertible debentures.
(d) A Company can buy its own debentures and shares.
Answer:
(b) A Company can issue debentures with voting rights.

11. The following journal entry appears in the books of X Co. Ltd:
Bank A/c Dr. ₹ 4,75,000
Loss on Issue of Debenture A/c Dr. ₹ 25,000
To 12% Debentures A/c 5,00,000
Debentures have been issued at a discount of:
(a) 15%
(b) 5%
(c) 10%
(d) 20%.
Answer:
(b) 5%

12. X Co. Ltd. purchased assets worth ₹ 28,80,000. It issued debentures of ₹ 100 each at a discount of 4% in full satisfaction of the purchase consideration. The number of debentures issued to the vendors of asset are:
(a) ₹ 30,000
(b) ₹ 28,000
(c) ₹ 32,000
(d) ₹ 35,000
Answer:
(a) ₹ 30,000

13. How many debentures will a company be required to issue for satisfying the purchase consideration of ₹ 28,80,000, if debentures of ₹ 100 are issued at a premium of ₹ 20 per debenture?
(a) ₹ 24,000
(b) ₹ 28,000
(c) ₹ 36,000
(d) ₹ 32,000
Answer:
(a) ₹ 24,000

14. F Ltd. purchased machinery from G company for a book value of ₹ 4,00,000. The consideration was paid by issue of 10% debentures of ₹ 100 each at a discount of 20%. The debenture account will be credited by:
(a) ₹ 4,00,000
(b) ₹ 5,00,000
(c) ₹ 3,20,000
(d) ₹ 4,80,000.
Answer:
(b) ₹ 5,00,000

15. T Ltd. has issued 15% Debentures of ₹ 20,00,000 at a discount of 10% on April 01,2004 and the company pays interest half-yearly on June 30 and December 31 every year. On March 31,2006, the amount shown as “interest accrued but not due” in the Balance Sheet will be:
(a) ₹ 75,000
(b) ₹ 2,25,000
(c) ₹ 1,50,000
(d) ₹ 3,00,000.
Answer:
(a) ₹ 75,000

16. When debentures of ₹ 1,00,000 are issued as Collateral Security against a loan of ₹ 1,50,000, the entry for issue of debentures will be:
(a) Credit Debentures ₹ 1,50,000 and debit cash A/c ₹ 1,50,000
(b) Debit Debenture Suspense A/c ₹ 1,00,000 and Credit Cash A/c ₹ 1,00,000
(c) Debit Debenture Suspense A/c ₹ 1,00,000 and Credit Debentures A/c ₹ 1,00,000
(d) Debit Cash A/c ₹ 1,50,000 and Credit Bank A/c ₹ 1,50,000.
Answer:
(c) Debit Debenture Suspense A/c ₹ 1,00,000 and Credit Debentures A/c ₹ 1,00,000

17. P Ltd. issued 10,000, 12% debentures of ₹ 100 each at a premium of 10%, which are redeemable after 10 years at a premium of 20%. The amount of loss on redemption of debentures to be written off every year will be ________.
(a) ₹ 1,60,000
(b) ₹ 80, 000
(c) ₹ 20,000
(d) ₹ 16,000
Answer:
(c) ₹ 20,000

18. On May 01, 2003, Y Ltd. issued 7%, 40,000 convertible debentures of ₹ 100 each at a premium of 20%. Interest is payable on September 30 and March 31, every year. Assuming that the interest runs from the date of issue, the amount of interest expenditure debited to profit and loss account for the year ended March 31,2004 is:
(a) ₹ 2,80,000
(b) ₹ 2,33,333
(c) ₹ 3,36,000
(d) ₹ 2,56,667
Answer:
(d) ₹ 2,56,667

19. W Ltd. issued 20,000, 8% debentures of ₹ 10 each at par which are redeemable after 5 years at a premium of 20%. The amount of loss on redemption of debentures to be written off every year is:
(a) ₹ 40,000
(b) ₹ 10,000
(c) ₹ 20,000
(d) ₹ 8,000
Answer:
(d) ₹ 8,000

20. Which of the following statements is false ________.
(a) Debenture is a form of public borrowing.
(b) It is customary to prefix debentures with the agreed rate of interest.
(c) Debenture interest is a charge against profits.
(d) The issue price and redemption value of debentures cannot differ.
Answer:
(d) The issue price and redemption value of debentures cannot differ.

21. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Bearer Debentures?
(a) They are treated as negotiable instruments.
(b) Their transfer requires a deed of transfer.
(c) They are transferable by mere delivery.
(d) The interest on it is paid to the holder irrespective of identity.
Answer:
(b) Their transfer requires a deed of transfer.

22. The debentures which are secured by a charge upon some or all assets of the company are known as:
(a) First mortgage debenture
(b) Second mortgage debenture
(c) Bearer debenture
(d) Secured debenture
Answer:
(d) Secured debenture

23. When debentures are to be redeemed at premium an extra entry has to be made at the time of issue of debentures, which a/c should be credited in this entry?
(a) Loss on issue of debentures A/c
(b) Debenture redemption premium A/c
(c) Bank A/c
(d) Debenture holder’s A/c
Answer:
(b) Debenture redemption premium A/c

24. When debentures are issued at par and are redeemable at premium, the credit given to premium on redemption of debentures account is in nature of:
(a) Personal A/c
(b) Real A/c
(c) Nominal A/c
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Personal A/c

25. When debentures are issued at a discount, it is prudent to write off the discount:
(a) In the year of the issue of debentures
(b) During the life of the debentures if it is treated as deferred revenue expenditure.
(c) Within 3 years of the issue of debentures
(d) In the year of redemption of debentures
Answer:
(b) During the life of the debentures if it is treated as deferred revenue expenditure.

26. Ansh Ltd. issued 5,000 Debentures of ₹ 10 each for subscription. 4,000 Debentures were subscribed by the public by paying ₹ 3 as application money. Number of debentures allotted to public by Ansh Ltd. will be:
(a) 5,000 shares
(b) 4,000 shares
(c) 3,000 shares
(d) 1,000 shares
Answer:
(b) 4,000 shares

27. Interest received on debenture redemption fund investment is:
(a) Capital reserve a/c
(b) General reserve a/c
(c) Debenture redemption fund A/c
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Debenture redemption fund A/c

28. Puru Ltd. issued 10,000 12% Debentures of ₹ 100 each at a discount of 10% payable in full on application by 31st March, 2007. Application were received for 12,000 debentures. Debentures were allotted on 9th June, 2007. The amount of excess money refunded on the same date will be:
(a) ₹ 1,80,000
(b) ₹ 1,00,000
(c) ₹ 1,10,000
(d) ₹ 1,50,000
Answer:
(a) ₹ 1,80,000

29. “Non-convertible” debentures is inferred as:
(a) Owner’s capital
(b) Loan capital
(c) Short term debts
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Loan capital

30. Tahil Ltd. has issued 14% Debentures of ₹ 20,00,000 at a discount of 10% on April 01, 2005 and the company pays interest half-yearly on June 30, and December 31 every year. On March 31,2007, the amount shown as “interest accrued but not due” in the balance sheet will be:
(a) ₹ 70,000 shown along with Debentures
(b) ₹ 2,10,000 under current liabilities
(c) ₹ 1,40,000 shown along with Debentures
(d) ₹ 2,80,000 under current liabilities
Answer:
(a) ₹ 70,000 shown along with Debentures

31. XYZ Ltd. purchased a machinery for ₹ 10,00,000 from Mohan Ltd. and the consideration was paid by the issue of 18% debentures of ₹ 100 each at a discount of 20%. Calculate the number of debentures to be issued:
(a) 12,500
(b) 10,000
(c) 9,333
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) 12,500

32. Yadav Ltd. purchased a building from Gandhi Ltd. for ₹ 50,00,000 and the consideration was paid by the issue of debentures of ₹ 100 each at a premium of ₹ 25 each. Calculate the number of debentures to be issued to Gandhi Ltd.
(a) 50,000
(b) 40,000
(c) 66,667
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) 40,000

33. Debenture holders are called the ________ of a company.
(a) Banker
(b) Owner
(c) Creditor
(d) Debtor
Answer:
(c) Creditor

34. ABC Ltd. purchased a machinery from Microtee Ltd. for ₹ 50,00,000 and the consideration was paid by issuing debentures of ₹ 100 each at a discount of 20%. Calculate the amount to be credited to the debenture account:
(a) ₹ 50,00,000
(b) ₹ 43,00,000
(c) ₹ 75,00,000
(d) ₹ 62,50,000
Answer:
(d) ₹ 62,50,000

35. Ram Ltd. purchased a car from Harish Ltd. for ₹ 10,00,000 and the consideration was paid by issuing debentures of ₹ 10 each at a premium of ₹ 2.5 each. Calculate the amount to be credited to Debentures Account:
(a) ₹ 8,00,000
(b) ₹ 13,33,000
(c) ₹ 12,50,000
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) ₹ 8,00,000

36. Morseny Ltd. issued 2,000,15% debentures of ₹ 100 each at a premium of 10% which are redeemable after 10 years at a premium of 20%. Thus the discount of loss on debenture is to be written off:
(a) ₹ 20,000
(b) ₹ 10,000
(c) ₹ 40,000
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) ₹ 40,000

37. ABCD Ltd. issued 1,000, 9% debentures of ₹ 100 each at a discount of 10%, which will be redeemed after 5 years at a premium of 10%. Calculate the discount on loss of issue of debentures to be written off each year:
(a) ₹ 40,000
(b) ₹ 20,000
(c) ₹ 10,000
(d) ₹ 5,000
Answer:
(c) ₹ 10,000

38. When the debentures are issued as a collateral security then what entry will be passed?
(a) No entry
(b) Debit Debenture Suspense A/c and Credit Debentures A/c
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer:
(c) Both (a) & (b)

39. Which of the following statement is NOT true?
(a) On maturity the debenture holders get back their money
(b) Debentures can be forfeited for non payment of call money
(c) In the balance sheet, debentures are shown under secured loans
(d) Interest on debentures is payable even in case of loss
Answer:
(b) Debentures can be forfeited for non payment of call money

40. Interest on debentures issued as a collateral security is paid on:
(a) Nominal value of debentures
(b) No interest is paid
(c) Face value of debentures
(d) Paid up value of debentures
Answer:
(b) No interest is paid

41. A debenture holder is entitled to:
(a) Fixed dividend
(b) Share in profits
(c) Voting rights in the company
(d) Interest at the fixed rates
Answer:
(d) Interest at the fixed rates

42. If the debentures allotted for consideration other than cash are more than the agreed purchase price, the difference shall be debited to:
(a) Goodwill Account
(b) P&LA/c
(c) Securities Premium A/c
(d) Debentures A/c
Answer:
(a) Goodwill Account

43. If the debentures allotted for consideration other than cash are less than the agreed purchase price, the difference is credit to:
(a) Goodwill A/c
(b) Capital Reserve A/c
(c) P&LA/c
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Capital Reserve A/c

44. Shares may be issued ________.
(a) For cash
(b) For consideration other than cash.
(c) For both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) For both (a) and (b)
Generally a company issue shares to raise his capital for cash but company may also issue shares for consideration other than cash to vendor who sell some assets to the company.
Thus, shares can be issued both for cash or consideration other than cash.

45. Which of the following will be the journal entry for recording the issue of shares at par against purchase of Machinery?
(a) Debit Machinery A/c, Credit Share Capital A/c
(b) Debit Share Capital A/c, Credit Machinery A/c
(c) Debit Bank A/c, Credit Share Capital A/c
(d) Debit Machinery A/c, Credit Cash A/c
Answer:
(a) Debit Machinery A/c, Credit Share Capital A/c
Following entry will be passed for recording the issue of shares at par against purchase of Machinery –
Machinery A/c Dr.
To Share Capital A/c

46. Debentures of a company can be issued ________.
(a) For cash
(b) For consideration other than cash
(c) As a collateral security
(d) Any of the above.
Answer:
(d) Any of the above.
Debentures are issued for cash by a company. A company may allot debentures to the vendors for acquiring some assets as payment for purchase consideration. A company obtains a loan from a bank or insurance policy, it may issue its own debentures to the lender as collateral security against the loan in addition to any other security that may be offered.
Thus, answer is all of the above.

47. On issue of debentures as a collateral security, which account is credited?
(a) Debentures Account
(b) Bank Loan Account
(c) Debenture holdings Account
(d) Debenture Suspense Account
Answer:
(a) Debentures Account
On issue of debentures as a collateral security, the following entry will be passed –
Debentures Suspense A/c Dr.
To Debentures A/c
Here, Debentures A/c will be credited

48. G Ltd. purchased land and building from H Ltd. at a book value of ₹ 2,00,000. The consideration was paid by issue of 12% debentures of ₹ 100 each at a discount of 20%. For this transaction, the debentures account would be credited with ________
(a) ₹ 2,60,000
(b) ₹ 2,50,000
(c) ₹ 2,40,000
(d) ₹ 1,60,000
Answer:
(b) ₹ 2,50,000
No. of Debentures will be
Introduction to Company Accounts-Issue of Debentures – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting Notes 1
Debentures A/c will be credited by = No. of debentures x Face value of debentures = 2,500 x 100 = 2,50,000

49. A limited company issued a prospectus inviting application for 2,000 shares of ₹ 10 each at premium of ₹ 2 per share payable as follows:
On application – ₹ 2
On allotment – ₹ 5
(including premium)
On Ist call – ₹ 3
On IInd final call – ₹ 2
Application were received for 3,000 shares and allotment was made on pro-rata basis to applicant of 2,400 shares. Money received in excess on application was adjusted towards allotment.
Ramesh whom 40 shares were allotted, failed to pay allotment money & first call his shares were forfeited. Find the number of shares Ramesh has applied for₹
(a) 52
(b) 50
(c) 42
(d) 48
Answer:
(d) 48
Allotment to applicants of 2,400 shares = 2,000.
Ramesh applied for some shares.
He is allotted 40 shares.
He applied for shares = \(\frac{2,400}{2,000}\) x 40
= 48 shares
Hence, option (d) is correct.

50. T Ltd. has issued 14% Debentures of ₹ 20,00,000 at a discount of 10% in April 2013 and the company pays interest half- yearly on June 30 and December 31 every year. On March 31, 2014, the amount shown as ‘interest accrued but not due’ in the balance sheet will be:
(a) ₹ 70,000
(b) ₹ 2,80,000
(c) ₹ 1,40,000
(d) ₹ 2,10,000
Answer:
(a) ₹ 70,000
Accrued but not due means amount of interest computed as per the period of the computation but the payment of amount of installment is not due. So, on March, 31,2014, the amount shown as interest “accrued but not due” in the Balance sheet will be:
20,00,000 x \(\frac{14}{100}\) x \(\frac{3}{12}\) = ₹ 70,000

51. T Ltd. has issued 14% debentures of ₹ 20,00,000 at a discount of 10% in April, 2013 and the company pays interest half yearly on June 30, and December 31, every year. On March 31, 2014 the amount shown as interest accrued but not due in the balance sheet will be:
(a) ₹ 1,40,000
(b) ₹ 2,10,000
(c) ₹ 2,80,000
(d) ₹ 70,000
Answer:
(d) ₹ 70,000
Accrued interest but not due is that interest which has been earned since the last coupon payment. Because the bond hasn’t expired yet or the next payment is not yet due, the owner of the bond hasn’t officially received the money.
∴ Interest accrued but not due as on 31st March, 2014
→ \(\frac{20,00,000 \times 14 \% \times \frac{6}{12}}{2}\)
→ ₹ 70,000

52. The holder of debentures issued as collateral security to a loan is entitled to interest on:
(a) The amount of loan only
(b) On the face value of debentures
(c) Neither loan nor debentures
(d) Both the loan amount and debentures.
Answer:
(a) The amount of loan only
Where a company obtains a loan from a bank or insurance company, it may issue its own debentures to the lender as collateral security against the loan in addition to any other security that may be offered. The holder of such debentures is entitled to interest only on the amount of loan, but not on the debentures. Such an issue of debenture is known as “Debentures issued as collateral security.”

53. K Ltd. Issued ₹ 15,000, 12% Debentures of ₹ 50/- each at premium of 10% payable as ₹ 20/- on application and balance on allotment Debentures are redeemable at per after 6 years. All the money due on allotment was called up and revised. The amount of premium will be:
(a) ₹ 3,00,000
(b) ₹ 2,25,000
(c) ₹ 75,000
(d) ₹ 5,25,000
Answer:
(c) ₹ 75,000
K Ltd. issued deb = 15,000
Face Value = ₹ 50/-
Premium = 10% on face value
Amount of premium = \(\frac { 10 }{ 100 }\) x 50 = ₹ 5
Total premium = ₹ 5 x 15,000
= ₹ 75,000

54. Debenture is issued as a collateral security to a loan, interest will be given on ________.
(a) On debentures only
(b) Both loan & debentures
(c) On loan but not on debentures
(d) None of the following
Answer:
(c) On loan but not on debentures
The term ‘Collateral Security’ implies additional security given for a loan. Where a company obtains a loan from a bank or insurance company, it may issue its own debentures to the lender as collateral security against the loan in addition to any other security that may be offered. In such a case, the lender has the absolute right over the debentures until and unless the loan is repaid.

On repayment of the loan, however, the lender is legally bound to release the debentures forthwith. But in case the loan is not repaid by the company on the due date or in the event of any other breach of agreement, the lender has the right to retain these debentures and to realise them. The holder of such debentures is entitled to interest only on the amount of loan, but not on the debentures. Such an issue of debentures is known as “Debentures issued as Collateral Security”.

55. Which of the following statement is true?
(a) A Debenture holder is an owner of the company.
(b) A Debenture is issued at a discount and can be redeemed at a premium.
(c) A Debenture Holder can get his money back only on liquidation.
(d) A Debenture Holder receives interest only in the event of profit
Answer:
(b) A Debenture is issued at a discount and can be redeemed at a premium.

A Shareholder is the owner of the company.
A Debenture is issued at discount and redeemed at premium.
A Debenture holder can get his money back on redemption also.
A Debenture holder gets profit irrespective of the fact that the company is earning profit or not.

56. Match list l with list II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list:
Introduction to Company Accounts-Issue of Debentures – CS Foundation Fundamentals of Accounting Notes 2
Answer:
(d) 4 2 1 3
Discount on debenture is non-current liability because debenture cannot be redeemed within a year so, discount on debenture is not a current liability.

57. If shares are reissued, then they are issued at:
(a) Par
(b) Premium
(c) Discount
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.
If shares are reissued the would be issued at:
Forfeited share can be issued at Par, Premium and discount any of these. Hence, option (d) is correct.

58. G Ltd. purchased land and building from H Ltd. at a book value of ₹ 2,00,000. The consideration was paid by issue of 12% debentures of ₹ 100 each at a discount of 20%. For this transaction, the debentures account would be credited with:
(a) ₹ 2,60,000
(b) ₹ 2,50,000
(c) ₹ 2,40,000
(d) ₹ 1,60,000
Answer:
Journal entries would be as follows:
(a) Land and Building A/c Dr. 2,00,000
To H Ltd. 2,00,000

(b) H Ltd.’s A/c Dr. 2,00,000
Debenture Discount A/c Dr. 50,000
To 12% Debentures A/c 2,50,000
(\(\frac { 2,00,000 }{ 80 }\) = 2,500 debentures of ₹ 100/each on)

59. Total amount issued for shares is ₹ 3,60,000 at the rate of ₹ 10 each and premium of 20%. What is the number of issued shares.
(a) 36,000
(b) 2,460
(c) 3,000
(d) 4,000
Answer:
(a) 36,000
The Amount Issued for Share = ₹ 3,60,000
It issued @ 10 each.
Hence no. of shares issued = \(\frac {Amount issued }{ issued price }\)
= \(\frac { 3,60,000 }{ 10 }\)
= 36,000 shares.

Accounting Concepts, Principles and Conventions – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material

Accounting Concepts, Principles and Conventions – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material

Accounting Concepts, Principles and Conventions – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material is designed strictly as per the latest syllabus and exam pattern.

Accounting Concepts, Principles and Conventions – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material

Question 1.
What are Accounting Concepts, Principles & Conventions?
Answer:
Usually, accounting theories are expressed (referred) as Postulates, Concepts, Principles, Doctrines, Axioms, Rules, Standard, Assumptions, Canon etc. These are basic assumptions & norms on which the whole system of accounting is developed. These gives the basic structure & outline within which the procedures & systems can be varied as per the situation & need of an entity.

Accounting Concepts:
Meaning:

  • Accounting Concepts is generally used to mean a ‘Notion’ only or mental idea about something.
  • It is a principle which is taken to be self-evident or axiomatic (Le., something which does not require to be proved) which has already been proved to be true.
  • In other words, it may be an assumption or axiom constituting the supposed basis of a system.
  • It is considered to be of a more fundamental character and universally acceptable which may be applied in all possible cases. It will have greater general applicability.
  • These postulates are either descriptive (explanatory) or suggestive (normative).
  • There is no authoritative list of these concepts.

Accounting Principles:
Meaning:

  • Accounting principles are the norm or rules which are to be followed in treating various items of Assets, Liabilities, Expenses, Incomes etc.
  • Example – (i) Inventory should be valued at lower of cost & net reliable value, (ii) Fixed Assets should be depreciated over its useful life, (iii) Valuation norms for current & permanent investments etc.
  • An accounting principle can have alternative methods to apply it. Like in case of inventory we have methods of cost measurement by FIFO or weighted average.

Accounting Conventions:
Meaning:

  • It refers to the general agreement on the usage and practices in social or economic life, i.e., it is a customary practice, rule, method or usage.
  • In other words, it is an accounting procedure followed by the accounting community on the basis of long-standing customs.

Accounting Concepts, Principles and Conventions – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material

Question 2.
What are Fundamental Accounting Assumptions? Explain them in detail.
Answer:
Fundamental Accounting Assumptions:

  • Fundamental accounting assumptions underline the preparation and presentation of financial statements.
  • They are usually not specifically stated because their acceptance and use are assumed.
  • Disclosure is necessary if they are not followed.
  • The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India issued Accounting Standard (AS-1) ‘Disclosure of
  • Accounting Policies’ according to which the following have been generally accepted as fundamental accounting assumptions: (i) Going Concern, (ii) Consistency and (iii) Accrual.

Question 3.
Periodicity concept.
Answer:
Periodicity concept:

  • Accounts are prepared for a fixed period usually a year.
  • Only transactions of that period has to come in that year’s accounts.
  • Period is kept uniform fa period of 12 months) so that results are com¬parable.
  • 1st Accounting period may be usually more or less than 12 months.
  • A business entity runs continuously (going concern) hence to assess its performance and see the financial position on regular basis, it is broken up into smaller, uniform time periods known as accounting period.
  • Now the Income-tax Act & Companies Act, 2013 both requires the Accounting year to be from 1 st April this year to 31 st March of next year.

Question 4.
Business Entity Concept
Answer:
Business Entity Concept:

  • A distinction is made between the concern & its owner.
  • Only those transaction which affects the concern is recorded in its books of account i.e. transactions affecting owner but not the concern will not be recorded in concerns books.

Although, we will study accounting of business concerns, but in the same manner personal account books can also be maintained by any individual.

Question 5.
Cost Concept
Answer:
Cost Concept:

  • The assets & properties are recorded at its cost to the concern & not at its market value.
  • Except stock which may be valued at cost or market price whichever is lower.
  • As per this concept Fixed assets are recorded at their acquisition cost & then depreciated over its useful life.
  • Example : Building purchased for ₹ 10 lakh. Its market value is ₹ 11 lakh. In account book building will be recorded at cost i.e. ₹ 10 lakh.

Question 4.
Dual Aspect Concept
Answer:
Dual Aspect Concept:

  • Each transaction has double effect of equal amounts on Assets, Liabilities and Capital (Expenses & Income will result in to profit/loss which is part of capital).
  • Therefore at any time the accounting equation is: Assets = Liabilities + Capital or Capital = Assets – Liabilities
  • In other words, capital, i.e. the owner’s share of the assets of firm, is always what is left out of assets after paying off outsiders.
  • Due to this dual aspect, we have double entry system of accounting.

Accounting Concepts, Principles and Conventions – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material

Question 5.
Money Measurement Concept
Answer:
Money Measurement Concept:

  • Accounting records only those transactions which are expressed in monetary terms.
  • Although quantitative records are also kept as subsidiary records but that is not part of financial account books.
  • The use of a building(depreciation or rent) and the use of clerical services (salaries) can be added up only through money values and not otherwise.
  • Example – Loss of a Managerial Personnel cannot have a specific monetary value, hence, cannot be recorded in account books although it is significant event.

Question 6.
Realization Concept.
Answer:
Realization Concept:

  • Income is accounted only when it is realised.
  • Realised means cash is received or a right to receive is established.
  • Example – A sale is recognised as income even when amount is not yet collected.
  • Income recognition (Le. accounting) is postponed, when there is no reasonable certainty of realisability.

Question 7.
Accrual Concept.
Answer:
Accrual Concept:

  • The expenses or Income of periodic nature accrues on day to day basis.
  • Therefore we make provision for interest etc. up to last date of accounting year although it may become due/payable on a later date.
  • Following accrual concept means following mercantile system of accounting.
  • Example of such items are Interest, Rent, Salary, Depreciation etc.
  • As per accrual concept/Mercantile system, the income & expenses should be recognised (Le. accounted):
  • In the accounting period to which they relate (Le. the period in which benefit/goods/services is given or taken)
  • Not in the period in which actual money is received or paid.

Example.
Loan ₹ 10 lakh taken on 1.1.06 @ 15% interest. Interest is payable annually. Accounting year ends on 31.3.06.
Answer:
Interest for 3 months from 1.1.06 to 31.3.06 ₹ 37,500 will have to be accounted even though it is neither paid, nor due, but only accrued.
Accrual is a Fundamental accounting assumption.

Question 8.
Going Concern Concept
Answer:
Going Concern Concept:

  • It implies that the concern will be continuing the business for foreseeable future.
  • It is assumed that the enterprise has neither the intention nor the necessity of liquidation or of curtailing materially the scale of the operations.
  • If such an intention or need exist, the financial statements may have to be prepared on a different basis and, if so, the basis is disclosed.
  • Because of this, expenditure is divided into capital & Revenue expenditure & the fixed Assets are valued at cost less Depreciation.
  • Because of this account of the whole life is divided into smaller accounting periods (periodicity concept).

Going concern is a fundamental accounting assumption.

Accounting Concepts, Principles and Conventions – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material

Question 9.
Matching Principle.
Answer:
Matching Principle:

  • If any income is credited in the P&L A/c then all expenses incurred or to be incurred for earning this income, should also be debited in the same years P&L A/c.
  • Similarly if expenses are debited the corresponding income should also be credited in the same P&L A/c.
  • To meet this requirement we make provision for closing stock, outstanding/prepaid expenses & outstanding/Advance income.
  • Future incomes are wot anticipated rather related expenditures are carried forward to future period like prepaid expense & closing stock.
  • If income is preponed for matching, it will be violation of realisation Concept & will also be against prudence principle.

Question 10.
Substance over form.
Answer:
Substance over form:
As per concept of Substance over form, the transaction should be recognized as per the economic reality of the transaction & not mere legal form.

Example.
A sales land to ‘B’ and gives possession of the land to B & receives full consideration. But sale deed is not yet registered for want of NOC from local authority.
Answer:
As per substance over form concept, A should recognize sale of land and consequent profit or loss and B should recognize Land as an asset in its books. Both will make suitable disclosure in notes to accounts.

Question 11.
Convention of Disclosure.
Answer:
Convention of Disclosure:

  • All material information which is relevant for the proper disclosure of true & fair position, should be disclosed prominently in the accounts & financial statements.
  • Disclosure of specified information is required by law and by Accounting Standards also, which is the minimum disclosure.

Question 12.
Convention of Materiality
Answer:
Convention of Materiality:

  • All material i.e. important/significant items or information should be properly accounted & disclosed in the accounts & financial statements.
  • That means immaterial items can be given a convenient accounting treatment.
  • Example – Stationery, Postage, such items are treated as expense in the period of purchase even though some unconsumed balance may be there.

Question 13.
Convention of Consistency
Answer:
Convention of Consistency:
1. Consistency means the same Accounting principles & policies are followed, which were followed for preparing previous years accounts.

2. Same accounting principles & policies should be followed consistently from year to year unless change is required:

  • to comply with some legal/statutory requirement or
  • to comply with Accounting Standards or
  • to show better information.

This consistency makes the information of different accounting year, comparable.
It is a fundamental accounting assumption.

Accounting Concepts, Principles and Conventions – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material

Question 14.
Convention of Prudence
Answer:
Convention of Prudence/Conservative approach:

  • An accountant is supposed to be conservative therefore expenses or losses are provided if there is possibility of its occurrence, but incomes are provided only if there is certainty of its earning.
  • It is application of a caution while estimating & accounting, such that expense & liabilities are not understated & income & assets are not overstated.
  • But it does not justify Creation of hidden reserve by deliberate understatement of Assets & incomes & overstatement of Liabilities & expenses.

Question 15.
Distinguish between Going Concern concept and Cost concept
Answer:
Going Concern Concept:

  • It implies that the concern will be continuing the business for foreseeable future.
  • It is assumed that the enterprise has neither the intention nor the necessity of liquidation or of curtailing materially the scale of the operations.
  • If such an intention or need exist, the financial statements may have to be prepared on a different basis and, if so, the basis is disclosed.
  • Because of this, expenditure is divided into Capital & Revenue Expenditure & the Fixed Assets are valued at cost less Depreciation.
  • Because of this account of the whole life is divided into smaller accounting periods, (periodicity concept) Going concern is a fundamental accounting assumption.

Cost Concept:

  • The assets & properties are recorded at its cost to the concern & not at its market value.
  • Except stock which may be valued at cost or market price which ever is lower.
  • As per this concept Fixed assets are recorded at their acquisition cost & then depreciated over its useful life.
  • Example – Building purchased for ₹ 10 lakh. Its market value is ₹ 11 lakh. In books of account building will be recorded at cost i.e. ₹ 10 lakh.

True or False

Question 1.
Prudence is a concept to recognize unrealized profits and not losses.
Answer:
False: Prudence is a concept to recognize future or anticipated losses and not profits.

Question 2.
As per AS-1, Fundamental Accounting Assumptions are Going Concern, Full Disclosure and Accrual Concept.
Answer:
False: As per AS-1, Fundamental Accounting Assumptions are Going Concern Concept, Consistency and Accrual Concept.

Question 3.
The financial statement must disclose all the relevant and reliable information in accordance with the full disclosure principle.
Answer:
True: The financial statement must disclose all the relevant and reliable information to comply with AS-1 Disclosure of Accounting Policies.

Accounting Concepts, Principles and Conventions – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material

Question 4.
Accrual concept implies accounting on cash basis.
Answer:
False: Accrual concept implies accounting on ‘accrual’ basis not on cash basis.

Question 5.
As per Concept of Conservatism, the accountant should provide for all possible losses, but should not anticipate income.
Answer:
True: As per Concept of Conservatism, the accountant should provide for all possible losses, but should not anticipate income.

Question 6.
The economic life of an enterprise is artificially split into periodic intervals in accordance with the going concern assumptions.
Answer:
True: The economic life of an enterprise is artificially split into periodic intervals in accordance with the accounting period concept. The going concern assumption states that an enterprise will continue its operation for indefinite period of time.

Vananchal Gramin Bank Personal Loan | EMI Calculation, Purpose, How To Apply? Features and Benefits

Vananchal Gramin Bank Personal Loan | EMI Calculation, Purpose, How To Apply? Features and Benefits

Vananchal Gramin Bank Personal Loan: The Vananchal Gramin Bank Personal Loan allows you to meet your financial demands. At the Vananchal Gramin Bank, individuals are offered personal loans at attractive rates. Vananchal Gramin Bank Personal Loan interest rate is an offering a great deal for people who are looking forward to getting personal loans.

Curious to check other banks’ offered Personal loan features, eligibility, interest rates, tax benefits, and a repayment plan. Go with our one-stop Personal Loan Page & swipe out your doubts within no time.

In this writing, we talk about all the necessary criteria for applying for a personal loan. The needed personal loan documents, eligibility criteria, repayment period, application process have all been mentioned below.

Vananchal Gramin Bank

Vananchal Gramin Bank Overview

In India, Vananchal Gramin Bank was founded on June 30, 2006, as a Regional Rural Bank. State Bank of India sponsors the bank, which is jointly owned by the Indian government, the state of Jharkhand, and the State Bank of India. Now is the time to apply for a Vananchal Gramin Bank Personal Loan to help you achieve your dreams.

At the Vananchal Gramin Bank, the person availing of the loan must be between the age limit of 21 to 58 years. They must be salaried or self-employed individuals, and the minimum loan amount that is offered is Rs. 25,000.

The Vananchal Gramin Bank is a Gramin bank from India, and at the Municipality Chowk, Dangalpara, Dumka – 814 101, Jharkhand is the bank’s headquarters. It has 203 sites throughout the state.

Vananchal Gramin Bank Features

  • The maximum loan amount is offered.
  • There are numerous debt repayment choices available.
  • Personal loan requests are processed rapidly and effortlessly.
  • Loan approval in a timely fashion
  • The bank does not need a guarantor.
  • Interest rates which are both attractive and competitive
  • Employees of large corporations are eligible for additional schemes and discounts.
  • Obtaining a personal loan generally does not require the provision of security.

How to Apply for a Personal Loan in Vananchal Gramin Bank?

  • Apply Online: You can apply online on the Vananchal Gramin Bank website by filling up your personal and work details and uploading the necessary documents. Once you’ve verified your loan eligibility, you can apply.
  • Apply Offline: You could go to any Vananchal Gramin Bank branch with all the required documents, fill out the form, and start the loan approval process.

Vananchal Gramin Bank Personal Loan Eligibility Criteria

An application must meet specific eligibility requirements, which are determined on which bank grants the applicant’s request. There are two types of candidates:

  • Salaried
  • Self-employed

Both applicants must meet a variety of requirements.

Salaried Employees

  • An applicant’s age must be between 21 and 60 years old at the time of application.
  • A borrower from a prominent city must have a minimum income of Rs 18,000 each month. The minimum salary in a non-metropolitan city should be Rs 12,000 each month.
  • The borrower should have three years of job experience and receive their salary straight into their account.
  • Strong credit history is needed while applying for a personal loan.

Self-employed Applicant

  • A self-employed person must be at least 25 years old.
  • When applying for a personal loan, the person must file ITRs for the previous three years.
  • An applicant’s credit score has to be good, and there should be no unfunded liability.
  • The minimum amount should be at least Rs 2.5 lakhs per year.
  • If the applicant owns a business, it must have been functioning for at least three years.

Vananchal Gramin Bank Personal Loan Documents Required

Vananchal Gramin Banks Personal Loan paperwork is simple and easy (though documentation varies from individual to individual). Your document requirements are determined by your occupation, salary, and loan amount.

  • Residency evidence: (Passport/ Voter card/ Id card/ Ration Card/ Driving license/ Aadhar Card) are the requirements needed as proof of residence. And if the applicant lives in a rented apartment, they must give their rental agreement, their electricity bill, and the landlord’s address.
  • Identity proof: One of the relevant documentation will be used as a verification document: (Passport/ Voter card/ Driving license/ Id card/ Aadhar Card) any one of them.
  • The formality of KYC: The applicant is required to submit their PAN card, which is a vital document.
  • Salaried Employees: If the applicant is self-employed, he or she must provide ITRs for the last three years, and his or her business should be registered.
  • Self-employed Applicants: The individual applying for the personal loan at Vananchal Gramin Bank must file ITR for the previous three years, and the business must be registered.

Vananchal Gramin Bank Personal Loan Features

  • Personal loans can be paid back in up to 60 installments. It starts with 12 EMIs. The duration of the repayment period is also decided by your credit score.
  • Personal loans are offered to both salaried and self-employed individuals.
  • Age limit for applying personal loan is 21 to 58 years.
  • The personal loan interest rate at Vananchal Gramin Bank is 9.99%
  • The person’s CIBIL score must be 750 and above.
  • The tenure of the loan is 12 to 36 months.
  • The loan processing fee at Vananchal Gramin Bank is 1% to 2%.

Types of Personal Loan Offered by the Vananchal Bank

  • Home loan
  • Education loan
  • Car loan
  • Gold loan
  • Business loan
  • Two-wheeler loan
  • Medical loan

Takeaways from the Article

Personal loans can be offered to people depending on their financial needs, and at the Vananchal Gramin Bank, personal loans are offered at a very low-interest rate. We all, at some point in our lives, need financial support to aid our needs; the personal loan from Vananchal Gramin Bank will help you.

Debentures – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material

Debentures – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material

Debentures – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material is designed strictly as per the latest syllabus and exam pattern.

Debentures – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material

Question 1.
Meaning of debentures.
Answer:
Meaning of debentures:
→ Debenture means “an instrument in writing issued by a company under its common seal, acknowledging its indebtedness for a certain sum of money and undertaking to repay it on or after a fixed future date.”

→ According to sec. 2(12) of the Companies Act, 1956 (now Section 2(30) of Companies Act, 2013) “Debenture include debenture stock, bonds and any other securities of a company, whether constituting a charge on the assets of the company or not.”

Characteristic features of a debenture:

  • It is issued by the company and is in the form of a certificate of indebtedness.
  • It usually specifies the date of redemption. It also provides for the re-payment of principal and interest at specified date or dates.
  • It generally creates a charge on the undertaking or undertakings of the company.
  • Usually the words pari passu appear in the terms and conditions of debentures.
  • This means that all the debentures of a particular class will receive the money proportionately in case the company is unable to discharge the whole obligation.

Question 2.
Discount on debentures.
Answer:
Discount on debentures:

  • The discount is a capital loss and it should be written off as early as possible.
  • Even whole amount can be written off in the year of issue itself against share premium or any other capital profit.
  • Otherwise Debenture Discount can be written off over the lifetime of debentures as follows (applying matching principle):
  • If the Debentures are redeemable at the end of a period, then the Discount will be written off equally over that period.

Debentures – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material

Question 3.
Issue of Debentures as Collateral Security.
Answer:
Issue of Debentures as Collateral Security:
Issue of Debentures as Collateral Security means issue of debentures as an additional security, i.e., in addition to the prime security. It is to be realised only when the prime security fails to pay the amount of the loan. For example, when a company takes a loan of ₹ 10,00,000 from a bank, it may have to issue debentures as collateral security in addition to the principal security.

Debentures issued as a collateral security can be dealt with in the book in two ways:
(i) First Method:
Journal entry is not passed in the books of account at the time of issue of debentures as collateral security. However, it is disclosed by way of information below debentures, which are shown as Long-term Borrowings under Non-Current Liabilities or as Short-term Borrowings under Current Liabilities.

(ii) Second Method:
Debentures issued as collateral security may be recorded in the books of account. The Journal entry passed is :
Debentures Suspense A/c          Dr.         [This appears on the assets side]
To …. % Debentures A/c                           [This appears on the liabilities side]
When the loan is paid the above entry is cancelled by means of a reverse entry.

Question 4.
Premium on issue of debentures and Premium on redemption of debentures.
Answer:
Premium on issue of debentures and Premium on redemption of debentures:

Premium on Issue of Debentures Premium on Redemption of Debentures
1. It is a capital profit and used in writing off the capital loss. It is a capital loss.
2. The balance of premium on issue of Debentures Account, (Securities Premium) is shown on the liabilities side, under the head ‘Shareholders’ Funds’ and sub-head ‘Reserves and Surplus’. It is a liability and appears under the head ‘Non-Current Liabilities’ and sub-head ‘Long-term Borrowing’ till the redemption of debentures.

Question 5.
Company issued 1000,9% debentures @ ₹ 100 each, in following manner
Application ₹ 40
Allotment ₹ 30-10
First call ₹ 20
Second and final call ₹ 10
Mr. R holder of 20 debentures failed to pay the 1st and 2nd call money. Company decided to charge ₹ 35 as Interest on calls-in-arrear. Give necessary journal entries in the books of the company.
Solution:
Journal Entries
Debentures – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material 1

Question 6.
A Company purchased some plant costing ₹ 4,30,000 at an agreed price of ₹ 4,00,000. Company decided to issue its 896 debentures of ₹ 100 each against purchased consideration. Give necessary accounting entries in the following
cases:-
(a) If debenture were issued @ ₹ 100 per debenture
(b) If debenture were issued @ ₹ 80 per debenture
(c) If debenture were issued @ ₹ 125 per debenture
Solution:
Journal Entries
Debentures – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material 2

Working Note:
Debentures – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material 3

Question 7.
A Company took a bank loan of ₹ 5,00,000 from SBI and issued its 6000, 10% debentures of ₹ 100 each as collateral security to loan. Give necessary accounting treatment.
Solution :
Ist method:
When debenture issued as collateral security are not shown as issued debentures in the balance sheet of the company.

(i) Bank a/c                                                                                            Dr.
To Bank loan a/c
(Being bank loan taken on issue of 6000, 10% debentures of ₹ 100 each as collateral security)
5,00,000  

5,00,000

(ii) No entry required for issuing debentures.

Balance sheet (Extract) as at ………….
Debentures – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material 4

Note:
(1) Long term borrowings:

Bank Loan from SBI

(on collateral security of 6,000, 10% debentures of ₹ 100 each).

5,00,000

Debentures – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material

Question 8.
A Company issued 1000, 12% debentures of ₹ 100 each on 1st Jan 2016 at a premium of 10%. Interest was given/payable on 30th June and 31st December, every year subject to 10% TDS. Give necessary journal entries for the year 2016.
Solution:
Journal Entries
Debentures – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material 5

Question 9.
ABC company issued 1000, 9% debentures of ₹ 100 each at a discount of 5% on 1st Jan, 2011. These debentures were to be redeemed after 5 years. Show necessary journal entries at the time of issue of debentures. Also prepare discount on issue of 9% debentures a/c.
Solution :
At the time of issue:
Journal Entries
Debentures – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material 6
Discount on issue of 9% debenture a/c
Debentures – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material 7
Balance sheet as at 31st December 2011

Assets Note No.
Non-current assets other non-current assets 3,000
Current assets other current assets 1,000

Working Note:
(1) \(\frac{₹ 5,000}{5 \text { years }}\) = ₹ 1,000/-

Debentures – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material

Question 10.
Suppose company decided to redeem its debentures in the following manner

  • At the end of the year 2011 ₹ 20,000
  • At the end of the year 2012 ₹ 30,000
  • At the end of the year 2013 ₹ 10,000
  • At the end of the year 2014 ₹ 20,000
  • At the end of the year 2015 ₹ 20,000

Calculate the amount to be written off at the end of every year.
Debentures – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material 8
At the beginning of the year or before redemption

Question 11.
Pure Ltd. issues 1,00,000 12% Debentures of ₹ 10 each at ₹ 9.40 on 1st January, 2018. Under the terms of issue, the Debentures are redeemable at the end of 5 years from the date of issue.
Calculate the amount of discount to be written-off in each of the 5 years.
Solution:
Total amount of Discount = 1,00,000 x 0.60 = ₹ 60,000

At the end of Year Amount of outstanding debentures Ratio Amount of discount to be written off
1st 10,00,000 1/5 60,000 = 12000
2nd 10,00,000 1/5 60,000 = 12000
3rd 10,00,000 1/5 60,000 = 12000
4th 10,00,000 1/5 60,000 = 12000
5th 10,00,000 1/5 60,000 = 12000

Question 12.
On 1st January 2018, Ankit Ltd. issued 10% debentures of the face value of ₹ 20,00,000 at 10% discount. Debenture interest after deducting tax at source @10% was payable on 30th June and 31st December every year. All the debentures were to be redeemed after the expiry of five year period at 5% premium.
Pass necessary journal entries for the accounting year 2018.
Solution:
Journal Entries
Debentures – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material 9

True or False

Question 1.
Debenture Redemption Premium Account and Discount on issue of debentures Account are Nominal Accounts.
Answer:
False: Debenture Redemption Premium Account is a Personal Account but Discount on issue of Debentures Account is a Nominal Account.

Debentures – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material

Question 2.
Now Debentures can be issued at Par/Premium but not at discount.
Answer:
False: Debentures can be issued at Par/Premium/discount since there are no restrictions on issue of debentures at discount.

Question 3.
Like Shares a Company can issue debentures with voting rights.
Answer:
False: A Company cannot issue debentures with voting rights.

Free Consent – CA Foundation Law Notes

Free Consent – CA Foundation Law Notes

Browsing through Free Consent – CA Foundation Law Notes help students to revise the complete subject quickly.

Free Consent – CA Foundation Business Law Notes

What is Consent?
Section 13:
“Two or more persons are said to consent when they agree upon the same thing in the same sense ”.

Consent involves a union of the wills and an accord in the minds of the parties. When the parties agree upon the same thing in the same sense, they have consensus ad idem. If there is no consent, there is no contract. Salmond states it as error in consensus.

Free Consent – CA Foundation Law Notes

What is Free Consent?
Section 14 lays down that consent is not free if it is caused by –

  • coercion
  • undue influence
  • fraud
  • misrepresentation
  • mistake.

If the consent is not free then it is known as error in causa. The effect of absence of free consent on contract depends on various factors as mentioned in this chapter. Let us see them all one by one.

What is Coercion?
Coercion is defined by section 15 of the Act as follows: Coercion is the:

  • committing or threatening to commit, any act forbidden by the Indian Penal Code or
  • unlawful detaining, or threatening to detain, any property
  • to the prejudice of any person whatever
  • with the intention of causing any person to enter into an agreement.

Explanation – It is immaterial whether the Indian Penal code is or is not in force in the place where the coercion is employed.

Whether threat to commit suicide amounts to coercion? The Madras High Court in Amiraju v Seshamma (1918) held by majority that threat to commit suicide amounts to coercion. The Court observed that though suicide was not punishable by IPC, yet it was one forbidden by the IPC, since an attempt to commit suicide is punishable.

In this case a person threatened to commit suicide if his wife and son did not contract with his brother to release certain disputed property in his favour. The court held that the contract was caused by coercion.

Consequences of coercion:
A contract brought about by coercion is voidable at the option of the party whose consent was so caused. [Sec. 19].

What is Undue Influence?
A contract is said to be induced by undue influence where:

  • one of the parties is in a position to dominate the will of the other
  • he uses the position to obtain an unfair advantage over the other Sec. 16(1).

Section 16(2) provides that a person is deemed to be in a position to dominate the will of another where:
1. Where he holds a real or apparent authority over the other (For ex- master & servant, ITO & Assessee)

2. Where he stands in a fiduciary relationship to the other. Fiduciary relationship means a relationship of mutual trust and confidence. Such a relationship is supposed to exist in the following cases – father and son; guardian and ward; solicitor and client; doctor and patient; preceptor and disciple; trustee and beneficiary etc.

3. Where a party makes a contract with a person whose mental capacity is temporarily or per-manently affected by reason of age, illness, or mental or bodily distress.

4. Where the contract is apparently unconscionable (i.e.; unfair). Example: an unfair money lending transaction.

The following relationships usually raise a presumption of undue influence, viz:

  • Parent and child
  • guardian and ward
  • trustee and beneficiary
  • doctor and patient
  • lawyer and client
  • spiritual guru and disciple.

This list, however, is not exhaustive.
There is no presumption of existence of a power to dominate the will of another in the following cases:

  • Landlord and tenant
  • Creditor and debtor
  • Husband and wife.

It has been held by judicial decisions that in all these cases, the party alleging undue influence must prove that undue influence existed.

Free Consent – CA Foundation Law Notes

Example I:
A, a man enfeebled by disease of age, is induced by B’s influence over him as his medical attendant, to agree to pay B an unreasonable sum for his professional services. B has employed undue influence.

Example II:
A, being in debt to B, the money-lender of his village, contracts a fresh loan on terms which appear to be unconscionable. It lies on B prove that the contract was not induced by undue influence.

Example III:
A applies to a banker for a loan at a time when there is stringency in the money market. The banker declines to make the loan except at an unusually high rate of interest. A accepts the loan on these terms. This is a transaction in the ordinary course of business, and the contract is not induced by undue influence.

Burden of Proof. Section 16(3):
“Where a person who is in a position to dominate the will of another, enters into a contract with him, and the transaction appears, on the face of it or on the evidence adduced, to be unconscionable, (unfair, unreasonable) the burden of proving that such contract was not induced by undue influence shall be upon the person in a position to dominate the will of the other.”

Thus, in case of unconscionable transactions, the dominant party is under the burden to prove that undue influence was not employed. (In other cases, the burden of proof is on the weaker party to prove that undue influence was employed.)

The presumption of undue influence can be rebutted by the dominant/stronger party by showing that:

  • All material facts were disclosed to the party who is alleging exercise of undue influence.
  • The consideration was adequate.
  • The party alleging exercise of the undue influence was in receipt of independent advice and was free to exercise it.
  • The transaction was fair.

Pardanashin women:
A pardanashin woman is one who, by virtue of the custom of her community, is required to live behind a veil and is totally secluded from ordinary social interaction. Any contract made by such a women is under the presumption of undue influence.

Effect of Undue Influence:
(a) According to Section 19 of the Contract Act, when a contract is induced by undue influence, it is voidable at the option of the aggrieved party, i.e., the party whose consent is obtained by undue influence.

According to Section 19 A, any such contract may be set aside by the Court absolutely. However, if the aggrieved party has received any benefit thereunder, it may be set aside upon such terms and conditions as are just in the eyes of the Court.

Example: A, a money-lender, advances ₹ 10,000 to B, a farmer and by undue influence, induces B to execute a bond for ₹ 20,000 with interest at 48 percent per year. The court may set the bond aside, ordering B to repay ₹ 10,000 with such interest as may seen just.

Difference between Coercion and Undue Influence:

Points Coercion Undue influence
Type of force Coercion involves use of physical force. Undue influence involves use of mental pressure.
Relationship In case of coercion, there is no relationship between the parties to the contract. Whereas in case of undue influence some sort of relationship generally exists between the two parties.
Third Party Coercion may be employed either against the party to the contract or against any third person who is not a party to the contract. Undue influence is exercised against a person who is a party to the contract. No third party is involved in creating undue influence.
Presumption The Court cannot draw the presumption of coercion. The Court may draw the presumption of undue influence if the circumstances so warrant it.
Effect The contract is voidable at the option of one of the parties of the contract. The contract is either voidable or the Court may enforce it in a modified form.

Free Consent – CA Foundation Law Notes

What is Misrepresentation?
Representation is a statement or assertion, made by one party to the other, before or at the time of the contract, regarding some fact relating to the contract. Misrepresentation arises when the representation made is untrue but the person making it believes it to be true. There is no intention to deceive. Misrepresentation is misstatement of facts by one, which misleads the other.

Section 18 of the Contract Act classifies cases of misrepresentation into three groups as follows:
(a) Unwarranted Assertion:
When a person makes a positive statement of material facts honestly believing it to be true though it is false, such act amounts to misrepresentation.

Example:
X while selling his car to Y, informs him that the car runs 18 kilometres per litre of petrol. X himself also believes this. Later on, Y finds that the car runs only 12 kilometres per litre. This is a case of misrepresentation by X.

(b) Breach of duty:
“Any breach of duty, without an intent to deceive, which brings an advantage to the person committing it, by misleading another to his prejudice amounts to misrepresentation”. Under this heading would fall cases where a party is under a duty to disclose certain facts and does not do so and thereby misleads the other party.

Such a duty exist between the insurer and the insured; banker and customer; landlord and tenant; seller and buyer; and all contracts of utmost good faith. In English law such cases are known as cases of “constructive fraud.”

Example:
X while selling his land to Y, told him that all the farms on the land were fully let out. But he negligently omitted to inform him that the tenants had given notice to quit. Here, X is liable for misrepresentation.

(c) Innocent Mistake:
If one of the party causes the other, however, innocently, to make a mistake as to the nature or substance of the agreement, it is considered misrepresentation.

Example:
In a case, X chartered a ship to Y, which was described in the charter-party (lease or hire contract), and was represented to him as being not more than 2,800 tonnage registered. It turned out that the registered tonnage was 3,045 tons.

Y refused to accept the ship in fulfilment of the charter-party (i.e., an agreement between a ship owner and merchant for the use of a ship). It was held that Y was entitled to avoid the charter-party by reason of erroneous statements as to tonnage (The Ocean Steam Navigation Co. v. Soonderdas Dhurumsey, 1890, 14 Bom. 241).

Consequences of Misrepresentation:
In case of misrepresentation the aggrieved party can:

  • Avoid the agreement, or
  • Insist that the contract be performed and that he shall be put in the position in which he would have been if the representation made had been true. But if the party whose consent was caused by misrepresentation had the means of discovering the truth with ordinary diligence, he has no remedy. [Sec. 19]

“Ordinary diligence” means such diligence as a reasonably prudent man would consider necessary, having regard to the nature of the transaction.

Example:
A informs B that his estate is free from encumbrance. B thereupon buys the estate. In fact, the estate is subject to mortgage, though unknown to A also. B may either avoid the contract or may insist on its being carried out and the mortgage debt redeemed.

Free Consent – CA Foundation Law Notes

What is Fraud?
The term “Fraud” includes all acts committed by a person with a view to deceive another person. “To deceive” means to “induce a man to believe that a thing is true which is false”. Fraud is a false statement or wilful concealment of a material fact with an intent to deceive another party.

Section 17 of the Contract Act states that “Fraud” means and includes any of the following acts:
(i) False Statement:
“The suggestion as to a fact, of that which is not true by one who does not believe it to be true”. A false statement intentionally made is fraud.

Example:
X while selling his car to Y says that it is of the latest model and brand-new knowing fully well that it is a used car of old model. His representation or statement amounts to fraud.

(ii) Active Concealment:
“The active concealment of a fact by one having knowledge or belief of the fact.” Mere non-disclosure is not fraud where the party is not under any duty to disclose all facts. But active concealment is fraud.

Example:
X, a scooter dealer, showed a scoqter to Y, X knew that its handle and body are cracked which he had repaired in such a way as to defy detection. The defect was subsequently discovered by Y. Hence he refused to buy the scooter. Here, the contract could be avoided by Y as his consent was obtained by fraud.

(iii) Intentional non-performance:
“A promise made without any intention of performing it”.
Example: Purchase of goods without any intention of paying for them.

(iv) Deception:
“Any other act fitted to deceive”.

Example:
X, with an intention to deceive Y, makes a false statement to him that the sales from his shop are to the tune of ₹ 2,000 per day, although X is aware that they amount to ₹ 1,000 per day only. Y is induced to buy the shop. Here, the statement of X amounts to fraud.

Free Consent – CA Foundation Law Notes

(v) Fraudulent act or omission:
“Any such act or omission as the law specially declares to be fraudulent”. This clause refers to provisions in certain Laws, which declare certain acts or omissions to be fraudulent.

Example:
Thus, under section 55 of the Transfer of Property Act the seller of immovable property is bound to disclose to the buyer all material defects. Failure to do so amounts to fraud. In the insolvency legislations, the fraudulent preference to creditors is not allowed.

Note:
A deceit which does not deceive is no fraud. This means that if the promisee is not deceived or did not rely on the representation then there is no fraud. Fraud must have been made with an intention to deceive and must actually deceive the other party. Also, the party subjected to fraud must have suffered some loss.

Consequences of Fraud:
A party who has been induced to enter into an agreement by fraud has the following remedies open to him. [Sec. 19]

  • He can avoid the performance of the contract.
  • He can insist that the contract shall be performed and that he shall be put in the position in which he would have been if the representation made had been true.
  • The aggrieved party can sue for damages.

Can Silence be Fraudulent?
“Mere silence as to facts likely to affect the willingness of a person to enter into a contract is not fraud, if the circumstances of the case are such that, regard being had to them, it is the duty of the person keeping silence to speak, or unless his silence is, in itself equivalent to speech”. [Explanation to sec. 17]

Example I:
H sold to W certain pigs. The pigs were suffering from fever and H knew it. The pigs were sold “with all faults”. H did not disclose the fever to W. Held. There was no fraud [ Ward v. Hobbs (1878) A. C. 13],

Example II:
A sells by auction to B, a horse which A knows to unsound. A says nothing to B about the horse’s unsoundness. This is not fraud by A. Mere non-disclosure is not fraud. If there is no duty to speak.

Example III:
A and B, being traders enter upon a contract. A has private information of a change in prices which would affect B’s willingness to proceed with the contract. A is not bound to inform B.

From the above, following rules can be deduced:
→ The general rule is that mere silence is not fraud.

→ Silence is fraudulent, “if the circumstances of the case are such that, regard being had to them, it is the duty of the person keeping silence to speak”. The duty to speak, i.e. disclose all facts exists where there is a fiduciary relationship between the parties (such as in father and son; guardian and ward, etc, and also in the insurance contracts, marriage contracts, partnership contract etc which are contracts based on good faith [contracts of uberimae Fidel]). The duty to disclose may also be an obligation imposed by statute.

Example:
A sells by auction to B, a horse which A knows to be unsound. B is A’s daughter and has just come of age. Here the relation between parties would make it A’s duty to tell B if the horse is unsound.

3. Silence is fraudulent where the circumstances are such that “Silence is in itself equivalent to speech”.
Example:
B says to A – “If you do not deny it, I shall assume that the horse is sound.” A says nothing. Here A’s silence is equivalent to speech.

Free Consent – CA Foundation Law Notes

Difference between Misrepresentation and Fraud:

Points of Difference Misrepresentation Fraud
1. Different intention: In misrepresentation there is no intention to deceive. Fraud implies an intention to deceive.
2. Different Belief: The person believes it to be true. The person believes and makes false statements.
3. Different Rights: In case of misrepresentation the only remedy is rescission. There can be no suit for damages. In case of fraud the aggrieved party can rescind the contract. He can also sue for damages.
4. Different Defence: The aggrieved party cannot avoid the contract if he had the means to discover the truth with ordinary diligence. But in case of fraud excepting fraud by silence, the contract is voidable even though the party defrauded had the means of discovering the truth with ordinary diligence.

What Is mistake? What Is The Effect Of Mistake On Contract?
Mistake may be defined as an erroneous belief concerning something.
It may be of two kinds:

  • Mistake of Law
  • Mistake of Fact.

(1) Mistake of Law:
Mistake of law may be of two types –
(a) Mistake of general law of country
Every one is deemed to be conversant with the law of his country, and hence the maxim “ignorance of law is no excuse.” Mistake of law, therefore, is no excuse and it does not give right to the parties to avoid the contract.

If a mistake of law leads to a formation of contract, section 21 enacts that “a contract is not voidable because it was caused by a mistake as to any law in force in India’’. A person cannot get any relief on the ground that he had entered into a contract in ignorance of law.

Illustration:
A and B make a contract grounded on the erroneous belief that a particular debts is barred by the Indian law of limitation; the contract is not voidable.

(b) Mistake of Foreign Law:
Mistake of foreign law is treated as ‘mistake of fact’. Here the law relating to factual mistakes will apply.

(2) Mistake of fact:
Mistake of Fact may be of two types:
(a) Bilateral mistake
In case of bilateral mistake of essential fact, the agreement is void ab-initio. Section 20 provides that “Where both the parties to an agreement are under a mistake as to a matter of fact essential to the agreement is void.’’ Thus for declaring an agreement void ab-initio under this section, the following three conditions must be fulfilled:
→ Both the parties must be under a mistake.

→ Mistake must relate to some fact and not to judgment or opinion etc. An erroneous opinion as to the value of the thing which forms the subject-matter of the agreement is not to be deemed a mistake as to a matter of fact (Explanation to Section 20).

On the basis of judicial decisions, the mistakes which may be covered under this condition may broadly be put into the following heads:
→ Mistake as to the existence of the subject-matter of the contract.
Example : A agrees to buy from B a certain horse. It turns out that the horse was dead at the time of the bargain, though neither party was aware of the fact. The agreement is void.

→ Mistake as to the title of the subject-matter.
Example : A believed that she had inherited rights over a fishery from her father. B, her cousin brother, also believed in A’s rights. B agreed to take the fishery on lease from A. Actually the fishery belonged to B. The agreement, caused by mistake as to title, was held to be void (Cooper v. Phibbs (1867) LR HL 149).

→ Mistake as to the quantity of the subject-matter.
Example : P wrote to H inquiring the price of rifles and suggested that he might buy as many . as 50. On receipt of the information, he telegraphed “Send three rifles.”But because of the mistake of the telegraph authorities, the message transmitted was “Send the rifles. ” H dispatched 50 rifles. Held: There was no contract between the parties. However, P could be held liable to pay for three rifles on the basis of an implied contract [Henkel v. Pape (1870) 6 Ex. 7].

→ Mistake as to the quality of the subject-matter.
Example : Xagreed to sell to Yan antique item believed by X to be of the 18th Century. What Xpossessed was actually of the 20th century. So the bilateral mistake about quality of the subject-matter makes it a void agreement.

Free Consent – CA Foundation Law Notes

(b) Unilateral Mistake:
Where only one of the contracting parties is mistaken as to a matter of fact, the mistake is a unilateral mistake. Regarding the effect of unilateral mistake, on the validity of a contract, sec. 22 provides that “A contract is not voidable merely because it was caused by one of the parties to it being under a mistake as to a matter of fact”.

Law regarding unilateral mistake:
(1) Contract Valid. As a rule, a unilateral mistake is not allowed as a defence in avoiding a contract i.e., it has no effect on the contract and the contract remains valid.

(2) Contract voidable. If the unilateral mistake is caused by fraud or misrepresentation etc., on the party, the contract is voidable and can be avoided by the injured party.

(3) Agreement void ab-initio. In the following two cases, where the consent is given by a party under a mistake which is so fundamental as goes to the root of the agreement and has the effect of nullifying consent, no contract will arise even though there is a unilateral mistake only.

(a) Mistake as to the identity of person contracted with, where such identity is important. If A intends to contract with B only, but enters into contract with C believing him to be B, the contract is void.

Example:
→ In Cundy v. Lindsay & Co., (1878) 3 App. Cas. 459., A company (Lindsay & Co.) had regular dealing with a firm Blenkiron & Co., having office in Wood Street. Another person with a similar name, Blenkarn, maintaining an office in the same street, sent an order on its printed letter head to the company for purchase of some goods. The company were led to believe that the order came from the famous firm they knew. They sent the goods.

The fraudulent Blenkarn sold the received goods down to Cundy. In a suit by Lindsay against Cundy for recovery of goods, it was held that as Lindsay never intended to contract with Blenkarn, there was no contract between them and as such even as innocent purchaser of the goods from Blenkarn did not get a good title, and must return them or pay their price.

→ Further, “Mistake as to the identity” of a party is to be distinguished from “mistake as to the attributes” of the other party. Mistake as to attributes, for example, as to the solvency or social status of that person cannot negate the consent. It can only vitiate consent. It therefore, makes the contract merely voidable for fraud.

→ Thus, where X enters into a contract with Y falsely representing himself to be a rich man, the contract is only voidable at the option of Y. Again where the identity of the party contracted with is immaterial, mistake as to identity will not avoid a contract. Thus, if X enters a shop introduces himself as Y and purchased some goods for cash, the contract is valid.

Example:
→ Philips v. Brooks (1919) 2 KB 243 – In this case a man, N, called in person at a jeweller’s shop and chose some jewels, which the jeweller was prepared to sell him as a casual customer. He tendered in payment a cheque which he signed in the name G, a person with credit. Thereupon N was allowed to take away the jewels which N pledged with B who took them in good faith.

Held, the pledge, B, had a good title since the contract between N and the jeweller could not be declared void on the ground of mistake but was only voidable on the ground of fraud. Horridge, J. held that although the jeweller believed the person to whom he was handling the jewels was G, he in fact contracted to sell and deliver to the person who came into his shop. The contract, therefore, was not void on the ground of mistake but only voidable on the grounds of fraud.

(b) Mistake as to the nature and character of a written document. The second cir-cumstance in which even an unilateral mistake may make a contract absolutely void is where the consent is given by a party under a mistake as to the nature and character of a written document.

The rule of law is that where the mind of the signatory did not accompany the signature; i.e., he did not intend to sign; in contemplation of law, he never did sign the contract to which his name is appended and the agreement is void abinitio.

Example:
In case of Foster v. MacKinnon (1868) LR 4 CP 704, an old illiterate man was made to sign a bill of exchange, by means of a false representation that it was a guarantee.
Held : the contract was void.

Civil Procedure Code, 1908 – Jurisprudence, Interpretation & General Laws Important Questions

Civil Procedure Code, 1908 – Jurisprudence, Interpretation & General Laws Important Questions

Civil Procedure Code, 1908 – Jurisprudence, Interpretation & General Laws Important Questions

Question 1.
Distinguish between: Decree & Order [Dec 2011 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Following are the main points of distinction between decree and order:

Points Decree Order
When passed A decree can only be passed in a suit originated by the presentation of a plaint. Order can be passed in a suit originated by the presentation of a plaint, application, or petition.
Determination of a right A decree contains the conclusive determination of a right. The order may or may not finally determine a right.
Preliminary / Final The decree may be final, preliminary, or partly preliminary partly final. Order cannot be a preliminary order.
Number In general, there can only be one decree or at the most one preliminary and one final decree in a suit. There can be any number of orders in a suit.
Appeal Every decree is appealable unless an appeal is expressly barred. Only those orders which are specified as appealable in the code are appealable.
Second appeal A second appeal may lie against a decree to a High Court on certain grounds. There is no second appeal for orders.

Question 2.
Explain the Cause of actions under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. [June 2012 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Cause of action means every fact that it would be necessary for the plaintiff to prove in order to support his right to the judgment of the Court. It means all the essential facts constituting the rights and their infringement.

It means every fact which will be necessary for the plaintiff to prove if traversed in order to support his right to the judgment.

Question 3.
Distinguish between: ‘Decree’ and ‘order’. [June 2014 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Following are the main points of distinction between decree and order:

Points Decree Order
When passed A decree can only be passed in a suit originated by the presentation of a plaint. Order can be passed in a suit originated by the presentation of a plaint, application, or petition.
Determination of a right A decree contains the conclusive determination of a right. The order may or may not finally determine a right.
Preliminary / Final The decree may be final, preliminary, or partly preliminary partly final. Order cannot be a preliminary order.
Number In general, there can only be one decree or at the most one preliminary and one final decree in a suit. There can be any number of orders in a suit.
Appeal Every decree is appealable unless an appeal is expressly barred. Only those orders which are specified as appealable in the code are appealable.
Second appeal A second appeal may lie against a decree to a High Court on certain grounds. There is no second appeal for orders.

Question 4.
A suit was instituted by the Plaintiff Company alleging infringement by the Defendant Company for using the trade name of the medicine and selling the same in wrapper and carton of identical designs with the same color combination, etc., as that of Plaintiff Company. A subsequent suit was instituted in a different Court by the Defendant Company against the Plaintiff Company with similar allegations. In such a situation, advise the Plaintiff Company on the procedure adopted by the Courts. [Dec 2009 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
As per Section 10 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908, if the suit is pending in one Court then another Court cannot take such suit in which matter is the same. The doctrine of res sub-judice is applicable in this case.

In the given case, the parties are the same in both suits, and the subject matter of both suits is also the same, the second suit would be barred by the application of the principle of res sub judice as per Section 10.

Question 5.
A suit was instituted by the Plaintiff Company alleging infringement by the
Defendant Company for using the trade name of the medicine and selling the same in wrapper and carton of identical designs with the same color combination, etc., as that of Plaintiff Company. A subsequent suit was instituted in a different Court by the Defendant Company against the Plaintiff Company with similar allegations. In such a situation, advise the Plaintiff Company on the procedure adopted by the Courts. [Dec 2012 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
As per Section 10 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908, if the suit is pending in one Court then another Court cannot take such suit in which matter is the same. The doctrine of res sub-judice is applicable in this case.

In the given case, the parties are the same in both suits, and the subject matter of both suits is also the same, the second suit would be barred by application of the principal of res sub judice as per Section 10.

Question 6.
A suit was instituted by the plaintiff company alleging infringement by the defendant company by using the name of the medicine and selling the same in wrapper and carton of identical design with the same color combination, etc., as that of the plaintiff company. A subsequent suit was instituted in a different court by the defendant company against the plaintiff company with the same allegations. Can the decision be given by both the courts in the respective suits? [Dec 2014(6 Marks)]
Answer:
As per Section 10 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908, if the suit is pending in one Court then another Court cannot take such suit in which matter is the same. The doctrine of res sub-judice is applicable in this case.

In the given case, the parties are the same in both suits, and the subject matter of both suits is also the same, the second suit would be barred by the application of the principal of res sub judice as per Section 10.

Question 7.
Discuss the doctrine of ‘Res Sub Judice’ under Section 10 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908. [Dec 2018 (5 Marks)]
Answer:

  1. If the suit is pending before one court then another court can’t make the suit in which the matter and parties are the same.
  2. Conditions for applying the doctrine of res sub-judice:
    1. Two suits filed with the court at different times
    2. Matter in issue is directly and substantially in the former issue.
    3. Earlier suit is pending before court (not before the foreign court)
    4. Parties to the suits are the same
  3. The objective of this doctrine is to avoid multiplicity of proceedings and to avoid contradictory judgment.

Question 8.
Discuss the doctrine of res judicata under section 11 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. [Dec 2009 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Res judicata [Section 11]: No Court shall try any suit or issue in which j the matter directly and substantially in issue has been directly and substantially | in issue in a former suit between the same parties, in a Court competent to try such subsequent suit or the suit in which such issue has been subsequently raised, and has been heard and finally decided by such Court.

In simple words, once a matter is finally decided by a competent Court, no party y can be permitted to reopen it in subsequent litigation.

Essential conditions of res judicata:

  • The matter must be directly and substantially in issue in two suits.
  • The prior suit should be between the same parties.
  • Parties should have litigated under the same title.
  • The court determined the earlier suit must be competent to try the 1 latter suit.
  • The same question is directly and substantially in issue in the latter suit.

Question 9.
Anil was a trustee of a trust. After Anil’s death, Brij wrongfully takes possession of the trust property. Chandan, the son of Anil files a suit for recovery of possession of the property against Brij as the legal heir of Anil in his individual capacity. But Chandan did not succeed. Then Chandan files another suit for recovery of trust property against Brij in the capacity of the trustee as he was appointed as trustee after the death of Anil. Whether the second suit is barred by the doctrine of constructive res judicata? Explain. [June 2010(6 Marks)]
Answer:
As per Explanation IV to Section 11, any matter which might and ought to have been made the ground of defense or attack in such former suit shall be | deemed to have been a matter directly and substantially in issue in such suit. The doctrine of constructive Res Judicata prevents further suits from being filed for a matter that is at the core of a former suit. In this case, the two suits are filed by Chandan in two different capacities. Hence, the second suit is not barred.

Question 10.
Define res judicata and state the conditions of Sts application. [June 2011 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Res judicata [Section 11]: No Court shall try any suit or issue in which j the matter directly and substantially in issue has been directly and substantially | in issue in a former suit between the same parties, in a Court competent to try such subsequent suit or the suit in which such issue has been subsequently raised, and has been heard and finally decided by such Court.

In simple words, once a matter is finally decided by a competent Court, no party y can be permitted to reopen it in subsequent litigation.

Essential conditions of res judicata:

  • The matter must be directly and substantially in issue in two suits.
  • The prior suit should be between the same parties.
  • Parties should have litigated under the same title.
  • The court determined the earlier suit must be competent to try the 1 latter suit.
  • The same question is directly and substantially in issue in the latter suit.

Question 11.
Distinguish between: ‘Doctrine of res sub juice and ‘doctrine of Resjudicata’. [Dec 2013 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Following are the main points of distinction between res sub-judice and res judicata:

Points Res sub-judice Res judicata
When applies Res sub-judice applies to matter pending trial. Res judicata applies to a matter adjudicated upon.
Bar Res sub-judice bars the trial of a suit of the pending suit. Res judicata bars the trial of a suit or an issue that has been decided in a former suit.
Section Section 10 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 incorporates this rule. Section 11 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 incorporates this rule.

Question 12.
Explain the difference if any, between ‘Res Judicata’ and ‘Res Sub-Judice’. [June 2019 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Following are the main points of distinction between res sub-judice and res judicata:

Points Res sub-judice Res judicata
When applies Res sub-judice applies to matter pending trial. Res judicata applies to a matter adjudicated upon.
Bar Res sub-judice bars the trial of a suit of the pending suit. Res judicata bars the trial of a suit or an issue that has been decided in a former suit.
Section Section 10 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 incorporates this rule. Section 11 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 incorporates this rule.

Question 13.
A transport company has its head office in Delhi and branch offices at Chennai, Jaipur, and Mumbai. A dispute cropped up between Sam and the company in respect of a transaction made through the Chennai office. Sam files a suit in respect of this dispute against the company in a Court at Jaipur. How will the Court decide?
Or
A transport company has its head office in Kolkata and branch offices at Allahabad, Lucknow, and Puri. A dispute cropped up between Hassan and the transport company in respect of a transaction through the Allahabad office. Hassan files a suit in respect of this dispute against the company in a court at Puri. Is the court at Puri competent to decide this case? Give reasons. [June 2012 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
As per Section 20 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908, subject to provision of Sections 15 to 19:
(a) Every suit shall be instituted in Court within the local limits of whose jurisdiction the defendant actually and voluntarily resides, or carries on business, or personally works for gain.

(b) If there is more than one defendant’s suit shall be instituted in Court within the local limits of whose jurisdiction any of the defendants, at the j time of the commencement of the suit actually and voluntarily resides, or carries on business, or personally works for gain. However, in such [ case the leave of the Court has to be taken or the defendants who do not | reside, or carry on business, or personally work for gain, acquiesce in j such institution.

(c) Suit can also be instituted where the cause of action, wholly or in part, arises.
Explanation: A corporation shall be deemed to carry on business at its sole § or principal office in India or, in respect of any cause of action arising at any place where it has also a subordinate office, at such place.

Accordingly, the suit filed in the Jaipur Court will be dismissed on account of jurisdiction.

The suit ought to have been filed in Court of:

  • Chennai where the cause of action arisen or
  • Delhi where the corporation has its principal office.

Question 14.
A real estate company has its head office in Delhi and branch offices at Ahmedabad, Patna, and Indore. A dispute cropped up between Sourabh and the company in respect of a transaction through the Ahmedabad office. Sourabh files a suit in respect of this dispute against the company in a court at Patna. How will the court decide? [June 2014 (6 Marks)]
Answer:
As per Section 20 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908, subject to provision of Sections 15 to 19:
(a) Every suit shall be instituted in Court within the local limits of whose jurisdiction the defendant actually and voluntarily resides, or carries on business, or personally works for gain.

(b) If there is more than one defendant’s suit shall be instituted in Court within the local limits of whose jurisdiction any of the defendants, at the j time of the commencement of the suit actually and voluntarily resides, or carries on business, or personally works for gain. However, in such [ case the leave of the Court has to be taken or the defendants who do not | reside, or carry on business, or personally work for gain, acquiesce in j such institution.

(c) Suit can also be instituted where the cause of action, wholly or in part, arises.
Explanation: A corporation shall be deemed to carry on business at its sole § or principal office in India or, in respect of any cause of action arising at any place where it has also a subordinate office, at such place.

Accordingly, the suit filed in the Jaipur Court will be dismissed on account of jurisdiction.

The suit ought to have been filed in Court of:

  • Chennai where the cause of action arisen or
  • Delhi where the corporation has its principal office.

Question 15.
Distinguish between: Set-off & Counter-claim [Dec 2010 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Following are the main points of distinction between set-off & counter-claim:

Points Set-off Counter-claim
When passed Set-off is a reciprocal acquittal of debts between the plaintiff and defendant. A claim made by the defendant in a suit against the plaintiff is called counter-claim.
Nature Set-off is a statutory defense to a plaintiff’s action. Counter-claim is substantially a cross action.
Transaction The claim of set-off need not originate from the same transaction. However, the claim of equitable set-off must originate from the same transaction. Counter-claim need not arise out of the same transaction.
Claim An equitable set-off is a claim by the defendant in defense that generally cannot exceed the plaintiff’s claim. A counterclaim by the defendant may, however, exceed the plaintiff’s claim being in the nature of a cross-action.

Question 16.
Ram and Shyam sell wheat for ₹ 10,000 to Sohan and Mohan. Sohan sells cloth worth ₹ 12,000 to Shyam. Sohan files a suit against Shyam for recovery of the price of cloth. Shyam claims set-off of the cost of wheat in this suit. Will he succeed? [Dec 2010 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
No. As per Order 8, Rule 6, set-off is possible only when the parties to j both claims are the same. So, Shyam’s claims for set-off will not be allowed j by the Court.

Question 17.
Distinguish between: Set-off & Equitable Set-off [June 2012 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Following are the main points of distinction between set-off & equitable i -set-off:

Points Set-off Equitable Set-off
Sum The principal of set-off is applied in case of ascertained some of the money. The principle of equitable set-off is applied in case of an unascertained sum of money.
Claim The claim of set-off need not originate from the same transaction. The claim of equitable set-off must originate from the same transaction.
Court’s discretion Legal set-off can be claimed as a right by the defendant and the Court is bound to adjudicate upon the claim. Equitable set-off cannot be claimed as a right but by Court’s discretion.
Limitation In case of set-off, the amount claimed should not be time-barred. The principle of equitable set-off may be applied even in the case of time-barred amounts.
Court fee Court fee must be paid on set-off amount. No court fee is required.

Question 18.
Distinguish between: Set-off & Counter-claim [June 2013 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Following are the main points of distinction between set-off & counter-claim:

Points Set-off Counter-claim
When passed Set-off is a reciprocal acquittal of debts between the plaintiff and defendant. A claim made by the defendant in a suit against the plaintiff is called counter-claim.
Nature Set-off is a statutory defense to a plaintiff’s action. Counter-claim is substantially a cross action.
Transaction The claim of set-off need not originate from the same transaction. However, the claim of equitable set-off must originate from the same transaction. Counter-claim need not arise out of the same transaction.
Claim An equitable set-off is a claim by the defendant in defense that generally cannot exceed the plaintiff’s claim. A counterclaim by the defendant may, however, exceed the plaintiff’s claim being in the nature of a cross-action.

Question 19.
The Civil Court has the power to grant a temporary injunction, but for obtaining the same the plaintiff is required to satisfy the Court. Explain in brief. [June 2019 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
The Court may grant a temporary injunction to restrain any such act or make such other order for the purpose of staying and preventing the wasting, damaging, alienation or sale or removal or disposition of the property or dispossession of the plaintiff, or otherwise causing injury to the plaintiff in relation to any property in dispute in the suit; where it is proved by affidavit or otherwise:

  1. that any property in dispute in a suit is in danger of being wasted, damaged, or alienated by any party to the suit, or wrongfully sold in execution of a decree, or
  2. that the defendant threatens, or intends to remove or dispose of his property with a view to defrauding his creditors, or
  3. that the defendant threatens to dispossess the plaintiff or otherwise cause injury to the plaintiff in relation to any property in dispute in the suit.

It would be necessary for the plaintiff to satisfy the Court that

  1. substantial and irreparable harm or injury would be suffered by him if such temporary injunction (till the disposal of the suit) is not granted
  2. the balance of convenience lies in his/her favor and
  3. that such loss or damage or harm cannot be compensated by damages.

Question 20.
What do you understand by ‘set off’ and ‘counter-claim under the Civil Procedure Code, 1908? What is the effect of set-off? [Dec 2019 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Set-off [Order 8, Rule 6]: Set-off is a reciprocal acquittal of debts between the plaintiff and defendant. It has the effect of extinguishing the plaintiff’s claim to the extent of the amount claimed by the defendant as a claim.

Where in a suit for the recovery of money the defendant claims to set-off against the plaintiff’s demand any ascertained sum of money legally recoverable by him from plaintiff and where both parties fill the same character, the defendant may, at the first hearing of the suit, but not afterward unless permitted by the Court, present a written statement containing the particulars of the debt sought to be set-off.

Counter-claim [Order 8, Rule 6A]: A defendant in a suit may, in addition to his right of pleading a set-off, set up by way of counter-claim against the claim of the plaintiff, any right or claim in respect of a cause of action accruing to the defendant against the plaintiff either before or after the filing of the suit but before the defendant has delivered his defense or before the time limited for delivering his defense has expired, whether such counter-claim is in the nature of the claim for damages or not.

Question 21.
Explain the rules relating to the delivery of summons by the court under the Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2002. [Dec 2012 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Delivery of summons by Court [Order 5, Rule 9]:
1. Where the defendant resides within the jurisdiction of the Court in which the suit is instituted, or has an agent resident within that jurisdiction who is empowered to accept the service of the summons, the summons shall, unless the Court otherwise directs, be delivered or sent either to the proper officer, who may be an officer of a Court other than that in which the suit is instituted, to be served by him or one of his subordinates or to such courier services as are approved by the Court.

2. The services of summons may be made by delivering or transmitting a copy thereof by registered post acknowledgment due, addressed to the defendant or his agent empowered to accept the service or by speed post or by such courier services as are approved by the High Court or by the Court referred to in sub-rule (1) or by any other means to the transmission of documents (including fax message or electronic mail service) provided by the rules made by the High Court. However, the service of summons shall be made at the expenses of the plaintiff.

3. Where the defendant resides outside the jurisdiction of the Court in which the suit is instituted, and the Court directs that the service of summons on that defendant may be made by such mode of service of summons as is referred to in sub-rule (3) (except by registered post acknowledgment due), the provisions of rule 21 shall not apply.

4. When an acknowledgment or any other receipt purporting to be signed by the defendant or his agent is received by the Court or postal article containing the summons is received back by the Court with an endorsement purporting to have been made by a postal employee or by any person authorized by the courier service to the effect.

That the defendant or his agent had refused to take delivery of the postal article containing the summons or had refused to accept the summons by any other means specified in sub-rule (3) when tendered or transmitted to him, the Court issuing the summons shall declare that the summons had been duly served on the defendant.

However, where the summons was properly addressed, pre-paid, and duly sent by registered post acknowledgment due, the declaration shall be made notwithstanding the fact that the acknowledgment having been lost or mislaid, or for any other reason, has not been received by the Court within thirty days from the date of issue of summons.

5. Where the Court is satisfied that there is reason to believe that the person summoned is keeping out of the way for the purpose of avoiding service or that for any other reason the summons cannot be served in the ordinary way the Court shall order the service of the summons to be served by affixing a copy thereof in some conspicuous place in the Courthouse and also upon some conspicuous part of the house in which the person summoned is known to have last resided or carried on business or personally worked for gain, or in such other manner as the Court thinks fit.

Substituted Service [Order 5, Rule 20]: Where the defendant resides in another province, a summons may be sent for service in another state to such court and in such manner as may be prescribed by rules in force in that State.

The above provisions shall apply also to a summons to witnesses.

In the case of a defendant who is a public officer, servant of railways, or local authority, the Court may if more convenient, send the summons to the head of the office in which he is employed.

Service on Corporation [Order 29, Rule 2]: In the case of a suit being instituted against a corporation, the summons may be served:
(a) on the secretary or on any director, or other principal officers of the corporation or
(b) by leaving it or sending it by post addressed to the corporation at the registered office or if there is no registered office, then at the place where the corporation carries on business.

Service on Partnership Firm [Order 30, Rule 3]: Where persons are to be sued as partners in the name of their firm, the summons shall be served either:
(a) upon one or more of the partners or
(b) at the principal place at which the partnership business is carried on within India or upon any person having the control or management of the partnership business.

Where a partnership has been dissolved the summons shall be served upon every person whom it is sought to make liable.

Question 22.
Discuss in brief the main remedies available to a person against whom ex parte decree is passed. [June 2013 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Where the plaintiff appears and the defendant does not appear before the Court, in spite of due service of summons, then the Court may proceed against the defendant ex parte.

An ‘Ex parte decrees a decree passed against a defendant in absentia. Despite service of summons, where on the date of hearing the only plaintiff does and a defendant does not appear the Court may hear the suit ex parte and pass a decree against the defendant.

A defendant has four remedies available if an ex-parte decree is passed against him:

  • He may file an appeal against the ex-parte decree.
  • He may file an application for review of the judgment.
  • He may apply for setting aside the ex-parte decree.
  • A suit can also be filed to set aside an ex-parte decree obtained by fraud but no suit shall lie for non-service of summons.

Question 23.
In a civil case what remedies are available for the defendant against whom an ex-parte decree has been passed by the court? [Dec 2018 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Where the plaintiff appears and the defendant does not appear before the Court, in spite of due service of summons, then the Court may proceed against the defendant ex parte.

An ‘Ex parte decree is a decree passed against a defendant in absentia. Despite service of summons, where on the date of hearing the only plaintiff does and a defendant does not appear the Court may hear the suit ex parte and pass a decree against the defendant.

A defendant has four remedies available if an ex-parte decree is passed against him:

  • He may file an appeal against the ex-parte decree.
  • He may file an application for review of the judgment.
  • He may apply for setting aside the ex-parte decree.
  • A suit can also be filed to set aside an ex-parte decree obtained by fraud but no suit shall lie for non-service of summons.

Question 24.
Distinguish between: Review & Revision in civil law [Dec 2009 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Following are the main points of distinction between review & revision:

Points Review Revision
Meaning Any person considering himself aggrieved by a decree or order may apply for a review of judgment to the Court which passed the decree or order on any of the grounds as mentioned in Order 47 Rule 1. The High Court may call for the record of any case which has been decided by any Court subordinate to such High Court and in which no appeal lies and in certain cases and may make such order as it thinks fit which is revision.
Court Any Court, which passed the decree or made an order, can review the case. The High Court can only do a revision of any case which has been decided by any Court subordinate to it.
By whom The review can be made only on an application by an aggrieved party. Revision power can be exercised by the High Court on an application or even suo moto.
Appeal Review can be made even when an appeal lies to the High Court. Revision power can be exercised by the High Court only in a case where no appeal lies to the High Court.
Grounds The grounds for review are:
(a) Discovery of new and important matter or evidence;
(b) Mistake or error apparent on the face of the record;
(c) Any other sufficient reason.
The conditions for revisions are:
(a) A case must have been decided;
(b) The Court which has decided the case must be a Court subordinate to the High Court;
(c) The order should not be an appealable one;

Question 25.
Distinguish between: Review & Revision in civil law [June 2013 (4 Marks)]
Answer:

Points Review Revision
Meaning Any person considering himself aggrieved by a decree or order may apply for a review of judgment to the Court which passed the decree or order on any of the grounds as mentioned in Order 47 Rule 1. The High Court may call for the record of any case which has been decided by any Court subordinate to such High Court and in which no appeal lies and in certain cases and may make such order as it thinks fit which is revision.
Court Any Court, which passed the decree or made an order, can review the case. The High Court can only do a revision of any case which has been decided by any Court subordinate to it.
By whom The review can be made only on an application by an aggrieved party. Revision power can be exercised by the High Court on an application or even suo moto.
Appeal Review can be made even when an appeal lies to the High Court. Revision power can be exercised by the High Court only in a case where no appeal lies to the High Court.
Grounds The grounds for review are:
(a) Discovery of new and important matter or evidence;
(b) Mistake or error apparent on the face of the record;
(c) Any other sufficient reason.
The conditions for revisions are:
(a) A case must have been decided;
(b) The Court which has decided the case must be a Court subordinate to the High Court;
(c) The order should not be an appealable one;

Question 26.
Distinguish between review and revision under the Civil Procedure Code 1908. [June 2019 (4 Marks)]
Answer:

Points Review Revision
Meaning Any person considering himself aggrieved by a decree or order may apply for a review of judgment to the Court which passed the decree or order on any of the grounds as mentioned in Order 47 Rule 1. The High Court may call for the record of any case which has been decided by any Court subordinate to such High Court and in which no appeal lies and in certain cases and may make such order as it thinks fit which is revision.
Court Any Court, which passed the decree or made an order, can review the case. The High Court can only do a revision of any case which has been decided by any Court subordinate to it.
By whom The review can be made only on an application by an aggrieved party. Revision power can be exercised by the High Court on an application or even suo moto.
Appeal Review can be made even when an appeal lies to the High Court. Revision power can be exercised by the High Court only in a case where no appeal lies to the High Court.
Grounds The grounds for review are:
(a) Discovery of new and important matter or evidence;
(b) Mistake or error apparent on the face of the record;
(c) Any other sufficient reason.
The conditions for revisions are:
(a) A case must have been decided;
(b) The Court which has decided the case must be a Court subordinate to the High Court;
(c) The order should not be an appealable one;

Question 27.
Write a short note on Suits by or against corporations
Answer:
Signature or verification of pleading [Order 29, Rule 1]: In suits by or against a corporation, any pleading may be signed and verified on behalf of the corporation, by the secretary or by any director or other principal officer of the corporation who is able to depose to the facts of the case.

Service of summons [Order 29, Rule 2]: Subject to any provision regulating service of process, where the suit is against a corporation, the summons may be served.

  • On the secretary or any director or other principal officer of the corporation or
  • By leaving it or sending it by post addressed to the corporation at the registered office or if there is no registered office then at the place where the corporation carries on business.

Power of the Court to require personal attendance [Order 29, Rule 3]: The Court may at any stage of the suit, require the personal appearance of the secretary or any director or other principal officer of the corporation who may be able to answer material questions relating to the suit.

Question 28.
Discuss the law relating to suits by or against minors.
Answer:
A minor is a person:

  1. who has not completed the age of 18 years and
  2. for whose person or property a guardian has been appointed by a Court, for whose property is under a Court of Wards, the age of majority is completed at the age of 21 years.

Important points relating to suits by or against a minor:

  1. Every suit by a minor shall be instituted in his name by a person who in such suit shall be called the next friend of the minor.
  2. The next friend should be a person who is of sound mind and has attained majority.
  3. The interest of the next friend is not averse to that of the minor.
  4. Where the suit is instituted without a next friend, the defendant may apply to have the plaint taken off the file, with costs to be paid by the pleader or other person by whom it was presented.
  5. Where the defendant is a minor the Court, on being satisfied with the fact of his minority, shall appoint a proper person to be guardian for the suit for such minor.
  6. An order for the appointment of a guardian for the suit may be obtained upon application in the name and on behalf of the minor or by the plaintiff.
  7. A person appointed as guardian for the suit for a minor shall unless his appointment is terminated by retirement, removal, or death, continues as such throughout all proceedings arising out of suit including proceedings in any appellate or revisional court and any proceedings in the execution of a decree.

Question 29.
A summary suit applies to a suit to prevent unreasonable obstruction by a defendant. [Dec 2013 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
A procedure by way of summary suit applies to suits upon a bill of exchange, Hundies, or promissory notes when the plaintiff desires to proceed under the provision of Order 37.

Order 37 provides for a summary procedure to respect certain suits. The object is to prevent unreasonable obstruction by a defendant.

The rules for the summary procedure are applicable to the following Courts.

  • High Courts, City Civil Courts, and Small Courts.
  • High Courts may restrict the operation of Order 37 by issuing a notifica¬tion in the Official Gazette.

The debt or liquidated demand in money payable by the defendant should arise on a written contract or on enactment or on a guarantee.

Institution of summary suits: Such suit may be instituted by presenting a plaint containing the following essentials:

  • A specific averment to the effect that the suit is filed under this order.
  • That no relief which does not fall within the ambit of this rule has been claimed.
  • The inscription immediately below the number of the suit in the title of the suit that the suit is being established under Order 37 of the CPC.

Leave to defend: Order 37 Rule 3 prescribes the mode of service of summons etc. and leave to defend. The defendant is not entitled to defend the suit unless he enters an appearance within 10 days from the service of summons. Such leave to defend may be granted unconditional or upon such term as the Court or the judge may think fit.

However, such leave shall not be granted where.

  • The court is satisfied that the facts disclosed by the defendant do not indicate that he has a substantial defense or that the defenses are frivolous or veracious, and
  • The part of the amount claimed by the plaintiff and admitted by the defendant to be due from him is deposited by him in the Court.

The summary suit must be brought within one year from the date on which the debt becomes due and payable, whereas the period of limitation for suits for ordinary cases under negotiable instrument is three years.

Question 30.
‘Explain provisions of summary procedure’ including leave to defend 3 under Civil Procedure Code. [June 2019 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
A procedure by way of summary suit applies to suits upon a bill of exchange, Hundies, or promissory notes when the plaintiff desires to proceed under the provision of Order 37.

Order 37 provides for a summary procedure to respect certain suits. The object is to prevent unreasonable obstruction by a defendant.

The rules for the summary procedure are applicable to the following Courts.

  • High Courts, City Civil Courts, and Small Courts.
  • High Courts may restrict the operation of Order 37 by issuing a notification in the Official Gazette.

The debt or liquidated demand in money payable by the defendant should arise on a written contract or on enactment or on a guarantee.

Institution of summary suits: Such suit may be instituted by presenting a plaint containing the following essentials:

  • A specific averment to the effect that the suit is filed under this order.
  • That no relief which does not fall within the ambit of this rule has been claimed.
  • The inscription immediately below the number of the suit in the title of the suit that the suit is being established under Order 37 of the CPC.

Jurisprudence, Interpretation & General Laws Questions and Answers

Kalyan Janata Sahakari Bank Personal Loan | Features, Benefits, Eligibility Criteria, Documents Required, How To Apply?

Kalyan Janata Sahakari Bank Personal Loan | Features, Benefits, Eligibility Criteria, Documents Required, How To Apply?

Kalyan Janata Sahakari Bank Personal Loan: Personal loans can be seen as a form of installment credit. It is different from a credit card because a personal loan makes a one-time cash payment to borrowers.

It is very easy to access Kalyan Janata Sahakari Bank Personal Loans. Personal loans are most utilised during emergencies ranging from medical to personal. In medical cases, often, people take personal loans to pay off hospital bills.

This article helps the reader better understand details related to Loan application, such as-Kalyan Janata Sahakari Bank interest rates, Kalyan Janata Sahakari Bank savings account login, Kalyan Janata Sahakari Bank balance check, and much more.

Curious to check other banks’ offered Personal loan features, eligibility, interest rates, tax benefits, and a repayment plan. Go with our one-stop Personal Loan Page & swipe out your doubts within no time.

Kalyan Janata Sahakari Bank

Kalyan Janata Sahakari Bank Overview

The Kalyan Janata Sahakari Bank, founded in 1973, has balanced traditional and new-age banking to incorporate a wider customer service. The bank is at par with other banks regarding modern services and availability of funds.

The bank’s history dates back to the year 1970 when two advocates, Advocate Bhaurao Sabnis and Shri. Vasantrao Purohit took an in founding a bank for the predominantly middle-class people of Kalyan. And ultimately, as a result of their efforts, The Kalyan Janata Sahakari Bank was formed.

About the Kalyan Janata Sahakari Bank

The Kalyan Janata Sahakari Bank is a multi-state Cooperative bank that has its foundations in India. The Kalyan Janata Sahakari Bank was founded on 27-02-1986.

The bank has its headquarters in Maharashtra and has 42 branches spread all over Maharashtra. It holds itself up to high standards of customer service and is revered by all its customers.

Kalyan Janata Sahakari Bank Features

  • The maximum loan application is available for all applicants that match the criteria
  • The loan can be paid off in various methods, like with other mortgages and in various other methods
  • Loans can be paid off in installments; the EMI method of payment is very helpful in rural areas where poorer people cannot pay in huge amounts at a single time.
  • Special business loans for businessmen affected by the Covid pandemic
  • Competitive interest rates for savings account

Kalyan Janata Sahakari Bank Personal Loan Features

  • Maximum loan amount: The borrower can avail of the full amount of loan allowed by the bank. This helps a lot in crises when someone requires a substantial amount of money and wants to avail of a Personal loan.
  • Multiple loan repayment options: In the Kalyan Janata Sahakari Bank scheme, the borrower doesn’t need to pay back the borrowed amount just via money; one can also use different payment methods like mortgaging something of equivalent value.
  • Fast & easy processing of personal loan applications: Kalyan Janata Sahakari Bank has one of the quickest processing times for personal loans. As personal loans are taken out mainly during an emergency where one needs money, fast processing is a lifesaver.
  • Quick loan approval: If a person’s submitted documentation and papers are in order, Kalyan Janata Sahakari Bank has the fastest loan approval system helping its customers tackle emergencies with ease.
  • The bank does not insist upon a guarantor: The approval of the personal loan does not need another person as guarantor to be present and to be held accountable if the borrower fails to pay for the money.

Kalyan Janata Sahakari Bank Personal Loan Eligibility Criteria

  • Age: 21 to 58 years.
  • The borrower needs to be a permanent employee of State/Central Govt., Public Sector Undertakings, Corporations, Private Sector Companies and reputed establishments.
  • Salaried / Self – Employed with regular income.
  • The borrower has to be employed for a minimum period of three years to be eligible for the loan.

Kalyan Janata Sahakari Bank Personal Loan Documents Required

  • The signed and filled up personal loan application form with the necessary details. One must also make sure that the details the borrower has filled in are accurate.
  • Photographs of the passport size need to be submitted to the bank branch along with the signed loan application. Mostly the bank requires more than one copy of the current photograph.
  • Proof of identity for the person who is asking for the loan. Viable proofs of identity include Passport, Voter ID card, Driving license, PAN card, Aadhar Card, Government department ID card.
  • The borrower has to provide proof of his income, i.e. his salary certificate, along with the latest salary slip.
  • Proof of income- Income Tax Returns of 2 previous financial years (for other than salaried individuals)
  • Proof of Address – Bank account statement, Latest electricity bill, Latest mobile/telephone bill, Latest credit card statement, Existing house lease agreement
  • Bank Statement or Bank Pass a copy of the PassBook of the bank one has an account in having entries of the last six months.

How To Apply for Kalyan Janata Sahakari Bank Personal Loan?

Online Method

One can apply for Kalyan Janata Sahakari Bank Personal Loan by following these easy steps detailed below.

Step 1: Visit the bank website, find the personal loan option, and select the option for Kalyan Janata Sahakari Bank Personal Loan. Click on apply, and a new screen will open.

Step 2: A new screen will open, which is essentially a form. The form needs to be filled up with essential details like name, address and other personal information.

Step 3: After putting in the personal details, one has to click on apply for loan. After this, a new window opens where one has to put in other essential information like account numbers and the documents needed for loan approval. Finally, after double-checking the information, click on submit to submit your loan demand.

Offline Method

It is not just the online method via which one can apply for a loan. For the offline method, the borrower needs to visit any Bank branch, fill out the form with all the essential required details, and submit it with whatever documents are required.

Reasons for Kalyan Janata Sahakari Bank Personal Loan Rejection

  • Poor Credit Score: Credit Score defines the borrower’s credibility to repay the loan, and thus a low credit score will lead to cancellation of the loan proposal.
  • Higher size of existing debt: A borrower’s loan application can be rejected by the bank if the borrower already has a big existing debt.

Types of Loans offered by Kalyan Janata Sahakari Bank

  • Gold Loan
  • Travel Loan
  • Retail Loan
  • House Loan
  • Education Loan
  • Loans offered against Mortgage
  • Auto Finance Loan
  • Car Loan
  • Top-Up Loan

Myths about Kalyan Janata Sahakari Bank Personal Loan

  • Prepayment of a private mortgage always draws Penalty: It is a myth that if one pays the price of a private mortgage in advance, it extracts a penalty. It depends absolutely upon lenders to be able to charge any penalty on prepayment.
  • Lengthy Private Loan Reimbursement Term is favorable: It is not true that the longer the reimbursement term, the greater the rate of interest.
  • Your loan application is denied if you do not have a regular income: It is a myth that if one does not have a steady source of income, the loan might not get approved. Loan permission can be granted if one adds a joint owner that has a steady source of income.

Conclusion on Kalyan Janata Sahakari Bank Personal Loan

Thus, this concludes the article detailing personal loans and, in particular, Kalyan Janata Sahakari Bank Personal Loan. It is very integral to understand the basics and intricacies of the methods to apply for personal loans.

This article details a few of the important things to know and understand in order to apply for a personal loan.

SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares & Takeovers) Regulations, 2011 – Securities Laws and Capital Markets Important Questions

SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares & Takeovers) Regulations, 2011 – Securities Laws and Capital Markets Important Questions

SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares & Takeovers) Regulations, 2011 – Securities Laws and Capital Markets Important Questions

Question 1.
What do you understand by ‘Takeover’?
Answer:
The takeover means purchasing shares of the company with a view to take over management and control of a company. This is also called ‘Corporate Raid’ and the persona taking over is called ‘Corporate Raiders’.

Acquirer: A person who acquires shares directly or indirectly is called an acquirer. Target Company: The listed company whose shares are being acquired is called the target company.

Takeover: When the acquirer takes over control or management of the target company, it is termed as a takeover.
The takeover is an inorganic corporate growth device whereby one company acquires control over another company, usually by purchasing all or a majority of its shares.

The takeover of management and control of a company could take place in different modes. The management of a company may be acquired by acquiring the majority stake in the share capital of a company. A company may acquire shares of an unlisted company through what is called the acquisition under Sections 235 & 236 of the Companies Act, 2013. Where the shares of the company are closely held by a small number of persons, a takeover may be effected by agreement with the holders of those shares. However, where the shares of a company are widely held by the general public, it involves the process as set out in the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares & Takeovers) Regulations, 2011.

Question 2.
Discuss briefly the regulatory framework governing the ‘Takeovers’ in India.
Answer:
The legislation/regulations that mainly govern takeovers are as under:

  • SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares & Takeovers) Regulations, 2011.
  • Companies Act, 2013.
  • SEBI (Listing Obligations & Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2015. SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares & Takeovers) Regulations, 2011 lays down the procedure to be followed by an acquirer for acquiring majority shares or controlling interest in another company.

As far as the Companies Act, 2013 is concerned; the provisions of Section 186 apply to the acquisition of shares through a Company. Sections 235 & 236 of the Companies Act, 2013 lays down legal requirements for purpose of the takeover of an unlisted company through the transfer of undertaking to another company.

As per Regulation 31 A(8) of the SEBI (Listing Obligations & Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2015, if any public shareholder seeks to re-classify itself as a promoter, such a public shareholder shall be required to make an open offer in accordance with the provisions of the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares & Takeovers) Regulations, 2011.

Question 3.
Briefly discuss provisions relating to compulsory acquisition of shares of minority shareholders. [Dec. 2015 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
The scheme may contain a proposal for the transfer of shares from Transferor Company to Transferee Company. If the proposal from the Transferee Company is approved by holders of 90% of shares of Transferor Company, the Transferee Company can compulsorily acquire shares of Transferor Company (who will be less than 10%). This provision has been made to ensure that minority shareholders do not block the sale when substantially majority has accepted the scheme. While calculating 90% shares, the shares already held by the Transferee Company or its nominee on the date of the offer will be excluded.

Reconstruction by the sale of shares: Reconstruction or amalgamation without NCLT procedure is possible u/s 235 by a takeover by the sale of shares. Selling shareholders get either compensation or shares of acquiring company. This procedure is rarely followed, as a sanction of shareholders holding 90% of the value of shares is required. This is difficult to obtain. Further, the route provided in Section 235 can be followed when creditors are not involved in reconstruction and their interests are not affected. Thus, these provisions are useful to acquire a small company or closely held company or where a holding company already holds 90% or more and wants to convert a subsidiary company into a wholly-owned subsidiary.

Power to acquire shares of shareholders dissenting from scheme or contract approved by the majority [Section 235]: Where a scheme or contract involving the transfer of shares or any class of shares in transferor company to transferee company approved by the holders of not less than 9/ 10th in value of the shares then transferee company may give notice to any dissenting shareholder that it desires to acquire his shares. While calculating 9/ 10th in value of the shares already held at the date of the offer by, or by a nominee of the transferee company or its subsidiary companies will be excluded.

Students should note that the approval of shareholders holding 90% of the value of shares is required and not 90% of the value of shareholders attending the meeting.

The offer shall remain open for a period of 4 months. Thus, any shareholder of the transferor company may agree to transfer his shares to the transferee company within a period of 4 months from the date of the offer.

Notice to any dissenting shareholder may be given by the transferee company within 2 months of the expiry of a period of 4 months during which the offer was open. Such notice has to be given in Form No. CAA-14.

“Dissenting shareholder” includes a shareholder who has not assented to the scheme or contract and any shareholder who has failed or refused to transfer his shares to the transferee company in accordance with the scheme or contract.

Right of a dissenting shareholder to make an application to the Tribunal: A dissenting shareholder may make an application within 1 month of receipt of notice to the Tribunal praying that acquisition of his shares should not be permitted.

However, if no such application is made by dissenting shareholders or application is rejected by the Tribunal then the transferee company shall be entitled to and bound to acquire those shares on the same terms on which shares of approving shareholders were transferred to the transferee company.

Procedure for acquiring shares by transferee company: The transferee company shall on the expiry of 1 month from the date on which the notice has been given, send a copy of the notice to the transferor company together with an instrument of transfer.

The instrument of transfer shall be executed:
(a) on behalf of the dissenting shareholder, by some person appointed by the transferor company and
(b) on behalf of the transferee company, by a person authorized by the transferee company.

The transferee company shall pay the consideration to the transferor company for acquiring shares of dissenting shareholders.

The transferor company shall:
(a) thereupon register the transferee company as the holder of those shares; and
(b) within 1 month of the date of such registration, inform the dissenting shareholders of the fact of such registration and of the receipt of the amount or other consideration representing the price payable to them by the transferee company.

Amount of consideration must be paid within 60 days to dissenting share-holders: Any sum received by the transferor company shall be paid into a separate bank account, and any such sum and any other consideration so received shall be held by the transferor company in trust for dissenting shareholders and shall be disbursed the consideration to the dissenting shareholders within 60 days.

Registration of Offer of Schemes involving the transfer of shares [Section 238]: In relation to every offer of a scheme or contract involving the transfer of shares or any class of shares in the transferor company to the transferee company j u/s 235

  • Every circular containing such offer and recommendation to the members of the transferor company by its directors to accept such offer shall be accompanied by such information as set out in Form No. CAA-15.
  • Every such offer shall contain a statement by or on behalf of the transferee company, disclosing the steps it has taken to ensure that necessary cash will be available.
  • Every such circular shall be presented to the ROC for registration and no such circular shall be issued until it is so registered.

However, the ROC may refuse, for reasons to be recorded in writing, to register any such circular which does not contain the required information or which sets out such information in a manner likely to give a false impression and communicate such refusal to the parties within 30 days of the application.

An appeal shall lie to the Tribunal against an order of the ROC refusing to register any such circular and the said appeal shall be in Form No. NCLT-9 supported with an affidavit in Form No. NCLT-6.

The director who issues a circular which has not been presented for registration and registered shall be punishable with a line which shall not be less than ₹ 25,000 but which may extend to ₹ 5 lakh.

Question 4.
What disclosures are required to be made by an acquirer while acquiring the shares of another company? [Dec. 2013 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
The obligation to give the disclosures on the acquisition of certain limits | is only on the acquirer and not on the target company. Following disclosures j are required to be made:

Triggering Point To and by whom Time Period
Event-Based Disclosures
Acquisition of 5% or more shares or voting rights To the Target Company and Stock Exchange by the Acquirer Within 2 working days of:

(a) Receipt of intimation of allotment of shares or

(b) The acquisition of shares or voting rights.

Acquirer already holding 5% or more shares or voting rights On acquisition or disposal of 2% or more shares or voting rights. To the Target Company and Stock Exchange by the Acquirer/Seller Within 2 working days of such acquisition/disposal.
Continual Disclosures
Any person holding 25% or more shares or voting rights Target Company & Stock Exchange by such person Within 7 working days from the end of each financial year
Promoter/Person having control over the Target Company Target Company & Stock Exchange by Promoter Within 7 working days from the end of each financial year
Disclosure of Pledged or Encumbered Shares
On the encumbrance of shares by the promoter or person acting in Concert with him Target Company & Stock Exchange by the promote Within 7 working days from the date of creation of encumbrance.
On the invocation of or release of such encumbrance by the promoter Target Company & Stock Exchange by the promoter Within 7 working days from the date of invocation of encumbrance.

Question 5.
Write a short note on Conditional Offer [Dec. 2014 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
An offer in which the acquirer has stipulated a minimum level of acceptance is known as a conditional offer.

Conditional offer [Regulation 19]: An acquirer may make an open offer conditional as to the minimum level of acceptance. However, where the open offer is pursuant to an agreement, such agreement shall contain a condition to the effect that in the event the desired level of acceptance of the open offer is not received the acquirer shall not acquire any shares under the open offer and the agreement attracting the obligation to make the open offer shall stand rescinded.

Where an open offer is made conditional upon minimum level of acceptances, the acquirer and persons acting in concert with him shall not acquire, during the offer period, any shares in the target company except under the open offer and any underlying agreement for the sale of shares of the target company pursuant to which the open offer is made.

Question 6.
The disclosure requirements on the acquisition of shares of a listed target company beyond certain limits are only on the acquirer and not on the target company. [June 2015 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
The obligation to give the disclosures on the acquisition of certain limits is only on the acquirer and not on the target company. Following disclosures j are required to be made:

Triggering Point To and by whom Time Period
Event-Based Disclosures
Acquisition of 5% or more shares or voting rights To the Target Company and Stock Exchange by the Acquirer Within 2 working days of:

(a) Receipt of intimation of allotment of shares or

(b) The acquisition of shares or voting rights.

Acquirer already holding 5% or more shares or voting rights On acquisition or disposal of 2% or more shares or voting rights. To the Target Company and Stock Exchange by the Acquirer/Seller Within 2 working days of such acquisition/disposal.
Continual Disclosures
Any person holding 25% or more shares or voting rights Target Company & Stock Exchange by such person Within 7 working days from the end of each financial year
Promoter/Person having control over the Target Company Target Company & Stock Exchange by Promoter Within 7 working days from the end of each financial year
Disclosure of Pledged or Encumbered Shares
On the encumbrance of shares by the promoter or person acting in Concert with him Target Company & Stock Exchange by the promote Within 7 working days from the date of creation of encumbrance.
On the invocation of or release of such encumbrance by the promoter Target Company & Stock Exchange by the promoter Within 7 working days from the date of invocation of encumbrance.

Question 7.
Write a short note on the Escrow account [Dec. 2015 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Escrow Account [Regulation 17]: Escrow Account means a bank account that is required to be opened by an acquirer who proposes to make a public announcement of an open offer. The Regulations have made detailed provisions regarding the Escrow Account.

Regulation 17(1) provides that not later than 2 working days prior to the date of the publication of the detailed public statement of an open offer for acquiring shares, the acquirer shall create an escrow account towards security for performance of his obligations and deposit in such escrow account specified amount.

The purpose of these provisions is to ensure that the acquirer has sufficient funds to pay the consideration under the offer and he has secured sufficient financial arrangement.

Timing of opening of account: The Acquirer shall open an escrow account at least 2 working days prior to the date of Detailed Public Statement.

Amount to be deposited:

The consideration payable under the Open Offer Amount to be deposited in Escrow Account
On the first ₹ 500 Crore An amount equal to 25% of the consideration
On the balance consideration An additional amount equal to 10% of the balance consideration

Where an open offer is made conditional upon minimum level of acceptance, 100% of the consideration payable in respect of the minimum level of acceptance or 50% of the consideration payable under the open offer, whichever is higher, shall be deposited in cash in the escrow account.

In the case of indirect acquisitions where a public announcement has been made, an amount equivalent to 100% of the consideration payable in the open offer shall be deposited in the escrow account.

Increase in the amount of escrow [Regulation 17(2)]: If the Acquirer makes any upward revision in the open offer, whether by way of increase in offer price or of the offered size, then the Acquirer shall make corresponding increases to the amount kept in an escrow account prior to making such revision.

Mode of Deposit in Escrow Account [Regulation 17(3)]: The escrow account referred to above may be in the form of –
(a) Cash deposited with any scheduled commercial bank;
(b) Bank guarantee issued in favor of the manager to the open offer by any scheduled commercial bank; or
(c) Deposit of frequently traded and freely transferable equity shares or other freely transferable securities with appropriate margin.

Deposit of securities shall not be permitted in respect of indirect acquisitions.

Question 8.
Kind Enterprises Ltd. has decided to acquire a stake of up to 25% of the paid-up share capital of Excel Exams Ltd., which is a listed company and wants to proceed with a public offer pursuant to the provisions of the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares & Takeovers) Regulations, 2011. Prepare a Board note highlighting the general obligations of Kind Enterprises Ltd. [June 2015 (10 Marks)]
Answer:
Obligations of the acquirer [Regulation 25]:
1. Prior to making the public announcement of an open offer for acquiring shares, the acquirer shall ensure that firm financial arrangements have been made for fulfilling the payment obligations and that the acquirer is able to implement the open offer, subject to any statutory approvals for the open offer that may be necessary.

2. In the event the acquirer has not declared an intention in the detailed public statement and the letter of offer to alienate any material assets of the target company or of any of its subsidiaries whether by way of sale, lease, encumbrance, or otherwise outside the ordinary course of business, the acquirer, where he has acquired control over the target company, shall be debarred from causing such alienation for a period of 2 years after the offer period.

However, in the event the target company or any of its subsidiaries is required to alienate assets despite the intention to alienate not having been expressed by the acquirer, such alienation shall require a special resolution passed by shareholders of the target company, by way of a postal ballot and the notice for such postal ballot shall inter alia contain reasons as to why such alienation is necessary.

3. The acquirer shall ensure that the contents of the public announcement, the detailed public statement, the letter of offer, and the post-offer advertisement are true, fair, and adequate in all material aspects and not misleading in any material particular, and are based on reliable sources, and state the source wherever necessary.

4. The acquirer and persons acting in concert with him shall not sell shares of the target company held by them, during the offer period.

5. The acquirer and persons acting in concert with him shall be jointly and severally responsible for the fulfillment of applicable obligations under the regulations.

Question 9.
Write short note on Acquirer [Dec. 2016 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
“Acquirer” means any person who, directly or indirectly, acquires or agrees to acquire whether by himself, or through, or with persons acting in concert with him, shares or voting rights in, or control over a target company.

In simple words, a person who acquires shares/voting rights/control directly or indirectly of the target company with persons acting in concert is called ‘Acquirer’.

Persons acting in concert [Regulation 2(q)]: Persons acting in concert means –
1. Persons who, with a common objective or purpose of acquisition of shares or voting rights in, or exercising control over a target company, pursuant to an agreement or understanding, formal or informal, directly or indirectly co-operate for the acquisition of shares or voting rights in, or exercise of control over the target company.

2. The persons falling within the following categories shall be deemed to be persons acting in concert with other persons within the same category unless the contrary is established:

  1. A company, its holding company, subsidiary company, and any company under the same management or control;
  2. A company, its directors, and any person entrusted with the management of the company;
  3. Directors of companies referred to in clauses (1) and (2) and associates of such directors;
  4. Promoters and members of the promoter group;
  5. Immediate relatives;
  6. A mutual fund, its sponsor, trustees, trustee company, and asset management company;
  7. A collective investment scheme and its collective investment management company, trustees and trustee company;
  8. A venture capital fund and its sponsor, trustees, trustee company, and asset management company;
  9. an alternative investment fund and its sponsor, trustees, trustee company, and manager;
  10. [Deleted]
  11. A merchant banker and its client, who is an acquirer;
  12. A portfolio manager and its client, who is an acquirer;
  13. Banks, financial advisors, and stockbrokers of the acquirer, or of any company which is a holding company or subsidiary of the acquirer, and where the acquirer is an individual, of the immediate relative of such individual. However, this clause shall not apply to a bank whose sole role is that of providing normal commercial banking services or activities in relation to an open offer under these regulations;
  14. An investment company or fund and any person who has an interest in such investment company or fund as a shareholder or unit holder having not less than 10% of the paid-up capital of the investment company or unit capital of the fund, and any other investment company or fund in which such person or his associate holds not less than 10% of the paid-up capital of that investment company or unit capital of that fund. However, nothing contained in this clause shall apply to the holding of units of mutual funds registered with the SEBI.

Explanation: “Associate” of a person means –
(a) Any immediate relative of such person;
(b) Trusts of which such person or his immediate relative is a trustee;
(c) Partnership firm in which such person or his immediate relative is a partner; and
(d) Members of Hindu undivided families of which such person is a coparcener.

Question 10.
Regulation 10 of the Takeover Code provides an automatic exemption from the applicability of making open offers. [Dec. 2016 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Regulation 10 of the SEBI Takeover Regulations, 2011 provides for automatic exemptions from the applicability of making Open Offer to the shareholders of the Target Company in respect of certain acquisitions subject to the compliance of certain conditions specified therein.

Further Regulation 11 of SEBI Takeover Regulations, 2011 provides the provisions whereby the acquirer can apply to SEBI for availing the exemption from the Open Offer obligations and the Target Company can apply for relaxation from strict compliance with any procedural requirement relating to Open Offer as provided under Chapters III and IV of the Regulations.

Some of the exemptions provided in Regulation 10 along with their conditions for exemption are as follows:

Acquisition pursuant to inter .se transfer of shares amongst qualifying persons, being,:

  1. immediate relatives;
  2. persons named as promoters in the shareholding pattern filed by the target company in terms of the listing regulations or these regulations for not less than three years prior to the proposed acquisition;
  3. a company, its subsidiaries, its holding company, other subsidiaries of such – holding company, persons holding not less than 50% of the equity shares of such company, other companies in which such persons hold not less than 50% of the equity shares, and their subsidiaries subject to control over such qualifying persons being exclusively held by the same persons;
  4. persons acting in concert for not less than 3 years prior to the proposed acquisition and disclosed as such pursuant to filings under the listing regulations.

Note: The list of exemptions provided in Regulation 10 is much more; considering the marks of the question only some of the clauses are given.

Question 11.
A competitive bid is an offer made by a person other than the acquirer who has made the first public announcement. [Dec. 2016 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
A competitive bid is an offer made by a person, other than the acquirer who has made the first public announcement.

A public announcement is an announcement made in the newspapers by the acquirer primarily disclosing his intention to acquire shares of the target company from existing shareholders by means of an open offer.

Switching of acceptances between different offers is possible. The shareholder has the option to withdraw acceptance tendered by him up to 3 working days prior to the date of closure of the offer.

To enable the shareholders to be in a better position to decide as to which of the subsisting offers is better and also not to cause last-minute decisions/ confusions, the offer price and size are effectively frozen for the last 7 working days prior to the closing date of the offers. Shareholders may wait till the commencement of that period to be aware of upward revisions in the offer price and size of the offers.

Question 12.
Write a short note on: Creeping acquisition limit [June 2017 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Creeping acquisition limit: An acquirer who holds 25% or more but less than maximum permissible non-public shareholding of the Target Company, can acquire such additional shares as would entitle him to exercise more than 5% of the voting rights in any financial year ending March 31 only after making a Public Announcement to acquire minimum 26% shares of Target Company j from the shareholders through an Open Offer.

Question 13.
Explain the Modes of Payment to the shareholders of the Target Company on the acquisition of shares hy the acquirer under SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares & Takeovers) Regulations, 2011. [June 2019 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
As per Regulation 9(1) of the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares & Takeovers) Regulations, 2011, the offer price may be paid:
(a) in cash;
(b) by issue, exchange, or transfer of listed shares in the equity share capital of the acquirer or of any person acting in concert;
(c) by issue, exchange, or transfer of listed secured debt instruments issued by the acquirer or any person acting in concert with a rating not inferior to investment grade as rated by a credit rating agency registered with the SEBI;
(d) by issue, exchange, or transfer of convertible debt securities entitling the holder thereof to acquire listed shares in the equity share capital of the acquirer or of any person acting in concert; or
(e) a combination of the mode of payment of consideration stated in clauses (a) to (d).

Question 14.
An acquirer, holding 25% or more but less than maximum permissible non-public shareholding of the Target Company can acquire such additional shares as would entitle him to exercise more than 5% of the voting rights in any financial year. Explain the statement indicating the creeping acquisition limit for making an open offer by an acquirer. [June 2019 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Acquisition of more than 5% shares or voting rights in a financial year [Creeping Acquisition]: An acquirer along with PACs holds 25% or more but less than the maximum permissible non-public shareholding in a target company,
can acquire additional shares in the target company as would entitle him to exercise more than 5% of the voting rights in any financial year beginning April 1, only after making a public announcement of making an open offer to acquire the shares.

Note: Students should note that Takeover Regulations do not apply to acquisition up to 5% of shares per financial year – called ‘creeping acquisition’ till the acquirer reaches a stake of 7596. This is permissible to those whose holding is more than 25% but less than 75%. Such acquisition may be direct or indirect

Suppose the target company had 1,00,000 shares. The acquirer is already holding 31,000 shares and he intends to acquire further 5,000 shares per financial year, he can do so and Takeover Regulations will not be applicable. However, if he wants to acquire 5,001 shares then Takeover Regulations will be applicable and before acquiring such 5,001 shares he will have to make an open offer.

Question 15.
An unlisted public company (“Acquirer”) doing business of exporting steel and is a part of the Promoter Group of Maurya Hotels (India) Ltd. (MHIL), a company listed on the stock exchange. In view of improving its efficiency, MHIL is planning to restructure its group. The Acquirer has agreed to enter into a scheme of arrangement where the shares held by the promoter group companies (eight companies) will be transferred to it. Post-merger, the shareholding of the Acquirer in the Company will increase from 2% to 24%. However, the overall promoter shareholding will remain unchanged. You, being practicing company secretary, appointed as a consultant by the Acquirer, answer the following:
(i) Will the transfer of shares trigger an obligation to make an open offer under the SEBI (SAST) Regulations on the Acquirer?
(ii) What are the disclosure requirements under the SAST Regulations, if any, that the parties to the scheme will have to comply with? [June 2019 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Acquisition of 25% or more shares or voting rights: An acquirer, who along with PACs holds less than 25% shares or voting rights in a target company and agrees to acquire shares or acquires shares which would entitle him to exercise 25% or more or voting rights in a target company, will need to make a public announcement of making an open offer to acquire the shares before acquiring such additional shares.

As per Regulation 10 of the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares & Takeovers) Regulations, 2011, acquisitions shall be exempt from the obligation to make an open offer under Regulation 3 when their acquisition pursuant to inter .se transfer of shares amongst qualifying persons, being persons named as promoters in the shareholding pattern filed by the target company in terms of the listing regulations or Takeover Regulations for not less than 3 years prior to the proposed acquisition.

As per facts given in the case, an unlisted public company (acquirer) proposes to increase its holding 2% to 24% by acquiring the shares of other promoters, which do not trigger provisions of obligation to make an open offer in terms of Regulation 3 read with Regulation 10 of the Takeover Regulations.

Disclosure: The Acquirer and promoter group companies will be required to make a disclosure of change in shareholding under Regulation 29(2) of the Takeover Regulations. According to Regulation 29(3), the disclosure should be made within 2 working days of such acquisition to the Company at its registered office and to stock exchanges where the shares of the Company are listed.

Note: Students should note that when the acquirer agrees to acquire 25% or more shares or voting rights in a target company he has to make an open offer to acquire further 26% shares of the target company. [Regulation 3 read with Regulation 7]

Suppose the target company had 1,00,000 shares. The acquirer is already holding 21,000 shares and he intends to acquire further 4,000 shares, he cannot acquire further 4,000 shares unless he makes an open offer to acquire another 26,000 shares from the public.

The reason for a stipulation to offer to purchase 26% shares from the public is that shareholders who may not approve the new management should have a chance to get out of his investment in the company at a fair price. The offer is restricted to 26% as if many shareholders offer to sell the shares, the acquirer may not have enough financial strength to purchase all shares offered.

Question 16.
Draft a suitable Board resolution with respect to takeover for the following:
(i) Offer by offeror company and
(ii) Authorization to invest in the shares of investee company [June 2011 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Offer by Offeror Company:
“Resolved That an offer be made, to the persons who are the members of___________ Ltd. as on___________for acquisition of___________equity shares of ₹ 10 each representing a___________% of the total issued capital of the___________Ltd.

Resolved Further That above said offer shall remain open till___________at a price of ₹___________each.

Resolved Further That shares be accepted even if such shares in the aggregate are less than the limit mentioned above and in case shares offered to exceed the limit, the company shall have an option to accept or reject the same in consultation with the concerned authorities and offer will be accepted according to the order in which they are received and full shareholding of the members accepting the offer be acquired subject to an abovementioned limit.”

Authorization to invest in the shares of Investee Company:
“Resolved That pursuant to Section 186 and other applicable provisions if any, of the Companies Act, 2013 and authorization gave by the members of the company at their meeting held on___________unanimous consent of the Board of Directors be and is hereby given to invest up to equity shares of XYZ Ltd. at a price of ₹___________each.”

Question 17.
Sharad who is a promoter of Grow Good Ltd. holds 20% of the paid-up share capital of the company. The shares of the company are listed on National Stock Exchange Ltd. Sharad would like to pledge his shares for obtaining a loan. State the requirements for disclosure of pledged shares under the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares & Takeovers) Regulations, 2011. [June 2011 (8 Marks)]
Answer:
Disclosure of encumbered shares [Regulation 31]:

  1. The promoter of every target company shall disclose details of shares in such target company encumbered by him or by persons acting in concert | with him in such form as may be specified.
  2. The promoter of every target company shall disclose details of any invocation of such encumbrance or release of such encumbrance of shares j in such form as may be specified.
  3. The required disclosures shall be made within 7 working days from the creation or invocation or release of encumbrance, as the case may be to
    (a) Every stock exchange where the shares of the target company are listed and
    (b) The target company at its registered office.

Question 18.
Explain the provisions relating to ‘escrow account’ under the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares & Takeovers) Regulations, 2011. [June 2011 (7 Marks)]
Answer:
Escrow Account [Regulation 17]: Escrow Account means a bank ac- f count which is required to be opened by an acquirer who proposes to make a public announcement of an open offer. The Regulations have made detailed provisions regarding the Escrow Account.

Regulation 17(1) provides that not later than 2 working days prior to the date of the publication of the detailed public statement of an open offer for acquiring shares, the acquirer shall create an escrow account towards security for performance of his obligations and deposit in such escrow account specified amount.

The purpose of these provisions is to ensure that the acquirer has sufficient funds to pay tire consideration under the offer and he has secured sufficient financial arrangement.

Timing of opening of account: The Acquirer shall open an escrow account at least 2 working days prior to the date of Detailed Public Statement.

Amount to be deposited:

The consideration payable under the Open Offer Amount to be deposited in Escrow Account
On the first ₹ 500 Crore An amount equal to 25% of the consideration
On the balance consideration An additional amount equal to 10% of the balance consideration

Where an open offer is made conditional upon minimum level of acceptance, 100% of the consideration payable in respect of the minimum level of acceptance or 50% of the consideration payable under the open offer, whichever is higher, shall be deposited in cash in the escrow account.

In the case of indirect acquisitions where a public announcement has been made, an amount equivalent to 100% of the consideration payable in the open offer shall be deposited in the escrow account.

Increase in the amount of escrow [Regulation 17(2)]: If the Acquirer makes any upward revision in the open offer, whether by way of increase in offer price or of the offered size, then the Acquirer shall make corresponding increases to the amount kept in an escrow account prior to making such revision.

Mode of Deposit in Escrow Account [Regulation 17(3)]: The escrow account referred to above may be in the form of –
(a) Cash deposited with any scheduled commercial bank;
(b) Bank guarantee issued in favor of the manager to the open offer by any scheduled commercial bank; or
(c) Deposit of frequently traded and freely transferable equity shares or other freely transferable securities with appropriate margin.

Deposit of securities shall not be permitted in respect of indirect acquisitions.

Composition and other conditions of the escrow account [Regulation 17(4) to (7)]:
1. In the event of the escrow account is created by way of a bank guarantee or by deposit of securities, the acquirer shall also ensure that at least 1% of the total consideration payable is deposited in cash with a scheduled commercial bank as a part of the escrow account.

2. For such part of the escrow account as is in the form of a cash deposit with a scheduled commercial bank, the acquirer shall while opening the account, empower the manager to the open offer to instruct the bank to issue a banker’s cheque or demand draft or to make payment of the amounts lying to the credit of the escrow account, in accordance with requirements under these regulations.

3. For such part of the escrow account as is in the form of a bank guarantee, such bank guarantee shall be in favor of the manager to the open offer and shall be kept valid throughout the offer period and for an additional period of 30 days after completion of payment of consideration to shareholders who have tendered their shares in acceptance of the open offer.

4. For such part of the escrow account as is in the form of securities, the acquirer shall empower the Manager to the open offer to realize the value of such escrow account by sale or otherwise, and if there is any shortfall in the amount required to be maintained in the escrow account, the Manager shall be liable to make good such shortfall.

5. The Manager to the open offer shall not release the escrow account until the expiry of 30 days from the completion of payment of consideration to shareholders who have tendered their shares in acceptance of the open offer, save and except for the transfer of funds to the special escrow account.

6. In the event of non-fulfillment of obligations by the acquirer the SEBI may direct the Manager to forfeit the escrow account or any amounts lying in the special escrow account, either in full or in part.

7. The escrow account deposited with the bank in cash shall be released only in the following manner –
(a) The entire amount to the acquirer upon withdrawal of the offer. In the event the withdrawal is pursuant to Regulation 23(l)(c), the Manager to the open offer shall release the escrow account upon receipt of confirmation of such release from the SEBI;

(b) For transfer of an amount not exceeding 90% of the escrow account, to the special escrow account in accordance with Regulation 21.

(c) To the acquirer, the balance of the escrow account after transfer of cash to the special escrow account, on the expiry of 30 days from the completion of payment of consideration to shareholders who have tendered their shares in acceptance of the open offer, as certified by the manager to the open offer;

(d) The entire amount to the acquirer upon the expiry of 30 days from the completion of payment of consideration to shareholders who have tendered their shares in acceptance of the open offer, upon certification by the manager to the open offer, where the open offer is for exchange of shares or other secured instruments;

(e) The entire amount to the Manager, in the event of forfeiture for non-fulfillment of any of the obligations, for distribution in the following manner, after deduction of expenses of registered market intermediaries associated with the open offer:

  1. 1 /3rd of the escrow account to the target company;
  2. l/3rd of the escrow account to the Investor Protection & Education Fund established under the SEBI (Investor Protection & Education Fund) Regulations, 2009; and
  3. 1 /3rd of the escrow account to be distributed pro-rata among the shareholders who have accepted the open offer.

Question 19.
Draft a suitable Board resolution for the opening of an escrow account. [Dec. 2011 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Board resolution for Opening of an Escrow Account:
Resolved That an Escrow Account be opened with Bank and ₹_________ be deposited in the said account.
Resolved Further That M/s_________Merchant Banker, be and is hereby authorized to operate the above-said account and the Bank be and is hereby authorized to act on the instructions given by M/s_________, Merchant Banker, in relation to the operation of a bank account.”

Resolved Further That Mr._________, Director of the company, be and is hereby authorized to collect and communicate the same to_________Bank, the names and specimen signatures of the person authorized by M/s._________, Merchant Banker, to operate the above-said bank account.”

Question 20.
Draft a suitable Board resolution for the appointment of a merchant banker by an acquirer under the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares & Takeovers) Regulation, 2011. [Dec. 2012 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Board Resolution for the appointment of a Merchant Banker:
‘Resolved That M/s_________being Category-I Merchant Banker be and is hereby appointed as Merchant Banker for the aforesaid public offer, on the terms and conditions as contained in the draft letter of appointment placed before the meeting duly initialed by the Chairman for the purpose of identification, for making the public i ; announcement of the takeover offer in the newspapers, forward the same to the SEBI, Stock Exchange(s) and to the target company and to draft the Letter of Offer to be sent to the shareholders of_________, target company in accordance with the SEBI
(Substantial Acquisition of Shares & Takeover) Regulations, 2011”.

Question 21.
Explain ‘open offer thresholds’ under the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares & Takeovers) Regulations, 2011. [June 2013 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Open offer thresholds [Regulation 3]: The following are the threshold g limits for the acquisition of shares/voting rights, beyond which an obligation to % make an open offer is triggered.

Acquisition of 25% or more shares or voting rights: An acquirer, who along with PACs holds less than 25% shares or voting rights in a target company and agrees to acquire shares or acquires shares which would entitle him to exercise 25% or more or voting rights in a target company, will need to make a public announcement of making an open offer to acquire the shares before acquiring such additional shares.

Note: Students should note that when the acquirer agrees to acquire 25% or more shares or voting rights in a target company he has to make an open offer to acquire further 26% shares of the target company. regulation 3 read with Regulation 7]

Suppose the target company had 1,00,000 shares. The acquirer is already holding 21,000 shares and he intends to acquire further 4,000 shares, he cannot acquire further 4,000 shares unless he makes an open offer to acquire another 26,000 shares from the public.

The reason for a stipulation to offer to purchase 26% shares from the public is that shareholders who may not approve the new management should have a chance to get out of his investment in the company at a fair price. The offer is restricted to 26% as if many shareholders offer to sell the shares, the acquirer may not have enough financial strength to purchase all shares offered.

Acquisition of more than 5% shares or voting rights in a financial year [Creeping Acquisition]: An acquirer along with PACs holds 25% or more but less than the maximum permissible non-public shareholding in a target company, can acquire additional shares in the target company as would entitle him to exercise more than 5% of the voting rights in any financial year beginning April 1, only after j making a public announcement of making an open offer to acquire the shares.

Note: Students should note that Takeover Regulations do not apply to acquisition up to 5% of shares per financial year – called ‘creeping acquisition’ till the acquirer reaches a stake of 75%. This is permissible to those whose holding is more than 25% but less than 75%. Such acquisition may be direct or indirect.

Suppose the target company had 1,00,000 shares. The acquirer is already holding 31,000 shares and he intends to acquire further 5,000 shares per financial year, he can do so and Takeover Regulations will not be applicable. However, if he wants to acquire 5,001 shares then Takeover Regulations will be applicable and before acquiring such 5,001 shares he will have to make an open offer.

Question 22.
What do you understand by ‘mandatory bid’ and when it is necessary? Describe briefly. [June 2013 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
A mandatory bid is a bid that is compulsorily required to be made as per the provisions of the SEBI (SAST) Regulations, 2011 where the acquirer intends to acquire shares or voting rights beyond threshold limits specified in Regulations 3, 4 & 5.

It is governed by Regulations 3, 4 & 5 of the SEBI (SAST) Regulations, 2011.

When mandatory bid can be made: The open offer for acquiring shares to be made by the acquirer and persons acting in concert with him shall be for at least 26% of total shares of the target company, as of 10th working day from the closure of the tendering period.

Question 23.
The SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares & Takeovers) Regulations, 2011 provide some mechanism for automatic exemption from making ‘mandatory offer’ other than the inter .se transfer among the promoters. Briefly state four such situations. [June 2013 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Exemptions from the open offer: Exemption maybe:

  • Automatic Exemption [Regulation 10]
  • Exemption by SEBI [Regulation 11]

Regulation 10 provides for automatic exemptions from the applicability of making an Open Offer to the shareholders of the Target Company in respect of certain acquisitions subject to the compliance of certain conditions specified therein.

As per Regulation 11, the SEBI may for reasons recorded in writing, grant exemption from the obligation to make an open offer for acquiring shares subject to such conditions as the SEBI deems fit to impose in the interests of investors in securities and the securities market.

The SEBI may for reasons recorded in writing, grant a relaxation from strict compliance with any procedural requirement subject to such conditions as the SEBI deems fit to impose in the interests of investors in securities and the I securities market.

Some situations where an automatic exemption applies:

  1. Acquisition pursuant to a resolution plan approved u/s 31 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016.
  2. The acquisition is pursuant to the provisions of the Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002.
  3. The acquisition is pursuant to the provisions of the SEBI (Delisting of Equity Shares) Regulations, 2009.
  4. Acquisition by way of transmission, succession, or inheritance.
  5. Acquisition of voting rights or preference shares carrying voting rights arising out of the operation of the Companies Act, 2013.

Question 24.
Mention the factors which make a company vulnerable to takeover bids. [Dec. 2014 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Some of the factors which make a company vulnerable to takeover bids are as follows:

  • Low stock price with relation to the replacement cost of assets or their potential earning power.
  • A highly liquid balance sheet with large amounts of excess cash, a valuable securities portfolio, and significantly unused debt capacity.
  • Good cash flow in relation to current stock prices.
  • Subsidiaries and properties which could be sold off without significantly impairing cash flow.
  • Relatively small stockholdings under the control of incumbent management.

A combination of these factors can simultaneously make a company an attractive proposition or investment opportunity and facilitate its financing.

Question 25.
What are the obligations of the committee of independent directors of the target company with regard to providing reasoned recommendations on the open offer being made by the acquirers? [Dec. 2014 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
As per Regulation 26(7), the committee of independent directors shall provide its written reasoned recommendations on the open offer to the shareholders of the target company and such recommendations shall be published in such form as may be specified, at least 2 working days before the commencement of the tendering period, in the same newspapers where the public announcement of the open offer was published, and simultaneously, a copy of the same shall be sent to –

  1. The SEBI;
  2. All the stock exchanges on which the shares of the target company are listed, and the stock exchanges shall forthwith disseminate such information to the public; and
  3. The manager to the open offer, and where there are competing offers, to the manager to the open offer for every competing offer.

Question 26.
Amilo Exports Ltd., a listed company has opened an escrow account in connection with acquiring another company. The company wants your opinion on the release of the amount from the escrow account. Comment. [Dec. 2014 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
As per Regulation 17 of the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares & Takeovers) Regulations, 2011, the escrow account deposited with the bank in cash shall be released only in the following manner:
(a) The entire amount to the acquirer upon withdrawal of the offer. In the event the withdrawal is pursuant to Regulation 23(l)(c), the Manager to the open offer shall release the escrow account upon receipt of confirmation of such release from the SEBI;

(b) For transfer of an amount not exceeding 9096 of the escrow account, to the special escrow account in accordance with Regulation 21.

(c) To the acquirer, the balance of the escrow account after transfer of cash to the special escrow account, on the expiry of 30 days from the completion of payment of consideration to shareholders who have tendered their shares in acceptance of the open offer, as certified by the manager to the open offer;

(d) The entire amount to the acquirer upon the expiry of 30 days from the completion of payment of consideration to shareholders who have tendered their shares in acceptance of the open offer, upon certification by the manager to the open offer, where the open offer is for exchange of shares or other secured instruments;

(e) The entire amount to the Manager, in the event of forfeiture for non-fulfillment of any of the obligations, for distribution in the following manner, after deduction of expenses of registered market intermediaries associated with the open offer:

  1. 1 /3rd of the escrow account to the target company;
  2. 1 /3rd of the escrow account to the Investor Protection & Education Fund established under the SEBI (Investor Protection & Education Fund) Regulations, 2009; and
  3. 1/3rd of the escrow account to be distributed pro-rata among the shareholders who have accepted the open offer.

Question 27.
In terms of the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares & Takeovers) Regulations, 2011, ‘offer period’ and ‘tendering period’ are one and the same. Comment. [June 2015 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Offer period and tendering period: The term ‘offer period’ pertains to the period starting from the date of the event triggering open offer till completion of payment of consideration to shareholders by the acquirer or withdrawal of the offer by the acquirer as the case may be.

The term ‘tendering period’ refers to the 10 working days period falling within the offer period, during which the eligible shareholders who wish to accept the open offer can tender their shares in the open offer.

Tenure of tendering period [Regulation 18(8)]: The tendering period shall start not later than twelve working days from the date of receipt of comments from the SEBI under Regulation 16(4) and shall remain open for 10 working days.

Tendered shares shall not be withdrawn [Regulation 18(9)]: Shareholders who have tendered shares in acceptance of the open offer shall not be entitled to withdraw such acceptance during the tendering period.

Question 28.
The acquirer can opt-out of the open offer process at any point in time by informing the stock exchange wherein the shares of the target company are listed and furnishing a copy of the communication to the target company. Comment. [June 2015 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
In Nirma Industries Ltd. v. Securities & Exchange Board of India, the Supreme Court has held that an open offer for acquiring shares in Target Company once made cannot be withdrawn except in cases where it specifically allowed to withdraw under the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares & Takeovers) Regulations, 2011.

Thus, the acquirers should make a ‘Public Offer’ only after the most careful consideration and must ensure that it is able to implement the offer. Referring to Regulation 27, the Supreme Court observed that a public offer once made could not be withdrawn except in the circumstances provided in the said Regulation which had to be construed strictly.

Question 29.
Revision of offer price can be made by the acquirer upward but that can be exercised only in the event of there being a competing offer. Comment. [June 2015 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Revision of offer price [Regulation 18(4) & (5)]: Irrespective of whether a competing offer has been made, an acquirer may make upward revisions to the offer price, to the number of shares sought to be acquired under the open offer, at any time prior to the commencement of the last 1 working day before the commencement of the tendering period.

In the event of any revision of the open offer, whether by way of an upward revision in offer price or of the offered size, the acquirer shall:
(a) make corresponding increases to the amount kept in an escrow account prior to such revision;
(b) make an announcement in respect of such revisions in all the newspapers in which the detailed public statement pursuant to the public announcement was made; and
(c) simultaneously with the issue of such an announcement, inform the SEBI, all the stock exchanges on which the shares of the target company are listed, and the target company at its registered office.

Question 30.
The acquisition of shares resulting from invocation of pledges by a public financial institution is exempt from open offer obligation. Comment. [June 2015 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Regulation 10 of the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares and Take-overs) Regulations, 2011 provides for automatic exemptions from the applicability of making Open Offer to the shareholders of the Target Company in respect of certain acquisitions subject to the compliance of certain conditions specified therein.

As per Regulation 10, acquisition in the ordinary course of business by Invocation of pledge by Scheduled Commercial Banks or Public Financial Institutions as a pledgee is covered in general exemption and hence given statement is correct.

Question 31.
How is the open offer price for the acquisition of shares of a listed target company whose shares are frequently traded determined? [June 2015 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Offer Price [Regulation 8(1)]: The open offer for acquiring shares under Regulation 3, 4, 5, or 6 shall be made at a price not lower than the price determined in accordance with Regulation 8(2) or (3).

Determination of offer price – direct acquisition [Regulation 8(2)]: In the case of direct acquisition of shares or voting rights in, or control over the target company, and indirect acquisition of shares or voting rights in, or control over the target company where the parameters referred to in Regulation 5(2) are met, the offer price shall be the highest of –
(a) The highest negotiated price per share of the target company for any acquisition under the agreement attracting the obligation to make a public announcement of an open offer.

(b) The volume-weighted average price paid or payable for acquisitions, whether by the acquirer or by any person acting in concert with him in the last 52 weeks before the date of the public announcement.

(c) The highest price paid or payable for any acquisition, whether by the acquirer or by any person acting in concert with him in the last 26 weeks before the date of the public announcement.

(d) The volume-weighted average market price of such shares for a period of 60 trading days immediately preceding the date of the public announcement as traded on the stock exchange where the maximum volume of trading in the shares of the target company are recorded during such period, provided such shares are frequently traded.

(e) Where the shares are not frequently traded, the price determined by the acquirer and the manager to the open offer taking into account valuation parameters including, book value, comparable trading multiples, and such other parameters as are customary for valuation of shares of such companies.

(f) The per-share value computed under Regulation 8(5), if applicable.

Determination of offer price – indirect acquisition [Regulation 8(3)]: In the case of indirect acquisition of shares or voting rights in, or control over the target company, where the parameter referred to in Regulation 5(2) are not met, the offer price shall be the highest of –
(a) The highest negotiated price per share of the target company for any acquisition under the agreement attracting the obligation to make a public announcement of an open offer.

(b) The volume-weighted average price paid or payable for any acquisition, whether by the acquirer or by any person acting in concert with him, during the 52 weeks immediately preceding the earlier of, the date on which the primary acquisition is contracted, and the date on which the intention or the decision to make the primary acquisition is announced in the public domain.

(c) The highest price paid or payable for any acquisition, whether by the acquirer or by any person acting in concert with him, during the 26 weeks immediately preceding the earlier of, the date on which the primary acquisition is contracted, and the date on which the intention or the decision to make the primary acquisition is announced in the public domain.

(d) The highest price paid or payable for any acquisition, whether by the acquirer or by any person acting in concert with him, between the earlier of, the date on which the primary acquisition is contracted, and the date on which the intention or the decision to make the primary acquisition is announced in the public domain, and the date of the public announcement of the open offer for shares of the target company.

(e) The volume-weighted average market price of the shares for a period of 60 trading days immediately preceding the earlier of, the date on which the primary acquisition is contracted, and the date on which the intention or the decision to make the primary acquisition is announced in the public domain, as traded on the stock exchange where the maximum volume of trading in the shares of the target company are recorded during such period, provided such shares are frequently traded.

(f) The per-share value computed under Regulation 8(5).

Question 32.
Aspire Ltd. is the target company in respect of which an acquirer made an open offer for the acquisition of shares and the open offer has commenced. Dreams Ltd. is the subsidiary of Aspire Ltd. Dreams Ltd. signed the loan agreements with financial institutions for major capital expenditure for its expansion project and started withdrawing the loan amount during the open offer period. The said borrowings are clearly within the ordinary course of its business.

No approval was taken by Aspire Ltd. from its shareholders nor did Dreams Ltd. obtain the approval from its shareholders. The internal auditors have opined that the target company has violated the provisions of the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares & Takeovers) Regulations, 2011 as no approval was obtained by the shareholders of the target company for the borrowings affected.

The statutory auditors have agreed with the views of the internal auditors and pointed out that the target company Aspire Ltd. has failed in its obligations that are required to be complied with during the offer period in terms of the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares & Takeovers) Regulations, 2011 as approval of its members by way of a special resolution through the mechanism of the postal ballot was not obtained. Moreover, they maintained that Dreams Ltd. borrowed money for its expansion program when the open offer of the target company was on and therefore Dreams Ltd. violated the provisions of the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares & Takeovers) Regulations, 2011.
State in clear terms whether there is a violation of the provisions of the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares & Takeovers) Regulations, 2011 by Aspire Ltd. or Dreams Ltd. [June 2015 (6 Marks)]
Answer:
As per Regulation 26(2) of the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares and Takeovers) Regulations, 2011, during the offer period, unless the approval of shareholders of the target company by way of a special resolution by postal ballot is obtained, the board of directors of either the target company or any of its subsidiaries shall not affect any material borrowings outside the ordinary course of business.

It is clearly stated in facts of a given case that – “borrowings are clearly within the ordinary course of its business “and hence Aspire Ltd. or its subsidiary Dreams Ltd. had not violated any provisions of the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares & Takeovers) Regulations, 2011 and views of the internal and statutory auditor that there is a violation of Regulations is not correct.

Question 33.
Sameer, an acquirer along with persons acting in concert (PACs) is holding 23% shares in Purpleberry Ltd. (a BSE listed company). Now, he intends to acquire 3% additional equity shares in Purpleberry Ltd. through the secondary market in the current financial year. He is acquiring less than 5% shares in the financial year and is of the view that he need not make an open offer to the public. Give your opinion regarding the need to make an open offer to the public. [Dec. 2015 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
As per Regulation 3 of the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares and ) Takeovers) Regulations, 2011, an acquirer, who along with PACs holds less than | 25% shares or voting rights in a target company and agrees to acquire shares I or acquires shares which would entitle him to exercise 25% or more shares or voting rights in a target company, will need to make a public announcement i of making an open offer to acquire the shares before acquiring such additional shares.

Sameer, an acquirer along with persons acting in concert (PACs) is holding 23% shares in Purpleberry Ltd. and intends to acquire 3% additional equity shares which will entitle him to exercise 25% or more shares or voting rights
in Purpleberry Ltd. and thus he will have made a public announcement of making an open offer to acquire another 26% shares as required by the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares & Takeovers) Regulations, 2011.

Question 34.
The voting rights of Vaibhav Pharma Ltd. (VPL) which is one of the promoter company of Poorvi Adhesive Ltd. (PAL) has increased beyond 75% of the total paid-up capital of the company due to the buy-back of shares by PAL pursuant to section 68. The SEBI issued a show-cause notice to VPL alleging that they had to make a public announcement to acquire shares from the shareholders of the company and by not doing so they have violated provisions of the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares & Takeovers) Regulations, 2011. Give your comments. [Dec. 2015 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
As per Regulation 10(3) of the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares & Takeovers) Regulations, 2011 provides that – “an increase in voting rights in a target company of any shareholder beyond the limit attracting an obligation to make an open offer pursuant to buy-back of shares by the target company shall be exempt from the obligation to make an open offer provided such shareholder reduces his shareholding such that his voting rights fall to below the threshold referred to Regulation 3(1) within 90 days from the date of the closure of the said buy-back offer”.

Further Regulation 10(4)(c) of the said regulations, any increase in voting rights in a target company of any shareholder pursuant to buy-back of shares shall be exempt from the obligation to make an open offer under Regulation 3(2) provided that:

  1. such shareholder has not voted in favor of the resolution authorizing the buy-back of securities u/s 68 of the Companies Act, 2013;
  2. in the case of a shareholder resolution, voting is by way of the postal ballot;
  3. where a resolution of shareholders is not required for the buy-back, such shareholder, in his capacity as a director or any other interested director has not voted in favor of the resolution of the board of directors of the target company authorizing the buy-back of securities u/s 68 of the Companies Act, 2013; and
  4. the increase in voting rights does not result in an acquisition of control by such shareholders over the target company.

Considering the above discussion, the increase in voting rights of Vaibhav Pharma Ltd. in Poorvi Adhesive Ltd. due to the buy-back of shares pursuant to Section 68 is covered under the general exemption and hence Vaibhav Pharma Ltd. need not comply with provisions relating to the making of the open offer. However, Vaibhav Pharma Ltd. should comply with the conditions subject to which such exemption is available.

Question 35.
In the event of forfeiture of the amount lying in the escrow account, the acquirer shall be paid one-third of the amount forfeited in terms of Regulation 17(7) of SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares & Takeovers) Regulations, 2011. [June 2016 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Regulation 17 requires the acquirer to open an escrow account as a security for the performance of his obligations in terms of the public offer. The merchant banker is required to confirm that the financial arrangements are in place for fulfilling the obligations.

The amount will be used for timely fulfillment of the obligations or disposed of off as provided in Regulation 17. This is a strong deterrent against frivolous takeover offers and secures the interest of the public shareholders.

Thus, safeguards provided to shareholders in the takeover process can be summarized as follows:
1. Acquirer, before making a public announcement has to open an Escrow Account.

2. Merchant Banker to confirm adequate financial arrangements.

3. In case of failure of the acquirer to make payment, Merchant Banker to • distribute proceeds as under:

  • 1 /3rd of the escrow account to the target company.
  • 1 /3rd of the escrow account to the Investor Protection & Education Fund.
  • 1/3rd of the escrow account to be distributed pro-rata among the shareholders who have accepted the open offer.

The Merchant Banker is required to ensure that the rejected documents which | are kept in the custody of the Registrar/Merchant Banker are sent back to the | shareholder through Registered Post.

Question 36.
An offer in which the acquirer has stipulated a minimum level of acceptance is known as a ‘conditional offer’. Comment. [June 2016 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
An offer in which the acquirer has stipulated a minimum level of acceptance is known as a conditional offer.

Conditional offer [Regulation 19]: An acquirer may make an open offer conditional as to the minimum level of acceptance. However, where the open offer is pursuant to an agreement, such agreement shall contain a condition to the effect that in the event the desired level of acceptance of the open offer is not received the acquirer shall not acquire any shares under the open offer and the agreement attracting the obligation to make the open offer shall stand rescinded.

Where an open offer is made conditional upon minimum level of acceptances, the acquirer and persons acting in concert with him shall not acquire, during the offer period, any shares in the target company except under the open offer and any underlying agreement for the sale of shares of the target company pursuant to which the open offer is made.

Question 37.
Explain the term ‘persons acting in concert (PACs) with reference to SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares and Takeovers) Regulations, 2011. [June 2016 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
“Acquirer” means any person who, directly or indirectly, acquires or agrees to acquire whether by himself, or through, or with persons acting in concert with him, shares or voting rights in, or control over a target company.

In simple words, a person who acquires shares/voting rights/control directly or indirectly of the target company with persons acting in concert is called ‘Acquirer’.

Persons acting in concert [Regulation 2(q)]: Persons acting in concert means:
1. Persons who, with a common objective or purpose of acquisition of shares or voting rights in, or exercising control over a target company, pursuant to an agreement or understanding, formal or informal, directly or indirectly co-operate for the acquisition of shares or voting rights in, or exercise of control over the target company.

2. The persons falling within the following categories shall be deemed to be persons acting in concert with other persons within the same category unless the contrary is established:

  1. A company, its holding company, subsidiary company, and any company under the same management or control;
  2. A company, its directors, and any person entrusted with the management of the company;
  3. Directors of companies referred to in clauses (z) and (it) and associates of such directors;
  4. Promoters and members of the promoter group;
  5. Immediate relatives;
  6. A mutual fund, its sponsor, trustees, trustee company, and asset management company;
  7. A collective investment scheme and its collective investment management company, trustees and trustee company;
  8. A venture capital fund and its sponsor, trustees, trustee company, and asset management company;
  9. an alternative investment fund and its sponsor, trustees, trustee company, and manager;
  10. [Deleted]
  11. A merchant banker and its client, who is an acquirer;
  12. A portfolio manager and its client, who is an acquirer;
  13. Banks, financial advisors, and stockbrokers of the acquirer, or of any company which is a holding company or subsidiary of the acquirer, and where the acquirer is an individual, of the immediate relative of such individual. However, this clause shall not apply to a bank whose sole role is that of providing normal commercial banking services or activities in relation to an open offer under these regulations;
  14. An investment company or fund and any person who has an interest in such investment company or fund as a shareholder or unit holder having not less than 10% of the paid-up capital of the investment company or unit capital of the fund, and any other investment company or fund in which such person or his associate holds not less than 10% of the paid-up capital of that investment company or unit capital of that fund. However, nothing contained in this clause shall apply to the holding of units of mutual funds registered with the SEBI.

Explanation: “Associate” of a person means –
(a) Any immediate relative of such person;
(b) Trusts of which such person or his immediate relative is a trustee;
(c) Partnership firm in which such person or his immediate relative is a partner; and
(d) Members of Hindu undivided families of which such person is a coparcener.

Question 38.
‘General exemptions’ under regulation 10 and ‘Exemption by SEBI’ under regulation 11 of SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares & Takeovers) Regulations, 2011 are one and the same. Comment. [June 2016 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Exemptions from the open offer: Exemption maybe – 4- Automatic Exemption [Regulation 10]
Exemption by SEBI [Regulation 11]:
Regulation 10 provides for automatic exemptions from the applicability of making an Open Offer to the shareholders of the Target Company in respect of certain acquisitions subject to the compliance of certain conditions specified therein.

As per Regulation 11, the SEBI may for reasons recorded in writing, grant exemption from the obligation to make an open offer for acquiring shares subject to such conditions as the SEBI deems fit to impose in the interests of investors in securities and the securities market.

The SEBI may for reasons recorded in writing, grant a relaxation from strict compliance with any procedural requirement subject to such conditions as the SEBI deems fit to impose in the interests of investors in securities and the securities market.

Considering the above discussion it is incorrect to say that ‘General Exemp-tions’ under regulation 10 and ‘Exemption by SEBI’ under regulation 11 of SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares & Takeovers) Regulations, 2011 are one and the same.

Question 39.
An open offer can be withdrawn under the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares & Takeovers) Regulations, 2011. Comment. [Dec. 2016 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
In Nirma Industries Ltd. v. Securities & Exchange Board of India, the Supreme Court has held that an open offer for acquiring shares in Target Company once made cannot be withdrawn except in cases where it specifically allowed to withdraw under the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares & Takeovers) Regulations, 2011.

Thus, the acquirers should make a ‘Public Offer’ only after the most careful consideration and must ensure that it is able to implement the offer. Referring to Regulation 27, the Supreme Court observed that a public offer once made could not be withdrawn except in the circumstances provided in the said Regulation which had to be construed strictly.

Question 40.
What are the obligations of the committee of independent directors of the target company with regard to providing reasoned recommendations on the open offer being made by the acquirers? [June 2017 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
As per Regulation 26(7), the committee of independent directors shall provide its written reasoned recommendations on the open offer to the shareholders of the target company and such recommendations shall be published in such form as may be specified, at least 2 working days before the commencement of the tendering period, in the same newspapers where the public announcement of the open offer was published, and simultaneously, a copy of the same shall be sent to –

  1. The SEBI;
  2. All the stock exchanges on which the shares of the target company are listed, and the stock exchanges shall forthwith disseminate such information to the public; and
  3. The manager to the open offer, and where there are competing offers, to the manager to the open offer for every competing offer.

Question 41.
What is a “Voluntary Offer” as per Regulation 6 of the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares & Takeovers) Regulations, 2011? [June 2017 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Voluntary Offer [Regulation 6(1)]: An acquirer, who together with persons acting in concert with him, holds shares or voting rights in a target company entitling them to exercise 2596 or more but less than the maximum permissible non-public shareholding (i.e. 7596), shall be entitled to voluntarily make a public announcement of an open offer for acquiring shares subject to their aggregate shareholding after completion of the open offer not exceeding the maximum permissible non-public shareholding.

However, where an acquirer or PAC has acquired shares of the target company in the preceding 52 weeks without attracting the obligation to make a public announcement of an open offer, he shall not be eligible to voluntarily make a public announcement of an open offer for acquiring shares.

It is to be noted that during the offer period such acquirer shall not be entitled to acquire any shares otherwise than under the open offer.

Question 42.
Scheme of reconstruction pursuant to an order of a competent authority does not trigger open offer under SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares & Takeovers) Regulations, 2011. Comment. [Dec. 2017 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Regulation 10 of the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares & Takeovers) j Regulations, 2011 had provided general exemption to acquisition pursuant to a scheme of arrangement involving the target company as a transferor company or as a transferee company, or reconstruction of the target company, including amalgamation, merger or demerger, pursuant to an order of a Tribunal or a competent authority under any law or regulation, Indian or foreign. Thus, provisions relating to open offers under SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares & Takeovers) Regulations, 2011 are not applicable in such cases.

Question 43.
What is a Voluntary Offer in acquiring shares in another company? State the restriction in terms of the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares & Takeovers) Regulations, 2011? [Dec. 2017 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Voluntary Offer [Regulation 6(1)]: An acquirer, who together with persons acting in concert with him, holds shares or voting rights in a target company entitling them to exercise 2596 or more but less than the maximum permissible non-public shareholding (i.e. 7596), shall be entitled to voluntarily make a public announcement of an open offer for acquiring shares subject to their aggregate shareholding after completion of the open offer not exceeding the maximum permissible non-public shareholding.

However, where an acquirer or PAC has acquired shares of the target company in the preceding 52 weeks without attracting the obligation to make a public announcement of an open offer, he shall not be eligible to voluntarily make a public announcement of an open offer for acquiring shares.

It is to be noted that during the offer period such acquirer shall not be entitled to acquire any shares otherwise than under the open offer.

Securities Laws and Capital Markets Questions and Answers

Value of Supply – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Value of Supply – CA Inter Tax Study Material is designed strictly as per the latest syllabus and exam pattern.

Value of Supply – CA Inter Taxation Study Material

Question 1.
Surya Agencies has agreed to supply goods to customer’s premises. Goods valued, ₹ 80,000 are taxable at 5% IGST as it is an inter-State supply. It also pays freight and transit insurance of ₹ 12,000. GTA is a registered entity and has charged GST (6% CGST and 6% SGST) under forward charge.
(i) Compute the Invoice value of supply including IGST.
(ii) What will be the Invoice value of supply including IGST, if the supply was under ex-factory basis instead of door delivery basis?
Answer:
(i) Computation of Invoice value of supply including IGST in case of door delivery.

Particulars Amount (₹)
Value of Goods 80,000
Add: Charges for freight & Insurance 12,000
Value of supply 92,000
IGST @ 5% (WN1) → 5% of ₹ 92,000 4,600
Invoice value of supply 96,600

Working Notes:

  1. It is a complete supply & principal element in Goods. Therefore the rate of Tax of principal element will be charged on the value.
  2. Surya agencies can claim ITC of GST paid on GTA services (₹ 1,440 = 12% of 12,000)

(ii) Supply at the Ex-factory price instead of door delivery basis

Particulars Amount (₹)
Supply of Goods 80,000
IGST @ 5% of value 4,000
Invoice value of supply 84,000

Note:
The above answer is based on the view that part (ii) of the question i is an independent case and thus, the information provided in the first paragraph of the question regarding payment of freight and transit insurance by Surya Agencies does not apply to it. Moreover, when the contract is ex-factory, it implies that the freight and insurance will be the buyer’s responsibility and seller will have no role, whatsoever, in delivering the j goods to the customer’s premises.

Value of Supply – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 2.
Vayu Ltd. provides you the following particulars relating to goods supplied by It to Agni Ltd.:

Particulars Amount (₹)
List price of the goods (exclusive of Taxes and discounts). 76,000
Special packing at the request of customer to be charged to the customer. 5,000
Duty levied by local authority on the sale or such goods. 4,000
CGST and SGST charged in invoice. 14,400
Subsidy received from a NGO (The price of ₹ 76,000 given above is after considering the subsidy) 5,000

Vayu Ltd. offers 3% dIscount of the list price of the goods which Is recorded in the invoice for the goods. Determine the value of taxable supplies made by Vayu Ltd.
Answer:
Computation of value of taxable supplies by Vayu Ltd.

Particulars Amount (₹)
List price of the goods 76,000
Add: Special packing [Note 1] 5,000
Duty levied by local authority on sale of goods [Note 2] 4,000
CGST and SGST charged [Note 2]
Subsidy received from a NGO [Note 3] 5,000
Less: Discount offered [3% of List price ie. ₹ 76,000 × 3%] [Note-4] 2,280
Value of taxable supplies 87,720

Notes:

  1. Being incidental expenses charged by the supplier to the recipient of supply, packing charges are includible in the value as per section 15(2) (c) of the CGST Act, 2017.
  2. Taxes, duties, etc. levied under any law for the time being in force other than CGST, SGST/UTGST, IGST are includible in the value as per section 15(2)(a) of CGST Act, 2017. Duty levied by local authority on sale of goods has been assumed to be recovered from Agni Ltd. and not included in the list price of the goods.
  3. Subsidy directly linked to the price received from a non-Government body is includible in the value in terms of section 15(2)(e) of CGST Act, 2017.
  4. Since discount is known at the time of supply, it is deductible from I the value in terms of section 15(3)(a) of CGST Act, 2017

Value of Supply – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 3.
Dushyant rents out a commercial building owned by him to Bharat for the month of December, for which he charges a rent of ₹ 19,50,000. Dushyant pays the maintenance charges of ₹ 1,00,000 (for the December month) as charged by the local society. These charges have been reimbursed to him by Bharat. Further, Bharat had given ₹ 2,50,000 to Dushyant as interest free refundable security deposit. Further, Dushyant has paid the municipal taxes of ₹ 2,85,000 which he has not charged from Bharat. You are required to determine the value of supply and the GST liability of Dushyant for the month of December, 2020 assuming CGST and SGST rates to be 9% each.

Note: All the amounts given above are exclusive of GST.
Answer:
Computation of the value of supply and the GST liability of Dushyant for the month of December, 2020

Particulars Amount (₹)
Rent of the commercial building 19,50,000
Maintenance charges paid to the local society, reimbursed by Bharat [Note 1] 1,00,000
Interest free refundable security deposit [Note 2] Nil
Municipal taxes paid by Dushyant [Note 3] Nil
Value of supply 20,50,000
CGST @ 9% 1,84,500
SGST @ 9% 1,84,500

Notes:

  1. Maintenance charges paid to the local society, reimbursed by Bharat, such charges ultimately form part of the rent paid by Bharat to Dushyant and thus, will form part of the value.
  2. Interest free refundable security deposit, Such security deposit does not constitute consideration in terms of section 2(37) of the CGST Act, 2017 and thus, is not includible in the value.
  3. Municipal taxes paid by Dushyant, the same is not includible in the value since such taxes are not charged to the recipient.

Value of Supply – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 4.
Shri Krishna Pvt. Ltd., a registered dealer, furnishes the following information relating to goods sold by it to Shri Balram Pvt. Ltd. in the course of Intra State.

Particulars Amount (₹)
(i) Price of the goods 1,00,000
(ii) Municipal Tax 2,000
(iii) Inspection charges 15,000
(iv) Subsidies received from Shri Ram Trust (As the products is going to be used by blind association) 50,000
(v) Late Fees for delayed payment. (Though Shri Balram Pvt. Ltd. made late payment but these charges are waived by Shri Krishna Pvt. Ltd.) 1,000
(vi) Shri Balram Pvt., Ltd. paid to Radhe Pvt. Ltd. (on behalf of Shri Krishna Pvt. Ltd.) weightment charges. 2,000

According to GST Law, determine the value of taxable, supply made by Shri Krishna Pvt. Ltd. It is given that the items given in Point (ii) to (vi) are not considered, while arriving at the price of the goods given in point no. (i). [May 2018 Old Course, 4 Marks]
Answer:
Computation of value of taxable supply made by Shri KrishnaPvt. Ltd.

Particulars Note Amount (₹)
(i) Price of the goods 1,00,000
(ii) Municipal Tax A 2,000
(iii) Inspection charges B 15,000
(iv) Subsidies received from Shri Ram Trust C 50,000
(v) Late Fees for delayed payment. D Nil
(vi) Weightment charges paid to Radhe Pvt. Ltd. by Shri Balram Pvt. Ltd. on behalf of Shri Krishna Pvt. Ltd. E 2,000
Value of Taxable Supply 1,69,000

Notes:
(A) Includible in the value as per section 15 of the CGST Act, 2017

(B) Being incidental expenses, the same are includible in the value as per section 15 of the CGST Act, 2017

(C) Since subsidy is received from a non-Government body, the same is includible in the value in terms of section 15 of the CGST Act, 2017. It has been assumed that the subsidy is directly linked to the price

(D) Not includible since waived off

(E) Liability of the supplier being discharged by the recipient, is includible in the value in terms of section 15 of the CGST Act, 2017

Value of Supply – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 5.
Worldwide Pvt. Ltd. (a registered Taxable Person) having the gross receipt of ₹ 50 Lakhs in the previous financial year provides the following information relating to their services for the month of July, 2020

Sr. No. Particulars Amount (₹)
(1) Running a boarding school 2,40,000
(2) Fees from prospective employer for campus interview 1,70,000
(3) Education Services for obtaining the qualification recognised by Law of Foreign Country 3,10,000
(4) Renting of Furnished Flats for Temporary Stay to different persons (Rent per day is less than ₹ 1,000 per person) 1,20,000
(5) Conducting Modular Employable Skill Course, Approved by National Council of Vocational Training 1,40,000
(6) Conducting Private Tuitions 3,00,000

Compute the value of Taxable Supply and the amount of GST Payable. The above receipts doesn’t include the GST Amount and the rate of GST is 18%. [Nov. 2018 Old Course, 6 Marks]
Answer:
Computation of value of taxable supply and amount of GST payable

Sr. No. Particulars Note Amount (₹)
(1) Running a boarding school A NIL
(2) Fees from prospective employer for campus interview B 1,70,000
(3) Education Services for obtaining the qualification recognised by Law of Foreign Country C 3,10,000
(4) Renting of Furnished Flats for Temporary Stay to different persons (Rent per day is less than ? 1,000 per person) D NIL
(5) Conducting Modular Employable Skill Course, Approved by National Council of Vocational Training E NIL
(6) Conducting Private Tuitions F 3,00,000
Value of taxable supply 7,80,000
GST payable @ 18% 1,40,000

Notes:
(A) Services provided by an educational institution to its students, faculty and staff are exempt.

(B) It is not exempt.

(C) An institution providing education services for obtaining qualification recognized by a foreign country does not qualify as educational institution. Thus, said services are not exempt.

(D) Exempt assuming that rent/declared tariff is less than ₹ 1,000 per day. It has been assumed that total rent per day is less than ₹ 1,000 per flat. However, if it is assumed that total rent per day exceeds ₹ 1,000 per flat, services of renting of flats become taxable and thus, value of taxable supply and GST payable is ₹ 9,00,000 and ₹ 1,62,000 respectively.

(E) An institution providing Modular Employable Skill Course qualifies as educational institution. Services provided by an educational institution to its students, faculty and staff are exempt.

(F) It is not exempt.

Value of Supply – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 6.
Koli Ltd. supplies machinery to Ghisa Ltd. (Dealer in same State), provides following particulars regarding the same. Determine the value of taxable supply of machinery. [May 2019 Old Course, 5 Marks]

Sr. No. Particulars Amount (₹)
1 Price of Machinery (exclusive of taxes and discounts) 5,50,000
2 One part is directly fitted in machinery at place of Ghisa Ltd. (Amount paid by Ghisa Ltd. directly to supplier, as per contract this amount should be paid by Koli Ltd. and not included in price) 20,000
3 Installation and testing charges for machinery (not included in price.) 25,000
4 Discount 2% on machinery price (Recorded in the invoice)
5 Koli Ltd. provides additional 1% discount at year end, based on additional purchase of other machinery

Answer:
Computation of taxable value of supply of machinery

Sl. No. Particulars Note Amount (₹)
1 Price of Machinery (exclusive of taxes and discounts) 5,50,000
2 Amount paid by Ghisa Ltd. directly to supplier, for a part directly fitted in machinery. A 20,000
3 Installation and testing charges for machinery B 25,000
4 Discount 2% on machinery price (₹ 5,00,000 × 2%) C (11,000)
5 Additional discount % at year end D Nil
Value of taxable supply 5,84,000

Notes: As per section 15 of CGST Act, 2017
(A) Any amount that the supplier is liable to pay in relation to a supply but which has been incurred by the recipient of the supply and not included in the price actually paid or payable for the goods shall be included in the value of supply.

(B) Any amount charged for anything done by the supplier in respect of the supply of goods at the time of, or before delivery of goods shall be included in the value of supply.

(C) Since discount is given at the time of supply of machinery and recorded in the invoice, the value of the supply shall not include such discount.

(D) Though the additional discount is established before or at the time of supply, it shall not be excluded from the value of supply on the assumption that the same is not linked to the relevant invoice and proportionate ITC has not been reversed by Ghisa Ltd.

Value of Supply – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 7.
Alfa Institute of Management (AIM), a private college, is registered under GST in the State of Punjab. AIM provides the following particulars for the month of April 2020 :

Sl. No. Particulars Amount (₹)
i Tuition Fee received from students pursuing management courses recognized by Punjab University, established by an Act of State Legislature 18,00,000
ii Tuition Fee received from students pursuing under-graduate courses recognized by Stan university, London under Dual Degree programmes. 8,50,000
iii Fee received from students of Competitive Exam training academy run by a Department of AIM 5,40,000
iv Mess fees received from students (Mess is run by AIM on its own) 3,20,000
v Amount paid to Local Municipal Corporation for premises taken on rent for conducting coaching classes for Competitive exams. 50,000
vi Legal services availed from Top Care and Co., a Partnership firm of advocates, for the Competitive Exam training academy (Intra-state transaction) 20,000

Note:

  • Rate of CGST, SGST and IGST are 9%, 9% and 18% respectively for both outward and inward supplies.
  • All the amounts given above are exclusive of taxes wherever applicable.
  • All the conditions necessary for availing the ITC have been fulfilled wherever applicable.
  • No opening balance of ITC under any head of tax.

From the information given above, you are required to calculate the Value of taxable Supply and net GST liability (CGST, SGST or IGST as the case may be) to be paid in cash, if any, by AIM for the month of April, 2020. [Nov. 2019 Old Course, 8 Marks]
Answer:
Computation of value of taxable supply by AIM for April, 2020

Sl. No. Particulars Note Amount (₹)
i Tuition Fee received from students pursuing management courses (1) Nil
ii Tuition Fee received from students pursuing under­graduate courses recognized by Foreign university (2) 8,50,000
iii Fee received from students of Competitive Exam training academy (3) 5,40,000
iv Mess fees received from students (4) Nil
Total value of taxable supply 13,90,000

Liability under REVERSE Charge Mechanism

Particulars Note CGST (₹) SGST (₹)
Rent paid to Local Municipal Corporation @ 9% of X 50,000 each (5) 4,500 4,500
Legal services received from Top Care & Co., a partnership firm of advocates @ 9% of X 20,000 each (6) 1,800 1,800
GST Liability under RCM payable in cash (A) (7) 6,300 6,300

Value of Supply – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Liability under FORWARD Charge Mechanism

Particulars Note CGST (₹) SGST (₹)
9% of Value of supply computed above (9% of × ₹ 13,90,000) (8) 1,25,100 1,25,100
Output tax payable against which ITC can be set off 1,25,100 1,25,100
Less .ITC of renting immovable property and legal services (6,300) (6,300)
Output tax payable after set off of ITC [B] 1,18,800 1,18,800

Computation of NET GST LIABILITY to be paid in cash by AIM for April, 2019

Particulars CGST (₹) SGST (₹)
Liability under RCM payable in cash (as per “A” calculated above) 6,300 6,300
Output tax payable after set off of ITC (as per “B” calculated above) 1,18,800 1,18,800
Net GST liability payable in Cash 1,18,800 1,18,800

Notes:-
(1) Services provided by an educational institution to its students are exempt. Further, educational institution means inter alia an institution providing services by way of education as a part of a curriculum for obtaining a qualification recognised by an Indian law. Therefore, tuition fee received by Punjab University, being an educational institution, is exempt, since it provides qualification recognised by Indian law.

(2) Tuition fee received by Stan University is taxable since Stan University is not an educational institution as qualification provided by it is not recognised by Indian law.

(3) Fee received from students of competitive exam training academy is taxable as Department of AIM is not an educational institution since competitive exam training does not lead to grant of a recognized qualification.

(4) Catering services provided by educational institutions to its students are exempt. It has been assumed that the mess fees has been charged from the students pursuing the qualification recognised by law.

(5) GST is payable under reverse charge in case of renting of immovable property services supplied by a local authority to a registered person.

(6) GST is payable under reverse charge in case of legal services supplied by a firm of advocates to a business entity.

(7) The amount available in the electronic credit ledger may be used for making payment towards output tax. However, tax payable under reverse charge is not an output tax. Therefore, tax payable under reverse charge cannot be set off against the input tax credit and thus, will have to be paid in cash.

(8) Since all the services provided are intra-State, CGST and SGST @ 9% is charged.

Value of Supply – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 8.
Candy Blue Ltd., Mumbai, a registered supplier, is manufacturing Chocolates and Biscuits. It provides the following details of taxable inter-state supply made by it for the month of October 2020:

Particulars Amount in (₹)
(0 List price of goods supplied inter-state 12,40,000
Item already adjusted in the price give in (i) above:
(1) Subsidy from Central Government for supply of Biscuits to Government School. 1,20,000
(2) Subsidy from Trade Association for supply of quality Biscuits. 30,000
Items not adjusted in the price given in (i) above:
(3) Tax levied by Municipal Authority 24,000
(4) Packing Charges 12,000
(5) Late fee paid by the recipient of supply for delayed Payment of invoice 5,000

Calculate the Value of taxable supply made by M/s Candy Blue Ltd. for the month of October 2020. [May 2018, 5 Marks]
Answer:
Computation of value of taxable supply made by Candy Blue Ltd.
(For the month of October, 2020)

Particulars Note Amount (₹)
List price of goods supplied inter-state 12,40,000
Subsidy from Central Government for supply of Biscuits to Government School. (1) Nil
Subsidy from Trade Association for supply of quality Biscuits. (2) 30,000
Tax levied by Municipal Authority (3) 24,000
Packing Charges (4) 12,000
Late fee paid by the recipient of supply for delayed Payment of invoice (5) 5,000
Value of taxable supply 13,11,000

Notes:

  1. Since subsidy is received from Government, the same is not includiblein the value in terms of section 15 of the CGST Act, 2017.
  2. Since subsidy is received from a non-Government body, the same is includible in the value in terms of section 15 of the CGST Act, 2017.
  3. Includible in the value as per section 15 of the CGST Act, 2017
  4. Being incidental expenses, the same are includible in the value as per section 15 of the CGST Act, 2017
  5. Includible in the value as per section 15 of the CGST Act, 2017.

Value of Supply – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 9.
Ms. Achintya a registered supplier in Kochi (Kerala State) has provided the following details in respect of her supplies made within Intra-State for the month of March 2020:

Particulars Amount ₹
(0 List price of goods supplied intra-state (The items given below from (ii) to (v) have not been adjusted in the list price.) 3,30,000
(ii) Taxes (other than GST)levied on sale of the goods 12,500
(iii) Packing expenses charged separately in the invoice 10,800
(iv) Discount of 1% on list price of goods was provided (recorded in the invoice of goods)
(V) Subsidy received from State Govt, for encouraging women entrepreneurs 5,000

Compute the value of taxable supply and the gross GST liability of Ms. Achintya for the month of March 2020 assuming rate of CGST to be 9% and SGST to be 9%. All the amounts given above are exclusive of GST. [Nov. 2018 Modified, 5 Marks]
Answer:
Computation of value of taxable supply and gross GST liability of Ms. Achintya (for the month of March, 2020)

Particulars Note Amount ₹
List price of goods 3,30,000
Non-GST Taxes levied on sale of the goods (1) 12,500
Packing expenses (2) 10,800
Subsidy received from State Govt. (3) (5,000)
Discount of 1% on list price ₹ 3,30,000 (4) (3,300)
Value of taxable supply 3,45,000
CGST@ 9% of ₹ 3,45,000 31,050
SGST@ 9% of ₹ 3,45,000 31,050

Notes:
As per section 15 of CGST Act, 2017

  1. My taxes, duties and cesses levied under any law other than CGST, SGST is includible in the value.
  2. Packing expenses being incidental expenses, are includible in the value.
  3. Since subsidy is received from State Government, the same is not includible in the value. It has been assumed that such subsidies are directly linked to the price of the goods. Further, since the same has not been adjusted in the list price, the same is to be excluded from the list price.
  4. Since discount is known at the time of supply, it is deductible from the value.

Value of Supply – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 10.
M/s Apna Bank Limited a Scheduled Commercial Bank has furnished the following details for the month of August, 2020 :

Particulars Amount (₹ in Crores) (Excluding GST)
Extended Housing Loan to its customers 100
Processing fees collected from its customers on sanction of loan 20
Commission collected from its customers on bank guarantee 30
Interest income on credit card issued by the bank 40
Interest received on housing loan extended by the bank 25
Minimum balance charges collected from current account and saving account holder 01

Compute the Value of Taxable supply. Give reasons with suitable assumptions. [May 2019, 6 Marks]
Answer:
Computation of value of taxable supply of M/s. Apna Bank Limited
(for the month of August, 2020)

Particulars Note Amount (₹ in Crores)
Extended Housing Loan to its customers (1) Nil
Processing fees collected from its customers on sanction of loan (2) 20
Commission collected from its customers on bank guarantee (3) 30
Interest income on credit card issued by the bank (4) 40
Interest received on housing loan extended by the bank (5) Nil
Minimum balance charges collected from current account and saving account holder (6) 01
Value of taxable supply 91

Notes:-

  1. Since money does not constitute goods, extending housing loan is not a supply.
  2. Interest does not include processing fee on sanction of the loan. Hence, the same is taxable.
  3. Any commission collected over and above interest on loan, advance or deposit are not exempt.
  4. Services by way of extending loans insofar as the consideration is represented by way of interest are exempt from tax. However, interest involved in credit card services is not exempt.
  5. Services by way of extending loans insofar as the consideration is represented by way of interest are exempt from tax.
  6. My charges collected over and above interest on loan, advance or deposit are not exempt.

Value of Supply – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 11.
Determine the value of supply and the GST liability, to be collected and paid by the owner, with the following particulars:

Particulars Amount ₹
Rent of the commercial building 18,00,000
Maintenance charges collected by local society from the owner and reimbursed by the tenant 2,50,000
Owner intends to charge GST on refundable advance, as GST is applicable on advance 6,00,000
Municipal taxes paid by the owner 3,00,000

Answer:
Computation of Value of Supply

Particulars Amount (₹)
Rent of the commercial building 18,00,000
Maintenance charges collected by the local society from the owner and reimbursed by the tenant [Note-1] 2,50,000
Refundable advance [Note-2] Nil
Municipal taxes paid by the owner [Note-3] Nil
Value of supply 20,50,000
CGST @ 9% 1,84,500
SGST@ 9% 1,84,500

Value of Supply – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Notes:-

  1. Being reimbursed by the tenant, such charges ultimately form part of the rent paid by the tenant to the owner and thus, will form part of the value.
  2. As per Section 2(31) of the CGST Act, 2017:- Being refundable, the advance is in the nature of security deposit which does not constitute consideration and thus, is not includible in the value.
  3. Being an expenditure incurred by the supplier, the same is not includible in the value, assuming that such taxes are not charged to the recipient.
SEBI (Share Based Employee Benefits) Regulations, 2014 – Securities Laws and Capital Markets Important Questions

SEBI (Share Based Employee Benefits) Regulations, 2014 – Securities Laws and Capital Markets Important Questions

SEBI (Share Based Employee Benefits) Regulations, 2014 – Securities Laws and Capital Markets Important Questions

Question 1.
Explain the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013 for the issue of shares to employees under a scheme of employees stock option.
Answer:
Employee Stock Option [Section 2(37)]: Employee stock option means the option given to the whole-time directors, officers, or employees of a company, which gives such directors, officers, or employees the benefit or right to purchase or subscribe at a future date, the securities offered by the company at a pre-determined price.

As per Section 62(2) of the Companies Act, 2013, a company can offer shares to employees under a scheme of employees stock option by passing a special resolution and complying with specified conditions.

A listed company issuing employee stock options has to comply with the provisions of the SEBI (Share Based Employee Benefits) Regulations, 2014.

An unlisted company issuing employee stock options has to comply with the provisions of Rule 12 of the Companies (Share Capital & Debentures) Rules, 2014.

For the purpose of Section 68(2) and Rule 12, ‘employee’ means:
(a) A permanent employee of the company who has been working in India or outside India or
(b) A director of the company, whether a whole-time director or not but excluding an independent director or
(c) An employee of a subsidiary, in India or outside India, or of a holding company of the company but does not include:

  1. An employee who is a promoter or a person belonging to the promoter group or
  2. A director who either himself or through his relative or through anybody corporate, directly or indirectly, holds more than 10% of the outstanding equity shares of the company.

However, in the case of a startup company, the conditions mentioned in sub-clauses (1) and (2) shall not apply up to 5 years from the date of its incorporation or registration.

Question 2.
What disclosures are required to be made in the ‘Directors Report’ for ESOS & ESPS? [June 2009 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
The Board of Directors is required to disclose the following details in relation to ESOS & ESPS in the Director’s Report:

  • Options granted
  • Pricing formula
  • Options vested
  • Options exercised
  • Total number of shares arising as a result of the exercise of the option
  • Options lapsed
  • Variation of terms of options
  • Money realized by exercise of options
  • Total number of options in force
  • Employee-wise details of options
  • Diluted Earnings Per Share (DEPS)
  • Weighted-average exercise prices and weighted-average fair values of options

A description of the method and significant assumptions used during the year to estimate the fair values of options, including the following weighted-average information:

  • Risk-free interest rate
  • Expected life
  • Expected volatility
  • Expected dividends and
  • Price of the underlying share in the market at the time of option grant.

Question 3.
What do you understand by ‘Stock Appreciation Rights Schemes’ (SARs)? Explain with a suitable example.
Answer:
Stock appreciation rights (SARs) are additional compensation given to employees that are based on any increases in the price of company stock over a predetermined period of time. Employees benefit when the stock price rises, and are unaffected when the stock price declines. SARs can improve upon the stock option concept since there is no requirement for employees to pay for the exercise price of the stock. The payouts under a SARs plan are usually in cash, though the plan can be reconfigured to allow for payments in stock.

Example: An employee is granted 1,000 SARs, which cover any appreciation in the stock’s market price over the next 3 years. Suppose the current price is ₹ 225 per share.

If at the end of 3 years, the stock price rises to ₹ 250 per share. Consequently, the employee receives payment of ₹ 25,000 (1,000 SARs × ₹ 25 price increase per share).

Alternatively, the employee can be offered 100 shares for appreciation in the price of the stock. (25,000 4- 250)

Question 4.
How the various share-based employees benefit schemes can be implemented under the SEBI (Share Based Employee Benefits) Regulations, 2014?
Answer:
Implementation of schemes [Regulation 3(1)]: A company may implement share-based employees benefit schemes either:
(a) directly or
(b) by setting up an irrevocable trust(s).

However, if the scheme is to be implemented through a trust the same has to be decided upfront at the time of taking approval of the shareholders for setting up the schemes:

If the scheme involves secondary acquisition or gift or both, then it is mandatory for the company to implement such schemes through a trust.
SEBI (Share Based Employee Benefits) Regulations, 2014 – Securities Laws and Capital Markets Important Questions 1
Question 5.
Whether It is possible to implement several employees benefit schemes under a single trust? Also, state the essentials of such trust.
Answer:
Several schemes through single trust [Regulation 3(2)]: A company may implement several schemes as permitted under these regulations through a single trust.

Such single trust shall keep and maintain proper books of account, records, and documents, for each such scheme so as to explain its transactions and to disclose at any point of time the financial position of each scheme and in particular give a true and fair view of the state of affairs of each scheme.

Requirements for trust deeds [Regulation 3(3)]: SEBI may specify the minimum provisions to be included in the trust deed under which the trust is formed.

Trust deed and any modifications thereto shall be mandatorily filed with the stock exchange in India where the shares of the company are listed.

Question 6.
Which employees are eligible to participate in employees’ share-based benefit schemes? What type of procedural compliance is required when such nominee directors participate in such schemes?
Answer:
Eligibility [Regulation 4]: An employee shall be eligible to participate in the schemes of the company as determined by the compensation committee.

Explanation: Where such employee is a director nominated by an institution as to its representative on the board of directors of the company:
1. The contract or agreement entered into between the institution nominating its employee as the director of a company, and the director so appointed shall, inter alia, specify the following:
(a) whether the grants by the company under its schemes can be accepted by the said employee in his capacity as director of the company;

(b) that grant if made to the director, shall not be renounced in favor of the nominating institution; and

(c) the conditions subject to which fees, commissions, other incentives, etc. can be accepted by the director from the company.

  1. The institution nominating its employee as a director of a company shall file a copy of the contract or agreement with the said company, which shall, in turn, file the copy with all the stock exchanges on which its shares are listed.
  2. The director so appointed shall furnish a copy of the contract or agreement at the first board meeting of the company attended by him after his nomination.

Question 7.
Examining the provisions of the SEBI (Share Based Employee Benefits) Regulations, 2014, answer the following:
(i) In which cases the company can make variations in the schemes?
(ii) What procedure has to be followed to make such variations?
(iii) In which cases the company may re-price the Options, SAR, or Shares?
Answer:
Variation of Terms of the schemes [Regulation 7]:
1. The company shall not vary the terms of the schemes in any manner, which may be detrimental to the interests of the employees. However, the company shall be entitled to vary the terms of the schemes to meet any regulatory requirements.

2. The company may by special resolution in a general meeting vary the terms of the schemes offered pursuant to an earlier resolution of the general body but not yet exercised by the employee provided such variation is not prejudicial to the interests of the employees.

3. The provisions of Regulation 6 shall apply to such variation of terms as they apply to the original grant of the option, SAR, shares, or other benefits, as the case may be.

4. The notice for passing the special resolution for variation of terms of the schemes shall disclose full details of the variation, the rationale, therefore, and the details of the employees who are beneficiaries of such variation.

5. A company may reprice the options, SAR, or shares, as the case may be which are not exercised, whether or not they have been vested if the schemes were rendered unattractive due to falling in the price of the shares in the stock market.

However, the company ensures that such re-pricing shall not be detrimental to the interest of the employees, and approval of the shareholders in general meetings has been obtained for such re-pricing.

Question 8.
Discuss briefly listing of shares issued pursuant to any employees share-based benefit scheme under the SEBI (Share Based Employee Benefits) Regulations, 2014.
Answer:
Listing [Regulation 10]: In case a new issue of shares is made under any scheme, shares so issued shall be listed immediately in any recognized stock exchange where the existing shares are listed. Such listing is subject to the following conditions:

  • The scheme is in compliance with these regulations.
  • A statement as specified by SEBI is filed and the company has obtained in-principle approval from the stock exchanges.
  • As and when an exercise is made, the company notifies the concerned stock exchange as per the statement as specified by SEBI in this regard.

Question 9.
Write a short note on Accounting policies for employees share-based benefits
Answer:
Accounting Policies [Regulation 15]:
1. Any company implementing any of the share-based schemes shall follow the requirements of the ‘Guidance Note on Accounting for Employee share-based Payments’ or Accounting Standards as may be prescribed by the ICAI from time to time, including the disclosure requirements prescribed therein.

2. Where the existing Guidance Note or Accounting Standard does not prescribe accounting treatment or disclosure requirements for any of the schemes covered under these regulations then the company shall comply with the relevant Accounting Standard as may be prescribed by the ICAI from time to time.

Question 10.
Examining the provisions of the SEBI (Share Based Employee Benefits) Regulations, 2014, answer the following:
(i) Is any pricing norms are applicable for ESOS?
(ii) What is the minimum vesting period for ESOS?
(iii) Whether shares issued pursuant to ESOS are subject to a lock-in period?
(iv) Whether an employee has the right to receive the dividend in respect of the option granted to him?
Answer:
Administration and implementation of ESOS [Regulation 16]: The ESOS shall contain the details of the manner in which the scheme will be implemented and operated.

No ESOS shall be offered unless the disclosures, as specified by SEBI are made by the company to the prospective option grantees.

Pricing of exercise price in ESOS Scheme [Regulation 17]: The company granting an option to its employees pursuant to ESOS will have the freedom to | determine the exercise price subject to conforming to the accounting policies.

Vesting Period [Regulation 18(1)]: There shall be a minimum vesting period of 1 year in the case of ESOS. However, in the case where options are granted by a company under an ESOS in lieu of options held by a person under an ESOS in another company that has merged or amalgamated with that company, the period during which the options granted by the transferor company were held by him shall be adjusted against the minimum vesting period for transferee company.

Lock-in period for shares under ESOS Scheme [Regulation 18(2)]: The Company may specify the lock-in period for the shares issued pursuant to the exercise of the option.

Rights of the option holder [Regulation 19]: The employee shall not have the right to receive any dividend or to vote or in any manner enjoy the benefits of a shareholder in respect of option granted to him, till shares are issued upon exercise of the option.

A consequence of failure to exercise option [Regulation 20]: The amount payable by the employee at the time of grant of option:
(a) may be forfeited by the company if the option is not exercised by the employee within the exercise period or
(b) maybe refunded to the employee if the options are not vested due to non-fulfillment of conditions relating to vesting of option as per the ESOS.

Question 11.
As a company secretary of listed company advise the board of directors of your company various steps to be taken for implementation of Employees Stock Option Purchase Scheme.
Answer:
Procedure for issuing ESOP by a Listed Company

  • Hold a Board Meeting to consider and approve ESOP and the formation of the Compensation Committee.
  • The compensation committee shall plan to draft the scheme of ESOP.
  • Hold Board Meeting to adopt the final scheme, appoint the Merchant banker and approve the notice of the General Meeting for shareholders approval.
  • Hold General Meeting for approval of shareholders.
  • Make an application to the stock exchange for obtaining in-principle approval of the stock exchange.
  • Issue of letter of the grant of an option to the eligible employees along with the letter of acceptance of option.
  • On receipt of the letter of acceptance of the option along with upfront payment (if any), the employee issue the option certificates.
  • After the expiry of the vesting period, not less than one year the options shall vest in the employee. At that time, the Company shall issue a letter of vesting along with the letter of exercise of options.
  • Receive letter of exercise from the employees.
  • Hold a Board Meeting at a suitable interval during the exercise period for allotment of shares on options exercised by the option grantee.
  • Dispatch of letter of allotment along with the share certificates or credit the shares so allotted with the Depositories.
  • Make an application to the Stock exchange for the listing of the shares so allotted.

Question 12.
Write a short note on Employees Stock Purchase Scheme (ESPS) [Dec 2010 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
“Employee stock purchase scheme or ESPS” means a scheme under which a company offers shares to employees, as part of a public issue or otherwise, or through a trust where the trust may undertake secondary acquisition for the purposes of the scheme.

In simple words, under the Employees Stock Purchase Scheme (ESPS), employees are given an option to purchase shares on the spot at a discounted price.

Important provisions relating to ESPS are summarized below:

  • The companies are free to determine the price of shares to be issued under an ESPS.
  • Shares issued under an ESPS shall be locked in for a minimum period of one year from the date of allotment.
  • If ESPS is part of a public issue and the shares are issued to employees at the same price as in the public issue, the shares issued to employees pursuant to ESPS shall not be subject to lock-in.

Question 13.
Write a short note on Employees Stock Option [June 2011 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
“Employee stock option scheme or ESOS” means a scheme under which a company grants an employee ‘stock option’ directly or through a trust.

It is the option given to employees of a company, which gives such employees the benefit or right to purchase or subscribe at a future date, the securities offered by the company at a pre-determined price.

Example: X Ltd. grants its employee a right to subscribe 1,000 shares at ₹ 50 when its market price is ₹ 140. An employee can exercise such right after 2 years.

If after two years the price of the share is ₹ 180, the employee will exercise the option and can take 1,000 shares at ₹ 50. Assume that there is no lock-in period and the employee decides to sell the shares immediately. Total benefit to employee is ₹ 1,30,000 [(180 – 50) × 1,000].

If after two years the price of shares is ₹ 40 then the employee will not exercise the option as he will lose his money. Thus, ESOS is ‘option’ but not ‘obligation’.

Question 14.
Write a short note on Employees Stock Purchase Scheme (ESPS) [Dec 2012 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
“Employee stock purchase scheme or ESPS” means a scheme under which a company offers shares to employees, as part of a public issue or otherwise, or through a trust where the trust may undertake secondary acquisition for the purposes of the scheme.

In simple words, under the Employees Stock Purchase Scheme (ESPS), employees are given an option to purchase shares on the spot at a discounted price.

Important provisions relating to ESPS are summarized below:

  • The companies are free to determine the price of shares to be issued under an ESPS.
  • Shares issued under an ESPS shall be locked in for a minimum period of one year from the date of allotment.
  • If ESPS is part of a public issue and the shares are issued to employees at the same price as in the public issue, the shares issued to employees pursuant to ESPS shall not be subject to lock-in.

Question 15.
Distinguish between: Employees Stock Option Scheme & Employees Stock Purchase Scheme [Dec 2012 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Following are the main points of difference between ESOS & ESPS:

Points Employees Stock Option Scheme Employees Stock Purchase Scheme
Meaning “Employee stock option scheme or ESOS” means a scheme under which a company grants an employee ‘stock option’ directly or through a trust. An employee stock purchase scheme or ESPS means a scheme under which a company offers shares to employees, as part of a public issue or otherwise, or through a trust where the trust may undertake secondary acquisition for the purposes of the scheme.
Purchase of shares Under ESOS employees are given an option to purchase shares at a later date ie. after the vesting period. Under ESPS employees are given an option to purchase shares on the spot at a discounted price.
Lock-in The company may specify the lock-in period for the shares issued pursuant to the exercise of the option. Shares issued under an ESPS shall be locked in for a minimum period of 1 year from the date of allotment.
Public issue ESOS has to be approved separately by the company in general meetings by passing a special resolution. It cannot be part of a public issue. Shares under ESPS can be issued as a part of a public issue.
Vesting period The minimum vesting period for ESOS is one year. No vesting periods for ESPS as shares are offered on the spot.
Compensation Committee A company has to constitute a Compensation Committee for administration & superintendence of the ESOS. There is no such requirement for ESPS.

Question 16.
The option to participate in ESOS is not open for all employees of the company. Comment. [Dec 2013 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
As per the SEBI (Share Based Employee Benefits) Regulations, 2014 employees which get covered as per Regulation 2(1)(f) are eligible to participate in the scheme.

Employee [Regulation 2( 1)(f)]: Employee means:

  1. A permanent employee of the company who has been working in India or outside India or
  2. A director of the company, whether a whole-time director or not but excluding an independent director or
  3. An employee as defined in clause (1) or (2) of a subsidiary, in India or outside India, or of a holding company of the company but does not include:
    (a) An employee who is a promoter or a person belonging to the promoter group or
    (b) A director who either himself or through his relative or through any body corporate, directly or indirectly, holds more than 10% of the outstanding equity shares of the company.

Thus, it is correct to say that the option to participate in ESOP/ESPS is not open for all employees of the company.

Question 17.
What is an employee stock option plan? Explain the importance of such plans in modern times. [Dec 2017 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Employee Stock Option Plan (ESOP) or Employee Stock Option Scheme (ESOS) is a plan or scheme under which the company grants employee stock options. Employee stock option is a contract that gives the employees of the enterprise the right, but not the obligation, for a specified period of time to purchase or subscribe to the shares of the company at a fixed or determinable price which is generally lower than the prevailing market price of its shares.

The importance of these plans lies in the following advantages which accrue to both the company and the employees:

  • Stock options provide an opportunity for employees to participate and contribute to the growth of the company.
  • The stock option creates long-term wealth in the hands of the employees.
  • They are important means to attract, retain and motivate the best available talent for the company.
  • It creates a common sense of ownership between the company and its employees.

Question 18.
Explain the Stock Appreciation Rights Scheme (SARS). [Dec 2018 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Stock appreciation rights (SARs) are additional compensation given to employees that are based on any increases in the price of company stock over a predetermined period of time. Employees benefit when the stock price rises, and are unaffected when the stock price declines. SARs can improve upon the stock option concept since there is no requirement for employees to pay for the exercise price of the stock. The payouts under a SARs plan are usually in cash, though the plan can be reconfigured to allow for payments in stock.

Example: An employee is granted 1,000 SARs, which cover any appreciation in the stock’s market price over the next 3 years. Suppose the current price is ₹ 225 per share.

If at the end of 3 years, the stock price rises to ₹ 250 per share. Consequently, the employee receives payment of ₹ 25,000 (1,000 SARs × ₹25 price increase per share).

Alternatively, the employee can be offered 100 shares for appreciation in the price of the stock. (25,000 4- 250)

Question 19.
Answer the following with reference to the Companies (Share Capital and Debentures) Rules, 2014, as to whether these are the eligible employees under Employee Stock Option? (Yes/No with reasons)
(i) Ankit is a permanent employee deputed in the USA for a specific project.
(ii) Smart Ltd. is an independent company.
(iii) Anil is a promoter and employee.
(iv) Aneesh is a director holding 11% of the outstanding equity shares of the company.
(v) If it is a Start-up company, will the situation be the same in (iii) & (iv) above? [Dec 2018(5 Marks)]
Answer:
As per Section 62(2) of the Companies Act, 2013, a company can offer S shares to employees under a scheme of Employees Stock Option by passing a special resolution and complying with specified conditions.

A listed company issuing employee stock options has to comply with the provisions of the SEBI (Share Based Employee Benefits) Regulations, 2014.

An unlisted company issuing employee stock options has to comply with the provisions of Rule 12 of the Companies (Share Capital & Debentures) Rules, 2014.

For the purpose of Section 68(2) and Rule 12, ‘Employee’ means:

  • A permanent employee of the company who has been working in India or outside India.
  • A director of the company, whether a whole-time director or not but excluding an independent director.
  • An employee of a subsidiary, in India or outside India, or of a holding company of the company but does not include:
    1. An employee who is a promoter or a person belonging to the promoter group or
    2. A director who either himself or through his relative or through any body corporate, directly or indirectly, holds more than 10% of the outstanding equity shares of the company.

However, in the case of a startup company, the conditions mentioned in sub-clauses (z) and (ii) shall not apply up to 5 years from the date of its incorporation or registration.

Considering the above provisions and definition of ‘employee’ as given in Rule 12 j of the Companies (Share Capital & Debentures) Rules, 2014, the answer to the given problem is as under:

  1. Ankit being a permanent employee is covered by the definition of ‘employee’ and hence eligible for benefits under the Employees Stock Option Scheme.
  2. Smart Ltd. being a company is not covered by the definition of ‘employee’ and hence not eligible for benefits under the Employees Stock Option Scheme.
  3. Anil being a promoter is not covered by the definition of ’employee’ and hence not eligible for benefits under the Employees Stock Option Scheme,
  4. Aneesh is a director and he holds more than 10% shares; he is not covered by the definition of ‘employee’ and hence not eligible for benefits under the Employees Stock Option Scheme.
  5. If the company is a Start-up Company then Anil and Aneesh will be eligible for benefits under the Employees Stock Option Scheme.

Question 20.
Your Board of directors is contemplating to take-up the agenda to issue ESOS in the next meeting. Being a Company Secretary, advise your Board of directors about a brief procedure for issuing securities under SEBI Employees Stock Option Scheme (ESOS) by a listed Company. [June 2019 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Procedure for issuing ESOP by a Listed Company

  • Hold a Board Meeting to consider and approve ESOP and the formation of the Compensation Committee.
  • The compensation committee shall plan to draft the scheme of ESOP.
  • Hold Board Meeting to adopt the final scheme, appoint the Merchant banker and approve the notice of the General Meeting for shareholders approval.
  • Hold General Meeting for approval of shareholders.
  • Make an application to the stock exchange for obtaining in-principle approval of the stock exchange.
  • Issue of letter of the grant of an option to the eligible employees along with the letter of acceptance of option.
  • On receipt of the letter of acceptance of the option along with upfront payment (if any), the employee issue the option certificates.
  • After the expiry of the vesting period, not less than one year the options shall vest in the employee. At that time, the Company shall issue a letter of vesting along with the letter of exercise of options.
  • Receive letter of exercise from the employees.
  • Hold a Board Meeting at a suitable interval during the exercise period for allotment of shares on options exercised by the option grantee.
  • Dispatch of letter of allotment along with the share certificates or credit the shares so allotted with the Depositories.
  • Make an application to the Stock exchange for the listing of the shares so allotted.

Securities Laws and Capital Markets Questions and Answers