CS Executive

Securities Market Intermediaries – Securities Laws and Capital Markets Important Questions

Securities Market Intermediaries – Securities Laws and Capital Markets Important Questions

Securities Market Intermediaries – Securities Laws and Capital Markets Important Questions

Question 1.
Write a short note on Custodian of Securities [Dec. 2008 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Usually, large investors (particularly’ Foreign international investors do not keep the securities in their own custody and do not look after routine work in respect of securities. This work is handed over to Custodian for safe custody

A Custodian is a person who carries on the business of providing custodial services to the client. The custodian keeps the custody of the securities of the client.

A Custodian has to be registered with the SEBI under the SEBI (Custodian) Regulations, 1996.

Custodial services mean safekeeping of securities or goods or gold or gold-related instruments or title deeds of real estate assets and providing incidental services and include:
1. Maintaining accounts of securities or goods or gold or gold-related instruments or title deeds of real estate assets of a client.

2. Undertaking activities as a Domestic Depository in terms of the Companies (Issue of Indian Depository Receipts) Rules, 2004.

3. Collecting the benefits or rights accruing to the client in respect of securities or gold or gold-related instruments or title deeds of real estate assets.

4. Keeping the client informed of the actions taken or to be taken by the issuer of securities, having a bearing on the benefits or rights accruing to the client.

5. Maintaining and reconciling records of the services.

6. Undertaking activities as a Domestic Depository in terms of the Companies (Issue of IDRs) Rules, 2004.

7. Keeping the client informed of the actions taken or to be taken with respect to the goods held on its behalf.

Every custodian should have adequate facilities, sufficient capital and financial strength to manage the custodial services.

Question 2.
Distinguish between: Merchant Banker and Portfolio Manager [June 2010 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Following are the main points of difference between merchant banker & portfolio manager:

Points Merchant Banker Portfolio Manager
Meaning ‘Merchant Banker’ means any person engaged in the business of issue management. Portfolio manager means any person who pursuant to contract or arrangement with the client, advises or directs or undertakes on behalf of the client the management or administration of a portfolio of securities or the funds of the clients as the case may be.
Regulation Merchant Bankers are regulated by the SEBI (Merchant Bankers) Regulations, 1992. Portfolio Managers are regulated by the SEBI (Portfolio Managers) Regulations, 1993.
Type of intermediary Merchant Bankers mostly acts as primary capital market intermediary. Portfolio Managers are secondary capital market intermediary.
Acts on behalf of Merchant Bankers act on behalf of the issuer company. Portfolio Managers acts on behalf of their client ie. investors.
Nature of work Merchant Bankers most of the work is to comply with the SEBI Act, 1992 and Rules and Regulations made thereunder. Portfolio Managers has to handle the portfolio of his client and try to increase market value by buying, holding and selling securities.
Capital adequacy The capital adequacy Merchant Banker is a net worth of not less than X 5 Crore. The capital adequacy requirement for portfolio managers is a net worth of not less than X 2 Crore.

Question 3.
Write a short note on Portfolio Manager [Dec. 2010 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Meaning of Portfolio: The term portfolio means a basket or combination of securities. Thus, if a person invests in more than security, he is creating a portfolio.

Meaning of Portfolio Manager: Portfolio manager means any person who pursuant to contract or arrangement with the client, advises or directs or undertakes on behalf of the client the management or administration of a portfolio of securities or the funds of the clients as the case may be.

There are two types of portfolio managers:
1. Discretionary portfolio manager: Discretionary portfolio manager is one who exercises any degree of discretion as to the investment or manage¬ment of the portfolio of the securities or the funds of the client.

2. Non-discretionary portfolio manager: Non-discretionary portfolio manager manages the funds with the discretion of the client.

A portfolio manager plays important role in deciding the best investment plan for an individual as per his income, age, and ability to undertake risks.

A portfolio manager makes aware his client regarding various investment tools available in the market and the benefits associated with each plan.

After the investment, the portfolio manager also advises his client whether to hold the security or sell as per the movement in the stock market.

A portfolio manager is responsible for designing customized investment solu-tions for the clients according to their financial needs.

Regulatory Framework: SEBI regulates the activities of ‘portfolio managers’ under the SEBI Act, 1992 and SEBI (Portfolio Managers) Regulations, 1993.

Question 4.
Write a short note on: Debenture Trustees [Dec. 2011 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Since it is not possible for each debenture holder to execute security, ‘debenture trustee’ has to be appointed. Often, banks or financial institution are appointed as debenture trustee.

‘Debenture Trustee’ means a trustee of a trust deed for securing any issue of debentures of a body corporate. Thus, debenture trustees are appointed to protect the interest of debenture holders.

As per Section 71(2) of the Companies Act, 2013, appointment of debenture trustees is mandatory if a company wants to issue prospectus or make an of¬fer to public or its members exceeding 500. Such appointment must be made before issue of debentures.

The company shall appoint debenture trustees, after complying with the fol-lowing conditions:
1. Names of the debenture trustees shall be stated in letter of offer inviting subscription for debentures and also in all the subsequent notices or other communications sent to the debenture holders.

2. Before appointment a written consent from the debenture trustee shall be taken and a statement to that effect shall appear in the letter of offer.

3. The Board may fill any casual vacancy in the office of the trustee but while any such vacancy continues, the remaining trustee may act. When such vacancy is caused by the resignation of the debenture trustee, the vacancy shall only be filled with the written consent of the majority of the debenture holders.

4. Any debenture trustee may be removed from office before the expiry of his term only if it is approved by the holders of not less than 3/4th (75%) in value of the debentures outstanding, at their meeting.

Role and Functions of debenture trustees:

  • Call for periodical reports from the issuer of debentures.
  • Take possession of trust property in accordance with the provisions of the trust deed.
  • Enforce security in the interest of the debenture holders.
  • Ensure that the property charged to the debenture is available and adequate at all times to discharge the interest and principal amount payable in respect of the debentures.
  • Property charged is free from any other encumbrances.
  • Exercise due diligence to ensure compliance by the issuer company with the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013, the listing agreement or the trust deed.
  • To take appropriate measures for protecting the interest of the debenture holders as soon as any breach of the trust deed or law comes to his notice.
  • To ascertain that the debentures have been converted or redeemed as per applicable law.
  • Inform the Board immediately of any breach of trust deed or provision of any law.
  • Appoint a nominee director on the board of the body corporate when required.

Regulatory Framework: SEBI regulates the activities of ‘debenture trustees’ under the SEBI Act, 1992 and SEBI (Debenture Trustees) Regulations, 1993.

Eligibility for being debenture trustee [Regulation 7]: only following persons are entitled to act as a debenture trustee:

  • A scheduled bank carrying on commercial activity or
  • A public financial institution or
  • An insurance company or
  • Body corporate.

Capital Adequacy Requirement [Regulation 7A]: The capital adequacy requirement for debenture trustee is a net worth of not less than ₹ 2 Crore.

Question 5.
Explain briefly the role of the following in capital market.
(i) Merchant Bankers
Answer:
‘Merchant Banker’ means any person engaged in the business of issue management. Merchant Bankers are generally engaged in following activities:

  • Making arrangements regarding selling buying or subscribing to securities.
  • Acting as manager/consultant/advisor.
  • Rendering corporate advisory services.

Merchant bankers are the key intermediary between the company and issue of capital.

(ii) Bankers to an issue [Dec. 2012 (2 X 2 = 4 Marks)]
Answer:
The Bankers to an issue are engaged in activities such as acceptance of applications along with application money from investors in respect of issues of capital and refund of application money.

Only ‘Scheduled Bank’ ie. banks approved by RBI and listed in Second Schedule can act as ‘Banker to an Issue’.

Bankers to the issue carry out all the activities of ensuring that the funds are collected and transferred to the Escrow Accounts.

Question 6.
What do you understand by ‘registrars to an issue? State the various activities carried out by registrars to an issue. [Dec. 2013 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
The Registrar to an Issue and Share Transfer Agents undertake the fol-lowing activities with respect to issue:
Pre-Issue Work

  • Finalization of bankers to issue, list of branches, controlling and collecting branches.
  • Design of application form, bank schedule, pre-printed stationery.
  • Preparing and issuing detailed instructions on procedure to be followed by collecting and controlling branches.
  • Arranging, despatch of application schedule for listing of applications to collecting and controlling branches.
  • Placing of orders for and procuring pre-printed stationery.

During the issue:

  • Collection of daily figure from bankers to the issue.
  • Expediting despatch of applications, final certificate to the controlling branches.
  • Collection of application along with final certificate and schedule pages from controlling branches of bankers to the issue.

Post-Issue Work:

  • Informing Stock Exchange/SEBI and providing necessary certificates to Lead Manager on closure of issue.
  • Preparing ‘Obligation of Underwriters statement’ in the event of under subscription and seeking extension from stock exchange for processing.
  • Scrutiny of application received from bankers to issue.
  • Numbering of application and banks schedule and batching them for control purposes.
  • Transcribing information from documents to magnetic media for com¬puter processing.
  • Reconciliation of number of applications, securities applied and money received with final certificate received from bank.
  • Identify and reject applications having technical faults.
  • Prepare statement for deciding basis of allotment by the company in consultation with the Stock Exchange.
  • Finalizing basis of allotment after approval of the stock exchange.
  • Seeking extension of time from SEBI.
  • Allotment of shares on the formula derived by stock exchange (In the case of allotment to employee it shall be ensured that only full time employee actually on rolls are given the allotment on the basis of list of employees furnished under the signature of MD/Company Secretary).
  • Obtaining certificate from auditors that the allotment has been made as per the basis of allotment.
  • Preparation of reverse list, list of allottees and non-allottees as per the basis of allotment approved by stock exchange.
  • Preparation of allotment register cum return statement register of mem-bers, index register.
  • Preparation of list of brokers to whom brokerage is to be paid.

Question 7.
Investment Advisor provides guidance about financial obligations and investment. Comment on this statement and state the role of investment advisors in capital market. [June 2015 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
An investment adviser is an individual or a firm that is in the business of giving advice about securities to clients. For instance, individuals or firms that receive remuneration for giving advice on investing in stocks, bonds, mutual funds, or exchange traded funds are investment advisers. Some investment advisers manage portfolios of securities.

In terms of the SEBI (Investment Advisers) Regulations, 2013, a person cannot act as an investment adviser unless he has obtained a certificate of registration from the SEBI or he is specifically exempt.

The Applicant for grant of registration as an Investment Adviser should make an application to SEBI in Form A as provided in the Regulations along with all the necessary supporting documents.

Generally on receipt of application, the applicant will receive a reply from SEBI within one month. However, the time taken for registration depends on how the applicant fulfils all the registration requirements and provides the complete information in all respects.

Question 8.
“Merchant bankers are the key intermediary between the company and issue of capital.” Comment. [June 2016 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
‘Merchant Banker’ means any person engaged in the business of issue management. Merchant Bankers are generally engaged in following activities:

  • Making arrangements regarding selling buying or subscribing to securities or
  • Acting as manager/consultant/advisor or
  • Rendering corporate advisory services Merchant bankers are the key intermediary between the company and issue of capital.

Making public issue of shares is a highly specialized, job which involves tremen¬dous and time bound work. Organizations undertaking this task are called as Merchant Bankers. Most of the leading banks and financial institutions have formed Merchant Banking Division’ specializing in this work. They have to register with SEBI and hence called Registered Merchant Bankers.

SEBI has little control over the companies making public issue as they are not registered with SEBI and SEBI does not have any legal powers to control them. Hence, SEBI casts all responsibility on Merchant Bankers in respect of public issue. Merchant Bankers are also known as Lead Managers.

Who can be a merchant banker: Only body corporate is allowed to function as merchant bankers.

Activities of Merchant Bankers: SEBI has advised that merchant bankers shall undertake only those activities which relate to securities market. These activities are;

  • Managing of public issue of securities
  • Underwriting connected with the aforesaid public issue management business
  • Managing/Advising on international offerings of debt/equity ie. GDR, ADR, bonds and other instruments
  • Private placement of securities
  • Primary or satellite dealership of government securities
  • Corporate advisory services related to securities market including take-overs, acquisition and disinvestment
  • Stockbroking
  • Advisory services for projects
  • Syndication of rupee term loans
  • International financial advisory services.

Regulatory Framework: SEBI regulates the activities of ‘merchant bankers’ under the SEBI Act, 1992 and SEBI (Merchant Bankers) Regulations, 1992.

Question 9.
‘Custodian of securities’ means any person who carries on or proposes to carry on the business of providing custodial services. [June 2016 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Usually, large investors (particularly’ Foreign international investors do not keep the securities in their own custody and do not look after routine work in respect of securities. This work is handed over to Custodian for safe custody

A Custodian is a person who carries on the business of providing custodial services to the client. The custodian keeps the custody of the securities of the client.

A Custodian has to be registered with the SEBI under the SEBI (Custodian) Regulations, 1996.

Custodial services means safekeeping of securities or goods or gold or gold related instruments or title deeds of real estate assets and providing incidental services and includes –
1. Maintaining accounts of securities or goods or gold or gold related in-struments or title deeds of real estate assets of a client.

2. Undertaking activities as a Domestic Depository in terms of the Companies (Issue of Indian Depository Receipts) Rules, 2004.

3. Collecting the benefits or rights accruing to the client in respect of securi¬ties or gold or gold related instruments or title deeds of real estate assets.

4. Keeping the client informed of the actions taken or to be taken by the issuer of securities, having a bearing on the benefits or rights accruing to the client.

5. Maintaining and reconciling records of the services.

6. Undertaking activities as a Domestic Depository in terms of the Companies (Issue of IDRs) Rules, 2004.

7. Keeping the client informed of the actions taken or to be taken with respect to the goods held on its behalf.

Every custodian should have adequate facilities, sufficient capital, and financial strength to manage the custodial services.

Question 10.
Write a short note on Syndicate Member [Dec. 2017 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Meaning of syndicate: Syndicate is a professional financial services group formed temporarily for the purpose of handling a large transaction that would be hard for the entities involved to handle individually. Syndication allows companies to pool their resources and share risks. There are several different types of syndicates, including underwriting syndicates, banking syndicates and insurance syndicates.

Example of ‘Underwriter Syndicate’: Underwriter syndicate is a temporary group of investment banks and broker-dealers who come together to sell new offerings of equity or debt securities to investors. The underwriter syndicate is formed and led by the lead underwriter for a security issue. An underwriter syndicate is usually formed when an issue is too large for a single firm to handle.

Syndicate in IPO: The Book Runner may appoint those intermediaries who are registered with the SEBI and who are permitted to carry on certain activities in relation to IPO as syndicate members. The syndicate members are mainly appointed to collect and entire the bid forms in a book built issue.

Role of ‘Syndicate Members’ in IPO Processing: Syndicate members are the broking houses responsible for distributing IPO applications, receiving filled applications from investors and timely update the data on the stock exchange j IPO shares bidding platform (NSE/BSE).

Question 11.
Write a short note on Portfolio Managers and Custodian [June 2018 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Meaning of Portfolio Manager: Portfolio manager means any person who pursuant to contract or arrangement with the client, advises or directs or undertakes on behalf of the client the management or administration of a portfolio of securities or the funds of the clients as the case may be.

A portfolio manager plays important role in deciding the best investment plan for an individual as per his income, age, and ability to undertake risks.

A portfolio manager makes aware his client regarding various investment tools available in the market and benefits associated with each plan.

After the investment, portfolio manager also advise his client whether to hold the security or sell as per the movement in stock market.

A portfolio manager is responsible for designing customized investment solutions for clients according to their financial needs.

Regulatory Framework: SEBI regulates the activities of ‘portfolio managers’ under the SEBI Act, 1992 and SEBI (Portfolio Managers) Regulations, 1993.

Custodian of Securities:
Usually, large investors (particularly Foreign Institutional Investors) do not keep the securities in their own custody and do not look after routine work in respect of securities. This work is handed over to Custodian for safe custody.

A Custodian is a person who carries on the business of providing custodial services to the client. The custodian keeps the custody of the securities of the client.

A Custodian has to be registered with the SEBI under the SEBI (Custodian) Regulations, 1996.

Every custodian should have adequate facilities, sufficient capital, and financial strength to manage the custodial services.

Question 12.
Write a short note on: Registrar & Share Transfer Agent [June 2018 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Registrar to an Issue: ‘Registrar to an Issue’ means the person appointed by a body corporate or any person or group of persons to carry on the following activities on its or his or their behalf i.e

  • Collecting application for the investor in respect of an issue.
  • Keeping a proper record of applications and monies received from investors or paid to the seller of the securities.
  • Assisting body corporate or person or group of persons in determining the basis of allotment of the securities in consultation with the stock exchange.
  • Finalizing the list of persons entitled to allotment of securities.
  • Processing of allotment letters, refund orders or certificates, and other related documents in respect of the issue.

Thus, Registrar to an Issue do all processing of share applications form receipt g till the issue of shares/sending refund orders.

Regulatory Framework: SEBI regulates the activities of ‘Registrar to an Issue under the SEBI Act, 1992 and SEBI (Registrar to an Issue & Share Transfer Agents) Regulations, 1993.

Share Transfer Agent: Share Transfer Agent means:
1. Any person who on behalf of anybody corporate, maintains the records of holders of securities issued by such body corporate and deals with all matters connected with the transfer and redemption of its securities;

2. The department or division of a body corporate performing the activities as share transfer agents if at any time the total number of holders of its securities issued exceeds one lakh.

Regulatory Framework: SEBI regulates the activities of ‘Share Transfer Agents’ under the SEBI Act, 1992 and SEBI (Registrar to an Issue and Share Transfer Agents) Regulations, 1993.

Question 13.
Write short note on Bankers to an issue [Dec. 2018 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
The Bankers to an issue are engaged in activities such as acceptance of applications along with application money from investors in respect of issues of capital and refund of application money.

Only ‘Scheduled Bank’ Le. banks approved by RBI and listed in Second Schedule can act as ‘Banker to an Issue’.

Bankers to the issue carry out all the activities of ensuring that the funds are collected and transferred to the Escrow Accounts.

To carry on the activities as a banker to an issue, a person must obtain a certificate of registration from the SEBI. The SEBI grants registration on the basis of all the activities relating to banker to an issue in particular with reference to the following requirements:
1. The applicant has the necessary infrastructure, communication and data processing facilities and manpower to effectively discharge his activities.

2. The applicant/any of the directors of the applicant is not involved in any litigation connected with the securities market/has not been convicted of any economic offence.

3. The applicant is a scheduled bank and the grant of a certificate is in the interest of the investors.

A banker to an issue can apply for renewal of his registration 3 months before the expiry of the certificate.
Regulatory Framework: SEBI regulates the activities of ‘Bankers to an Issue’ under the SEBI Act, 1992 and the SEBI (Bankers to an Issue) Regulations, 1994.

Question 14.
Credit Rating Agencies may not be taking cognizance of information for delays in servicing debt obligations while reviewing its ratings. What are the material events requiring a review by the Credit Rating Agencies as per SEBI’s circular? [Dec. 2018 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
As per Master Circular for Credit Rating Agencies (CRA) [SEBI/HO/ MIRSD/DOP2/CIR/P/2018/76] CRAs have to be proactive in the early detection of defaults/delays in making payments. In this regard, CRAs are required to track the servicing of debt obligations for each instrument rated by them, ISIN-wise, and look for potential deterioration in financials which might lead to defaults/delays, particularly before/around the due date(s) for servicing of debt obligations, on the basis of monitoring of indicators including, but not restricted to, the following:

  • Earnings Before Interest, Taxes, Depreciation, and Amortization (EBITDA) not being sufficient to meet even the interest payments for last 3 years.
  • Deterioration in liquidity conditions of the Issuer.
  • Abnormal increase in borrowing cost of the Issuer.
  • Any other information indicating deterioration in credit quality/debt servicing capability of the Issuer.
  • The CRA shall also monitor the Exchange website for disclosures made by the Issuer in this regard.

Material Events requiring a review:

CRAs shall carry out a review of the ratings upon the occurrence of or announce¬ment/news of material events including, but not restricted to, the following:

  • Quarterly/Half-yearly/Annual results
  • Merger/ Demerger/ Amalgamation/Acquisition
  • Corporate debt restructuring, reference to BIFR, and winding-up petition filed by any party/creditors.
  • Significant decline in share prices/bond prices of the issuer or group companies which is not linked to overall market movement.
  • Significant increase in debt level or cost of debt of the issuer company.
  • Losses, sharp revenue de-growth, etc. based on publicly disclosed financial statements, which are not in line with CRA’s earlier estimates.
  • Granting, withdrawal, surrender, cancellation, or suspension of key licenses or regulatory approvals.
  • Disruption/commencement/postponement of operations of any unit or division of the listed entity.
  • Any attachment or prohibitory orders against the Issuer.
  • Any rating action taken by an International Rating Agency with respect to rating assigned to the Issuer/Instruments issued by the Issuer.

Question 15.
Explain the provisions for compulsory internal audit of Registrars to an Issue/Share Transfer Agents (RTAs). [Dec. 2018 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Efficient internal control systems and processes are pre-requisite for good governance. Governance being a dynamic concept requires constant evaluation and monitoring of the systems and processes. In the context of Capital Markets, capital markets intermediaries are an important constituent of the overall governance framework.

Being an important link between regulators, investors, and issuers, they are expected to ensure that their internal controls are so efficient that ensure effective investor service at all times and provide regulators comfort as to the compliance of regulatory prescription. It is in this direction that SEBI has authorized Practicing Company Secretaries to undertake an internal audit of various capital market intermediaries including Registrars to an Issue and Share Transfer Agent.

SEBI Circular dated 20.4.2018 provides for the compulsory audit which are discussed below:
1. All RTAs are required to carry out internal audit on annual basis by independent qualified Chartered Accountants or Company Secretaries or Cost and Management Accountants and Certified Information Systems Auditor (CISA) who don’t have any conflict of interest.

2. Eligibility of auditors for conducting the Internal Audit of the RTA
(a) The audit firm shall have a minimum experience of 3 years in the financial sector.
(b) An auditor shall be appointed for a maximum term of 5 years, with a cooling-off period of 2 years.

3. The audit shall cover all aspects of RTA operations including investor grievance redressal mechanism and compliance with the requirements stipulated in the SEBI Act, Rules and Regulations made thereunder, and guidelines/circulars issued by SEBI from time to time. The scope of the audit shall cover all issues concerning the functioning of RTA.

4. The report shall state the methodology adopted, deficiencies observed, and consideration of response of the management on the deficiencies.

5. The report shall include a summary of operations and of the audit, covering the size of operations, number of transactions audited and the number of instances where violations/deviations were observed while making observations on the compliance of any regulatory requirement.

6. The report shall comment on the adequacy of systems adopted by the RTAs for compliance with the requirements of regulations and guidelines issued by SEBI and investor grievance redressal.

7. The RTA shall submit a copy of report of the internal audit to Issuer Company within three months from the end of the financial year. Copy of the same shall also be preserved by the RTA.

8. The Governing Council (Le. Board of Directors, Board of Partners, prop-rietor etc. as applicable) of the RTA shall consider the report of the internal auditor and take steps to rectify the deficiencies, if any. The RTA shall send the Action Taken Report to Issuer Company within next one month and a copy thereof shall be maintained by the RTA.

9. The audit observations along with the corrective steps taken by the RTA shall be placed before the Board of Directors of the Issuer Company.

10. The Issuer Companies shall satisfy themselves regarding the adequacy of the corrective measures taken by the concerned RTA. If not satisfied with the corrective measures, Issuer Company may ask RTA to take more stringent corrective measures.

Question 16.
Write short note on Custodian of Securities [June 2019 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Usually, large investors (particularly’ Foreign international investors do not keep the securities in their own custody and do not look after routine work in respect of securities. This work is handed over to Custodian for safe custody

A Custodian is a person who carries on the business of providing custodial services to the client. The custodian keeps the custody of the securities of the client.

A Custodian has to be registered with the SEBI under the SEBI (Custodian) Regulations, 1996.

Custodial services mean safekeeping of securities or goods or gold or gold-related instruments or title deeds of real estate assets and providing incidental services and include:
1. Maintaining accounts of securities or goods or gold or gold-related instruments or title deeds of real estate assets of a client.

2. Undertaking activities as a Domestic Depository in terms of the Companies (Issue of Indian Depository Receipts) Rules, 2004.

3. Collecting the benefits or rights accruing to the client in respect of securi¬ties or gold or gold related instruments or title deeds of real estate assets.

4. Keeping the client informed of the actions taken or to be taken by the issuer of securities, having a bearing on the benefits or rights accruing to the client.

5. Maintaining and reconciling records of the services.

6. Undertaking activities as a Domestic Depository in terms of the Companies (Issue of IDRs) Rules, 2004.

7. Keeping the client informed of the actions taken or to be taken with respect to the goods held on its behalf.

Every custodian should have adequate facilities, sufficient capital, and financial strength to manage the custodial services.

Question 17.
“SEBI has amended the provisions related to registration of Sub-Broker to act as a market intermediary”. Elucidate the statement and discuss the migration path for existing registered Sub-Brokers. [June 2019 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
SEBI in its meeting held on June 21, 2018, decided to discontinue Sub-Broker as an intermediary to be registered with SEBI.

In view of the same, the need for the category of Sub-Broker as a market intermediary may no longer be required. Therefore, it is decided that:
(a) No fresh registration shall be granted to any person as Sub-Broker. Any pending applications for registration as Sub-Brokers under process shall be returned to the concerned Stock Exchanges for onward transmission to the applicant.

(b) The registered Sub-Brokers shall have time till March 31, 2019 in order to migrate to act as an AP and/or Trading Member (TM). The Sub-Brokers, who do not choose to migrate into AP and/or TM, shall deem to have  surrendered their registration with SEBI as Sub-Broker, w.e.f. March 31, 2019.

(c) Consequent upon migration/deemed surrender, the certificate of regis¬tration granted to the Sub-Brokers by SEBI shall stand withdrawn.

(d) The migration path for existing registered Sub-Brokers, shall be as under:
1. In case of a registered Sub-Broker who is already approved to act as AP in Derivatives Segment of the Exchanges, he shall be registered with the Exchange to continue activities of Sub-Broker as an AP in Cash Segment.

2. In case of a registered Sub-Broker who is not approved by Stock Exchanges to act as AP in Derivatives Segment, Exchanges shall register them as AP in Cash Segment, to continue their operations without disruption.

3. The existing Sub-Broker has an option to become a Trading Mem¬ber, if the Sub-Broker meets the eligibility criteria prescribed under | Stock Exchange Bye-laws and SEBI Regulations and by complying j with these Regulations.

(e) All the existing sub-brokers shall be required to pay renewal fees to SEBI up to the financial year 2018-2019, and renewal fees paid by Sub-Broker for the financial years beyond 2018-2019 shall be refunded on receipt of a recommendation from the respective Stock Exchange.

(f) The Stock Exchanges shall put in place an appropriate process for surrender or migration of Sub-Broker to AP/TM.

Securities Laws and Capital Markets Questions and Answers

Debt Instruments and Deposits – Company Law Important Questions

Debt Instruments and Deposits – Company Law Important Questions

Debt Instruments and Deposits – Company Law Important Questions

Question 1.
What are the rights, powers, and disabilities of debenture trustees?
Or
With reference to the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013 and the rules framed thereunder, state the disqualifications for a Debenture Trustee. Ex¬plain whether the following persons can be appointed as Debenture Trustee?
(i) A relative of the whole-time director of the company.
(ii) A shareholder who has no beneficial interest. (June 2019) (5 marks)
Answer:
1. Section 71(6) read with Rule 18(3) of aforesaid rules provide that a debenture trustee shall take steps to protect the interests of the debenture holders and redress their grievances.

2. It shall be the duty of every debenture trustee to-
(a) satisfy himself that the letter of offer does not contain any matter which is inconsistent with the terms of the issue of debentures or with the trust deed;
(b) satisfy himself that the covenants in the trust deed are not prejudicial to the interest of the debenture holders;
(c) call for periodical status or performance reports from the company;
(d) communicate promptly to the debenture holders defaults, if any, with regard to payment of interest or redemption of debentures and action taken by the trustee, therefore;
(d) appoint a nominee director on the Board of the company in the event of:

  • two consecutive defaults in payment of interest to the debenture holders; or
  • default in the creation of security for debentures; or
  • default in the redemption of debentures.

(e) inform the debenture holders immediately of any breach of the terms of issue of debentures or covenants of the trust deed;

3. The disqualifications for debenture trustees are as under as per Rule 18(2):
(a) Beneficially holds shares in the company;
(b) Is a promoter, director, or key managerial personnel or any other officer or an employee of the company or its holding, subsidiary, or associate company;
(c) Is beneficially entitled to money which is to be paid by the com¬pany otherwise than as remuneration payable to the debenture trustee;
(d) Is indebted to the company, or its subsidiary or its holding or associate company or a subsidiary of such holding company;
(e) Has furnished any guarantee in respect of the principal debts secured by the debentures or interest thereon;
(f) Has any pecuniary relationship with the company amounting to 2% or more of its gross turnover or total income or fifty lakh rupees or such higher amount as may be prescribed, whichever is lower, during the two immediately preceding financial years or during the current financial year;
(g) Is relative of any promoter or any person who is in the employment of the company as a director or key managerial personnel.

Question 2.
Ajay Limited borrowed INR 100 crore from Prem, without the authority confirmed on it by the articles of association. Later, the money borrowed by Ajay Limited was used by its Board of directors to pay off the lawful debts of the company. In this scenario, Prem, the lender seeks your advice for the recovery of his money. Advise him. (June 2012) (5 Marks)
Answer:
1. In T.R. Pratt. (BOM) Ltd. v. E.D. Sassoon and Co. Ltd., (1936) 6 Com Cases 90, there was no limit on the borrowing for business in the memorandum of the company. But the directors could not borrow beyond the limit of the issued share capital of the company without the sanction of the general meeting.

The directors borrowed money from the plaintiff beyond their powers. It was held that the money having been borrowed and used for the benefit of the principal either in paying its debts, or for its debts, or for its legitimate business, the company cannot repudiate its liability on the ground that the agent had no authority from the company to borrow. When these facts are established a claim on the footing of money had been received would be maintainable

2. It was also held that under the general principle of law when an agent borrows money for a principal without the authority of the principal, but if the principal takes benefit of the money so borrowed or when the money so borrowed have gone into the coffers of the principal, the law implies a promise to repay.

3. In that connection, it was observed that there appears to be nothing in the law that makes this principle inapplicable to the case of a joint-stock company and even in cases where the directors or the managing agent had borrowed money without there being authorization for the company, if it has been used for the benefit of the company, the company cannot repudiate its liability to pay.

4. Thus, Prem can recover the money borrowed by the director of Ajay Ltd. without any authority as money has been used to pay off the lawful debts of the Company.

Question 3.
Alok, the Managing Director of Yellow Limited, borrowed a large sum of money and misappropriated the same. Later, when the lender demanded his money, the company refused to repay, contending that the money borrowed by Managing Director was misappropriated by him and the company is not liable for repayment. Decide, giving reasons, whether the lender would succeed in recovering the money from the company. (June 2015) (4 marks)
Answer:
1. In V.K.R.S.T Firm v. Oriental Investment Trust Ltd., AIR 1944 Mad 532 under the authority of the company, its managing director bor-rowed large sums of money and misappropriated it. The company was held liable stating that where the borrowing is within the powers of the company, the lender will not be prejudiced simply because its officer has applied the loan to unauthorized activities provided the lender had no knowledge of the intended misuse.

Based on the above-mentioned decided case law, in the present case Alok, the Managing Director of Yellow Limited, borrowed a large sum of money and misappropriated the same. Later, when the lender demanded his money, the company refused to repay, contending that the money borrowed by Managing Director was misappropriated by him and the company is not liable for repayment is not tenable/legal.

Thus, the lender would succeed in recovering the money from the Company.

Question 4.
Distinguish Between: Redemption of shares and redemption of debentures. (June 2018) (4 marks)
Answer:
Following are the main points of difference between the redemption of shares and redemption of debentures:

Points Redemption of Shares Redemption of debentures
Nature Redemption of preference shares is payment to the owner of the company. Redemption of debentures amounts to the repayment of the loan as debenture holders are creditors of the company.
Conditions of Redemption Preference shares can be issued for a maximum period of 20 years after which such preference shares must be redeemed as provided in Section 55. Companies can issue redeemable as well as irredeemable debentures.
Redeemable debentures are required to be redeemed within the period specified in the offer document while irredeemable debentures are redeemed only at the time of liquidation of the company.
Proceeds at the time of redemption As per Section 55, preference shares shall be redeemed out of profits available for dividend or out of the proceeds of a fresh issue of shares. Debenture can be redeemed only out of the profit of the company and not out of proceeds of a fresh issue of shares.
Nature of Reserves to which Transfer is made Where preference shares are proposed to be redeemed out of the profits a sum equal to the nominal amount of the share should be transferred to the Capital Redemption Reserve Account. When debentures are redeemed then an amount equal to the nominal value of debentures is transferred to General Reserve as per sound accounting policy.
If the sinking fund is created then the balance of the sinking fund is transferred to the general reserve.

Question 5.
Provision of section 73 is not applicable to guarantee companies and Section 8 companies (that is association not for profit). (June 2009) (5 marks)
Answer:
Proviso to Section 73(1) read with Rule 1(3) of the Companies (Acceptance of Deposits) Rules, 2014:
The provisions under Sections 73 to 76 of the Companies Act, 2013 and the Companies (Acceptance of Deposits) Rules, 2014 shall apply to all companies except:

  • a banking company and
  • a non-banking financial company as defined in the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 and
  • a housing finance company registered with the National Housing Bank established under the National Housing Bank Act, 2013; and
  • such other company as the Central Government may, after consultation with the Reserve Bank of India, specify on this behalf.

Question 6.
The Board of directors of Green Field Limited decides to accept deposits, from the public at a compound interest rate of 12% per annum. Examining the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013, advise whether the Board can go ahead with its proposal. (June 2016) (4 marks)
Answer:
Ceiling on the rate of interest on deposits [Rule 3(6)]:
No company or any eligible company shall invite or accept or renew any deposits carrying a rate of interest or pay brokerage at a rate exceeding the maximum rate of interest or pay brokerage at a rate exceeding the maximum rate of interest or brokerage prescribed by the RBI for acceptance of deposits by non-banking financial companies

Thus, Green Field Ltd. can accept deposits at the compound interest rate provided that the rate of interest should not exceed the rate prescribed by the RBI for acceptance of deposits by non-banking financial companies.

Question 7.
Issue of unsecured debentures by a company to another company, where the debentures have an option for compulsory conversion into equity share within seven years, cannot be termed as deposits. (December 2016) (5 marks)
Answer:
1. According to the Section 2(31) of the Act read with Rule 2(c)(ix) of Companies (Acceptance of Deposits) Rides, 2014, ‘deposit’ includes any receipt of money by way of deposit or loan or in any other form by a company, but does not include any amount raised by the issue of bonds or debentures secured by a first charge or a charge ranking pari passu with the first charge on any assets referred to in Schedule III of the Act excluding intangible assets of the company or bonds or debentures compulsorily convertible into shares of the company within 10 years.

2. The exclusion essentially signifies that a secured debenture, regardless of its tenure or convertibility, shall be exempt from the purview of de-posits.

3. However, the non-convertible unsecured debentures would be considered as deposits.

4. According to Rule 2(c)(vi) of the Companies (Acceptance of Deposits) Rules, 2014, excludes from deposits any amount received by a company from any other company.

Thus, the issue of unsecured debentures by a company to another company, where the debentures have an option for compulsory conversion into equity share within seven years, cannot be termed as deposits under Companies (Acceptance of Deposits) Rules, 2014

Question 8.
Define the term ‘deposits’ and list out the receipts of money which are not considered deposits. (December 2016) (8 marks)
Answer:
According to the Section 2(31) of the Act read with Rule 2(1) (c) of Companies (Acceptance of Deposits) Rules, 2014, ‘deposit’ includes any receipt of money by way of deposit or loan or in any other form by a company, but does not include:
1. any amount received from the Central Government or a State Government, or any amount received from any other source whose repayment is guaranteed by the Central Government or a State Government or any amount received from a local authority, or any amount received from a statutory authority;

2. any amount received from foreign Governments, foreign/international banks, multilateral financial institutions, foreign government-owned de¬velopment financial institutions, foreign export credit agencies, foreign collaborators, foreign bodies corporate and foreign citizens, foreign authorities, or persons resident outside India subject to the provisions of Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999;

3. any amount received as a loan or facility from any banking company or from the State Bank of India or any of its subsidiary banks or from a banking institution notified by the Central Government;

4. any amount received as a loan or financial assistance from Public Financial Institutions, regional financial institutions, Insurance Companies, or Scheduled Banks;

5. any amount received against the issue of commercial paper or any other instrument issued in accordance with the guidelines or notification issued by the Reserve Bank of India;

6. any amount received by a company from any other company;

7. any amount received and held pursuant to an offer made in accordance with the provisions of the Act towards a subscription to any securities, including share application money or advance towards allotment of securities pending allotment, so long as such amount is appropriated only against the amount due on allotment of the securities applied for:
(a) If the securities for which application money or advance for such securities was received cannot be allotted within 60 days from the date of receipt of the application money or advance for such securities and such application money or advance is not refunded to the subscribers within 15 days from the date of completion of 60 days, such amount shall be treated as a deposit under these rules. For the purpose of this rule any adjustment of the amount for any other purpose will not be treated as a refund;

(b) Any adjustment of the amount for any other purpose shall not be treated as a refund.

8. any amount received from a person who, at the time of the receipt of the amount, was a director of the company. The director from whom money is received, furnishes to the company at the time of giving the money, a declaration in writing to the effect that the amount is not being given out of funds acquired by him by borrowing or accepting loans or deposits from others;

9. any amount raised by the issue of bonds or debentures secured by a first charge or a charge ranking pari passu with the first charge on any assets referred to in Schedule III of the Act excluding intangible assets of the company or bonds/debentures compulsorily convertible into shares of the company within ten years. If such bonds or debentures are secured by the charge of any assets referred to in Schedule in of the Act excluding intangible assets, the number of such bonds or debentures shall not exceed the market value of such assets as assessed by a registered valuer.

10. any amount received from an employee not exceeding his annual salary, under a contract of employment with the company in the nature of non-interest bearing security deposit;

11. any non-interest bearing amount received or held in trust;

12. any amount received in the course of or for the purposes of the business of the company:
(a) as an advance for the supply of goods or provision of services provided that such advance is appropriated against supply of goods or provision of services within a period of three hundred and sixty-five days from acceptance of such advance. In case of any advance which is the subject matter of any legal proceedings before any court of law, the said time limit of three hundred and sixty Eve days shall not apply.

(b) as advance, accounted for in any manner whatsoever, received in connection with consideration for property under an agreement or arrangement, provided that such advance is adjusted against the property in accordance with the terms of agreement or arrangement.

(c) as a security deposit for the performance of the contract for the supply of goods or provision of services.

(d) as advance received under long-term projects or for the supply of capital goods except those covered under item (b) above.

(e) as an advance towards consideration for providing future services in the form of a warranty or maintenance contract as per writ¬ten agreement or arrangement, if the period for providing such services does not exceed the period prevalent as per common business practice or five years, from the date of acceptance of such service whichever is less;

(f) as an advance received and as allowed by any sectoral regulator or in accordance with directions of Central or State Government;

(g) as an advance for a subscription towards publication, whether in print or in electronic to be adjusted against receipt of such publications;

If the amount received under (a) (b) and (d) above becomes refundable (with or without interest) because the company accepting the money does not have the necessary permission or approval to deal in the goods or properties or services for which the money is taken, the amount received shall be deemed to be a Deposit under these rules.
Explanation: For the purpose of sub-clause the amount shall be deemed to be deposits on the expiry of 15 days from the date they become due for refund.

Question 9.
A private limited company can accept deposits from its member under the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013. (June 2018) (4 marks)
Answer:
1. As per Section 2(68) of the Companies Act, 2013 a private company means a company, which has a minimum paid-up capital as may be prescribed, and by its articles:
(a) Restricts the right to transfer its shares;
(b) Limit the number of its members to 200 excluding past and present employees; who are/was also a member.
(c) prohibits any invitation to the public to subscribe to any securities.

2. A private company may issue debentures to any number of persons.

3. The only condition is that an invitation to the public to subscribe for debenture is prohibited.

Thus, A private company can only accept deposits from its members only and not from the public.

Question 10.
A single fixed deposit holder, after marriage, applied for adding the name of his wife as joint holder. The company refused to do so. Comment (June 2011) (4 marks)
Answer:
1. Rule 2(1 )(d) under Chapter V defines depositor as under ‘Depositor’ means-

  1. any member of the company who has made a deposit with the company in accordance with subsection (2) of section 73 of the Act, or
  2. any person who has made a deposit with a public company in accordance with section 76 of the Act.

2. As per Rule 3(2), where depositors so desire, deposits may be accepted in joint names not excluding three, with or without any of the clauses namely, “Jointly”, “Either or Survivor”, “First named or Survivor”, “Anyone or Survivor”.

Thus, the company cannot refuse to add the name of the wife of the deposit holder.

Question 11.
Shine Well Limited has accepted deposits from the public under the Companies (Acceptance of Deposits) Rules, 2014. The company now decided to repay some of its deposits before maturity. Can the company do so? If yes, what are the conditions attached there too? (June 2011) (4 marks)
Answer:
Rule 15: General provisions regarding premature repayment of deposits:
When a company makes repayment of deposits, on the request of the depositor, after the expiry of a period of 6 months from the date of such deposit, the rate of interest payable on such deposit shall be reduced by 196.

Thus, on request of the depositor Shine Ltd. can repay the deposits before the maturity but interest payable on such deposit shall be reduced by 1%.

Question 12.
Sun-beam Limited failed to pay interest on repayment of deposits. One depositor approached the consumer forum with the request to issue an order against the company for payment of interest on deposits. The company contended that the consumer forum was not a proper authority to issue search directions Advice the company suitably. (December 2014) (8 marks)
Answer:
1. In Neela Raje v. Amogh industries [RP No. 409 of 1992 dated 26.8.1993,84012 CLA 90 (NCDRC)], the National Commission was faced with a query as to whether a complaint lodged in regard to the failure to pay interest on repayment of the principal amount on the maturity of a deposit by a Company could be entertained by a consumer forum.

2. The commission pointed out that after the Amendment Act, 1993, a consumer forum can direct payment of amounts due to a depositor under the provisions of Section 14 of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986.
Thus, the contention of Sun-beam Ltd. is not valid.

Question 13.
Prism Limited has accepted rupees INR 10 lakh as an advance towards the supply of goods to certain parties. As per the agreement/the company will supply the goods after two years from the date of deposit. Letter on, internal auditors qualified their report on the ground that the company has violated the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013. Directors explained that this is required to complete the order. Examining the relevant provisions of the
Companies Act, 2013, state whether the explanation given by the directors is justified. (June 2016) (4 marks)
Answer:
1. According to Section 2(31) of the Companies Act, 2013,
‘Deposit’ includes any receipt of money by way of deposit or loan or in any other form by a company but does not include such categories of amount as may be prescribed in consultation with the RBI.

2. As per Rule 2(c), (xii) (a) of the Companies (Acceptance of Deposit) Rules, 2014, the deposit does not include any amount received in the course of or for the purpose of the Business of the company as an advance for the supply of goods or provision of services provided that such advance is appropriated against supply of goods or provision of services within a period of 365 days from acceptance of such advance.

3. As per facts given in the case Prism Ltd. has accepted INR 10 lakh as an advance towards the supply of goods to certain parties.

4. As per the agreement, the company will supply the goods after two years from the date of deposit.

Thus, the company has accepted advance for more than 365 days for the supply of goods, and hence it is ‘Deposit’ as per Section 2(31) read with Rule 2(l)(c) (xii)(d) of the Companies (Acceptance of Deposit) Rules, 2014. The Company has defaulted in accepting deposit without complying with the provision and hence remark passed by the internal auditor is correct and explanation given by the director is not sufficient.

Question 14.
Fun and Frolic Limited has received INR 5,00,000 from its Promoters as an unsecured loan in pursuance of the stipulation of credit facilities from the Bank. Can the company accept the unsecured loan? What would be your answer if the company has repaired in full its amount of credit facility and after such repayment, the company continues this unsecured loan? Referring to the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013. Advice the company (June 2018) (4 marks)
Answer:
1. As per Rule 2(l)(c), (xiii) of the Companies (Acceptance of Deposits) Rules, 2014, the deposit does not include any amount brought in by the promoters of the company by way of an unsecured loan in pursuance of the stipulation of any lending financial institution or a bank subject to fulfillment of the following conditions:-

2. the loan is brought in pursuance of the stipulation imposed by the lending institutions on the promoters to contribute such finance; and

3. the loan is provided by the promoters themselves or by their relatives or by both.
The exemption under this sub-clause shall be available only till the loans of financial institutions or banks are repaid and not thereafter.

4. As per the facts given in the case, Fun and Frolic Limited has received INR 5,00,000 from its Promoters as an unsecured loan in pursuance of the stip¬ulation of credit facilities from the Bank. Such unsecured loan will not be treated as a deposit as per Rule 2(1) (c)(xiii) of the Companies (Acceptance of Deposits) Rules, 2014.

However, after repayment of the credit facility if the company continues the unsecured loan of its promoter then it will be treated as a deposit.

Secured Irredeemable Debentures

Question 15.
A public company may issue secured irredeemable debentures. Comment December 2018) (5 marks)
Answer:
1. A Debenture, in which no time is fixed for the company to pay back the money, is an irredeemable debenture. The debenture holder cannot demand payment as long as the company is a going concern and does not make default in making payment of the interest. But all debentures, whether redeemable or irredeemable become payable on the company going into liquidation.

However, after the commencement of the Companies Act, 2013, now a company can now issue perpetual or irredeemable debentures.

2. Term of issue of debentures: An issue of secured debentures may be made, provided the date of its redemption shall not exceed 10 years from the date of issue.

However, the following classes of companies may issue secured debentures for a period exceeding 10 years but not exceeding 30 years:

  1. Companies engaged in setting up of infrastructure projects;
  2. Infrastructure Finance Companies;
  3. Infrastructure Debt Fund Non-Banking Financial Companies;
  4. Companies permitted by a Ministry or Department of the Central Government or by RBI or by the NHB or by any other statutory authority to issue debentures for a period exceeding 10 years. Hence, irredeemable debentures cannot be issued.

Question 16.
A private company and a banking company can freely accept deposits. (June 2019) (5 marks)
Answer:

  1. A private company can accept deposits only from its members and not from the public.
  2. As per the Proviso to Section 73(1) read with Rule 1(3) of the Companies (Acceptance of Deposits) Rules, 2014, excludes Banking Companies, NBFC, Housing Finance Company registered with NHB, and any other company specified by the government in this regard from the provisions relating to the deposit.

In the case of a private company. The Company cannot freely accept deposits from the public; it can accept deposits only from its members and not from the public.

In the case of banking companies: The Banking Company can accept deposits freely from the public in its ordinary course of business.

CS Executive Company Law Questions and Answers

Procedure of Conversion of Business Entities – Setting Up of Business Entities and Closure Important Questions

Procedure of Conversion of Business Entities – Setting Up of Business Entities and Closure Important Questions

Procedure of Conversion of Business Entities – Setting Up of Business Entities and Closure Important Questions

Question 1.
State the provisions relating to the conversion of the company as contained in the Companies Act, 2013.
Answer:
Name Clause: Section 13: Approval of the Central Government is not necessary if the change relates to the addition or deletion of the word ‘Private’ to the name of the company consequent to the conversion of a private company into a public company and vice versa.

Section 14: Alteration of Articles for conversion of a private company to a public company and vice versa [Section 14]: Subject to the provisions of the Act and the conditions contained in its memorandum, if any, a company may, by a special resolution, alter its articles including alterations having the effect of conversion of:
(a) a private company into a public company; or
(b) a public company into a private company:

Where a company being a private company alters its articles in such a manner that they no longer include the restrictions and limitations which are required to be included in the articles of a private company under the Act, the company shall, as from the date of such alteration, cease to be a private company.

Central Government approval: Any alteration having the effect of conversion of a public company into, a private company shall not be valid unless it is approved by an order of the Central Government on an application made in such form and manner as may be prescribed.

Filing of altered copy: Every alteration of the articles and a copy of the order of the Central Government approving the alteration shall be filed with the Registrar, together with a printed copy of the altered articles, within a period of 15 days in such manner as may be prescribed, who shall register the same.

Conversion of companies already registered [Section 18]:

  • MOA and AOA: A company of any class registered under the Act may convert itself as a company of other classes by alteration of MOA and AOA of the company.
  • Application to Registrar: Where the conversion is required, the Registrar shall on an application made by the company, after satisfying that the required provisions have been complied with, close the former registration of the company and after registering the documents, issue a certificate of incorporation in the same manner as its first registration.
  • Existing Debt, liabilities, Obligations and Contracts: The registration of a company shall not affect any debts, liabilities, obligations, or contracts incurred or entered into, by or on behalf of the company before conversion, and such debts, liabilities, obligations, and contracts may be enforced in the manner as if such registration had not been done.

Question 2.
Tuff Ltd. is a private limited company, which was registered in the year 2001. After 20 years of existence as a private company, the said company now wants to convert itself into a public limited company. Is it possible? If yes, explain the procedure to be adopted to give effect to the decision of the Board of directors of the company. [Dec. 2009 (6 Marks)]
Answer:
Procedure for conversion of private company into a public company:
The following procedure for conversion of a private company into a public company is applicable:
1. Board Meeting: Convene a Board Meeting to take necessary decisions to fix the time, place, and agenda for convening a General Meeting of members. Also, authorize the Company Secretary or Director of the company to issue a notice of the meeting.

2. Issue notice of general meeting: Issue Notice of the General Meeting to all Members, Directors, and the Auditors of the company in accordance with the provisions of Section 101.

3. Hold General Meeting: At the general meeting members will pass a special resolution to amend the Name Clause in the MOA by removing the word ‘Private’.

4. The general meeting must also pass a special resolution deleting from its articles the restricting clauses of a private company. Similarly, all other clauses in the articles which apply to a private company should be deleted and those which apply to public companies should be inserted such as increasing the number of shareholders to at least 7 and the number of directors to at least 3. These resolutions will be passed clause by clause.

5. Filing forms File Form No. MGT-14 with ROC for passing special resolution within 30 days. For effecting the conversion of a private company into a public company, the application shall be filed in Form No. INC-27 with fee.

6. Register: On receipt of the order, the documents will be filed with the ROC along with a copy of the revised Articles and the ROC will register the same.

7. On registration by the ROC the process will be complete.

Question 3.
BS & Co. Ltd. is registered as a public company. The shareholding pattern of the company is as under:

Category Nos.
Directors and their relatives 144
Employees 72
Ex-employees (shares were allotted when they were employees) 36
Twenty four couples holding shares jointly in the name of husband & wife (24 × 2) 48
Others 24
324

The Board of Directors of the Company proposes to convert it into a private company. Advise the Board of directors about the steps to be taken for conversion into a private company including a reduction in the number of members, if necessary, as per the Companies Act, 2013. [Dec. 1998 (10 Marks)]
Answer:
As per Section 2(68), a private company means a company, which has a minimum paid-up capital as may be prescribed, and by its articles:
(a) Restricts the right to transfer its shares;
(b) Limits the number of its members to 200 excluding past and present employee;
(c) Prohibits any invitation to the public to subscribe for any security. Note: Joint holders of shares should be treated as a single member. The words ‘Private Ltd.’ must be added at the end of its name by a private limited company.

In the given case, the existing members will be counted as follows for the purpose of converting into a private company.

Category Reason Nos.
Directors & their relatives 144
Employees Present employees will be excluded
Ex-employees Past employees will be excluded
Twenty four couples Joint holders of shares should be treated as a single member. 24
Others 24
192

Since the numbers of members are below 200 there is no need to reduce the number of members.

Procedure for conversion of public company into a private company: The following procedure for conversion of a public company into a private company is applicable:
1. Board Meeting: Convene a Board Meeting to take necessary decision to fix the time, place, and agenda for convening a General Meeting of members. Also, authorize the Company Secretary or Director of the company to issue a notice of the meeting.

2. Hold General Meeting: At the general meeting members will pass a special resolution to amend the Name Clause in the MOA by removing the word ‘Private’.

3. Special Resolution: The general meeting must also pass a special resolution inserting in articles the restricting clauses of a private company. Similarly, all other clauses in the articles which do apply to a private company should be added such as limiting the number of shareholders to 200 and those which apply to public companies should be deleted. These resolutions will be passed clause by clause.

4. Filing with ROC: File Form No. MGT-14 with ROC for passing special resolution within 30 days.

5. Application to Central Government: Application will be made to the Central Government in Form No. INC-27 within 3 months for approval to the various resolutions passed converting the public company into a private company. [After the commencement of the Companies (.Amendment) Ordinance, 2019 application for such conversion shall be made to Central Government instead of Tribunal]

6. Filing order with ROC: On receipt of the order of the Central Government the documents will be filed with the Registrar along with a copy of the revised Articles and the Registrar will register the same.

7. Registration of Conversion: On registration by the Registrar the process will be complete.

Question 4.
An unlisted Public Ltd. The company is having 220 members, 5 directors and is having public deposits of ₹ 5 crores and shareholders deposits of ₹ 3 crores (paid-up capital is ₹ 1 crore and free reserves ₹ 1 crore, and Bank Loan ₹ 2 crores) is proposing to convert it into a Private Ltd. Company. Mention conditions to be satisfied before conversion of the Company into Private Ltd. Also list out important procedures to comply for such conversion. [Dec. 2019 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Precondltjon for conversion of public company into a private company.

Pre-conditions to be examined for conversion of a public company into a private company are as under:

  1. members to be reduced below 200 (presently 220)
  2. public deposits-to be repaid in full (presently 5 crores)
  3. shareholders deposits/1oan should not exceed 100% of paid-up capital and free reserves and share premium (presently 3 crores) subject to fulfillment of conditions provided in MCA notification dated 13th June 2017.

In this case, the company has a paid-up capital of 1 crore and free reserves of 1 crore Le. total of 2 crores which is the maximum limit of exempted deposit from shareholders for private limited company. Hence, 1 crore needs to be repaid to shareholders before conversion.

According to sectións 13 and 14 of the Companies Act, 2013 read with rule 33 and rule 41 of the Companies (Incorporation) Rules, 2014, a public company can be converted into a private company only after obtaining its shareholders’ appàa1 by way of passing a special resolution in general meeting.

Apart from this, the Other important procedures to comply with are:

  • Calling of Board, meeting.
  • General meeting
  • Advertisement in Newspaper
  • Filing of copy of the special resolution with the ROC
  • Filing of application for conversion with RD
  • Order of RD approving the conversion
  • Filing of the order of RD with ROC
  • Certificate from ROC

Question 5.
QPR an association of persons registered as a non-profit company under section 8 of the Companies Act, 2013. The association is considering the possibility of converting itself into a private company or public company so that it can start commercial activities. Referring to the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013 advice whether it is possible to do so. Can such Section 8 company be converted into One Person Company? Explain in detail various provisions applicable for such conversion.
Answer:
Restriction of alteration of MOA and conversion into other companies [Section 8(4)]: A company registered u/s 8 shall not alter the provisions of its memorandum or articles except with the previous approval of the Central Government. [These powers have been delegated to Regional Directors MCA Notification Dated 19th December 2016

A company registered u/s 8 may convert itself into the company of any other kind only after complying with prescribed conditions as may be prescribed.

Section 8 company cannot be converted to One Person Company (OPC). Conditions for conversion of a company registered u/s 8 company of any other kind [Rule 21 of the Companies (Incorporation) Rules, 2014]:
1. Special resolution at a general meeting: A company registered u/s 8 which intends to convert itself into a company of any other kind shall pass a special resolution at a general meeting for approving such conversion. The explanatory statement annexed to the notice convening the general meeting shall set out in detail the reasons for opting for such conversion.

2. Copy of resolution with ROC: A certified true copy of the special resolution along with a copy of the Notice convening the meeting including the explanatory statement shall be filed with the Registrar in Form No. MGT-14 along with the fee.

3. Application to Regional Director: The company shall file an application in Form No. INC-18 with the Regional Director with the fee along with a certified true copy of the special resolution and a copy of the Notice convening the meeting including the explanatory statement for approval for converting itself into a company of any other kind and the company shall also attach the proof of serving of the notice served to all the authorities mentioned in Rule 22(2).

4. Copy of RD to be filed with ROC: A copy of the application with annexure as filed with the Regional Director shall also be filed with the Registrar.

Question 6.
Explain the provisions for the conversion of Person Company (OPC) into a Public or Private Company.
Answer:
There are two ways by which OPC can be converted into a private company or a public company. OPC can convert itself voluntarily into a private company or public company as per section 18 of the Companies Act, 2013. However, in certain circumstances, it has to mandatorily convert itself into a private company or public company.

Provisions relating to the mandatory conversion are discussed below:
OPC to convert itself into a public or private company in certain cases [Rule 6 of Companies (Incorporation) Rules, 2014]:
1. Where the paid-up share capital of an OPC exceeds ₹ 50 lakh and its average annual turnover during the relevant period exceeds ? 2 Crore, it shall cease to be entitled to continue as OPC.

2. Such OPC shall be required to convert itself, within 6 months of the date of increase in its paid-up share capital or turnover.

3. The OPC shall alter its MOA & AOA by passing a resolution to give effect to the conversion and to make necessary changes incidental thereto.

The OPC shall within a period of 60 days from the date of conversion give notice to the ROC in Form No. INC-5 informing that it has ceased to be OPC and that it is now required to convert itself into a private or public company.

4. OPC can get itself converted into a private or public company after increasing the minimum number of members and directors to 2 or a minimum of 7 members and 2 or 3 directors and by maintaining the minimum paid-up capital as per requirements of the Act.

Question 7.
Mr. Ram who is the sole member and director of the Ram One Person Company Ltd. desires to convert OPC voluntarily into a private company limited. As a Practicing Company Secretary advise Mr. Ram In respect of the proposed conversion and procedure required to be followed in this regard under the Companies Act, 2013.
Answer:
The procedure of voluntary conversion of OPC into Private Company:
1. Board Meeting: Convene a meeting of Board Meeting. The main agenda for the board meeting would be

  • To discuss with directors that Company wants to convert OPC into a Private Limited Company.
  • Pass Board Resolution for an increase in No. of Directors. (Minimum 2 Directors)
  • Pass a board resolution to get in-principal approval of Directors for increase shareholder of the Company. (Minimum 2 Shareholders)
  • Pass Resolution to get shareholders’ approval for Alteration in MOA & AOA of Company.

2. Extraordinary General Meeting

  • There is no need to hold EGM by OPC, it shall be sufficient if, in case of OPC
  • The resolution is communicated by the member of the company and entered into the minutes books would be sufficient

3. Filing with ROC: File Form INC 6 and Form NorMGT-14 along with the following documents will be filed with ROC:

  • Altered copy of MOA & AOA.
  • Certified copy minutes of board and general meeting for the required board and shareholder resolution.
  • No objection certificate from the creditors of a company for con-version of OPC into a private company.
  • Latest Audited Balance Sheet and the Profit and Loss Account.
  • Other documents may be required for giving effect to the conversion process.

4. Certificate of Incorporation: On receipt of the documents if the Registrar gets satisfied regarding the compliance with the prescribed procedure he shall register the documents and issue the fresh Certificate of Incorporation.

Question 8.
Laksliya Pvt. Ltd. has two directors on its Board Ramdas and Parag. They are the only shareholders in the company. Due to a health problem, Parag wants to transfer his shares to the Ramdas and it was decided that Ramdas will continue the company as OPC. As a Practicing Company Secretary advise Ramdas regarding the procedure to be adopted for converting the private company into OPC keeping in view the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013 and the Rules made thereunder.
Answer:
The procedure for conversion of private company into OPC is as follows:
1. Notice of board meeting: Issue notice of board meeting for a transfer of shares of Parag to Ramdas and converting the private company into OPC.

2. Board Meeting: In a Board Meeting necessary decision will be taken regarding time, place, and agenda for convening a General Meeting of members and issue of notice along with the explanatory statement.

3. NOC from creditors: No objection certificate will be obtained from members and creditors for converting the private company into OPC.

4. Hold General Meeting and Special resolution: On the appointed date General Meeting will be held and a special resolution will be passed considering the following matters:

  • Change of name by deleting words “Private Company” and adding the words “One Person Company”.
  • Altering the clauses of MOA and AOA relating to private company j and inserting the various clauses that are applicable to OPC.

5. Filing of Forms with ROC: Form No. MGT-14 along with the following documents will be filed with ROC:

  • Altered copy of MOA & AOA.
  • Certified copy minutes of board and general meeting for the required board and shareholder resolution.
  • No objection certificate from the creditors of a company for conversion OPC into a private company.
  • Latest Audited Balance Sheet and the Profit and Loss Account.
  • Certificate from CA that average annual turnover does not exceed ₹ 2 Crore or paid-up share capital does not exceed ₹ 50 lakh.
  • Other documents may be required for giving effect to the conversion process.

6. Application for conversion: File an application in Form No. INC-6 for conversion of private company into OPC along with the following documents, namely:
(a) A declaration from the director of the company by way of an affidavit confirming that all members and creditors of the company have given their consent for conversion, the paid-up share capital company is ₹ 50 lakhs or less or average annual turnover is less than ₹ 2 Crore, as the case may be.
(b) List of members and list of creditors.
(c) Latest Audited Balance Sheet and the Profit and Loss Account.
(d) Copy of No Objection letter of secured creditors.

7. Duty of ROC: On receipt of the documents if the Registrar gets satisfied regarding the compliance of prescribed procedure he shall register the documents and issue the fresh Certificate of Incorporation.

Question 9.
Is it possible to convert LLP or partnership firms into private or public companies? If yes, discuss the provisions relating to this in detail.
Answer:
Often a business is started as a Partnership Firm or LLP. If the business grows, partners may decide to convert it into Company.

As per Section 366 of the Companies Act, 2013 any partnership firm, limited liability partnership, co-operative society, society or any other business entity formed under any other law for the time being in force can convert itself into Company.

Certificate of Registration [Section 367]: On compliance with the requirements with respect to registration, and on payment of prescribed fees, the Registrar shall certify under his hand that the Firm, LLP, Society applying for registration is incorporated as a company under the Act, and in the case of a limited company that it is limited and thereupon the Company shall be so incorporated.

Vesting of property on registration [Section 368]: On conversion all property, movable and immovable, belonging to or vested in Firm, LLP, Society at the date of its registration, shall, on such registration, pass to and vest in the company as incorporated under the Act for all the estate and interest of the company therein.

Saving of existing liabilities [Section 369]: The registration of a company shall not affect its rights or liabilities in respect of any debt or obligation incurred, or any contract entered into, by, to, with, or on behalf of, the Firm, LLP, Society before registration.

Continuation of Pending Legal Proceedings [Section 370]: All suits and other legal proceedings were taken by or against the Firm, LLP, Society, which are pending at the time of the registration as a company, maybe continued in the same manner as if the registration had not taken place.

Obligations of Firm/LLP/Society Registering as Company [Section 374]: Every Firm/LLP/Society which is seeking registration as a Company shall:
1. Ensure that secured creditors of the company, prior to its registration, have either consented to or have given their no objection to converting Firm/LLP/Society into the company.

2. Publish in a newspaper, advertisement one in English and one in vernacular language in such form as may be prescribed giving notice about registration, seeking objections and address them suitably.

3. File an affidavit, duly notarized, from all the members or partners to provide that in the event of registration, necessary documents or papers shall be submitted to the registering or other authority with which the Firm /LLP/Society was earlier registered, for its dissolution as a partnership firm, LLP, co-operative society, society or any other business entity, as the case may be.

4. Comply with such other conditions as may be prescribed.
However, upon registration, as a company LLP incorporated under the Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008 shall be deemed to have been dissolved under that Act without any further act or deed.

Question 10.
Briefly discuss the provisions relating to the conversion of a Private Company into LLP.
Answer:
A Private Company may convert itself into LLP by complying with the provisions of Section 56 read with Schedule III of the LLP Act, 2008.

These provisions are discussed below:
Conversion from private company Into limited liability partnership [Section 56]: A private company may convert into LLP in accordance with the provisions of Chapter X of the LiP Act and the Third Schedule.

Provisions of the Third Schedule:
Eligibility for conversion of private companies into limited liability partnership:

  1. A company may convert into LLP by complying with the requirements as to the conversion set out in the Schedule.
  2. A company may apply to convert into LLP in accordance with the Schedule if and only if:
    (a) there. is no security interest in its assets subsisting or in force at the time of application.
    (b) the partners of the LLP to which it converts comprise all the shareholders of the company and no one else; and
    (c) upon such conversion, the company, its shareholders, the LLP into which the company has converted and the partners of that LLP shall be bound by the provisions of the Schedule that are applicable to them.

Statements to be filed: A company may apply to convert into LLP by filing with the Registrar:
1. A statement by all its shareholders in such form and manner to be accompanied by such fees as the Central Government may prescribe, containing the following particulars, namely:
(a) the name and registration number of the company; and
(b) the date on which the company was incorporated.

2. Incorporation document and statement referred to in Section 11.
Registration of conversion: On receiving the documents for conversion, the Registrar shall, register the documents and issue a certificate of registration in such form as the Registrar may determine stating that the LLP is, on and from the date specified in the certificate, registered under the Act. The LLP shall, within 15 days of the date of registration, inform the concerned Registrar of Companies with which it was registered about the conversion and of the particulars of the LLP in such form and manner as the Central Government may prescribe.

Registrar may refuse to register: If the Registrar is not satisfied with the particulars or other information furnished for conversion of Company into LLP he may refuse to register the same. However, an appeal may be made before the Tribunal in case of refusal of registration by the Registrar.

Effect of registration: On and from the date of registration specified in the certificate of registration:
(a) there shall be a limited liability partnership by the name specified in the certificate of registration registered under the Act;

(b) all tangible (movable or immovable) and intangible property vested in the company, all assets, interests, rights, privileges, liabilities, obligations relating to the company, and the whole of the undertaking of the company shall be transferred to and shall vest in the limited liability partnership without further assurance, act or deed; and

(c) the company shall be deemed to be dissolved and removed from the records of the Registrar of Companies.

Question 11.
Parachute Coconut Oil Manufacturing Ltd. an unlisted public company desires to convert itself into a Limited Liability Partnership. You are working as Company Secretary in the company. The Board of Directors of the company has requested you to submit a detailed note showing the procedure to be adopted for the conversion of the company into LLP. Also, state whether it is possible to convert Listed Company into LLP?
Answer:
Univ Private Company and Unlisted Public Company can be directly converted into LLP by complying with the provisions of the LLP Act, 2008.

Procedure for conversion of Company into LLP:
1. Board meeting: Convene a Board Meeting to take necessary decisions to fix the time, place, and agenda for convening a General Meeting of members. Also, authorize the Company Secretary or Director of the company to issue a notice of the meeting.

2. Name Availability: Confirm availability of proposed name of LLP by using Form RUN-LLP (Reserve Unique Name) on the MCA site.

3. Draft LLP Agreement: Draft of limited liability partnership agreement considering provisions of the Schedule of the LLP Act, 2008. It is not necessary to have the LLP Agreement signed at the time of incorporation, as the details of the same can be filed in Form No. 3 within 30 days of incorporation/conversion.

4. E-Filing of Incorporation Documents: File Form No. FiLLiP with ROC along with the following attachments:

  • Proof of Address of Registered office of LLP.
  • Subscription sheet signed by the promoters. (Notice of Consent & Appointment of Designated Partners with their personal details).
  • Detail of partner/designated partner of LLP.

5. Application for Conversion: File application for conversion in Form No. 18 with the following attachments:

  • Statement of shareholders.
  • Incorporation Documents & Subscribers Statements in Form No.
  • Statement of Assets and Liabilities of the company duly certified as true and correct by the auditor.
  • NOC from Income Tax authorities and Copy of acknowledgment of latest income tax return.
  • Approval from any other body/authority as may be required.
  • Particulars of pending proceedings from any Court/Tribunal etc.

6. Certificate of Incorporation: If all documents filed and information provided is in order and the Registrar is satisfied that all procedural compliance is duly effected he will issue a certificate of registration. The Certificate of Registration issued shall be the conclusive evidence of conversion of the LLP.

Setting Up of Business Entities and Closure Questions and Answers

Important Aspects of Primary Market & Secondary Marke – Securities Laws and Capital Markets Important Questions

Important Aspects of Primary Market & Secondary Marke – Securities Laws and Capital Markets Important Questions

Important Aspects of Primary Market & Secondary Marke – Securities Laws and Capital Markets Important Questions

Question 1.
Distinguish between: Primary Market & Secondary Market [Dec 2008 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Following are the main points of distinction between primary & secondary market:

Points Primary Market Secondary Market
Meaning The primary market is that part of the capital markets that deals with the issuance of new securities. Companies, governments or public sector institutions can obtain funding through the sale of new shares or bond issue. The primary market is the market where the securities are sold for the first time. The secondary market, also known as the aftermarket, is the financial market where previously issued securities and financial instruments such as stock, bonds, options, and futures are bought and sold.
Contract Primary market deals with new is¬sue hence there is a contract between issuer and investor. Secondary market deals with previously issued securities and financial instruments there is a contract between two investors.
Issue/ Transfer In a primary issue, the securities are issued by the company directly to investors. In a secondary market, the securities are exchanged between two investors.
Intermediary In the primary market, important intermediaries are Lead Merchant Banker, Merchant Banker, under¬writers, Issue House etc. In a secondary market, important intermediaries are Depository Participants, Brokers, Sub-Brokers and Registrar & Share Transfer Agents.
Regulation Issue through primary market comes under Companies Act, 2013 & SEBI (Issue of Capital & Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2018. The secondary market is regulated through the Companies Act, 2013, Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956&other regulations made by the SEBI.

Question 2.
Distinguish between: Initial Margin & Maintenance Margin [June 2009 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Initial Margin: Initial margin means the minimum amount, calculated as a percentage of the transaction value, to be placed by the client, with the broker, before the actual purchase. The broker may advance the balance amount to meet full settlement obligations.

In simple words, the initial margin is the percentage of a stock price that you are required to have in your account when purchasing that stock on margin.

Maintenance Margin: Maintenance margin means the minimum amount, calculated as a percentage of the market value of the securities, calculated with respect to the last trading day’s closing price, to be maintained by the client with the broker.

In other words, a maintenance margin is the required amount of securities an investor must hold in his account if he either purchases shares on margin or if he sells shares short. If an investor’s margin balance falls below the set maintenance margin, the investor would then need to contribute additional funds to the account or liquidate stocks in the account to bring the account | back to the initial margin requirement. This request is known as a margin call.

Question 3.
Write a short note on Margin Trading [Dec. 2009 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Margin trading is buying stocks without having the entire money to do it. The exchanges have an institutionalized method of buying stocks without having the capital through the futures market.

For example, if you were to buy 2,000 shares of say Company A, which trades at ₹ 300, you will need about t 6 lakh. But if you buy a futures contract of that company, which comprises 2,000 shares, you only need to pay a margin of 15%. So, by putting ₹ 90,000, you can get an exposure of ₹ 6 lakh.

The same operation can also be executed through margin trading. Here, the trader will buy 2,000 shares, which are partly funded by the broker, and the rest by the trader.

The percentage of margin funding may range between 50% to 90%, depending on the broker and his relationship with the client. The broker, in turn, funds his line of credit from a bank and keeps the shares in his account with any profit/loss going to the client.

Question 4.
Write a short note on Rolling Settlement [Dec. 2009 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Under rolling settlement, all trades executed on a trading day are settled X days later. This is called ‘T+X’ rolling settlement, where ‘T’ is the trade date and ‘X’ is the number of business days after the trade date on which settlement takes place. The rolling settlement prevailing in India is T+2, implying that the outstanding positions at the end of the day ‘T’ are compulsorily settled 2 days after the trade date.

The rolling settlement was first introduced in India by OTCEI.
SEBI introduced T+5 rolling settlement in the equity market from July 2001. Subsequently shortened the settlement cycle to T+3 from April 1, 2002. After having gained experience of T+3 rolling settlement, it was felt appropriate to further reduce the settlement cycle to T+2 thereby reducing the risk in the market and protecting the interest of investors. As a result, SEBI, as a step towards the easy flow of funds and securities, introduced T+2 rolling settlement in the Indian equity market from 1st April 2003.

Question 5.
Discuss the various functions of Price Monitoring [Dec. 2009 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Price monitoring is mainly related to the price movement or abnormal fluctuation in prices or volumes. The functioning of the Price Monitoring is broadly divided into the following activities:

  • On-Line Surveillance
  • Off-Line Surveillance
  • Derivative Market Surveillance
  • Investigations
  • Surveillance Actions
  • Rumour Verification
  • Pro-active Measures

Question 6.
“Primary market is of great significance to the economy.” Comment. [June 2010 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
The primary market is that part of the capital markets that deals with the issuance of new securities. Companies, governments or public sector institutions can obtain funding through the sale of new shares or bond issue, f The primary market is the market where the securities are sold for the first time. Therefore, it is also called the New Issue Market.

Features of Primary Markets:

  • This is the market for new long term equity capital.
  • In a primary issue, the securities are issued by the company directly to investors.
  • The company receives the money and issues new security certificates to the investors.
  • Primary issues are used by companies for the purpose of setting up a new business or for expanding or modernizing the existing business.
  • The primary market performs the crucial function of facilitating capital formation in the economy.

The primary market is of great significance to the economy of a country. It is through the primary market that funds flow for productive purposes from investors to entrepreneurs. The latter use the funds for creating new products and rendering services to customers in India & abroad. The Strength of the economy of a country is gauged by the activities of the stock exchanges. The primary market creates and offers the merchandise for the secondary market.

Question 7.
Distinguish between: Book Closure and Record Date [Dec. 2010 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Book closure is the periodic closure of the “Register of Members & Transfer Books”, to take a record of the shareholders to determine their entitlement to dividends or bonus or right shares or other rights pertaining to shares.

Closing “Register of Members & Transfer Books” every time is not possible. In such a case, the recorded date is fixed and informed to a stock exchange in advance.

The record date is the date on which the records of a company are closed for the purpose of determining the stockholders who are entitled to dividends, bonus or right shares or other rights.

In case of a record date, the company does not close its register of security holders. The record date is the cutoff date for determining the number of registered members who are eligible for corporate benefits.

A company may close the register of members for a maximum of 45 days in a year and for not more than 30 days at any one time. [Section 91 of the Companies Act, 2013]

Book closure becomes necessary for the purpose of paying a dividend, making rights issue or bonus issue. The listed company is required to give notice of book closure in a newspaper at least 7 days before the commencement of the book closure. The members whose names appear in the register of members on the last date of book closure are entitled to receive the benefits of dividend, right shares or bonus shares as the case may be.

The minimum time gap between the two book closures and/or record dates would be at least 30 days.

Question 8.
Explain briefly: Surveillance at BSE [Dec. 2010 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
The main objective of the surveillance function of the Stock Exchange is to –

  • To promote market integrity
  • Monitor price and volume movements (volatility)
  • Detecting potential market abuses
  • Managing default risk by taking necessary actions timely.

All the instruments traded in the equity segment of the Cash and Derivative market come under the Surveillance umbrella of BSE.

Surveillance activities at the Stock Exchange are divided broadly into two major segments:

  • Price Monitoring and
  • Position Monitoring.

Question 9.
What is ‘application supported by blocked amount’ (ASBA)? Briefly explain the ASBA process. [Dec. 2010 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
“Application Supported by Blocked Amount” means an application containing an authorization to Self Certified Syndicate Bank to block the application money in a bank account for subscribing to a public or rights issue.

ASBA Process: In ASBA investor submits an application physically or electronically to the bank with whom the bank account to be blocked is maintained. Such a bank is called “Self Certified Syndicate Bank” (SCSB). The bank then blocks the application money on the basis of the authorization.

The application money remains blocked till the finalisation of the basis of allotment or till the withdrawal/failure of the issue.

Thereafter, the application data uploaded by the bank in the electronic bidding system through a web-enabled interface provided by the Stock Exchanges.

Once the basis of finalized allotment, the Registrar to the Issue sends a request to the bank for unblocking the accounts and to transfer the requisite amount to the issuer’s account.

In case of withdrawal or failure of the issue, the amount shall be unblocked by the bank on receipt of information from the pressure merchant bankers.

Question 10.
Discuss briefly the different surveillance system adopted by the stock exchanges. [June 2011 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Online Surveillance: One of the most important tools of surveillance is the Online Real-Time Surveillance system which was commissioned in 1999.

The system has a facility to generate the alerts online, in real-time, based on certain preset parameters like –

  • price and volume variations in scrips,
  • members taking unduly large positions not commensurate with their financial position or
  • having large concentrated positions in one or few scrips, etc.

An alert is a measure of abnormal behaviour. An Alert occurs in the surveillance system when a metric behaves significantly differently from its benchmark. The alerts generated by the system are analyzed and corrective action based on preliminary investigations is taken in such cases. The system also provides a facility to access trades and orders of members.

Off-Line Surveillance: The Off-Line Surveillance system comprises various reports based on different parameters and scrutiny thereof.

  • High /Low difference in prices
  • % change in prices over a week/fortnight/month
  • Top N scrips by turnover
  • Trading in infrequently traded scrips
  • Scrips hitting new high/low

The surveillance actions or investigations are initiated in the scrips identified from the above-stated reports.

Question 11.
Distinguish between: Book Closure and Record Date [Dec. 2011 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Book closure is the periodic closure of the “Register of Members & Transfer Books”, to take a record of the shareholders to determine their entitlement to dividends or bonus or right shares or other rights pertaining to shares.

Closing “Register of Members & Transfer Books” every time is not possible. In such a case, the recorded date is fixed and informed to the stock exchange in advance.

The record date is the date on which the records of a company are closed for the purpose of determining the stockholders who are entitled to dividends, bonus or right shares or other rights.

In case of a record date, the company does not close its register of security holders. The record date is the cutoff date for determining the number of registered members who are eligible for corporate benefits.

A company may close the register of members for a maximum of 45 days in a year and for not more than 30 days at any one time. [Section 91 of the Companies Act, 2013]

Book closure becomes necessary for the purpose of paying a dividend, making rights issue or bonus issue. The listed company is required to give notice of book closure in a newspaper at least 7 days before the commencement of the book closure. The members whose names appear in the register of members on the last date of book closure are entitled to receive the benefits of dividend, right shares or bonus shares as the case may be.

The minimum time gap between the two book closures and/or record dates would be at least 30 days.

Question 12.
Write a short note on ASBA [Dec. 2011 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
“Application Supported by Blocked Amount” means an application containing an authorization to Self Certified Syndicate Bank to block the application money in a bank account for subscribing to a public or rights issue.

If an investor is applying through ASBA, his application money shall be debited; from the bank account only if his application is selected for allotment after the basis of allotment is finalized.

It is a supplementary process of applying in IPO, Right Issues and FPO made through book building route and co-exists with the current process of using cheque as a mode of payment and submitting applications. ASBA is stipulated by SEBI and available from most of the. banks operating in India.

Benefits of ASBA:
The investor need not pay the application money by cheque rather block his bank account to the extent of the application money, thus continue to earn interest on application money.

The investor does not have to bother about refunds, as in ASBA only an amount proportionate to the securities allotted is taken from the bank account when his application is selected for allotment after the basis of allotment is finalised.

The application form is simpler.

The investor deals with the known intermediary ie. his own bank.

No loss of interest, since the application amount is not debited to the savings account on the application.

Since the amount is available in the account, it is considered for the calculation of the Average Quarterly Balance (ABQ).

Customer can revise or withdraw the bid before the end of the issue in the prescribed format with the bank, j Eligibility of Investors: An Investor is eligible to apply through the ASBA process if:

  • He is a “Resident Retail Individual Investor”.
  • He is bidding at cut-off, with a single option as to the number of shares bid for.
  • He is applying through the blocking of funds in a bank account with the bank.
  • He has agreed not to revise his bid.
  • He is not bidding under any of the reserved categories.

Question 13.
Stock exchanges are virtually the nerve centre of the capital market. Comment. [Dec. 2012 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
The secondary market comprises stock exchanges that provide a platform for the purchase and sale of securities by investors. The trading platforms of stock exchanges are accessible only through brokers and trading of securities is confined only to stock exchanges.

The stock exchanges are the exclusive centres for trading in securities and the trading platform of exchange is accessible only to brokers. The regulatory framework heavily favours the recognized stock exchanges by almost banning trading activity outside the stock exchanges.

The stock market ensures free marketability, negotiability and price discharge. For these reasons the stock market is referred to as the nerve centre of the capital market, reflecting the economic trend as well as the hopes, aspirations and apprehensions of the investors.

Question 14.
Distinguish between: Initial Margin & Maintenance Margin [June 2013 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Initial Margin: Initial margin means the minimum amount, calculated as a percentage of the transaction value, to be placed by the client, with the broker, before the actual purchase. The broker may advance the balance amount to meet full settlement obligations.

In simple words, the initial margin is the percentage of a stock price that you are required to have in your account when purchasing that stock on margin.

Maintenance Margin: Maintenance margin means the minimum amount, calculated as a percentage of the market value of the securities, calculated with respect to the last trading day’s closing price, to be maintained by the client with the broker.

In other words, a maintenance margin is the required amount of securities an investor must hold in his account if he either purchases shares on margin or if he sells shares short. If an investor’s margin balance falls below the set maintenance margin, the investor would then need to contribute additional funds to the account or liquidate stocks in the account to bring the account | back to the initial margin requirement. This request is known as a margin call.

Question 15.
Explain briefly: Circuit breakers [June 2013 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
What is a circuit: Circuits are of two types – circuit for an index and for a stock. So, if an index or the price of a stock increases or declines beyond a specified threshold it is said to have entered into a circuit. SEBI specifies this threshold as a percentage of the prior day’s closing figures.

Circuit breaker for an Index: Circuit breakers are applied only on equity and equity derivative markets. Whenever the major stock indices like BSE SENSEX and Nifty cross the threshold level, SEBI rules require that the trading at the stock exchange be stopped for a certain period of time beginning from half an hour to even an entire day. The time frame for which trading is stopped depends upon the time and amount of movement in the indices. The idea is to allow the market to cool down and resume trading at normal levels. The thresholds are implemented stage wise.

Question 16.
Distinguish between: Book Closure and Record Date [Dec. 2013 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Book closure is the periodic closure of the “Register of Members & Transfer Books”, to take a record of the shareholders to determine their entitlement to dividends or bonus or right shares or other rights pertaining to shares.

Closing “Register of Members & Transfer Books” every time is not possible. In such a case recorded date is fixed and informed to the stock exchange in advance.

The record date is the date on which the records of a company are closed for the purpose of determining the stockholders who are entitled to dividends, bonus or right shares or other rights.

In case of a record date, the company does not close its register of security holders. The record date is the cutoff date for determining the number of registered members who are eligible for corporate benefits.

A company may close the register of members for a maximum of 45 days in a year and for not more than 30 days at any one time. [Section 91 of the Companies Act, 2013]

Book closure becomes necessary for the purpose of paying a dividend, making • rights issue or bonus issue. The listed company is required to give notice of book closure in a newspaper at least 7 days before the commencement of the book closure. The members whose names appear in the register of members on the last date of book closure are entitled to receive the benefits of dividend, right shares or bonus shares as the case may be.

The minimum time gap between the two book closures and/or record dates would be at least 30 days.

Question 17.
Write a short note on Online Surveillance by stock exchange [June 2014 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Online Surveillance: One of the most important tools of surveillance is the Online Real-Time Surveillance system which was commissioned in 1999.

The system has a facility to generate the alerts online, in real-time, based on certain preset parameters like –

  • price and volume variations in scrips,
  • members taking unduly large positions not commensurate with their financial position or
  • having large concentrated positions in one or few scrips, etc.

An alert is a measure of abnormal behaviour. An Alert occurs in the surveillance system when a metric behaves significantly differently from its benchmark. The alerts generated by the system are analyzed and corrective action based on preliminary investigations is taken in such cases. The system also provides a facility to access trades and orders of members.

Question 18.
Distinguish between: Listed Securities & Permitted Securities [June 2015 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Securities traded in the stock exchanges can be classified as under:
1. Listed Cleared Securities: The securities admitted for dealing on the stock exchange after complying with all the listing requirements and placed by the SEBI on the list of cleared securities are known as listed cleared securities.

Securities of companies, which have signed the Listing Agreement with BSE, arc traded as “Listed Securities”. Almost all securities traded in the equity segment fall in this category.

2. Permitted Securities: The security listed on one stock exchange, when permitted to be traded by some other stock exchange where it is not listed is called permitted security. Such permission is given if suitable provisions exist in the regulations of the concerned stock exchanges.

Example: Suppose, Company X is listed on BSE. If another stock exchange like OTCEI allows trading of securities of Company X, then securities of Company X is known as permitted security for other stock exchange i.e. OTCEI.

Similarly, if any security is not listed on BSE but BSE allows the security to trade on BSE, such security is known as permitted security.

Question 19.
Stock market indices are the barometer of stock markets. [Dec. 2015(3 Marks)]
Answer:
A modern stock exchange is like a supermarket where various securities can be bought and sold. It is well regulated and computerized. It is efficient, transparent and market-oriented.

Stock exchange provides easy marketability to securities of a company.

The capital market and in particular the stock exchange is referred to as the barometer of the economy. The government’s policy is so moulded that the creation of wealth through products and services is facilitated and surpluses and profits are channelised into productive uses through capital market operations. Reasonable opportunities and protection are afforded by the Government through special measures in the capital market to get new investments from the public and the Institutions and to ensure their liquidity.

Question 20.
Distinguish between: Listed Securities & Permitted Securities [June 2017 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
The main objective of the surveillance function of the Stock Exchange is to –

  • To promote market integrity
  • Monitor price and volume movements (volatility)
  • Detecting potential market abuses
  • Managing default risk by taking necessary actions timely.

All the instruments traded in the equity segment of the Cash and Derivative market come under the Surveillance umbrella of BSE.

Surveillance activities at the Stock Exchange are divided broadly into two major segments:

  • Price Monitoring and
  • Position Monitoring.

Question 21.
What do you understand by “Application Supported by Blocked Amount” (ASBA)? How does it work in Initial Public Offer (IPO)? Describe. [June 2018 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
“Application Supported by Blocked Amount” means an application containing an authorization to Self Certified Syndicate Bank to block the application money in a bank account for subscribing to a public or rights issue.

ASBA Process: In ASBA investor submits an application physically or electronically to the bank with whom the bank account to be blocked is maintained. Such a bank is called “Self Certified Syndicate Bank” (SCSB). The bank then blocks the application money on the basis of the authorization.

The application money remains blocked till the finalisation of the basis of allotment or till the withdrawal/failure of the issue.

Thereafter, the application data uploaded by the bank in the electronic bidding system through a web-enabled interface provided by the Stock Exchanges.

Once the basis of finalized allotment, the Registrar to the Issue sends a request to the bank for unblocking the accounts and to transfer the requisite amount to the issuer’s account.

In case of withdrawal or failure of the issue, the amount shall be unblocked by the bank on receipt of information from the pressure merchant bankers.

Question 22.
Write short notes: Book Closure and Record Date [Dec. 2018 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Book closure is the periodic closure of the “Register of Members & Transfer Books”, to take a record of the shareholders to determine their entitlement to dividends or bonus or right shares or other rights pertaining to shares.

Closing “Register of Members & Transfer Books” every time is not possible. In such a case, the recorded date is fixed and informed to the stock exchange in advance.

The record date is the date on which the records of a company are closed for the purpose of determining the stockholders who are entitled to dividends, bonus or right shares or other rights.

In case of a record date, the company does not close its register of security holders. The record date is the cutoff date for determining the number of registered members who are eligible for corporate benefits.

A company may close the register of members for a maximum of 45 days in a year and for not more than 30 days at any one time. [Section 91 of the Companies Act, 2013]

Book closure becomes necessary for the purpose of paying a dividend, making rights issue or bonus issue. The listed company is required to give notice of book closure in a newspaper at least 7 days before the commencement of the book closure. The members whose names appear in the register of members on the last date of book closure are entitled to receive the benefits of dividend, right shares or bonus shares as the case may be.

The minimum time gap between the two book closures and/or record dates would be at least 30 days.

Question 23.
What is meant by the Block deal? How is it being executed in the Stock Exchange? [Dec. 2018 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
SEBI had issued guidelines outlining a facility of allowing Stock Exchanges to provide a separate trading window to facilitate the execution of large trades. The Exchanges have introduced a new block window mechanism for the block trades from January 1, 2018.

1. Session Timings:
(a) Morning Block Deal Window: This window shall operate between 8:45 AM to 9:00 AM.

(b) Afternoon Block Deal Window: This window shall operate between 2:05 PM to 2:20 PM.

  • In the block deal, the minimum order size for the execution of trades in the Block deal window shall be ₹ 10 Crore.
  • The orders placed shall be within ±1% of the applicable reference price in the respective windows as stated above.
  • The stock exchanges disseminate the information on block deals such as the name of the scrip, name of the client, the number of shares bought/ sold, traded price, etc. to the general public on the same day, after the market hours.

Question 24.
Write short notes on Key difference between WPI & CPI [June 2019 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Following are the main points of distinction between wholesale price index & consumer price index:

Points Wholesale Price Index Consumer Price Index
Meaning Wholesale Price Index (WPI), amounts to the average change in prices of commodities at the wholesale level. Consumer Price Index (CPI) indicates the average change in the prices of commodities, at the retail level.
Published by Wholesale Price Index (WPI) is computed by the Office of the Economic Adviser in the Ministry of Commerce & Industry, Government of India. CPI for Industrial Workers (IW) & CPI for Agricultural Labourers (AL)/Rural Labourers (RL) are compiled and released by the Labour Bureau in the Ministry of Labour and Employment. CPI (Rural/Urban/Combined compiled and released by the Central Statistics Office (CSO) in the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.
No. of items There are total of 676 items in WPI. The number of items in the CPI basket includes 448 in rural and 460 in urban.
Focuses on WPI focuses on the prices of goods traded between business houses. CPI focuses on the prices of goods purchased by consumers.
Coverage WPI covers all goods including intermediate goods transacted in the economy. CPI covers only consumer goods and consumer services
Measurement of Inflation WPI measures inflation at the first stage of the transaction. CPI measures inflation at the final stage of the transaction.

Question 25.
Write short note on Basis of SENSEX [June 2019 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
The Sensex is primarily an index reflecting the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE). The Sensex comprises 30 prominent stocks derived from all key sectors which are traded actively in the exchange. Thus, Sensex truly reflects the movement of the Indian stock markets.

Calculation Methodology for Sensex: Like the other major financial indexes of the world, Sensex has also shifted to the ‘Free Float market capitalization’ methodology to determine its figures with effect from the year 2003. The level of the index is a direct reflection of the performance of the 30 selected key stocks in the market.

Free-float market capitalization is defined as that proportion of total shares issued by the company that are readily available for trading in the market. It generally excludes promoters’ holding, government holding, strategic holding and other locked-in shares that will not come to the market for trading in the normal course. So, simply put, free-float market capitalization is the proportion j of total shares available for trading to the general public.

Question 26.
Write short note on Bulk Deal [June 2019 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
A bulk deal is a trade, where the total quantity bought or sold is more than 0.5% of the number of equity shares of a listed company.

Bulk deal can be transacted by the normal trading window provided by brokers j throughout the trading hours in a day. Bulk deals are market-driven and take place throughout the trading day.

The stockbroker, who facilitates the trade, is required to reveal to the stock exchange about the bulk deals on a daily basis.

Bulk orders are visible to everyone. If the bulk deal happens through a single trade, it should be notified to the exchange immediately upon the execution of the order. If it happens through multiple trades, it should be notified to the exchange within one hour from the closure of the trading.

Question 27.
Dhruv has purchased 1000 shares ₹ 80 per share of a company. Did he want to pay ₹ 5,000 in cash and balance through bank transfer to a stockbroker? As a Company Secretary advise Dhruv by referring to SEB regulation/ circular. [June 2019 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
SEBI Circular [SEBI/HO/MIRSD/DOP/CIR/P/2018/113] dated July 12, 2018 deals with “discontinuation of acceptance of cash by Stock Brokers”. The circular makes the following clarification regarding the mode of payment by the client to the stockbrokers.
1. The government of India has promoted various means for the transfer/receipt of funds through digital mode for encouraging a cashless economy. Financial institutions/Banks have introduced various modes of electronic payment facility including mobile banking, Unified Payment Interface (UPI) etc.

2. In view of the various modes of payment through electronic means available today, it is directed that Stock Brokers shall not accept cash from their clients either directly or by way of cash deposit to the bank account of a stockbroker.

3. All payments shall be received/made by the stockbrokers from/to the clients strictly by account payee crossed cheques/demand drafts or by way of direct credit into the bank account through electronic fund transfer, or any other mode permitted by the RBI. The stockbrokers shall accept cheques drawn only by the clients and also issue cheques in favour of the clients only, for their transactions. Stock Brokers shall not accept cash from their clients either directly or by way of cash deposit to the bank account of a stockbroker.

Considering the above provisions of the SEBI Circular, Dhruv cannot pay some consideration in cash to a stockbroker. He is advised to pay to his broker by way of account payee crossed cheque/demand draft or by way of direct credit into the bank account through electronic fund transfer, or any other mode permitted by the RBI.

Securities Laws and Capital Markets Questions and Answers

Introduction To MCA-21 and Filing in XBRL – Company Law Important Questions

Introduction To MCA-21 and Filing in XBRL – Company Law Important Questions

Introduction To MCA-21 and Filing in XBRL – Company Law Important Questions

Question 1.
Write a short note on Digital Signature Certificate. (December 2010) (4 marks)
Or
Who are all the persons required to obtain “Digital Signature Certificates” (DSCs)? (June 2019) (3 marks)
Answer:
1. A digital signature is the electronic signature duly issued by a certifying authority that shows the authority of the person signing the same. It is an electronic equivalent of a written signature.

2. Every user who is required to sign an e-form for submission with MCA is required to obtain a Digital Signature Certificate.

3. For MCA-21, the following four types of users are identified as users of Digital Signatures and are required to obtain digital signature certificate:

  • MCA (Government) Employees.
  • Professionals (Company Secretaries, Chartered Accountants, Cost Accountants and Lawyers) who interact with MCA and companies in the context of Companies Act
  • Authorized signatories of the Company including Managing Director, Directors, Manager or Secretary.
  • Representatives of Banks and Financial Institutions.

Question 2.
Distinguish between: Pre-scrutiny and Check Form. (June 2013) (4 marks)
Answer:
Pre-scrutiny:

  1. Pre-scrutiny is a functionality that is used for checking whether certain core aspects are properly filled in the e-Form.
  2. The user has to make the necessary attachments in PDF format before submitting the e-Form for pre-scrutiny. Pre-scrutiny is done after this affix digital signature.
    Check Form:
  3. By clicking “Check Form”, the user will be in a position to find out whether the mandatory fields in an e-Form are duly held in.
    For example, if the user enters alphabets in the “Date of Appointment of Director” field, he/she will be asked to correct the entered information.
  4. If the size of the e-Form including attachment is of bigger size then the attachment may be filed through an addendum.

Question 3.
Distinguish between informational services and approval services register of the company for categories of e-forms. (June 2016) (4 marks)
Answer:

Basis of Distinction Informational Services Approval Services
Meaning Informational Services cover those forms which are to be filed with ROC for information purposes, in compliance with the provisions of the Companies Act. Ministry of Corporate Affairs, Regional Directors & Registrar of Companies are empowered to accord approval or to give any direction in relation to certain matters. Such services are known as approval services.
Example Forms relating to the following informational services are required to be filed:

  • Consent and withdrawal of consent of persons charged as officers in default.
  • Voluntary Reporting of Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR)
  • Resolutions and agreements
  • Notice of address of the place where books of account are kept.
  • Information in relation to any offer of scheme or contract involving the transfer of shares or any class of shares in the transferor company to the transferee company.
  • Order received from Court or Tribunal.
ROC Approval is required in the following cases:

  • Extension of the time period for holding AGM.
  • Holding AGM at a place other than registered address.
  • Declaring of Company as defunct
  • Extension of the period of annual accounts.
  • The amalgamation of Companies.
  • Compounding of offenses.

Question 4.
Distinguish between XBRL tags and XBRL taxonomy. (June 2018) (4 marks)
Answer:
1. XBRL Tagging is the process by which any financial data is tagged with the most appropriate element in an accounting taxonomy (a dictionary of accounting terms) that best represents the data in addition to tags that facilitate identification/classification (such as enterprise, reporting period, reporting currency, unit of measurement, etc.).

2. All XBRL reports use the same taxonomy, numbers associated with the same element are comparable irrespective of how they are described by those releasing the financial statements. XBRL taxonomy is a dictionary of widely accepted accounting terms that conform to a GAAP (US GAAP, UK GAAP, IFRS, etc.).

Question 5.
Discuss the following:
1. Front Office represents the interface of the corporate and public users with the MCA 21 system.
Answer:
Front Office:

  • The major components involved in this comprehensive e-governance project are the front office and back office.
  • Front Office represents the interface of the corporate and public users with the MCA-21 system. This comprises of Virtual Front Office and Registrar’s Front Office.

2. For MCA-21, four types of users are identified as users of digital signature. (IIT) SMART Governance. (December 2008) (4 + 3 + 3 = 10 marks)
Answer:
Four types of users are identified as users of digital signature:
1. For MCA-21, the following four types of users are identified as users of Digital Signatures and are required to obtain a digital signature certificate:

  • MCA (Government) Employees.
  • Professionals (Company Secretaries, Chartered Accountants, Cost Accountants, and Lawyers) who interact with MCA and companies in the context of the Companies Act.
  • Authorized signatories of the Company including Managing Director, Directors, Manager, or Secretary.
  • Representatives of Banks and Financial Institutions.

3. SMART Governance:
1. Electronic Governance is the application of Information Technology to the Government’s functioning in order to bring about Simple, Moral, Accountable, Responsive, and Transparent (SMART) Governance.

2. E-governance is a highly complex process requiring the provision of hardware, software, networking, and reengineering of the procedures for better delivery of services.

3. MCA project was launched as a flagship initiative of the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA). MCA-21 has resulted in improved proce¬dures for better delivery of services by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.

4. MCA-21 is an ambitious e-governance initiative of the Government of India that builds on the Government’s vision of National e-gover¬nance in the country.

Question 6.
Briefly explain the following terms used under e-filing:
1. Pre-fill.
Answer:
Pre-fill:
Pre-fill is functionality in an e-Form that is used for filling automatically, the requisite data from the system without repeatedly entering the same.

For example, by entering the CIN of the company, the name and registered office address of the company shall automatically be pre-filled by the system without any fresh entry.

2. Attachment
Answer:
Attachment:

  • An attachment refers to a document that is sent as an enclosure with an e-Form by means of an attached file.
  • The objective of the attachment is to provide details relevant to the e-Form for processing. While some attachments are optional, some are mandatory in nature.
  • The attachments to an e-Form have to be in Adobe PDF format only and My MCA portal has a facility to convert any document format to PDF format. My MCA portal does not accept big attach¬ments and the users are advised to keep the attachment size to a minimum.

3. Check Form
Answer:
Check Form:

  • By clicking “Check Form”, the user will be in a position to find out whether the mandatory fields in an e-Form are duly held in. For example, if the user enters alphabets in the “Date of Appointment of Director” field, he/she will be asked to correct the entered infor¬mation.
  • If the size of the e-Form including attachment is of bigger size then the attachment may be filed through an addendum.

4. Pre-scrutiny (June 2009) (2 × 4= 8 marks)
Answer:
Pre-scrutiny:

  • Pre-scrutiny is a functionality that is used for checking whether certain core aspects are properly filled in the e-Form.
  • The user has to make the necessary attachments in PDF format before submitting the e-Form for pre-scrutiny.
  • After this affix digital signature.

Question 7.
What is the general structure of the e-filing process under MCA-21? (June 2011) (4 marks)
Or
What is the general structure of the e-filing process under MCA 21? (June 2013) (4 Marks)
Answer:
The basic pre-requisite structure requirement for e-Filing:
1. Digital Signature Certificate (DSC) of either Class 2 or Class 3 signing certificate category issued by a licensed Certifying Authority (CA) needs to be obtained for e-Filing on the MCA Portal.

2. Digital Signatures are legally admissible in a Court of Law, as provided under the provisions of IT Act, 2000. The Certifying Authorities are au¬thorized to issue a Digital Signature Certificate with a validity of one or two years.

3. The minimum system requirements for e-filing on MCA-21 are as under:

  • Any computer or laptop
  • An efficient operating system
  • Latest Browser
  • Adobe Reader from version 9.4 to version 10.1.4
  • Scanner (above 300-600 DPI) for converting the attachments in the PDF format; and
  • Java Runtime Environment (JRE) updated version.

Question 8.
Filing financial statements in XBRL mode and by using XBRL taxonomy is mandatory for certain companies. Discuss referring to the provi¬sions of the Companies Act, 2013. Comment (December 2018) (3 marks)
Answer:
1. Filing of financial statements with the registrar in XBRL Format (Rule 3 of the Companies (Filing of Documents and Forms in Extensible Business Reporting Language) Rules, 2015):

The following class of companies has to file their Balance Sheet, Profit & Loss A/C and other documents with the registrar using the Extensible Business Reporting Language (XBRL) namely:

  1. All Companies having listed with any Stock Exchange in India and their Indian Subsidiaries.
  2. All Companies having paid-up capital of rupees 5 crores or above.
  3. All companies having a turnover of rupees 100 crores or above.
  4. All Companies are required to prepare their financial statements in accordance with Companies (Indian Accounting Standards) Rules, 2015.

2. The companies which have filed their financial statements shall continue to file their financial statements and other documents though they may not fall under the class of companies specified therein succeeding years.

3. The Companies in Banking, Insurance, Power Sectors, and Non-Banking Financial Companies are exempted for Extensible Business Reporting Language (XBRL) filing.

Thus, Prudent General Insurance Company Ltd. being an insurance company is not required to file their Balance Sheet and Profit & Loss Account in XBRL.

CS Executive Company Law Questions and Answers

Special Economic Zones Act, 2005 – Economic, Business and Commercial Laws Important Questions

Special Economic Zones Act, 2005 – Economic, Business and Commercial Laws Important Questions

Special Economic Zones Act, 2005 – Economic, Business and Commercial Laws Important Questions

Question 1.
Special Economic Zones are engines of growth. Discuss. [June 2014 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
(a) Meaning of SEZ: Special Economic Zone (SEZ) is a specifically delineated duty-free enclave and shall be deemed to be foreign territory I for the purposes of trade operations and duties and tariffs.

(b) Earlier Regime: It is not the first time that India has tried to develop its SEZs. The first wave of export zones started in the year 1965 and ended in the year 2000 with little success. These early initiatives were also not supported by any legislative framework.

(c) Current Prospects: The prospects are better this time. The current policy targets private investment in SEZ development and offers several lucrative incentives and features that were not available in previous initiatives.

(d) Special Legislation: Special legislation, the SEZ Act, was enacted for the first time in 2005. The Act evoked immense interest among investors as it provided confidence, stability and the correct incentives.

(e) Key Tax Incentives: But the government dealt a significant blow to SEZs in 2012 when it rolled back key tax incentives, including the Minimum Alternate Tax. (MAT) and Dividend Distribution Tax (DDT), offered to investors.

(f) SEZs are strategic locations that address structural and institutional bottlenecks arising from infrastructural deficiencies, procedural complexities, bureaucratic hassles and other restrictive policies common in developing countries like India. They offer an enabling investment j climate to attract both off-shoring and outsourcing activities.

(g) Reviving manufacturing is one of the biggest development challenges that India faces today. The entry and integration of its firms into global value chains can help create the industrial dynamism that India needs.

(h) Even though 60% of zones are in the IT sector, almost 85% of SEZ land is used in manufacturing. SEZs have been instrumental in promoting new industries such as biotechnology, renewable energy, aviation, electronic and sports shoes.

(i) Thus, SEZs have the potential to be a major growth engine for India.

Question 2.
State the salient features of the Special Economic Zones Act, 2005. [Dec. 2016 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Features of the Special Economic Zones Act, 2005 are as under:

  • It deals with matters relating to the establishment of a Special Economic Zone (SEZ) and for setting up of units, including requirements, obligations and entitlements.
  • It deals with matters relating to requirements for setting up off-shore banking units and units in the International Financial Service Center in SEZ.
  • To provide a fiscal regime for developers of Special Economic Zone and units set-up therein
  • Single window clearance mechanism.
  • Establishment of an Authority for each SEZ set up by the Central Government to impart greater administrative autonomy.
  • Designation of Special Courts and single enforcement agency to ensure speedy trial and investigation of notified offences committed in SEZ.

Question 3.
What do you understand by “Offshore Banking Unit” under the Special Economic Zones Act, 2005? [June 2019 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
(a) Definition: As per Section 2(u) of the Special Economic Zones Act, 2Q05, Offshore Banking Unit means a branch of a bank located in SEZ and which has obtained permission under section 23(l)(a) of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949.

(b) Meaning: In simple words, a branch in the Special Economic Zone of a bank is known as Offshore Banking Unit.

(c) Permission: Bank has to take permission from RBI to open a branch in SEZ under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949.

(d) Notification for Condition: The Reserve Bank may, by notification, specify the terms and conditions subject to which an Offshore Banking Unit may be set up and operated in the Special Economic Zone.

Question 4.
What factors are taken into consideration by the Central Government while notifying any area as SEZ and discharging its functions under the Special Economic Zones Act, 2005? [June. 2019 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Guidelines for notifying special Economic Zone [Section 5]: The Central Government, while notifying any area as SEZ or an additional area to be included in the SEZ and discharging its functions under the Act, shall be guided by the following:

  • Generation of additional economic activity.
  • Promotion of exports of goods and services.
  • Promotion of investment from domestic and foreign sources.
  • Creation of employment opportunities.
  • Development of infrastructure facilities.
  • Maintenance of sovereignty and integrity of India.
  • Maintenance of the security of the State.
  • Maintenance of friendly relations with foreign States.

Question 5.
Who can establish the Special Economic Zone? Discuss. [Dec. 2018 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Section 3 of the Special Economic Zones Act, 2005 makes the following provisions in relation to the establishment of SEZ:
1. Eligibility: A SEZ may be established, either jointly or severally by the Central/State Government, or any person for the manufacture of goods or rendering services or for both or as a Free Trade and Warehousing Zone.

2. Application:

  • Any person, who intends to set up SEZ may make a proposal to the State Government for the purpose of setting up the SEZ after identifying the area.
  • If the State Government receives the proposal for SEZ, it has to forward the same to the Board along with its recommendations within the prescribed period.

3. Application to Board: A person who intends to set up SEZ, may make a proposal to the Board for the purpose of setting up the SEZ. In the case where a proposal is directly received from a person, the Board may
grant approval and after receipt of such approval, the person concerned shall obtain the concurrence of the State Government within the prescribed period.

4. The decision by Board: The Board may approve the proposal subject to such terms and conditions as it may deem fit. The Board can also modify or reject the proposal.

5. Set up by State Government: A State Government can also set up SEZ. It should identify the area for SEZ and forward the proposal to the Board for the purpose of setting up the SEZ.

6. Central Government: However, the Central Government may Suo Motu set up and notify the Special Economic Zone:
(a) After consulting the State Government concerned;
(b) Without referring the proposal for setting up the SEZ to the Board;
(c) After identifying the area.

7. Prescribed Form: Every proposal shall be made in the prescribed form and in the prescribed manner.

Question 6.
What are the power and functions of the Board of Approval under the Special Economic Zones (SEZs) Act, 2005?
Answer:
As per section 9 of the Special Economic Zones Act, 2005, powers and functions of the Board are as follows:

  • To grant approval or reject the proposal or to modify proposals for the establishment of the SEZ.
  • To grant approval of authorized operations that can be carried out in the SEZs by the Developer.
  • To grant approval to the Developers or Units for foreign collaborations and foreign direct investments, in the SEZ for its development, operation and maintenance.
  • To grant approval or reject the proposal for providing infrastructure facilities in SEZ or to modify such proposals.
  • To grant a license to an industrial undertaking subject to provisions of the Industries (Development & Regulation) Act, 1951.
  • To suspend the letter of approval granted to Developer and appointment of an Administrator u/s 10(1).
  • To dispose of appeals u/ss. 15(4) & 16(4) of the Act.
  • To perform such other functions as may be assigned to it by the Central Government.

Question 7.
When the Board of Approval is empowered to suspend the letter of approval granted to the developer under the Special Economic Zones (SEZs) Act, 2005? [Dec. 2017(3 Marks)]
Answer:
Suspension of letter of approval [Section 10]: The Board shall have the power to suspend the letter of approval granted to the Developer for a whole or part of his area established as SEZ for a period not exceeding 1 year and appoint an Administrator to discharge the functions of the devel-oper in accordance with the terms and conditions of the letter of approval and manage the SEZ accordingly.

The suspension may be ordered by the Board, if in its opinion following circumstances exist:

  • The developer is unable to discharge the functions or perform the duties imposed on him.
  • The developer has persistently defaulted in complying with any direction given by the Board under the Act.
  • The developer has violated the terms and conditions of the letter of approval.
  • The developer’s financial position is such that he is unable to fully and efficiently discharge the duties and obligations imposed on him by the letter of approval.

Question 8.
State the method of appointment and functions of the Development Commissioner. {Dec. 2016 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Development Commissioner [Section 11]:

  1. Central Government may appoint any of its officers not below the rank of Deputy Secretary to the Government of India as the Development Commissioner of one or more SEZs.
  2. Central Government may appoint such officers and other employees as it considers necessary to assist the Development Commissioner in the performance of his functions in the SEZs established by a Developer on such terms and conditions as it deems fit.
  3. Every Development Commissioner, officers and other employees shall be entitled to such salary and allowances and subject to such terms and conditions of service in respect of leave, pension, provident fund and other matters as may, from time to time, be specified by the Central Government.

Every Development Commissioner shall take all steps in order to discharge his functions under the Act to ensure speedy development of the SEZ and promotion of exports. [Section 12(1)]

Functions of Development Commissioner [Section 12(2)]: Functions of Development Commissioner are as follows –
(a) Guide: To guide the entrepreneurs for setting up Units in the SEZ.
(b) Promotion: To ensure and take suitable steps for effective promotion of exports from the SEZ.
(e) Co-ordination: To ensure proper coordination with Central or State Government Departments or agencies.
(d) Monitor: To monitor the performance of the Developer and the Units in SEZ.
(e) Discharge other functions: To discharge such other functions as may be assigned to him by the Central Government under the Act or any other law for the time being in force.
(f) Delegated by Board: To discharge such other functions as may be delegated to him by the Board.

Question 9.
Discuss the functions of Special Economic Zone Authority under Special Economic Zones Act, 2005. [June 2017 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Development Commissioner [Section 11]:

  1. Central Government may appoint any of its officers not below the rank of Deputy Secretary to the Government of India as the Development Commissioner of one or more SEZs.
  2. Central Government may appoint such officers and other employees as it considers necessary to assist the Development Commissioner in the performance of his functions in the SEZs established by a Developer on such terms and conditions as it deems fit.
  3. Every Development Commissioner, officers and other employees shall be entitled to such salary and allowances and subject to such terms and conditions of service in respect of leave, pension, provident fund and other matters as may, from time to time, be specified by the Central Government.

Every Development Commissioner shall take all steps in order to discharge his functions under the Act to ensure speedy development of the SEZ and promotion of exports. [Section 12(1)]

Functions of Development Commissioner [Section 12(2)]: Functions of Development Commissioner are as follows –
(a) Guide: To guide the entrepreneurs for setting up Units in the SEZ.
(b) Promotion: To ensure and take suitable steps for effective promotion of exports from the SEZ.
(e) Co-ordination: To ensure proper coordination with Central or State Government Departments or agencies.
(d) Monitor: To monitor the performance of the Developer and the Units in SEZ.
(e) Discharge other functions: To discharge such other functions as may be assigned to him by the Central Government under the Act or any other law for the time being in force.
(f) Delegated by Board: To discharge such other functions as may be delegated to him by the Board.

Question 10.
State the prime functions of the Development Commissioner as incorporated in the Special Economic Zones Act, 2005. [Dec. 2019 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Development Commissioner [Section 11]:

  1. Central Government may appoint any of its officers not below the rank of Deputy Secretary to the Government of India as the Development Commissioner of one or more SEZs.
  2. Central Government may appoint such officers and other employees as it considers necessary to assist the Development Commissioner in the performance of his functions in the SEZs established by a Developer on such terms and conditions as it deems fit.
  3. Every Development Commissioner, officers and other employees shall be entitled to such salary and allowances and subject to such terms and conditions of service in respect of leave, pension, provident fund and other matters as may, from time to time, be specified by the Central Government.

Every Development Commissioner shall take all steps in order to discharge his functions under the Act to ensure speedy development of the SEZ and promotion of exports. [Section 12(1)]

Functions of Development Commissioner [Section 12(2)]: Functions of Development Commissioner are as follows –
(a) Guide: To guide the entrepreneurs for setting up Units in the SEZ.
(b) Promotion: To ensure and take suitable steps for effective promotion of exports from the SEZ.
(e) Co-ordination: To ensure proper coordination with Central or State Government Departments or agencies.
(d) Monitor: To monitor the performance of the Developer and the Units in SEZ.
(e) Discharge other functions: To discharge such other functions as may be assigned to him by the Central Government under the Act or any other law for the time being in force.
(f) Delegated by Board: To discharge such other functions as may be delegated to him by the Board.

Question 11.
Explain the functions and powers of the Approval Committee under the Special Economic Zone Act, 2005. [Dec. 2019 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Section 14 of the Special Economic Zones Act, 2005 empowers every Approval Committee to discharge the functions and exercise the powers in respect of the following matters:
(a) approve, the import or procurement of goods from the Domestic Tariff Area, for carrying on the authorised operations by a Developer in the Special Economic Zone;

(b) approve providing of services by a service provider from outside India or from the Domestic Tariff Area for carrying on the authorised operations by the Developer, in the Special Economic Zone;

(c) monitor the utilisation of goods or services or warehousing or trading in the Special Economic Zone;

(d) approve, modify or reject proposals for setting up Units for manufacturing or rendering of services or warehousing or trading in SEZ in accordance with the provisions of section 15(8) of the Act;

(e) allow on receipt of approval foreign collaborations and foreign direct investments, including investments by a person outside India for setting up a Unit;

(f) monitor and supervise compliance of conditions subject to which the letter of approval or permission, if any, is granted to the Developer or entrepreneur; and

(g) perform any other functions as may be entrusted to it by the Central Government or the State Government concerned, as the case may be.

Question 12.
International Financial Services Centre (IFSC) companies are attractive for foreign investment. Comment. [June 2018 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
(a) Meaning of IFSC:

  1. International Financial Service Centre (IFSC) is a hub of financial services within a country, which has laws and regulations different from the rest of the country.
  2. Usually, these centres have low tax rates and flexible regulations for securities and currency trading, banking and insurance, which makes them attractive for foreign investment.
  3. An International Financial Services Centre (IFSC) caters to customers outside the jurisdiction of the domestic economy.
  4. It can be said that these centres deal mainly with the flow of money, financial products and services across borders.
  5. London, New York and Singapore can be counted as global financial centres.
  6. It can be Specified as IFSC Public company or a Specified IFSC Private Company.

(b) Services offered by IFSC(s):

  • Fundraising services for individuals, corporations and governments.
  • Asset management and global portfolio diversification are undertaken by pension funds, insurance companies and mutual funds.
  • Wealth management.
  • Global tax management and cross-border tax liability optimization, which provides a business opportunity for financial intermediaries, accountants and law firms.
  • Global and regional corporate treasury management operations that involve fundraising, liquidity investment and management and asset-liability matching.
  • Risk management operations such as insurance and reinsurance.
  • Merger and acquisition activities among transnational corporations.

In exercise of powers u/s 462(1) of Companies Act, 2013, the MCA has exempted several exemptions to such International Financial Services Centre companies.

(c) Example: Gujarat International Finance Tec-City (GIFT City) has set up an international financial service centre in accordance with SEZ Act 2005.

Question 13.
Prepare a brief note for the directors of your company regarding exemption or benefits available to the Developer and entrepreneur under ‘ the Special Economic Zones Act, 2005.
Answer:
Exemptions, drawbacks and concessions to Developer and entrepreneur [Section 26(1)]: Every Developer and the entrepreneur shall be entitled to the following exemptions, drawbacks and concessions:
(a) Exemption from import duties: Exemption is available to Developer and the entrepreneur in respect of duties of customs under the Cus-toms Act, 1962 or the Customs Tariff Act, 1975 or any other law for the time being in force on goods imported into or service provided in an SEZ or to a Unit in SEZ and to carry on the authorized operations.

(b) Exemption from export duties: Exemption is available to Developer and the entrepreneur in respect of duties of customs under the Cus-toms Act, 1962 or the Customs Tariff Act, 1975 or any other law for the time being in force on goods exported from or services provided from SEZ or from by a Unit in SEZ to any place outside India.

(c) Exemption for Excise Duty: Exemption is available from duties of excise under the Central Excise Act, 1944 or the Central Excise Tariff Act, 1985 or any other law for the time being in force, on goods brought from DTA to SEZ/Unit in SEZ to carry on the authorized operations.

(d) Drawbacks: Drawback and other benefits are available on goods brought or services provided from the DTA into SEZ/Unit in SEZ. Similar benefits are also available for services provided in SEZ/Unit in SEZ by the service providers located outside India to carry on the authorized operations by the Developer or entrepreneur.

(e) Exemption from Service Tax: Exemption is available from service tax under Chapter-V of the Finance Act, 1994 on taxable services provided to a Developer or Unit to carry on the authorized operations in SEZ.

(f) Exemption from Securities Transaction Tax (STT): Exemption is available from the STT leviable u/s 98 of the Finance Act, 2004 in case the taxable securities transactions are entered into by a non-resident through the International Financial Services Centre.

(g) Exemption from Central Sales Tax (CST): Exemption is available from the levy of taxes on the sale or purchase of goods other than newspapers under the Central Sales Tax Act, 1956 if such goods are meant to carry on the authorized operations by the Developer or entrepreneur.

Conditions for availing exemptions [Section 26(2)]: The Central Government may prescribe the manner in which and the terms and conditions subject to which the exemptions, concessions, drawback or other benefits shall be granted to the Developer or entrepreneur.

Question 14.
Section 34 of the Special Economic Zones Act, 2005 casts upon the Authority a duty to undertake such measures for the development, operation and management of the Special Economic Zone. Explain. [Dec. 2018 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
As per Section 34 of the Special Economic Zones Act, 2005, subject to the provisions of the Act, it shall be the duty of each Authority to undertake such measures as it thinks fit for the development, operation and management of the SEZ for which it is constituted.

In addition to the above, the Authority shall discharge the following functions:

  • To develop infrastructure in the SEZ.
  • To promote exports from the SEZ.
  • To review the functions and performance of the SEZ.
  • To levy user or service charges or fees or rent for the use of properties belonging to the Authority.
  • To perform other prescribed functions.

Question 15.
Explain under what circumstances the Central Government is empowered to supersede any authority constituted under Special Economic Zones Act, 2005? What will be the consequences of such power is exercised by Central Government? [June 2019 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Power to supersede Authority [Section 40( 1)]: The Central Government shall have the power to supersede the SEZ Authority by issuing notification for a period not exceeding 6 months if the Central Government is of the opinion that, the Authority:

  • is unable to perform duties imposed on it by or under the Act;
  • has persistently made default in the performance of the duties;
  • has exceeded or abused its powers;
  • has wilfully or without sufficient cause has failed to comply with any direction issued by the Central Government u/s 38.

The opportunity of being heard: Before issuing such notification, the Central Government shall give reasonable time to that Authority to make representation against the proposed supersession and shall consider the representations of the Authority.

Effect of notification [Section 40(2)]: Upon the publication of a notification superseding the Authority –

  • The Chairperson and other Members of the Authority shall vacate their offices.
  • All the powers, functions and duties of the Authority shall be exercised and performed by such person(s) as the Central Government may direct.
  • All property vested in the Authority shall vest in the Central Government.

Extension of the period of supersession and reconstitution of Authority [Section 40(3)]: On the expiration of the period of supersession, the Central Government may –

  • Extend the period of supersession for such further period not exceeding 6 months; or
  • Reconstitute the Authority.

Question 16.
How the “Special Economic Zone Authority” is constituted under Special Economic Zones Act, 2005? Which are the defects or irregularities for which any act or proceedings of authority cannot be invalidated? [June 2019 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Constitution of Authority [Section 31(1)]: The Central Government shall constitute by notification in the Official Gazette for every Special

Economic Zone, an Authority to be called the (name of the Special Economic Zone) Authority to exercise the powers and functions assigned to it under the Act.

Authority to be a body corporate [Section 31(2)]: Every Authority shall be a body corporate having perpetual succession and a common seal, with a power to acquire, hold and dispose of property, both movable and immovable, and to contract and shall by the said name sue and be sued.

Head Office [Section 31(3)]: The head office of every Authority shall be at such place as the Central Government may specify in the notification.

Branch Office [Section 31(4)]: Any Authority may, with the previous approval of the Central Government, establish branch offices at other places in India. Act of an Authority not invalidated due to defect etc.

[Section 31(9)]: Act or proceeding of an Authority shall not be invalidated merely by reason of:

  • Any vacancy in, or any defect in the constitution of, the Authority; or
  • Any defect in the appointment of a person acting as a Member of the Authority; or
  • Any irregularity in the procedure of Authority (not affecting the merits of the case).

Economic, Business and Commercial Laws Questions and Answers

Various Initial Registrations & Licenses – Setting Up of Business Entities and Closure Important Questions

Various Initial Registrations & Licenses – Setting Up of Business Entities and Closure Important Questions

Various Initial Registrations & Licenses – Setting Up of Business Entities and Closure Important Questions

Question 1.
Rakshit is Science Graduate and just obtained Permanent Account Number from the Income Tax Department by submitting the necessary; information and documents online. He is not aware for what purposes [ PAN is used and the benefits of having PAN. As a Consultant, you are required j to explain the benefits and use of having PAN to Rakshit.
Answer:
Following are some of the benefits/use/purposes of obtaining PAN:
IT Returns Filing: All individuals and entities that are required to pay Income tax have to file their IT returns. A PAN card is necessary for filing g of IT returns and is the primary reason individuals, as well as other entities, apply for the same.

Opening a bank account: A PAN card is required in order to open a new bank account, whether it is a savings or a current account. All banks, whether public, private, or cooperative, require the submission of a PAN card in order to open an account with them.

Applying for a credit or debit card: When applying for either a debit card or a credit card at any bank or financial institution, furnishing your PAN card details mandated by regulations. The bank will not issue the card if this criterion is not met.

Purchase of jewelry: If you are looking at buying any sort of jewelry that is valued at over ₹ 5,00,000, you will have to provide your PAN card details at the time of purchase.

Making investments: Investing in securities is seen as a good way to build wealth. If you are considering investing in securities, you would have to furnish your PAN details for any transactions amounting to above ₹ 50,000. Proof of Identity: A PAN card is accepted as valid proof of identity anywhere in the country, and is also considered as proof of age. It can also be used as proof of identity when making an application for a passport, voter ID card, driving license, electricity connection, etc.

Foreign Exchange: If you are traveling abroad and wish to convert your Indian currency into foreign currency, you are required to provide details of your PAN at the money exchange institution where you are converting the money.

Property: Buying, selling, or renting a property in India now requires PAN card proof. In the case of buying of property, the PAN details of the buyer, as well as the seller, have to be listed on the sales deed and any other such documentation for the sale to be complete.

Loans: If you are taking a loan, all loan providers, both banks as well as other lending institutions, require you to submit details of your PAN at the time of loan application.

Fixed Deposits: If you plan on investing your money in a Fixed Deposit (FD) amounting to above ₹ 50,000 in a bank, you will have to provide your PAN details. This is done as the bank will deduct TDS (Tax Deductible at Source) on the FD interest amount.

Cash Deposits: If you are making a cash deposit that amounts to over ₹ 50,000 at a time, you will have to submit your PAN details as well. This is in keeping with the RBI mandate, which directs banks to report any large cash deposits to the RBI, as a way to prevent money laundering.

Question 2.
Any corporate body doing business in India requires a PAN card whether it is registered in India or not. Elucidate. [Dec. 2018 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Permanent Account Number (PAN) is a code that acts as an identification for individuals, HUF, and corporates (Indian and Foreign as well), especially those who pay Income Tax.

It is a unique, 10-character alpha-numeric identifier, issued to all judicial entities identifiable under the Income-tax Act, 1961. The Income Tax PAN code and its linked card are issued u/s 139A of the Income-tax Act. It is issued by the Indian Income Tax Department under the supervision of the Central Board for Direct Taxes (CBDT) and it also serves as an important proof of identification.

Who is required to hold PAN Card in India: Any corporate body doing business in India requires a PAN card whether it is registered in India or abroad. Equally, an individual or entity which is engaged in a business with an Indian firm/entity requires a PAN card.

It is also required for anybody who is involved in generating money out of India whether the company is registered, or has a permanent establishment, or an office in India. Given below is a list of the entities that are required to hold a PAN card in India.

  • Body Corporate
  • Companies
  • Firms
  • One Person Company
  • LLP
  • Sole Proprietor
  • Trusts
  • Corporations
  • Other Associations
  • Foreign Institutional Investors
  • Hedge Funds

Question 3.
Referring to the relevant provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961, answer the following:
(i) Who is required to apply for Tax Deduction & Collection Account Number (TAN)?
(ii) On which documents such as TAN are required to be quoted?
(iii) What are the consequences of not quoting TAN?
(iv) Is it possible to quote PAN in place of TAN?
(v) Can taxpayers hold more than one TAN?
Answer:
Meaning of Tax Deduction & Collection Account Number (TAN):
Tax Deduction Account Number or Tax Collection Account Number is a 10-digit alphanumeric number issued by the Income-tax Department.

Structure of TAN: First 4 digits of TAN are alphabets, the next 5 digits of TAN are numeric and the last digit is an alphabet.

The First 3 alphabets of TAN represent the jurisdiction code, 4th alphabet is the initial name of the TAN holder who can be a company, firm, individual, etc. For example, TAN allotted to Mr. Mahesh of Delhi may appear as – DEL M 12345 L

Who is required to apply for TAN: As per Section 203A of the Income-tax Act, 1961, every person, deducting or collecting tax shall within such time as may be prescribed, apply to the Assessing Officer for the allotment of a “Tax Deduction & Collection Account Number”.

Quoting of Tax Deduction & Collection Account Number: A person to whom Tax deduction and Collection Account number has been allotted shall quote such number on the following documents:
(a) TDS statements Le. return
(b) TCS statements Le. return
(c) Statement of financial transactions or reportable accounts
(d) Challans for payment of TDS/TCS
(e) TDS/TCS certificates
(f) Other documents as may be prescribed.

Consequences of not quoting TAN: Section 272BB(1) provides for penalty for failure to obtain TAN and section 272BB(1A) provides for penalty for quoting incorrect TAN. The penalty imposable under section 272BB is ₹ 10,000.

Government deductors are also liable to obtain TAN: Like Non-Government deductors, Government deductors are also required to apply for TAN.

PAN cannot be quoted in place of TAN: PAN should never be quoted in the field where TAN is required to be quoted. In other words, the deductor/ collector cannot quote his PAN in place of TAN. If he does not possess TAN, then he has to apply for the same. However, a person required to deduct tax under section 194-IA can use PAN in place of TAN as such person is not required to obtain TAN.

Taxpayers cannot hold more than one TAN: It is illegal to possess or use more than one TAN. Different branches/divisions of an entity may, however, have separate TAN.

In case more than one TAN has been allotted, then the TAN which is being used regularly should be continued and the other TAN(s) should immediately be surrendered for cancellation using “Form for changes or correction in TAN” which can be downloaded from NSDL-TIN website or maybe procured from TIN-FC.

Changes in the basic data communicated at the time of making the application for allotment of TAN: Any change or correction in the data associated with TAN should be communicated to the Income-tax Department by filling up “Form for changes or correction in TAN data for TAN allotted” along with necessary fees at any of the TIN-FCs or NSDL-TIN website.

Question 4.
Certain categories of persons are not liable to register under the Central Goods & Services Tax Act, 2017. Explain. x
Answer:
As per Section 23 of the Central Goods & Services Tax Act, 2017, the following persons shall not be liable to registration under the GST:

  • Any person engaged in the business of supplying goods or services or both that is not liable to tax.
  • Any person engaged in the business of supplying goods or services or both that is wholly exempt from tax.
  • An agriculturist, to the extent of supply of produce out of cultivation of land.
  • Specified categories of persons notified by the Central Government on the recommendations of the GST Council.

Question 5.
Under what circumstances registration of a taxable person can be canceled under the GST Law?
Answer:
The proper officer may, either on his own motion or on an application filed by the registered person or by his legal heirs, in case of death of such person, cancel the registration, in such manner and within such period as may be prescribed.

Application for cancellation of registration shall be filed electronically in Form GST REG-16.

Voluntary registration cannot be canceled within 1 year [Rule 20 of CGST Rules, 2017]: Application for cancellation of voluntary registration shall not be considered before the expiry of 1 year from the effective date of registration.

Cases in which registration can be canceled: The proper officer may cancel the registration in the following cases:

  • The business has been discontinued, transferred fully for any reason including death of the proprietor, amalgamated with other legal entity, demerged, or otherwise disposed of.
  • There is no change in the constitution of the business.
  • The taxable person, other than the person registered under Section 25(3), is no longer liable to be registered u/s 22 or 24.

However, during the pendency of the proceedings relating to cancellation of registration filed by the registered person, the registration may be suspended for such period and in such manner as may be prescribed.

Suo Motu cancellation of registration by Proper Officer: The Proper Officer may cancel Suo Motu the registration in the following cases:

  • A registered person has contravenes the provisions of the CGST Act or the rules made thereunder.
  • A person paying tax has not furnished returns for 3 consecutive tax periods.
  • Any registered person [other than a person specified in clause (h)\ has not furnished returns for a continuous period of 6 months.
  • Any person who has taken voluntary registration has not commenced business within 6 months from the date of registration.
  • Registration has been obtained by means of fraud, wilful misstatement, or suppression of facts.

The proper officer shall not cancel the registration without giving the person an opportunity of being heard.

Question 6.
Registration under the Central Goods & Services Tax Act, 2017 is made compulsory in certain cases, irrespective of the aggregate turnover. Explain. [Dec. 2018 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Provisions of compulsory registration are contained u/s 24 of the Central Goods & Services Tax (CGST) Act, 2017.

Categories of persons who are required to obtain compulsory registration are listed herein below:

  • A person engaged in the inter-State taxable supply of goods or services or both.
  • A casual taxable person engaged in taxable supply.
  • Persons are liable to pay tax under the reverse charge mechanism.
  • A non-resident taxable person engaged in providing taxable supply.
  • A person is liable to pay tax u/s 9(5) of the Act.
  • The person is liable to deduct tax at source (TDS).
  • Input Service Distributor.
  • E-commerce operator who is required to collect tax u/s 52.
  • A person engaged in supplying goods or services or both through an e-commerce operator who is required to collect tax at source (TCS).
  • The person engaged in supplying online information and database access or retrieval services from a place outside India to an unregistered person.
  • Persons engaged in the taxable supply of goods or services or both on behalf of another registered taxable person, whether as an agent or otherwise.

It must be noted that categories of the person covered under compulsory registration are mandatorily required to obtain registration irrespective of the quantum of turnover.

Question 7.
Ramesh has purchased a shop in the local market of New Delhi and wants to set up a business of electronic goods. Is he required to get his shop registered under the Shops and Establishment Act? If so, advise him of the procedure. [Dec. 2018 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
A business owner of a shop or establishment is compulsorily required to get the same registered under the Shops and Establishment Act of the State where the business is located.

Procedure for registration of the Shops and Establishment differs from State to State as each State have their own Shops and Establishment Act.

Generally, the following procedure can be adopted for registration of the Shops and Establishments:
1. Submit an application in the prescribed form to the Inspector of the area within 30 days of starting any work in the shop/establishment. The application is to be submitted along with the prescribed fees and should contain the following information:

  • Name of the employer, owner, and the name of a manager, if any.
  • Postal address of the establishment.
  • Name of the establishment.
  • Such other particulars as may be prescribed.

2. Upon receiving the application for registration and the fees, the Inspector shall verify the accuracy and correctness of the application.

3. Once suitably satisfied, he shall enter the details in the Register of Establishments and issue a registration certificate.

4. This certificate will be valid for the specified period and has to be renewed thereafter.
It is important that the registration certificate has to be prominently displayed at the shop or establishment.

Question 8.
Explain the procedure to be adopted for change in address of business premises under the Shops & Establishment Act.
Answer:
Communication of change to the Inspector: In case of any change with respect to any of the information given during the application for registration, the same has to be notified to the Inspector’s office within 15 days after the change has taken place. [Period of 15 days specified here may differ from State to State as each State have its own Shop & Establishment Act]

The Inspector will verify the correctness of the details furnished, make the related change in the Register of Establishments, amend the registration certificate or issue a fresh registration certificate.

Closing of Establishment to be communicated to Inspector: In case the shop or establishment would like to close down the business, the occupier should notify the Inspector in writing within 15 days of the closing.

The Chief Inspector after reviewing the request for closure can remove the shop or commercial establishment from the register and cancel the registration certificate.

Question 9.
How enterprises are classified under the Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises Development Act, 2006?
Answer:
Classification of Enterprises [Section 7(1)]:
(a) In the case of industry specified in the First Schedule to the Industries (Development & Regulation) Act, 1951, as:

  • Micro Where investment in plant & machinery is below ₹ 25 lakhs
  • Small Where investment in plant & machinery is above ₹ 25 lakh but below ₹ 5 Crore
  • Medium Where investment in plant and machinery is above ₹ 5 Crore but below ₹ 10 Crore

(b) In the case of the enterprises engaged in providing or rendering of services, as:

  • Micro Where the investment in equipment is below ₹ 10 lakh
  • Small Where the investment in equipment is above 110 lakh but below ₹ 2 Crore
  • Medium Where the investment in equipment is above ₹ 2 Crore but below ₹ 5 Crore

Note: It has been clarified that the cost of pollution control, research and development, industrial safety devices, and such other items as may be specified will be excluded while calculating the investment in plant and machinery.

Question 10.
Ankush is running a small factory in the industrial area of Pune District. In order to avail various benefits available under various laws and policies framed by the Central and State Governments, he wants to register his factory as Small Enterprise. Advice him regarding the process to be j followed for such registration. Also, state the various documents required j to be submitted at the time of application for registration.
Answer:
MSME stands for micro, small and medium enterprises and any enterprise that falls under any of these three categories. MSME enterprises are the backbone of any economy and are an engine of economic growth, promoting equitable development for all. Therefore, to support and promote MSMEs, the Government of India through various subsidies, schemes and incentives promote MSMEs through the MSMED Act. To avail the benefits under the MSMED Act from Central or State Government and the Banking j Sector, MSME Registration is required.

Micro, Small, and Medium-sized enterprises in both the manufacturing j and service sectors can obtain MSME Registration under the MSMED Act. Though the MSME registration is not statutory, it is beneficial for businesses at it provides a range of benefits such as eligibility for lower rates of interest, excise exemption schemes, tax subsidies, power tariff subsidies, capital investment subsidies, and other support.

Registration Process: The registration Process of Micro & Small Enterprises is as follows:

  • To register the small and medium scale industry, the owner has to fill a single form which he can do online as well as offline.
  • If a person wants to do registration for more than one industry then also he can do individual registration.
  • To do the registration he has to fill a single form which is available on the website.
  • Document required for the registration is Personal Aadhaar number, Industry name, Address, bank account details, and some common information.
  • There are no registration fees required for this process.
  • Once the required details and documents are submitted the registration number will be issued.

Documents required for MSME Registration:

  • Business Address Proof
  • Copies of Sale Bill and Purchase Bill
  • Partnership Deed in case of Firm
  • MOA and AOA in case of a company
  • Copy of Licenses and Bills of Machinery Purchased

Question 11.
What do you understand by Udyog Aadhaar Registration? Discuss its purpose, benefits, and registration process in detail.
Answer:
In recent times, for boosting small-scale businesses in the country, the Government of India has initiated the Udyog Aadhaar Registration process. Earlier, if you wished to start a business and get SSI Registration or MSME registration, you needed to go through a lot of paperwork. Now, you need to fill in only two forms: Entrepreneur Memorandum-I and Entrepreneur Memorandum-II instead of 11 different types of forms that were required earlier.

The Udyog Aadhaar Registration is a completely online process that is totally free of cost. Industries registered with Udyog Aadhaar become entitled to receive the benefits of several government schemes such as subsidies, easy loan approvals, etc.

UAM (Udyog Aadhaar Memorandum): Udyog Aadhaar Memorandum is the registration form wherein the MSME certifies its existence and provides mandatory information such as the owner’s Aadhaar details, bank account details, etc.

After submitting this form, an acknowledgment form is released to the registered email of the applicant containing the unique UAN (Udyog Aadhaar Number).

As it is a self-declaration form, there’s no need for any supporting documentation.

Note: Even though supporting documents are not required, any central or state authority can ask for specific documentation as proof of information provided in the UAM form.

Udyog Aadhaar Registration Process:

  1. The SME (Small and Medium Scale Enterprises) owner needs to fill a one-page form online. For online registration, the applicant should visit the official website: www.msme.gov.in.
  2. If someone wishes to register for more than one industry then they should opt for individual registration.
  3. The MSME has to self-certify its existence, details of the business activity, bank account, ownership and employment details, and other information.
  4. During the registration process, the individual needs to provide self-certified certificates, documents, and other required information.
  5. No registration fees are required to be paid.
  6. After filling in the details and uploading the same, the registration number would be generated and the same would be mailed to the email address given in the UAM which should contain a unique UAN (Udyog Aadhaar Number)

Benefits of Udyog Aadhaar Registration: Various benefits of Udyog Aadhaar Registration are given below:

  • Loans at subsidized rates of interest from government and banks.
  • Financial support for participating in foreign expos.
  • Various government subsidies.
  • Reduction in fee for filing patents and trademarks.
  • Concession in electricity bills
  • Fast resolution of disputes
  • Octroi benefits
  • Several exemptions from direct & indirect tax laws
  • Exemption while applying for government tenders
  • Preference in the allocation of government tenders

With two lakhs registered businesses in the MSME category, the industry is moving towards becoming organized and systematized with maximum benefits for the entrepreneurs.

Question 12.
Bermuda Sports Manufacturing Unit, a Micro and Small Enterprise, seeks registration under the Single Point Registration Scheme of NSIC. State the various benefits/facilities available to the registered units. [June 2019 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
NSIC Registration: The Government is the single largest buyer of a variety of goods. With a view to increasing the share of purchases from the small-scale sector, the Government Stores Purchase Programme was launched in 1955-1956. National Small Industries Corporation [NSIC] registers Micro & Small Enterprises (MSEs) under Single Point Registration Scheme (SPRS) for participation in Government Purchases.

Benefits of NSIC Registration: The units registered under the Single Point Registration Scheme of NSIC are eligible to get the benefits under the Public Procurement Policy for Micro & Small Enterprises (MSEs) Order, 2012 as notified by the Government of India, Ministry of Micro Small & Medium Enterprises, New Delhi.

  • Issue of the Tender Sets free of cost.
  • Exemption from payment of Earnest Money Deposit (EMD),
  • In tender participating MSEs quoting price within a price band of L1+15% shall also be allowed to supply a portion up to 2096 of requirement by bringing down their price to LI Price where LI is non-MSEs.
  • Every Central Ministries/Departments/PSU shall set an annual goal of a minimum of 20% of the total annual purchases of the products or services produced or rendered by MSEs. Out of the annual requirement of 2096 procurement from MSEs, 496 is earmarked for units owned by Schedule Caste/Schedule Tribes.
  • In addition to the above, 358 items are also reserved for exclusive purchase from SSI Sector.

Question 13.
State the procedure for registration of employers and employees under the ESI Scheme.
Answer:
ESI stands for Employee State Insurance managed by the Employee State Insurance Corporation which is an autonomous body created under the Employees State Insurance Act, 1948 and works under the Ministry of Labour and Employment, Government of India.

This scheme is started for Indian workers. The workers are provided with a huge variety of medical, monetary, and other benefits from the employer. Any Company having more than 10 employees (in some states it is 20 employees) who have a maximum salary/wage of ₹ 21,000 per month has to mandatorily register itself with the ESIC. The wage limit for Employees with ‘Disability’ is ₹ 25,000 per month.

Under this scheme, the employer needs to contribute an amount of 4.7596 of the total monthly salary payable to the employee whereas the employer needs to contribute only 1.7596 of his monthly salary every month of the year. ESI Registration Procedure Registration of Employer: Any employer having more than 10 employees is mandatorily required to take up the ESI Registration.

Within 15 days of submission of the Employer’s Registration Form (Form 1), the company or firm is expected to obtain an Identification number or Code Number from the Regional office. This figure will be used in correspondence related to the scheme.

Documents required:

  • Documents about the establishment of the company.
  • Evidence supporting the date of commencement of production/business.
  • List of partners, stakeholders, directors along with necessary information and proof of address.
  • Copy of PAN
  • Identity proof like Voter ID/passport
  • List of employees

Registration of Employee: At the time of joining the Establishment, an employee is required to fill the Declaration Form with a copy of the family photo which the employer will be submitting at the ESI branch office.

Within 3 months a permanent Photo ID is provided to the employee with an insurance number for identification purposes under the scheme.

Question 14.
State the procedure for registration of establishment under the law governing the provident fund.
Answer:
To provide financial stability and security to employees when they are temporarily or no longer fit to work, the Parliament enacted the Employee’s Provident Fund Scheme (EPFS) 1952. The central government trust manages these funds, and employees are required to contribute a part of their salary to it every month during their employment tenure.

An establishment with less than 20 employees can voluntarily opt for PF registration. However, establishments with more than 20 employees compulsorily have to register.

PF Registration Process:

  • A detailed application form in Form 5A with Annexure-1 has to be filed while registering the company online.
  • After that, a temporary PF registration number allotted, and an employer has to submit all concerning documents online.
  • After that, the PF authorities carry out an inspection of the premises and verify the documents submitted online.
  • PF allotment letter will be issued.

Documents required to be submitted: The documents required to submit with the Performa of coverage for EPF along with a list of employees are listed below.

  • A copy of Memorandum and Articles of Association and the certificate of incorporation issued by the Registrar of Companies, in the case of Public and Private Ltd. Companies.
  • A copy of the partnership deed in the case of partnerships.
  • A copy of the Registration certificate issued by the Registrar of Co-operative societies.
  • A copy of the Registration certificate issued by the Registrar in the case of societies registered under the Societies Registration Act along with a copy of the objects and Rules of the Society.
  • Partition deeds creating HUF.
  • Any agreement or other legal documents in the case of Association of persons as defined in the Income Tax Act.

Question 15.
State the procedure for making an application for FCRA Registration.
Answer:
The procedure for FCRA Registration is given below:
1. An application for registration of a person for acceptance of foreign contribution shall be made electronically online in Form FC-3, and shall be followed by forwarding the hard copy of the online application duly signed by the Chief Functionary of the association together with the required documents.

2. The hard copy of the online application shall reach the Central Government within 30 days of the submission of the online application, failing which the request of the person shall be deemed to have ceased.

3. Any person whose request has ceased may prefer a fresh online application with the Central Government only after 6 months from the date of cessation of the previous application.

4. A person seeking registration shall be required to open an exclusive bank account to receive the foreign contribution.

  • An application made for the grant of the registration shall be accompanied by a fee of ₹ 2,000.
  • The fee, as applicable, shall be remitted by demand draft or banker’s cheque in favor of the ‘Pay and Accounts Officer, Ministry of Home Affairs”, payable at New Delhi.
  • Every certificate of registration granted to a person under the Act shall be valid for a period of 5 years from the date of its issue.

Question 16.
Abhishek has recently been appointed as Finance and Legal Compliance Officer of a Charitable Organization – doing palliative care service to aged persons, seeks to receive foreign funds, has approached you to find out the eligibility criteria for obtaining registration. Brief him on the provisions of the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010 on the eligibility criteria for registration. [June 2019 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
As per Section 11 of the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010, a person/organization having a definite Cultural, Economic, Educational, Religious or Social Programme shall accept foreign contribution only after obtaining a certificate of registration from the Central Government. Such a registration under the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010 is called an FCRA registration.

Eligibility for obtaining FCRA Registration:

  • Organizations seeking foreign contributions for definite cultural, social, economic, educational, or religious programs may obtain FCRA registration or receive foreign contributions through the “prior permission” route.
  • It is preferable for an FCRA applicant to be a Trust or Society or a Section 8 Company. The not-for-profit entity must have also been in existence for a minimum of 3 years while making the FCRA application and should not have received any foreign contribution prior to that without the Government’s approval.

The entity seeking registration should have spent at least ₹ 10,00,000 over the last 3 years on its aims and objects, excluding administrative expenditure. Statements of Income & Expenditure, duly audited by Chartered Accountant, for the last 3 years are to be submitted to substantiate that it meets the financial parameter.

In case a newly registered entity would like to receive foreign contributions, then approval for a specific activity, specific purpose, and from a specific source can be made to the Ministry of Home Affairs through the Prior Permission (PP) method.

Question 17.
Which type of project requires Environment Clearances? Also, state projects/industries that are exempted from obtaining such Environment Clearance.
Answer:
1. Entrepreneurs are required to obtain Statutory clearances relating to Pollution Control & Environment for setting up an industrial project, for 30 types of projects. Environmental clearance needs to be obtained from the Ministry of Environment, Government of India. This list includes industries like petrochemical complexes, petroleum refineries, cement, thermal power plants, bulk drugs, fertilizers, dyes, paper, etc.

2. If the investment is less than ₹ 1,000 million, such clearance is not necessary, unless it is for pesticides, bulk drugs and pharmaceuticals, asbestos and asbestos products, integrated paint complexes, mining projects, tourism projects of certain parameters, tarred roads in the Himalayan areas, distilleries, dyes, foundries, and electroplating industries.

3. Any item reserved for the small-scale sector with an investment of less than ₹ 10 million is also exempt from obtaining environmental clearance from the Central Government under the Notification.

4. Powers have been delegated to the State Governments for grant of environmental clearance for certain categories of thermal power plants.

5. Setting up industries in certain locations considered ecologically fragile (e.g. Aravali Range, coastal areas, Doon valley, Dahanu, etc.) are guided by separate guidelines issued by the Ministry of Environment of the Government of India.

Question 18.
Rajkumar is running a business of handicraft in Jaipur. He lias explored some opportunities for handicraft products aboard and he wants to encash the huge demand outside India for such products. He seeks your advice on whether he would be required to get himself registered with the Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) for exporting goods. If yes, what are all the documents required for such registration? Also, enlighten him on the features available from such registration. [June 2019 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
IEC registration is required by a person for exporting or importing goods. It is issued by the Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT). Importer-Exporter Code (IEC): An IEC is a 10-digit number allotted to a person that is mandatory for undertaking any export and import activities. Now the facility for IEC in electronic form or e-IEC has also been operationalized.

No Export/Import without IEC:
(a) No export or import shall be made by any person without obtaining an IEC number unless specifically exempted.
(b) Exempt categories and corresponding permanent IEC numbers are given in the Handbook of Procedures.

As per Foreign Trade Policy [2015-2020] issued by the Government of India following procedure has been prescribed for obtaining Importer Exporter Code Number
(a) Application for IEC/ e-IEC: Application for obtaining IEC can be filed manually and submitting the form in the office of the Regional Authority of DGFT. Alternatively, an application for e-IEC may be filed online in ANF 2A, as specified in the Handbook of Procedure on payment of the application fee of ₹ 500, to be paid online through net banking or credit/ debit card. Documents/details required to be uploaded/submitted along with the application form are listed in the Application Form (ANF 2A).

(b) When an e-IEC is approved by the competent authority, the applicant is informed through e-mail that a computer-generated e-IEC is available on the DGFT website. By clicking on “Application Status” after having filled and submitted the requisite details in the “Online IEC Application” webpage, an applicant can view and print his e-IEC.

(c) Briefly, the following are the requisite details/documents (scanned copies) to be submitted/uploaded along with the application for IEC:
1. Details of the entity seeking the IEC:

  • PAN of the business entity in whose name Import/Export would be done (Applicant individual in case of Proprietorship firms).
  • Address Proof of the applicant entity.
  • LLPIN/ CIN/Registration Certification Number (whichever is applicable).
  • Bank account details of the entity. Canceled Cheque bearing entity’s pre-printed name or Bank certificate in prescribed format ANF2A(I).

2. Details of the Proprietor/Partners/Directors/Secretary or Chief Executive of the Society/Managing Trustee of the entity:

  • PAN (for all categories)
  • DIN/DPIN (in case of Company/LLP firm)

3. Details of the signatory applicant:

  • Identity proof
  • PAN
  • Digital photograph

(d) In case the applicant has a digital signature, the application can also be submitted online and no physical application or document is required.

In case the applicant does not possess a digital signature, a printout of the application filed online duly signed by the applicant has to be submitted to the concerned jurisdictional Regional Authority, in person or by post.

Features of the Import Export Code (IEC) Registration:
International Exposure: IEC Code helps to grow business from local market to international market and expand product or service across the globe.

Government Benefits: The government of India always promotes export activity in India so through IEC Code Registration one can avail all the export scheme benefits from DGFT, Customs, and Export Promotion Council. No Renewals: IEC Code issued by the DGFT for the lifetime validity so there is no need to renew it every year.

No Annual Compliance: IEC Code has no annual compliance like returns filings etc.

Individual Person: IEC Code can be obtained by the individuals and it not necessary that business must be set up as a Firm or Company.

Question 19.
Mr. Lucky has just obtained the degree of Bachelor of Pharmacy (B. PHARMA) and he is interested to start a medical shop in his locality. In this connection you are required to answer the following:
(i) What qualification is required for opening a medical shop?
(ii) What are the minimum requirements for obtaining a drug license or starting a pharmacy business in India?
Answer:
In India import, manufacturing, sale, and distribution of the drug are regulated under Drugs & Cosmetics Act, 1940 and Drugs and Cosmetic Rules, 1945.

To start a pharmacy business, a drug license is required. The Central Drugs Standard Control Organization & State Drugs Standard Control Organization control the issue of drug licenses in India.

Drug license for setting up a pharmacy business is usually under the purview of the State Drugs Standard Control Organization. Normally, the Drug Control Organization issues two types of licenses for operating a pharmacy business.

  1. Retail Drug License (RDL): It is the issued to run a general chemist shop.
  2. Wholesale Drug License (WDL): It is issued to persons or agencies engaged in the wholesale of drugs and medicines.

In most States, a retail drug license is only issued to persons who possess a Degree/Diploma in pharmacy from a recognized Institute or University on account of the fact that it is a specialized job and only qualified persons can handle it. A person applying for gas pays a specified fee for obtaining the license.

Requirements for obtaining Drug License: Following are minimum requirements for obtaining a drug license or starting a pharmacy business in India:
1. Area: The minimum area of 10 square meters is required to start a medical shop or pharmacy or wholesale outlet. In case, the pharmacy business combines retail and wholesale, a minimum of 15 square meters is required.

2. Storage Facility: The store must have a refrigerator & air conditioner on the premises. According to current prevailing guidelines, certain drugs like vaccines, sera, insulin injections, etc. are required to be stored in the refrigerator.

3. Technical Staff:
(a) Wholesale: The sale of the drug by wholesale shall be made either in the presence of a registered pharmacist or in the presence of a competent person who shall be a graduate with 1-year experience in dealing in drugs or a person who has passed S.S.L.C. with 4 years experience in dealing in drugs, specially approved by the department of drug control for the purpose.

(b) Retail: The sale of drugs by retail must be made in the presence of a registered pharmacist approved by the department. The registered pharmacist is required to present throughout the working hours.

Question 20.
What do you understand by ‘FSSAI Licensing & Registration’? Who is Petty Food Business Operator? What is the registration process of such a food business in India?
Answer:
FSSAI:
Meaning: FSSAI stands for Food Safety and Standards Authority of India which is an organization that monitors and governs the food business in India. It ensures the food products undergo quality checks thereby curtailing the food adulteration and sale of sub-standard products. It is responsible for the registering and licensing of the food business operators (FBO) in India and it lays down the rules and regulations for running the food business in India.

All the manufacturers, traders, restaurants who are involved in the food business must obtain a 14-digit registration or a license number which must be printed on food packages.

The registration and licensing of food businesses in India is governed by the Food Safety and Standards (Licensing & Registration of Food Businesses) Regulations, 2011. As per the regulation, all food business operators in India must have an FSSAI registration or license if they are involved in the manufacturing, storage, transportation or distribution of food products. Based on the size nature of the business, FSSAI registration or FSSAI license may be required.

FSSAI License & Registration:
FSSAI Online Registration is done through the official website of FSSAI for the basic and central level. For state, the FSSAI registration is also done through offline mode.

FSSAI registration is required for all Petty Food Business Operator. Petty Food Business Operator is any person or entity who:
(a) Manufactures or sells any article of food himself or a petty retailer, hawker, itinerant vendor, or temporary stall holder; or

(b) Distributes foods including in any religious or social gathering except a caterer; or

(c) Other food businesses including small scale or cottage or such other industries relating to food business or tiny food businesses with an annual turnover not exceeding ₹ 12 lakhs and whose:

  • Production capacity of food (other than milk and milk products and meat and meat products) does not exceed 100 kg/ltr. per day or
  • Procurement or handling and collection of milk is up to 500 liters of milk per day or
  • Slaughtering capacity is 2 large animals or 10 small animals or 50 poultry birds per day or less.

Petty Food Business Operators are required to obtain an FSSAI registration by submitting an application for registration in Form A. On submission of an FSSAI registration application, the registration should be provided or the application rejected in writing within 7 days of receipt of an application by authority.

FSSAI registration certificate contains the details of registration and a photo of the applicant. The certificate must be prominently displayed at the place of the food business, at all times while carrying on the food business.

Question 21.
State the procedure for registration of a trademark
Answer:
Registration of a trademark is not mandatory, though highly desirable when stakes are high. The process of registration of a trademark is given below:
1. Select the trademark for which registration is sought.

2. It is advisable for the applicant to search the trademark records registry and ensures that the intended trademark does not resemble or identical to the registered mark. The search can be done online or through the trademark office.

3. After thorough research, the application for registration in the trademark can be made in the prescribed form. The application for a trademark can be made both online and offline. For online application, Class III Digital Signature Certificate is required.

4. The application for the registration of the trademark should contain the following particulars:

  • ‘Mark’ chosen to be registered,
  • Trademark owner’s information,
  • List of goods or services for which the trademark will be used.

5. Once the application for the trademark registration is made, the Registrar will search for the uniqueness of the name and will check the registered marks and pending applications to ascertain whether any such marks exist and whether the applied mark can be registered as a trademark under the Trademark Act, 1999.

6. In case, of objection by the registrar for acceptance of the application or propose to accept the application with certain term and conditions, amendments, limitations, etc., the same is communicated in writing to the applicant and the applicant has to give the reply within a period of 3 months.

7. After examination of the applied mark by the office of trademark registry, if they found that the application is allowable under the Trademark Act, 1999, a Letter of Acceptance will be issued. Thereafter, the applied trademark will be published in the Trade Marks Journal.

8. If there are no oppositions within 4 months from the date of advertisement in the Trade Marks Journal, then the trademark registration certificate will be issued.

9. Once the trademark is registered, it is valid for a period of 10 years from the date of application. The registration can then be renewed indefinitely as long as the renewal fees are paid every 10 years.

Question 22.
Whether registration of copyright is compulsory? Whether non-registration deprives the owner of his right to bring both a civil and criminal action against on offense of infringement? [Dec. 2000 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Registration of copyright is not obligatory it is optional. Non-registration does not deprive the owner of his right to bring both a civil & criminal action against an offense of infringement. For registering the work in copyright application has to be made in Form IV with prescribed fee to the Registrar of Copyright.

Discuss briefly the process of registration of copyright.
Answer:
To obtain the copyright registration the following process has to be followed:

  • An application in Form IV has had to be made to the Registrar of Copyright along with the requisite fees. A separate application has to be made for separate works.
  • Every application has to be signed by the applicant as well as an Advocate in whose favor a Vakalatnama has been executed.
  • The registrar will issue a Dairy No. and then there is a mandatory waiting time for a period of 30 days for any objections to be received.
  • If there are no objections received within 30 days, the scrutinizer will check the application for any discrepancy and if no discrepancy is there, the registration will be done and an extract will be sent to the Registrar for entry in the Register of Copyright.
  • If any objection is received, the examiner will send a letter to both parties about the objections and will give them both a hearing.
  • After the hearing, if the objections are resolved the scrutinizer will scrutinize the application and approve or reject the application as the case may be.

Question 23.
A Start-up Company intends to register its invention by filing a patent application. As a Practicing Company Secretary advise the company about the process to be adopted for registration of patents in India.
Answer:
Patent filing has become increasingly popular in India due to the rising intellectual property rights awareness and Startup India Action Plan. In the Startup India Action Plan, eligible startups would receive an 80% rebate in patent filing fees to provide a boost to patents registered by Indian companies. Hence, there is tremendous interest amongst startups in obtaining patent registration.

Procedure for obtaining a Patent:
1. File Patent application in Form 1 in triplicate. An application of a patent is generally accompanied by Provisional Specification or Complete Specification. Drafting a patent specification is a highly skilled job, which can be only performed by persons who have both technical as well as patent law expertise.

If a person or company is serious about protecting their intellectual property, it is highly recommended to use the services of professional patent practitioners. A provisional application is a temporary application filed with a Patent Office to claim a “Priority Date” and when an invention is not complete in all aspects. However, the complete application needs to be filed within 12 months, or else it will be treated as abandoned.

2. After making an application for a patent the applicant has to file a request for examination of the patent in the prescribed form.

3. Where a request has been made by the applicant or by any other interested person, it will be taken up for examination, according to the serial number of the requests received. A First Examination Report (FER) stating the objections/requirements is communicated to the applicant or his agent ordinarily within 6 months from the date of the request for examination. Application or complete specification should be amended in order to meet the objections/requirements within a period of 12 months from the date of the First Examination Report (FER).

4. Patent office then will publish the application with specifications.

5. If any person file objection to the grant of a patent then all such objections have to be resolved.

6. When all the requirements are met or in case of opposition if the opposition is decided in favor of the applicant, the patent is granted, after 6 months from the date of publication. The letter patent is issued, entry is made in the register of patents and it is notified in the Patent Office, Journal.

Question 24.
What are the provisions regarding ‘registration of design’ under the Design Act, 2000?
Answer:
Application registration of designs [Section 5]:
1. Who can make an application: A new or original design can be registered by the Controller if it is not previously published in any country and is not contrary to public order or morality.

2. Reference to the examiner: The Controller shall before such registration refer the application for examination to the appointed examiner to whether the design is capable of being registered under the Act or not.

3. Application Form & Fees: Every application shall be made in the prescribed form and shall be filed in the Patent Office in the prescribed manner and shall be accompanied by the prescribed fee.

4. Registration for one class only: A design may be registered for one class only. In case of doubt as to the class in which a design ought to be registered, the Controller may decide the question.

The Controller may refuse to register any design presented to him for registration. Any person aggrieved by such refusal may appeal to the High Court.

5. Abandonment of application: If an application for registration is not been completed within the prescribed time, it shall be deemed to be abandoned.

6. Effective date of registration: A design when registered shall be registered as of the date of the application for registration.

Publication of particulars of registered design [Section 7]: After the registration of a design the Controller shall publish the prescribed particulars of the design in a prescribed manner and thereafter the design shall be open to public inspection.

Certificate of registration [Section 9]: The Controller shall grant a certificate of registration to the proprietor of the design when registered.

In case of loss of the original certificate or in any other case the Controller furnishes one or more copies of the certificate.

Question 25.
For which classes of insurance business requisition for registration application may be made as per the IRDAI (Registration of Indian Insurance Companies) (Seventh Amendment) Regulations, 2016?
Answer:
The classes of business of insurance for which requisition for registration application may be made are:

  1. Life insurance business;
  2. General insurance business;
  3. Health insurance business exclusively;
  4. Reinsurance business.

An applicant shall make a requisition for registration application either for Life Insurance Business or General Insurance Business or Health Insurance Business exclusively or Reinsurance Business.

Question 26.
ABC Ltd. is planning to enter into the business of insurance for which | Board of Directors of the Company seeks your advice about the norms in j respect of paid-up equity capital for carrying out the business of an insurer, Advise them accordingly with reference to provisions of the Insurance Act, 1938 as amended by Insurance Regulatory and Development Act, 1999. Also, state the items that are excluded in determining the amount of paid-up equity capital of an insurer under the said Act. [Dec. 2018 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
As per Section 6 of the Insurance Act, 1938 as amended by Insurance j Regulatory & Development Act, 1999, no insurer carrying on the business of life insurance, general insurance, or re-insurance in India on or after the commencement of the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority- Act, 1999, shall be registered unless it has:

  1. a paid-up equity capital of ₹ 100 Crore, in case of a person carrying on the business of life insurance or general insurance; or
  2. a paid-up equity capital of ₹ 200 Crore, in case of a person carrying « on exclusively the business as a re-insurer.

However, in determining the paid-up equity capital specified under clause (1) or clause (2), the deposit to be made u/s 7 and any preliminary expenses j incurred in the formation and registration of the company shall be excluded,

An insurer carrying on the business of life insurance, general insurance, or reinsurance in India before the commencement of the Insurance Regulatory & Development Authority Act, 1999 and who is required to be registered under j the Act, shall have a paid-up equity capital in accordance with clauses (1) & (2), as the case may be, within 6 months of the commencement of that Act.

Question 27.
List out the grounds under which the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) is compulsorily required to cancel the Certificate of Registration for Insurer/Insurance business. [June 2019 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
The IRDAI (Registration of Indian Insurance Companies) Regulations, 2000 as amended in 2016 deals with the suspension and cancellation of | certificate of registration of insurer.

These provisions are discussed below:
Suspension of the certificate [Regulation 23]: Without prejudice to any penalty which may be imposed or any action taken under the provisions of the Act, the registration of an Indian insurance company or insurer may be suspended for a class or classes of insurance business for such period as may be specified by the Authority by an order under the following circumstances
1. The insurer fails, at any time, to comply with the provisions of Section 64VA as to the excess of the value of its asset over the number of its liabilities.

2. The insurer is in liquidation or is adjudged as insolvent.

3. The business or a class of the business of the insurer has been transferred to any person or has been transferred to or amalgamated with the business of any other insurer without the approval of the Authority.

4. Defaults in complying with, or acts in contravention of, any requirement of the Act or of any Rule or any Regulation, direction, or order issued by the Authority, particularly if the insurer:
(a) conducts its business in a manner prejudicial to the interest of the policyholders;
(b) fails to furnish any information as required by the Authority relating to its insurance business;
(c) does not submit periodical returns as required under the Act or by the Authority;
(d) does not cooperate in any inquiry conducted by the Authority;
(e) indulges in manipulative practices;
(f) indulges in unfair trade practices;

(g) fails to make the investment in the infrastructure or social sector specified in the regulations.

  • The Authority has reasons to believe that any claim upon the insurer arising in India under any policy of insurance remains unpaid for 3 months after final judgment in a regular court of law.
  • The insurer carries on any business other than the insurance business or any prescribed business.
  • The insurer defaults in complying with any direction issued or order made, as the case may be, by the Authority under the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act, 1999.
  • The insurer defaults in complying with or acts in contravention of, any requirement of the Companies Act, 2013, or the General Insurance Business (Nationalization) Act, 1972, or the Foreign Exchange
    Management Act, 1999 or the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002.
  • The insurer fails to pay the annual fee required u/s 3A.
  • The insurer is convicted for an offense under any law for the time being in force.

However, the Authority for reasons to be recorded in writing may, in case of repeated defaults of the type mentioned above, may impose a penalty of cancellation of Certificate of Registration.

Manner of making order of suspension or cancellation of Certificate [Regu-lation 24]: No order of suspension or cancellation shall be imposed except after holding an inquiry in accordance with the specified procedure.

Effect of suspension or cancellation of Certificate [Regulation 27]: On and from the date of suspension or cancellation of the Certificate, the insurer shall cease to transact new insurance business. However, the Authority may direct the insurer to continue to service the existing policyholders for such a period as may be specified in the Order.

Publication of order [Regulation 28]: The Order passed by the Authority shall be published in at least two daily newspapers in the area where the insurer has its principal place of business.

Question 28.
TRAI’s mission is to create and nurture conditions for the growth of telecommunications in the country. Explain.
Answer:
In India, the telecom market and business thereunder are governed and regulated by the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI), which is a statutory body set up for regulating the Telecom and Broadcasting Sectors.

The entry of private service providers brought with it the inevitable need for independent regulation. The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) was, thus, established with effect from 20th February 1997 by an Act of Parliament, called the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997, to regulate telecom services, including fixation/revision of tariffs for telecom services which were earlier vested in the Central Government.

TRAI’s mission is to create and nurture conditions for the growth of telecommunications in the country in a manner and at a pace that will enable India to play a leading role in the emerging global information society.

One of the main objectives of TRAI is to provide a fair and transparent policy environment that promotes a level playing field and facilitates fair competition.

In pursuance of the above objective, TRAI has issued from time to time a large number of regulations, orders, and directives to deal with issues coming before it and provided the required direction to the evolution of the Indian telecom market from a Government-owned monopoly to a multi-operator multi-service open competitive market.

The directions, orders, and regulations issued cover a wide range of subjects including tariff, interconnection, and quality of service as well as governance of the Authority.

The TRAI Act was amended by an ordinance, effective from 24 January 2000, establishing a Telecommunications Dispute Settlement & Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT) to take over the adjudicatory and disputes functions from TRAI. TDSAT was set up to adjudicate any dispute between a licensor and a licensee, between two or more service providers, between a service provider and a group of consumers, and to hear and dispose of appeals against any direction, decision, or order of TRAI.

Question 29.
Which type of service provider requires OSP registration in India?
Answer:
OSP Registration in India: As per the New Telecom Policy (NTP) 1999, service providers in India involved in providing services like telebanking, telemedicine, Tele-education, Tele-trading, e-commerce, call center, network operation center, and other IT Enabled Services, using telecom resources are termed as “Other Service Providers” (OSP).

These Other Service Providers or OSP’s are required to obtain an OSP Registration from the Department of Telecommunication (DOT).

OSP Registration Applicability: Service providers in India involved in providing services like telebanking, telemedicine, Tele-education, Tele-trading, e-commerce, call center, network operation center, and other IT Enabled Services, using telecom resources are required to obtain OSP Registration. Telecom Resources are telecom facilities used by an OSP including, but not limited to Public Switched Telecom Network, Public Land Mobile Network, Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN), and/or the telecom bandwidth provided by authorized telecom service provider.

OSP Registration Requirement: To obtain an OSP Registration in India, it is mandatory for the entity to be a Private Limited Company. Therefore, Entrepreneurs having plans for starting a call center or BPO or e-commerce, or other IT Enabled Services must incorporate a Private Limited Company.

The following are the documents necessary for OSP Registration in addition to the application in the prescribed format:

  • Certificate of Incorporation of Private Limited Company
  • Memorandum of Association (MOA) and Articles of Association (AOA)
  • Board of Resolution or Power of Attorney authorizing the authorized signatory
  • Name of Business and Activities Proposed
  • List of Directors
  • Present Shareholding

The above documents must be certified with seal by a Company Secretary or Director of the Company or Statutory Auditor or Public Notary.

Question 30.
Aravind has recently completed Telecommunications engineering and he is keen on starting his own venture for Telecommunication support services. He has heard about OSP License and approached you to get more information on it. Brief him, on the purpose, authority authorized to issue such license, documents necessary for making application, and compliance after registration. [Dec. 2019 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
According to the New Telecom Policy (NTP) 1999, service providers in India involved in providing services like telebanking, telemedicine, Tele-education, Tele-trading, e-commerce, call center, network operation center and other IT Enabled Services, using telecom resources are termed as “Other Service Providers” (OSP).

These OSP’s are required to obtain an OSP Registration from the Department of Telecommunication (DoT).
If Aravind is keen on starting his own venture for telecommunication support services, he has to know about the OSP License procedures which are as follows:

To obtain an OSP Registration in India, it is mandatory for the entity to be a Private Limited Company. Therefore, entrepreneurs having plans for starting a call center or BPO or e-commerce or other IT Enabled Services must incorporate a Private Limited Following document necessary for OSP Registration

  • Certificate of Incorporation of Private Limited Company
  • Memorandum of Association (MOA) and Articles of Association (AO A)
  • Board Resolution or Power of Attorney authorizing the authorized signatory
  • Name of business and activities proposed
  • List of directors
  • Present shareholding

The above documents must be certified with seal by a Company Secretary, or director of the company or statutory auditor or public notary Compliances after registration
(a) OSPs are required to submit an “Annual Return” to the DOT mentioning the activities undertaken and the present status of the OSP. The annual return for OSP License renewal must be submitted within 6 months of completion of the financial year.

(b) Maintaining compliance with the terms and conditions prescribed by the DOT for OSP.

Question 31.
Which industries come under the purview of compulsory licensing as per New Industrial Policy, 2015? [Dec. 2018 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Industrial Licensing was also abolished for all except the shortlist of 18 industries in New Industrial Policy 1991. This number was further pruned to 6 industries. As in 2015, only 5 industries were under compulsory licensing mainly on account of environmental, safety, and strategic considerations.

They are:

  1. Distillation and brewing of alcoholic drinks
  2. Cigars and cigarettes of tobacco and manufactured tobacco substitutes.
  3. Electronic Aerospace and defense equipment – all types.
  4. Industrial explosives including detonating fuses, safety fuses, gun powder, nitrocellulose, and matches.
  5. Specified hazardous chemicals including items hazardous to human safety and health.

Regarding Alcoholic products, production of rectified spirit exclusively for industrial use falls under the Centre’s purview while in the case of potable alcohol, States have the last word. (This is as per Supreme Court decision in “Bihar Distillery Case”). So, DIPP is not the licensing authority in the case of potable alcohol.

Question 32.
Write a short note on Industrial Entrepreneurs Memorandum (IEM). [June 2019 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Industrial Entrepreneurs Memorandum (IEM): The industrial policy reforms have reduced the industrial licensing requirements, removed restrictions on investment and expansion, and facilitated easy access to foreign technology and foreign direct investment.

All industrial undertakings exempt from the requirements of industrial licensing, including existing units undertaking substantial expansion, are required to file information in the prescribed form for Industrial Entrepreneurs Memorandum (IEM) with the Secretariat of Industrial Assistance (SIA), Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP), Government of India, and obtain an acknowledgment. No further approval is required.

All Industrial undertakings also need to file information in Tart B’ of the Memorandum at the time of commencement of commercial production.

Eligibility for getting IEM: All industrial undertakings exempted from the requirements of industrial licensing under I (D&R) Act, 1951 and having an investment of ₹ 10 Crore or above in the ‘manufacturing sector’ and ₹ 5 Crore or above in the ‘services sector’, including Existing Units, New undertaking (NU) and New Article (NA), are required to file an IEM in the prescribed format ‘Part A’.

Cases requiring IEM/Letter of Intent (LOI): The promoter can file IEM in the following categories:

  • To set up a new industrial undertaking,
  • To effect substantial expansion of the industrial undertaking,
  • To manufacture a new article
  • To carry on the business of existing SSI units after graduating into the large-scale industry.

Procedure for filling of IEM: The promoter has to make an application §; to Government of India in prescribed format along with Demand Draft P of ? 1,000 in the name of Secretariat for Industrial Assistance (SIA), New Delhi with 6 copies.

Steps Post-Filling IEM: After filling IEM to Govt, of India, Govt, of India gives acknowledgment receipt to the applicant and informs the Directorate of Industries. After receipt of an acknowledgment, an applicant can take further initiatives step to set up the unit.

Role of Directorate of Industries: Secretariat for Industrial Assistance (SIA), New Delhi circulates office memorandum enclosing one copy of the application for the necessary comments from Directorate of Industries. The Directorate of Industries- offers the comments to the GOI in respect of location after getting appropriate documents/certificates from the promoters. Those industrial promoters who have obtained IEM and gone into commercial production or implemented the project have to submit PART B with the Government of India or Directorate of Industries with 7 copies for the record.

Question 33.
Bhaskar is presently running a business of finance. He has planned to promote an Infrastructure Finance Company along with his friends. He seeks your advice to know whether it is a Non-Banking Finance Company requiring Reserve Bank of India’s registration and criteria to be satisfied by such Company. Also, clarify how Net owned Fund is calculated. [Dec. 2019 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Yes, the proposed Infrastructure Finance Company is a non-banking finance company that
(a) deploys at least 75 percent of its total assets in infrastructure loans
(b) has a minimum net owned funds of ₹ 300 crore
(c) maintains a minimum credit rating of ‘A’ or equivalent
(d) and has a capital to risk assets ratio (CRAR) of 15% It requires registration with the Reserve Bank of India.

Net Owned Fund Formula
The net owned fund would be calculated based on the last audited balance sheet of the company. The net-owned fund will consist of paid-up equity capital, free reserves, balance in share premium account, and capital reserve representing surplus arising out of sale proceeds of assets but not reserves created by revaluation of assets.

From the aggregate of items, it will be deducted, accumulated loss balance, and a book value of intangible assets, if any, to arrive at owned funds. Further, investment in shares of other § NBFCs and in shares, debentures of subsidiaries, and group companies in excess of 10% of the owned funds mentioned above will be deducted to arrive at the Net Owned Fund.

In terms of section 45-IA of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, a non-banking financial company can commence or carry on the business of a non-banking financial institution only after obtaining a certificate of registration from the Reserve Bank of India.

Question 34.
What are the circumstances under which RBI may cancel the license granted to a banking company regulated under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949? [Dec. 2019 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
The Reserve Bank of India may cancel a license granted to a banking company under section 22(4) of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949

  1. if the company ceases to carry on banking business in India; or
  2. if the company at any time fails to comply with any of the conditions imposed upon it under sub-section (1) of section 22; or
  3. if at any time, any of the conditions referred to in sub-section (3) and sub-section (3A) is not fulfilled:

Provided that before canceling a license under clause (2) or clause (3) of this sub-section on the ground that the banking company has failed to comply with or has failed to fulfill any of the conditions referred to therein, the Reserve Bank of India unless it is of opinion that the delay will be prejudicial to the interests of the company’s depositors or the public, shall grant to the company on such terms as it may specify, an opportunity of taking the necessary steps for complying with or fulfilling such condition.

Setting Up of Business Entities and Closure Questions and Answers

Legal Metrology Act, 2009 – Economic, Business and Commercial Laws Important Questions

Legal Metrology Act, 2009 – Economic, Business and Commercial Laws Important Questions

Legal Metrology Act, 2009 – Economic, Business and Commercial Laws Important Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by the International Organization of Legal Metrology OIML Certificate System for measuring instruments? [Dec 2013 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
The OIML certificate system for measuring instruments was introduced in 1991 to facilitate administrative procedures and lower the costs associated with the international trade of measuring instruments subject to legal requirements.

Once a member state had set up certificate issuing authorities (laboratories competent to validate that a particular product complied with the regulations), that issuing authority could issue OIML Basic certificates.

The System provides the possibility for a manufacturer to obtain an OIML Certificate and a Test Report indicating that a given instrument complies with the relevant requirements of OIML.

Certificates are delivered by the OIML Member States that have established one or several Issuing Authorities responsible for processing applications by manufacturers wishing to have their instrument certified.

Certificates are accepted by national metrology services on a voluntary basis. Due to mutual confidence between national metrology services and international organizations and recognition of OIML, this is helping in eliminating costly duplication of application and test procedure.

International Organization of Legal Metrology in French called Organization Internationale de Metrologie Legale. Thus, short-form is OIML.

Question 2.
Write a short note on Legal Metrology [Dec 2008 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Metrology is the science of measurement. The branch of knowledge concerning weights and measure is technically known as Legal Metrology.

Legal Metrology [Section 2(g)]: Legal Metrology means that part of metrology that treats units of weight and measurement, methods of weighing and measurement, and weighing and measuring instruments, in relation to the mandatory technical and legal requirements which have the object of ensuring public guarantee from the point of view of security and accuracy of the weightings and measurement.

Question 3.
Write a short note on Legal Metrology [Dec 2011 (3 Marksj]
Answer:
Metrology is the science of measurement. The branch of knowledge concerning weights and measure is technically known as Legal Metrology.

Legal Metrology [Section 2(g)]: Legal Metrology means that part of metrology that treats units of weight and measurement, methods of weighing and measurement, and weighing and measuring instruments, in relation to the mandatory technical and legal requirements which have the object of ensuring public guarantee from the point of view of security and accuracy of the weightings and measurement.

Question 4.
Write a short note on Salient features of the Legal Metrology Act, 2009 [June 2012 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
It is the right of every buyer to have information regarding net weight or quantity, price, and other information of commodity he buys. Before the introduction of the Legal Metrology Act, 2009 there were lots of non-standard practices followed in the country. There are no rules regarding quantity or weight to be contained in the package. Consumers were being cheated by sellers by putting less quantity or weight and by giving false information on packages.

To curb all such malpractices the Legal Metrology Act, 2009 has been introduced. Salient features of the Legal Metrology Act, 2009 are as follows:
1. Legal Metrology Act, 2009 intends to establish and enforce standards of weights and measures, regulate trade and commerce in weights, measures, and other goods which are sold or distributed by weight, measure, or a number and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.

2. Legal Metrology Act, 2009 provides for penalty for use of non-standard Weight or measure.

3. Legal Metrology Act, 2009 empowers the Central Government and State Governments to make rules for carrying out the provisions of the Act.

Question 5.
Write a short note on Pre-packaged Commodity [Dec 2012 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Pre-packaged Commodity [Section 2(f)]: Pre-packaged commodity means a commodity that is placed in a package without the purchaser being present, whether sealed or not and such package has a pre-determined quantity of any product.

E.g.: Red label tea manufactured by HUL is pre-packed commodity Declarations on pre-packaged commodities [Section 18]: No person shall manufacture, pack, sell, import, distribute, deliver, offer for sale any pre-packaged commodity unless such package is in standard quantities or number and bears prescribed declarations and particulars.

Any advertisement mentioning the retail sale price of a pre-packaged commodity shall contain a declaration as to the net quantity or number of the commodity contained in the package in the prescribed form and in a prescribed manner.

Question 6.
What are the declarations required to be made by the manufacturer on pre-packaged commodities? Also refer to penalties provided under the Legal Metrology Act, 2009 for such contravention.[June 2014 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Declarations on pre-packaged commodities [Section 18]: No person shall manufacture, pack, sell, import, distribute, deliver, offer for sale any pre-packaged commodity unless such package is in standard quantities or number and bears prescribed declarations and particulars.

Any advertisement mentioning the retail sale price of a pre-packaged commodity shall contain a declaration as to the net quantity or number of the commodity contained in the package in the prescribed form and in the prescribed manner.

Penalty for selling non-standard packages [Section 36]: Whoever manufactures, packs, imports, sells, distributes, delivers, or otherwise transfers, offers, exposes or possesses for sale, or causes to be sold, distributed, delivered or otherwise transferred, offered, exposed for sale any pre-packaged commodity which does not conform to the declarations on the package, shall be punishable as follows:

  • For the first offense with a fine which may extend to ₹ 25,000.
  • For the second offense, with fine which may extend to ₹ 50,000 and
  • For the subsequent offense, with a fine which shall not be less than ₹ 50,000 but which may extend to ₹ 1,00,000 or with imprisonment up to 1 year or with both.

Whoever manufactures or packs or imports or causes to be manufactured or packed or imported, any pre-packaged commodity, with error in net quantity as may be prescribed shall be punishable as follows:

  • For the first offense with a fine which shall not be less than ₹ 10,000 but which may extend to ₹ 50,000.
  • For the second and subsequent offense, with a fine which may extend to ₹ 1,00,000 or with imprisonment up to 1 year or with both.

Question 7.
State the penalty provisions for use of non-standard weight and measures under the Legal Metrology Act, 2009. [Dec. 2019 (3 Marks each)]
Answer:
Declarations on pre-packaged commodities [Section 18]: No person shall manufacture, pack, sell, import, distribute, deliver, offer for sale any pre-packaged commodity unless such package is in standard quantities or number and bears prescribed declarations and particulars.

Any advertisement mentioning the retail sale price of a pre-packaged commodity shall contain a declaration as to the net quantity or number of the commodity contained in the package in the prescribed form and in the prescribed manner.

Penalty for selling non-standard packages [Section 36]: Whoever manufacturers, packs, imports, sells, distributes, delivers, or otherwise transfers, offers, exposes or possesses for sale, or causes to be sold, distributed, delivered or otherwise transferred, offered, exposed for sale any pre-packaged commodity which does not conform to the declarations on the package, shall be punishable as follows:

  • For the first offense with a fine which may extend to ₹ 25,000.
  • For the second offense, with fine which may extend to ₹ 50,000 and
  • For the subsequent offense, with a fine which shall not be less than ₹ 50,000 but which may extend to ₹ 1,00,000 or with imprisonment up to 1 year or with both.

Whoever manufactures or packs or imports or causes to be manufactured or packed or imported, any pre-packaged commodity, with error in net quantity as may be prescribed shall be punishable as follows:

  • For the first offense with a fine which shall not be less than ₹ 10,000 but which may extend to ₹ 50,000.
  • For the second and subsequent offense, with a fine which may extend to ₹ 1,00,000 or with imprisonment up to 1 year or with both.

Economic, Business and Commercial Laws Questions and Answers

An Overview of the SEBI (Issue of Capital & Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2018 – Securities Laws and Capital Markets Important Questions

An Overview of the SEBI (Issue of Capital & Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2018 – Securities Laws and Capital Markets Important Questions

An Overview of the SEBI (Issue of Capital & Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2018 – Securities Laws and Capital Markets Important Questions

Question 1.
Explain the procedure for approval of ‘basis of allotment’ by the stock exchange. [Dec. 2008 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
The person responsible for the basis of allotment: In a public issue of securities, the Executive or Managing Director of the Designated Stock Exchange along with the post issue Lead Merchant Banker and the Registrars to the Issue shall be responsible to ensure that the basis of allotment is finalized in a fair and proper manner in accordance with the SEBI (ICDR) Regulations, 2018.

Allotment procedure and basis of allotment [Regulation 49 of the SEBI (ICDR) Regulations, 2018]:
1. The issuer shall not make an allotment pursuant to a public issue if the number of prospective allottees is less than 1,000.

2. The issuer shall not make any allotment in excess of the specified securities offered through the offer document except in case of oversubscription for the purpose of rounding off to make allotment, in consultation with the designated stock exchange. However, in case of oversubscription, an allotment of not more than 1% of the net offer to the public may be made for the purpose of making allotments in minimum lots.

3. The allotment of specified securities to applicants other than to the retail individual investors and anchor investors shall be on a proportionate basis within the respective investor categories and the number of securities allotted shall be rounded off to the nearest integer, subject to minimum allotment being equal to the minimum application size as determined and disclosed in the offer document. The value of specified securities allotted to any person, except in the case of employees, shall not exceed ₹ 2 lakhs for retail investors or up to ₹ 5 lakhs for eligible employees.

4. The allotment of specified securities to each retail individual investor shall not be less than the minimum bid lot, subject to the availability of shares in the retail individual investor category, and the remaining available shares, if any, shall be allotted on a proportionate basis.

5. The authorized employees of the designated stock exchange, along with the lead manager and registrars to the issue, shall ensure that the basis of allotment is finalized in a fair and proper manner in accordance with the procedure as specified in Part A of Schedule XIV.

Question 2.
What is meant by the following in a public issue:
(i) Period of subscription
Answer:
Period of subscription [Regulation 46 of the SEBI (ICDR) Regulations, 2018]:

  • An initial public offer shall be kept open for at least 3 working days and not more than 10 working days.
  • In case of a revision in the price band, the issuer shall extend the bidding (issue) period disclosed in the red herring prospectus, for a minimum period of 3 working days.
  • In case of force majeure, banking strike, or similar circumstances, the issuer may, for reasons to be recorded in writing, extend the bidding (issue) period disclosed in the red herring prospectus (in case of a book built issue) or the issue period disclosed in the prospectus (in case of a fixed price issue), for a minimum period of 3 working days.

(ii) Issue opening date
Answer:
Opening of the issue: Subject to compliance with the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013, a public issue may be opened within 12 months from the date of issuance of the observations by the SEBI. An issue shall be opened after at least 3 working days from the date of registering, the red herring prospectus, in case of a book built issue, and the prospectus, in case of a fixed price issue, with the ROC.

(iii) Mandatory collection centre [Dec. 2008 (3 × 3 = 9 Marks)]
Answer:
Mandatory Collection Centres: Minimum number of collection centers for issues is to be at the four metropolitan centers viz. Mumbai, Delhi, Kolkata, and Chennai and at all such centers where the stock exchanges are located in the region in which the registered office of the company is situated. In addition, all designated branches of self-certified syndicate banks shall be deemed to be mandatory collection centers. However, the issuer company is free to appoint as many collection centers as it may deem fit in addition to the above minimum requirement.

Question 3.
What is due diligence in the process of public issue of securities? [June 2009 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Due diligence means the diligence reasonably expected from, and ordinarily exercised by, a person who seeks to satisfy a legal requirement or to discharge an obligation.

Thus, in relation to public issues, due diligence means to confirm that required procedural activities are duly complied with and obligations imposed by the Regulations are duly fulfilled by the issuer company and other persons engaged in the issue process such as Merchant Bankers, Registrar to Issue, Debenture Trustees, etc.

Other important points relating to due diligence is as follows:

  • The Lead Merchant Bankers shall exercise due diligence and satisfy himself that all the aspects of the issue including the veracity and adequacy of disclosure in the offer documents are duly complied with.
  • The lead merchant bankers shall call upon the issuer, its promoters, or directors to fulfill their obligations as disclosed in the offer document.
  • The merchant banker shall continue to be responsible for post-issue activities till the subscribers receive their securities or refund of application money and the listing agreement is entered with the stock exchange and listing/trading permission is obtained.

The Merchant Bankers and the company are also required to file various certificates or documents as prescribed in SEBI (ICDR) Regulations, 2018. These certificates are also called due diligence certificates by which Merchant Bankers and Company confirms to the SEBI that required provisions and formalities have duly complied in relation to public issues.

Question 4.
Explain the procedure of bidding in the book building issue. [June 2009 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
The process of bidding should be in compliance with the following requirements:

  1. The bidding process shall be carried out only through recognized stock exchanges having electronically linked transparent bidding facilities.
  2. The Lead Book Runner shall ensure the availability of adequate infrastructure with syndicate members for data entry of the bids in a timely manner.
  3. The syndicate members shall be present at the bidding centers and at least one computer terminal is available for the purpose of bidding at all the bidding centers.
  4. During the period for which the issue is open for bidding, the applicants may approach the stockbrokers to place an order for bidding.
  5. Every stockbroker shall accept orders from all clients who place orders through him and every Self Certified Syndicate Bank shall accept ASBA from investors.
  6. Applicants who are QIBs shall place their bids only through stockbrokers who shall have the right to vet the bids.
  7. The bidding terminals shall contain an online graphical display of demand | and bid prices updated at periodic intervals, not exceeding 30 minutes.
  8. At the end of each day during the bidding period, the demand including allocation made to anchor investors shall be shown graphically on the | bidding terminals for information of the public.
  9. The retail individual investors may either withdraw or revise their bids until the finalization of allotment.

The issuer may decide to close the bidding by QIBs one day prior to the closure of the issue subject to the following conditions:

  • Bidding shall be kept open for a minimum of 3 days for all categories of applicants.
  • Disclosures are made in the red herring prospectus regarding the issuer’s decision to close the bidding by QIBs one day prior to the closure of the issue.

11. The QIBs and the Non-Institutional Investors (Nil) shall neither withdraw nor lower the size of their bids at any stage.

12. The identity of QIBs making the bidding shall not be made public.

13. The stock exchanges shall continue to display data pertaining to book-built issues in a uniform format on their website giving category-wise details of bids received, for a period of at least 3 days after closure of bids.

Question 5.
What is due diligence in the process of public issue of securities? Explain its scope and significance. [June 2010 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Due diligence means the diligence reasonably expected from, and ordinarily exercised by, a person who seeks to satisfy a legal requirement or to discharge an obligation.

Thus, in relation to public issues, due diligence means to confirm that required procedural activities are duly complied with and obligations imposed by the Regulations are duly fulfilled by the issuer company and other persons engaged in the issue process such as Merchant Bankers, Registrar to Issue, Debenture Trustees, etc.

Other important points relating to due diligence is as follows:

  • The Lead Merchant Bankers shall exercise due diligence and satisfy himself that all the aspects of the issue including the veracity and adequacy of disclosure in the offer documents are duly complied with.
  • The lead merchant bankers shall call upon the issuer, its promoters, or directors to fulfill their obligations as disclosed in the offer document.
  • The merchant banker shall continue to be responsible for post-issue activities till the subscribers receive their securities or refund of application money and the listing agreement is entered with the stock exchange and listing/trading permission is obtained.

The Merchant Bankers and the company are also required to file various certificates or documents as prescribed in SEBI (ICDR) Regulations, 2018. These certificates are also called due diligence certificates by which Merchant Bankers and Company confirms to the SEBI that required provisions and formalities duly comply in relation public issues.

Question 6.
What is book building? What is the difference between the ‘fixed price process’ & ‘book building process? [June 2010 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Book building means a process undertaken to elicit demand and to assess price for determination of the quantum or value of specified securities or Indian Depository Receipts (IDR). Book Building is basically a process used in IPO for efficient price discovery. It is a mechanism where, during the period for which the IPO is open, bids are collected from investors at various prices, which are above or equal to the floor price. The offer price is determined after the bid closing date.

Following are the main points of difference between fixed price process & book building process:

Points Fixed Price Process Book Building Process
Meaning In the fixed-price process the issue price known in advance to the investors. In the book building process the issue price is not known in advance to the investors. The only price band is offered.
Demand Demand for the securities offered is known only after the closure of the issue. Demand for the securities offered can be known every day as the book is built.
Payment Payment is made at the time of subscription wherein a refund is given after allocation. Payment is made only after allocation.
Document In the fixed-price process the company issue prospectus. In book building, the company has to issue a red herring prospectus.
Concept This is an old and traditional concept. This concept is comparatively new to Indian Security Market.

Question 7.
Write a short note on Self Certified Syndicate Bank (SCSB) [June 2011 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Self Certified Syndicate Bank (SCSB) is a bank that offers the facility of applying through the ASBA process.
A bank desirous of offering ASBA facility shall submit a certificate to SEBI in prescribed format for inclusion of its name in SEBI’s list of SCSBs.

  • An SCSB shall identify its Designated Branches (DBs) at which an ASBA investor shall submit ASBA.
  • An SCSB shall identify also identify the Controlling Branch (CB) which shall act as a coordinating branch for the Registrar of the issue, Stock Exchanges, and Merchant Bankers.

The SCSB shall communicate the following details to \ Stock Exchanges:

  • Name and address of SCSB.
  • Addresses of Designated and Controlling Branches and other details such as telephone number, fax number, and email ids.
  • Name and contact details of a nodal officer at a senior level from the Controlling Branch.

Question 8.
Briefly explain the following terms related to the public issue:
(i) Pre-issue advertisement
(ii) Anchor investor
(iii) Book building [June 2011 (3 × 2 = 6 Marks)]
Answer:
(i) Pre-issue advertisement: Pre-issue advertisement can be issued by the j company after registering the red herring prospectus (in case of book built issue) and prospectus (in case of fixed price issue) with ROC. Pre-issue advertisement can be issued in an English National daily with wide circulation, one Hindi National newspaper, and a regional language newspaper with wide circulation at the place where the registered office of the issuer is situated

Advertisement has to be given in prescribed format and is subject to provisions of section 30 of the Companies Act, 2013.

(ii) Anchor investor: Anchor investor means a Qualified Institutional Buyer (QIB) who makes an application for a value of ₹ 10 Crore or more in a public issue made through the book-building process.

(iii) Book building: Book building means a process undertaken to elicit demand and to assess the price for determination of the quantum or value of specified securities or Indian Depository Receipts (IDR).

Question 9.
Explain briefly the SEBI Regulations for book building. [Dec. 2011 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Book building means a process undertaken to elicit demand and to assess the price for determination of the quantum or value of specified securities or Indian Depository Receipts (IDR).

Book Building is basically a process used in IPO for efficient price discovery. It is a mechanism where, during the period for which the IPO is open, bids are collected from investors at various prices, which are above or equal to the floor price. The offer price is determined after the bid closing date.

The concept of Book Building is relatively new in India. However, it is a common practice in most developed countries.

Question 10.
Discuss briefly the following methods of raising funds from the primary capital market.
(i) Public issue
(ii) Right issue
(iii) Preferential Allotment
(iv) Private placement
(v) Qualified institutional placement (QIP) [June 2012 (5 × 3 = 15 Marks)]
Answer:
1. Public issue: When a company issues securities to new investors for becoming part of shareholders’ family of the issuer it is called a public issue.

The public issue can be further classified into the following two categories:
(a) Initial Public Offer (IPO): When an unlisted company makes either a fresh issue of securities or offers its existing securities for sale or both for the first time to the public, it is called an IPO.
(b) Further public offer (FPO) or Follow on offer: When an already listed company makes either a fresh issue of securities to the public or an offer for sale to the public, it is called an FPO.

2. Right Issue: When an issue of securities is made by an issuer to its existing shareholders it is called a rights issue.

3. Preferential Allotment: When a listed issuer issues shares or convertible securities, to a select group of persons it is called a preferential allotment. It is a sub-category of the private placement.

4. Private placement: When an issuer makes an issue of securities to a select group of persons it is called private placement. However, the issue of securities by way of private placement cannot be made to more than 49 persons.

5. Qualified Institutions Placement (QIP): When a listed issuer issues equity shares or securities convertible into equity shares to selected Qualified Institutions Buyers (QIBs) it is called a QIP.

Question 11.
The preferential issue is not for retail investors. Comment. [Dec. 2012 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Preferential issue means the issuance of equity shares to promoter group or selected investors. It covers the allotment of convertible debentures or any other financial instruments that could be converted into equity shares at a later date. The investors could be institutional investors, private equity investors, high j net-worth individuals, or companies.

The preferential issue is one of the key sources of funding for companies. One of the biggest advantages of a preferential issue is that the company can raise money quickly and cheaply compared with other means of raising money, says IPO or issue of shares on a rights basis.

Preferential issues and private placement is only for the selected class of investors and not for the retail investors. It is like a wholesale market, where institutions with financial clout are allowed to participate.

Question 12.
“Market making is compulsory for the public issue”. Comment. [Dec. 2012 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
There are three types of norms specified by the SEBI for public issues. If a company is not able to follow Norm I then it can follow Norm II or Norm IH. As per Norm II, only market making is compulsory.

Entry Norm II is as follows:

  • The issue shall be through the book building route, with at least 50% to be mandatory allotted to the Qualified Institutional Buyers (QIBs).
  • Minimum post-issue face value capital shall be ₹ 10 crores or there shall be a compulsory market-making for at least 2 years

Thus, it is not correct to say that market making is compulsory for all types of public issues.

Question 13.
Write a short note on Compliance officer [June 2013 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Every company making a public issue is required to appoint a compliance officer and intimate the name of the compliance officer to SEBI. Compliance Officer shall directly liaise with SEBI with regard to compliance with various laws, rules, regulations, and other directives issued by SEBI and investor complaints related matters. He is also required to coordinate with regulatory authorities in various matters and provides necessary guidance so as to ensure compliance internally and ensure that observations/deficiency pointed out by SEBI does not recur.

In terms of Regulation 6 of the SEBI (Listing Obligations & Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2015, Compliance Officer shall be Company Secretary, who shall be responsible for ensuring the correctness, authenticity, and comprehensiveness of the information, statements, reports, etc. filled under corporate filing and dissemination system as specified in the listing agreement.

Question 14.
Explain the following terms associated with the public offering of equity shares. Attempt any five:
(i) Period of subscription
(ii) Issue opening date
(iii) Differential pricing
(iv) Lock-in-period
(v) Price band
(vi) Red-herring prospectus [June 2013 (5 × 4 = 20 Marks)]
Answer:
(i) Period of subscription:
Period of subscription [Regulation 46 of the SEBI (ICDR) Regulations, 2018]:

  • An initial public offer shall be kept open for at least 3 working days and not more than 10 working days.
  • In case of a revision in the price band, the issuer shall extend the bidding (issue) period disclosed in the red herring prospectus, for a minimum period of 3 working days.
  • In case of force majeure, banking strike, or similar circumstances, the issuer may, for reasons to be recorded in writing, extend the bidding (issue) period disclosed in the red herring prospectus (in case of a book built issue) or the issue period disclosed in the prospectus (in case of a fixed price issue), for a minimum period of 3 working days.

(ii) Issue opening date:
Opening of the issue: Subject to compliance with the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013, a public issue may be opened within 12 months from the date of issuance of the observations by the SEBI. An issue shall be opened after at least 3 working days from the date of registering, the red herring prospectus, in case of a book built issue, and the prospectus, in case of a fixed price issue, with the ROC.

(iii) Differential pricing:
The issuer may of its specified securities at different prices, subject to the following:
(a) Retail individual investors or retail individual shareholders or employees entitled for reservation may be offered specified securities at a price not lower than by more than 10% of the price at which net offer is made to other categories of applicants, excluding anchor investors.

(b) In the case of a book-built issue, the price of the specified securities offered to the anchor investors shall not be lower than the price offered to other applicants.

(c) In case the issuer opts for the alternate method of book building in terms of Part D of Schedule XIII, the issuer may offer the specified securities to its employees at a price not lower than by more than I 0% of the Iloor price.

Discount, if any, shall be expressed in rupee terms in the offer document.

(iv) Lock-in-period:
Lock-in means promoters or other specified persons can not sell the shares o others during the prescribed period. The idea Lc that promoters hold has a stake in the company. Moreover, they are not expected to make a profit by selling the shares which earlier they had.

The SEBI (QDR) Regulations, 2018 makes the following provisions /or lock-in of securities.

Lock-in of specified securities held by the promoters [Regulation 16]:
1. The specified securities held by the promoters shall not be transferable for the stipulated periods.
(a) Minimum promoters contribution including the contribution made Alternative Investment Funds or Foreign Venture Capital Investors oi Scheduled Commercial Banks or Public Financial Institutions or Insurance Companies registered with IR DA, shall be locked-in for a period of 3 years from the date of commencement of commercial production oi date of allotment in IPO, which ever is kite

(b Promoters’ holding in excess of minimum promoters’ contribution shall be locked in for a period of 1 year from the date of allotment in the initial public offer.

2. The SR equity shares shall be under lock-in until conversion into equity shares having voting rights same as that of ordinary shares or shall be locked in for a period specified above, whichever is later.

(v) Price band: ‘Price Band’ is a value-setting method in which a seller indicates an upper and lower cost range, between which buyers are able to place bids. The price band’s floor and cap provide guidance to the buyers. This type of auction pricing technique is often used with IPOs.

(vi) Red-herring prospectus: Red-herring prospectus means a prospectus that does not include complete particulars of the quantum or price of the securities offered.

Question 15.
Write a note on: Various methods of raising funds by a company from the primary market [Dec. 2013 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Public Issue of shares means the selling or marketing of shares for subscription by the public by issue of prospectus. For raising capital from the public by the issue of shares, a public company has to comply with the provisions of j the Companies Act, 2013, the SCR Act, 1956 including the Rules & Regulations; made thereunder and the guidelines and instructions issued by the concerned ‘ Government Authorities, Stock Exchanges and SEBI, etc.

A company can raise funds from the primary market through different meth- [ ods as given below:
1. Public Issue: When a company issues securities to new investors for becoming part of the shareholders’ family of the issuer it is called a public issue.

The public issue can be further classified into the following two categories:
(a) Initial Public Offer (IPO): When an unlisted company makes either a fresh issue of securities or offers its existing securities for sale or both for the first time to the public, it is called an IPO.
(b) Further public offer (FPO) or Follow on offer: When an already listed company makes either a fresh issue of securities to the public or an offer for sale to the public, it is called an FPO.

2. Right Issue: When an issue of securities is made by an issuer to its existing shareholders it is called a rights issue.

3. Bonus Issue: When the company issues securities to its existing shareholders without any consideration it is called a bonus issue. Such shares are issued generally by capitalizing the company’s profit & loss account, free reserve, or securities premium account.

4. Private Placement: When an issuer makes an issue of securities to a select group of persons it is called private placement. However, the issue of securities by way of private placement cannot be made to more than 49 persons.

Private placement of securities can be of the following three types:
(a) Preferential Allotment: When a listed issuer issues shares or convertible securities, to a select group of persons it is called a preferential allotment.

(b) Qualified Institutions Placement (QIP): When a listed issuer issues equity shares or securities convertible into equity shares to selected Qualified Institutions Buyers (QIBs) it is called a QIP.

(c) Institutional Placement Programme (IPP): When a listed issuer makes a further public offer of equity shares, or offer for sale of shares by the promoter to QIBs. IPP can only be used to raise minimum public shareholding requirements to 25%.

Question 16.
Write a note on Draft Offer document [Dec. 2013 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Draft Offer document means the offer document in the draft stage.

  • The draft offer documents are filed with SEBI, at least 30 days prior to the filing of the Offer Document with ROC or designated stock exchange.
  • SEBI may specify changes in the Draft Offer Document and the Issuer or the Lead Merchant Banker shall carry out such changes in the draft offer document before filing the Offer Document with ROC or designated stock exchange.
  • The Draft Offer document is available on the SEBI website for public comments for a period of 21 days from the filing of it with SEBI.

Draft Offer Document to be made public: The draft offer document filed with SEBI shall be made public for comments for a period of 21 days from the date of filing with SEBI by hosting it on the websites of the SEBI, recognized stock
exchanges and merchant bankers associated with the issue.

After a period of 21 days, the Lead Merchant Bankers shall file with SEBI a statement giving information of the comments received during that period and the consequential changes to be made in the draft offer document.

Question 17.
The book-building process of determining the price of a public issue is preferred in the case of an initial public offer (IPO) while the fixed-price process is used for a further public offer (FPO). Comment. [Dec. 2013 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
The given statement is false.

In the fixed-price process, the issue price known in advance to the investors while in | book building process the issue price is not known in advance to the investor as only the price band is offered.

‘Fixed price process’ and ‘book-building process’ are pricing mechanisms in the issue of shares in public issues.

A company, whether issues shares through IPO or FPO has the option to choose the pricing mechanism under the ‘Fixed price process’ or ‘book-building process’ subject to conditions specified in SEBI (ICDR) Regulations, 2018.

Question 18.
The book-building process of determining the price of a public issue is preferred in case of an initial public offer (IPO) while the fixed-price process is used for a further public offer (FPO). Comment. [Dec. 2015 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
The given statement is false.

In the fixed-price process, the issue price is known in advance to the investors while in | book building process the issue price is not known in advance to the investors as only the price band is offered.

‘Fixed price process’ and ‘book-building process’ are pricing mechanisms in the issue of shares in public issues.

A company, whether issues shares through IPO or FPO has the option to choose the pricing mechanism under the ‘Fixed price process’ or ‘book-building process’ subject to conditions specified in SEBI (ICDR) Regulations, 2018.

Question 19.
Write a short note on Price and Price Band [June 2017 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Price: There is no restriction on the price at which shares can be issued. The pricing can be decided by the issuer and the Lead Merchant Banker. They can charge any price which they feel the market can bear, but the justification for the price is required to be given in the offer document.

Price band: ‘Price Band’ is a value-setting method in which a seller indicates an upper and lower cost range, between which buyers are able to place bids. The price band’s floor and cap provide guidance to the buyers. This type of auction pricing technique is often used with IPOs.

Question 20.
Explain briefly: Indenture [June 2017 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Indenture: It is an agreement between lender and borrower that details specific terms of the bond issuance. It specifies the legal obligations of the bond issuer and the rights of the bondholder. In other words, an indenture is a document that spells out the specific terms of a bond as well as the rights and responsibilities of both the issuer of the security and the holder.

Question 21.
“A company can raise funds from the primary market through different methods, different types of issues and by means of the offer document and red herring prospectus.” Enumerate. [June 2018 (6 Marks)]
Answer:
A company can raise funds from the primary market through different methods as given below:
1. Public Issue: When a company issues securities to new’ investors for becoming part of the shareholders’ family of the issuer it is called a public issue. The public issue can be further classified into the following two categories:
(a) Initial Public Offer (IPO): When an unlisted company makes either a fresh issue of securities or offers its existing securities for sale or both for the first time to the public, it is called an IPO.
(b) Further public offer (FPO) or Follow on offer: When an already listed company makes either a fresh issue of securities to the public or an offer for sale to the public, it is called an FPO.

2. Right Issue: When an issue of securities is made by an issuer to its existing shareholders it is called a rights issue.

3. Bonus Issue: When the company issues securities to its existing shareholders without any consideration it is called a bonus issue. Such shares are issued generally by capitalizing the company’s profit & loss account, free reserve, or securities premium account.

4. Private Placement: When an issuer makes an issue of securities to a select group of persons it is called private placement. However, the issue of securities by way of private placement cannot be made to more than 49 persons.

Private placement of securities can be of the following three types:
(a) Preferential Allotment: When a listed issuer issues shares or convertible securities, to a select group of persons it is called a preferential allotment.
(b) Qualified Institutions Placement (QIP): When a listed issuer issues equity shares or securities convertible into equity shares to selected Qualified Institutions Buyers (QIBs) it is called a QIP.
(c) Institutional Placement Programme (IPP): When a listed issuer makes a further public offer of equity shares, or offer for sale of shares by the promoter to QIBs. IPP can only be used to raise minimum j public shareholding requirements to 25%.

Offer Document: Offer document means a prospectus, red-herring prospectus or shelf prospectus, and information memorandum in terms of Section 31 of the Companies Act, 2013 in case of a public issue. In case of a rights issue, a ‘letter of offer’ is an offer document.

An offer document covers all the relevant information to help an investor to make his investment decision.

Red-herring Prospectus: The term ‘red-herring prospectus’ is not defined in the SEBI (ICDR) Regulations, 2018.

As per Explanation to Section 32 of the Companies Act, 2013, “red-herring prospectus” means a prospectus that does not include complete particulars of the quantum or price of the securities included therein.

Provisions of the red-herring prospectus are applicable to all companies except those are covered under the shelf prospectus. The provision is mainly applicable for book building.

A company proposing to issue a red-herring prospectus shall file it with the ROC at least 3 days prior to the opening of the subscription list and the offer.

A red-herring prospectus shall carry the same obligations as are applicable to a prospectus and any variation between the red herring prospectus and a prospectus shall be highlighted as variations in the prospectus.

Question 22.
What do you understand by ‘Fast Track Issue’? Explain in brief the provisions related to the fast track issue? [Dec. 2008 (6 Marks)]
Answer:
Making public issues is a very time-consuming and costly affair. The company has to make a lot of compliance under the SEBI Regulations. To overcome this difficulty, SEBI has provided a Fast Track Route to already listed companies who are coming with public issues and rights issues. The fast-track route is an alternative to access public funds by way of further capital offerings. The facility of Fast Track Route is available to well-established and compliant listed companies.

Eligibility conditions for ‘Fast Track Further Public Offer’ [Regulation 155 of the SEBI (ICDR) Regulations, 2018]: Sub-regulations (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (9) of Regulation 123 fie. provisions relating to filing of the draft offer document and offer documents]shall not apply if the issuer satisfies the following conditions for making a further public offer through the fast track route:
(1) Minimum listing period: Equity shares of the issuer have been listed on any stock exchange for a period of at least three years immediately preceding the reference date.

(2) Shareholding of promoter group is in the dematerialized form: Entire shareholding of the promoter group of the issuer is held in dematerialized form on the reference date.

(3) Market Capitalization: Average market capitalization of public share-holding of the issuer is at least ₹ 1,000 Crore in case of public issue.

(4) Annualized trading turnover: Annualized trading turnover of the equity shares of the issuer during 6 calendar months immediately preceding the month of the reference date has been at least 296 of the weighted average number of equity shares listed during such 6 months period. However, for issuers, whose public shareholding is less than 1596 of its issued equity capital, the annualized trading turnover of its equity shares has been at least 296 of the weighted average number of equity shares available as a free float during such 6 months period. [Free float shares are not defined in the SEBI (ICDR) Regulations, 2018. Generally, it means the portion of shares of a company that are held by public investors]

(5) Annualized delivery-based trading turnover: Annualized delivery-based trading turnover of the equity shares during 6 calendar months immediately preceding the month of the reference date has been at least 1096 of the annualized trading turnover of the equity shares during such 6 months period.

(6) Compliance with listing agreement: The Issuer has been in compliance with the equity listing agreement or the SEBI (LODR) Regulations, 2015, as applicable, for a period of at least 3 years immediately preceding the reference date. However, if the issuer has not complied with the provisions of the listing agreement or the SEBI (LODR) Regulations, 2015, relating to the composition of Board of directors, for any quarter during the last 3 years immediately preceding the reference date, but is compliant with such provisions at the time of filing of letter of offer, and adequate disclosures are made in the letter of offer about such non-compliances during the 3 years immediately preceding the reference date, it shall be deemed as compliance with the condition. Imposition of only monetary fines by stock exchanges on the issuer shall not be a ground for ineligibility for undertaking issuances under this regulation.

(7) Grievances Redressed: Issuer has redressed at least 95% of the complaints received from the investors till the end of the quarter immediately preceding the month of the reference date.

(8) No pending prosecution: No show-cause notices have been issued or prosecution proceedings have been initiated by the SEBI and pending against the issuer or its promoters or whole-time directors as on the reference date.

(9) Violation of securities laws: Issuer or promoter or promoter group or director of the issuer has not settled any alleged violation of securities laws through the consent or settlement mechanism with the SEBI during 3 years immediately preceding the reference date.

(10) No suspension of trading of equity shares: Equity shares of the issuer have not been suspended from trading as a disciplinary measure during the last 3 years immediately preceding the reference date.

(11) No conflict of interest: There shall be no conflict of interest between the lead manager and the issuer or its group companies in accordance with the applicable regulations.

(12) Impact of audit qualifications: Impact of audit qualifications, if any and where quantifiable, on the audited accounts of the issuer in respect of those financial years for which such accounts are disclosed in the letter of offer does not exceed 5% of the net profit or loss after tax of the issuer for the respective years.

Question 23.
What is the lock-in period for the promoter’s contribution? [Dec. 2009 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Lock-in means promoters or other specified persons cannot sell the shares to others during the prescribed period. The idea is that promoters should have a stake in the company. Moreover, they are not expected to make a profit by selling the shares which earlier they had.

The SEBI (ICDR) Regulations, 2018 makes the following provisions for lock-in of securities.
Lock-in of specified securities held by the promoters [Regulation 16]:
1. The specified securities held by the promoters shall not be transferable for the stipulated periods.
(a) Minimum promoter’s contribution including the contribution made by Alternative Investment Funds or Foreign Venture Capital Investors or Scheduled Commercial Banks or Public Financial Institutions or Insurance Companies registered with IRDA, shall be locked-in for a period of 3 years from the date of commencement of commercial production or date of allotment in IPO, whichever is later.

(b) Promoters’ holding in excess of minimum promoters’ contribution shall be locked in for a period of 1 year from the date of allotment in the initial public offer.

2. The SR equity shares shall be under lock-in until conversion into equity shares having voting rights same as that of ordinary shares or shall be locked-in for a period specified above, whichever is later.

Question 24.
Write a short note on Anchor Investor [Dec. 2010 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Anchor Investor [Regulation 2(c)]: Anchor investor means a Qualified Institutional Buyer who makes an application for a value of at least 10 Crore in a public issue on the mainboard made through the book-building process in accordance with these regulations or makes an application for a value of at least 2 Crore for an issue made in accordance with Chapter IX of these regulations. /Chapter IX deals with IPO by Small & Medium Enterprises (SME,)]

As per schedule XIII, an issuer proposing to issue specified securities through the book-building process shall comply with the following provisions relating to allocation to Anchor Investor.
(a) An anchor investor shall make an application of a value of at least 10 Crore in a public issue on the mainboard made through the book-building process or an application for a value of at least 2 Crore in case of a public issue on the SME exchange.

(b) Up to 60% of the portion available for allocation to QIBs shall be available for allocation/allotment (“anchor investor portion”) to the anchor investors.

(c) Allocation to the anchor investors shall be on a discretionary basis, subject to the following:

(I) In case of the public issue on the mainboard, through the book-building process:

  • A maximum of 2 such investors shall be permitted for allocation up to 10 Crore.
  • Minimum of 2 and maximum of 15 such investors shall be permitted for allocation above 10 Crore and up to 250 Crore, subject to minimum allotment of 5 Crore per such investor.
  • In case of allocation above 250 Crore; a minimum of 5 such investors and a maximum of 15 such investors for allocation up to ₹ 250 Crore and an additional 10 such investors for every additional ₹ 2500 Crore or part thereof, shall be permitted, subject to a minimum allotment of ₹ 5 Crore per such investor.

(II) In case of the public issue on the SME exchange, through the book-building process:

  • A maximum of 2 such investors shall be permitted for allocation up to ₹ 2 Crore.
  • Minimum of 2 and maximum of 15 such investors shall be permitted for allocation above ₹ 2 Crore and up to ₹ 25 Crore, subject to a minimum allotment of ₹ 1 Crore per such investor.
  • In case of allocation above ₹ 25 Crore; a minimum of 5 such investors and a maximum of 15 such investors for allocation up to ₹ 25 Crore and an additional 10 such investors for every additional ₹ 25 Crore or part thereof, shall be permitted, subject to a minimum allotment of ₹ 1 Crore per such investor.

(d) One-third of the anchor investor portion shall be reserved for domestic mutual funds.

(e) The bidding for anchor investors shall open one day before the issue opening date.

(f) The anchor investors shall pay on the application the same margin which is payable by other categories of investors and the balance, if any, shall be paid within two days of the date of closure of the issue.

(g) The allocation to anchor investors shall be completed on the day of the bidding by the anchor investors.

(h) If the price fixed as a result of book building is higher than the price at which the allocation is made to the anchor investors, the anchor investors shall pay the additional amount. However, if the price fixed as a result of book building is lower than the price at which the allocation is made to the anchor investors, the excess amount shall not be refunded to the anchor investors and the anchor investor shall be allotted the securities at the same price at which the allocation was made to it.

(i) The number of shares allocated to the anchor investors and the price at which the allocation is made, shall be made available to the stock ex-change(s) by the lead manager(s) for dissemination on the website of the stock exchange(s) before the opening of the issue.

(j) There shall be a lock-in of 30 days on the shares allotted to the anchor investors from the date of allotment.

(k) Neither the
1. lead manager or any associate of the lead managers (other than mutual funds sponsored by entities which are associate of the lead managers or insurance companies promoted by entities that are associate of the lead managers or Alternate Investment Funds (AIFs) sponsored by the entities which are associate of the lead manager or FPIs other than Category III sponsored by the entities which are associate of the lead manager) nor

2. any person related to the promoter/promoter group shall apply under the Anchor Investors category.

Question 25.
Define ‘fast track issue’. List out conditions to make fast track issue. [June 2010 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Making public issues is a very time-consuming and costly affair. The company has to make a lot of compliance under the SEBI Regulations. To overcome this difficulty, SEBI has provided a Fast Track Route to already listed companies who are coming with public issues and rights issues. The fast-track route is an alternative to access public funds by way of further capital offerings. The facility of Fast Track Route is available to well-established and compliant listed companies.

Eligibility conditions for ‘Fast Track Further Public Offer’ [Regulation 155 of the SEBI (ICDR) Regulations, 2018]: Sub-regulations (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (9) of Regulation 123 fie. provisions relating to filing of the draft offer document and offer documents]shall not apply if the issuer satisfies the following conditions for making a further public offer through the fast track route:
1. Minimum listing period: Equity shares of the issuer have been listed on any stock exchange for a period of at least three years immediately preceding the reference date.

2. Shareholding of promoter group is in the dematerialized form: Entire shareholding of the promoter group of the issuer is held in dematerialized form on the reference date.

3. Market Capitalization: Average market capitalization of public share-holding of the issuer is at least ₹ 1,000 Crore in case of public issue.

4. Annualized trading turnover: Annualized trading turnover of the equity shares of the issuer during 6 calendar months immediately preceding the month of the reference date has been at least 296 of the weighted average number of equity shares listed during such 6 months period. However, for issuers, whose public shareholding is less than 1596 of its issued equity capital, the annualized trading turnover of its equity shares has been at least 296 of the weighted average number of equity shares available as a free float during such 6 months period. [Free float shares are not defined in the SEBI (ICDR) Regulations, 2018. Generally, it means the portion of shares of a company that are held by public investors]

5. Annualized delivery-based trading turnover: Annualized delivery-based trading turnover of the equity shares during 6 calendar months immediately preceding the month of the reference date has been at least 1096 of the annualized trading turnover of the equity shares during such 6 months period.

6. Compliance with listing agreement: The Issuer has been in compliance with the equity listing agreement or the SEBI (LODR) Regulations, 2015, as applicable, for a period of at least 3 years immediately preceding the reference date. However, if the issuer has not complied with the provisions of the listing agreement or the SEBI (LODR) Regulations, 2015, relating to the composition of Board of directors, for any quarter during the last 3 years immediately preceding the reference date, but is compliant with such provisions at the time of filing of letter of offer, and adequate disclosures are made in the letter of offer about such non-compliances during the 3 years immediately preceding the reference date, it shall be deemed as compliance with the condition. Imposition of only monetary fines by stock exchanges on the issuer shall not be a ground for ineligibility for undertaking issuances under this regulation.

7. Grievances Redressed: Issuer has redressed at least 95% of the complaints received from the investors till the end of the quarter immediately preceding the month of the reference date.

8. No pending prosecution: No show-cause notices have been issued or prosecution proceedings have been initiated by the SEBI and pending against the issuer or its promoters or whole-time directors as on the reference date.

9. Violation of securities laws: Issuer or promoter or promoter group or director of the issuer has not settled any alleged violation of securities laws through the consent or settlement mechanism with the SEBI during 3 years immediately preceding the reference date.

10. No suspension of trading of equity shares: Equity shares of the issuer have not been suspended from trading as a disciplinary measure during the last 3 years immediately preceding the reference date.

11. No conflict of interest: There shall be no conflict of interest between the lead manager and the issuer or its group companies in accordance with the applicable regulations.

12. Impact of audit qualifications: Impact of audit qualifications, if any and where quantifiable, on the audited accounts of the issuer in respect of those financial years for which such accounts are disclosed in the letter of offer does not exceed 5% of the net profit or loss after tax of the issuer for the respective years.

Question 26.
What are the eligibility norms for public issues by an unlisted company? [June 2010 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Following norms are specified in the SEBI(ICDR) Regulations, 2018 for IPO:
Eligibility requirements for an initial public offer: [Regulation 6(1)]: An issuer shall be eligible to make an Initial Public Offer (IPO) only if it meets all the following conditions:
1. Assets Criteria: The issuer has net tangible assets of at least ₹ 3 Crore, calculated on a restated and consolidated basis, in each of the preceding three full years (of 12 months each), of which not more than 50% are held in monetary assets.

However, if more than 50% of the net tangible assets are held in monetary assets, the issuer has utilized or made firm commitments to utilize such excess monetary assets in its business or project. The limit of 50% on monetary assets shall not be applicable in case the IPO is made entirely through an Offer for Sale (OFS).

2. Profit Criteria: The issuer has an average operating profit of at least ₹ 15 Crore, calculated on a restated and consolidated basis, during the preceding 3 years (of 12 months each), with operating profit in each of these preceding 3 years.

3. Net-worth Criteria: The issuer has a net worth of at least t 1 Crore in each of the preceding 3 full years (of twelve months each), calculated on a restated and consolidated basis.

4. Name Criteria: If the issuer has changed its name within the last 1 year, at least 50% of the revenue, calculated on a restated and consolidated basis, for the preceding one full year, has been earned by it from the activity indicated by its new name.

Alternative Norms [Regulation 6(2)]: An issuer not satisfying the above conditions shall be eligible to make IPO only if the issue is made through the book-building process and the issuer undertakes to allot at least 75% of the net offer to Qualified Institutional Buyers (QIB) and to refund the full subscription money if it fails to do so.

Norms for SR Equity shares [Regulation 6(3)]:
“SR equity shares ” means the equity shares of an issuer having superior voting rights compared to all other equity shares issued by that issuer.

If an issuer has issued SR equity shares to its promoters/founders, the said issuer shall be allowed to do an initial public offer of only ordinary shares for listing on the Main Board subject to compliance with the following:
1. The issuer shall be intensive in the use of technology, information technology, intellectual property, data analytics, biotechnology, or nano-technology to provide products, services, or business platforms with substantial value addition.

2. The SR shareholder shall not be part of the promoter group whose collective net worth is more than ₹ 500 Crore.

3. The SR shares were issued only to the promoters/founders who hold an executive position in the issuer company.

4. The issue of SR equity shares had been authorized by a special resolution passed at a general meeting of the shareholders of the issuer, where the notice calling for such general meeting specifically provided for

  • the size of the issue of SR equity shares,
  • the ratio of voting rights of SR equity shares vis-a-vis the ordinary shares,
  • rights as to differential dividends, if any
  • sunset provisions, which provide for a time frame for the validity of such SR equity shares,
  • matters in respect of which the SR equity shares would have the same voting right as that of the ordinary shares,

5. The SR equity shares have been held for a period of at least 6 months prior to the filing of the red herring prospectus.

6. The SR equity shares shall have voting rights in the ratio of a minimum of 2:1 up to a maximum of 10:1 compared to ordinary shares and such ratio shall be in whole numbers only.

7. The SR equity shares shall have the same face value as the ordinary shares.

8. The issuer shall only have one class of SR equity shares.

9. The SR equity shares shall be equivalent to ordinary equity shares in all respects, except for having superior voting rights.

Question 27.
Can the issuer companies offer specified securities at different prices? What are the conditions laid down under the SEBI investor protection regulations with regard to differential pricing of securities? [June 2010 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Issue Price: There is no restriction on the price at which shares can be issued. The pricing can be decided by the issuer and the Lead Merchant Banker. They can charge any price which they feel the market can bear, but the justification for the price is required to be given in the offer document.

Differential Pricing [Regulation 30 of the SEBI (ICDR) Regulations, 2018]:
The issuer may offer its specified securities at different prices, subject to the following:
(a) Retail individual investors or retail individual shareholders or employees entitled for reservation may be offered specified securities at a price not lower than by more than 10% of the price at which net offer is made to other categories of applicants, excluding anchor investors.

(b) In the case of a book-built issue, the price of the specified securities offered to the anchor investors shall not be lower than the price offered to other applicants.

(c) In case the issuer opts for the alternate method of book building in terms of Part D of Schedule XIII, the issuer may offer the specified securities to its employees at a price not lower than by more than 10% of the floor price.

Discount, if any, shall be expressed in rupee terms in the offer document.
Part D of Schedule XIII deals with the “alternate method of book building process”.

Question 28.
Write a short note on Fast Track Issue [June 2011 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Making public issues is a very time-consuming and costly affair. The company has to make a lot of compliance under the SEBI Regulations. To overcome this difficulty, SEBI has provided a Fast Track Route to already listed companies who are coming with public issues and rights issues. The fast-track route is an alternative to access public funds by way of further capital offerings. The facility of Fast Track Route is available to well-established and compliant listed companies.

Eligibility conditions for ‘Fast Track Further Public Offer’ [Regulation 155 of the SEBI (ICDR) Regulations, 2018]: Sub-regulations (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (9) of Regulation 123 fie. provisions relating to filing of the draft offer document and offer documents]shall not apply if the issuer satisfies the following conditions for making a further public offer through the fast track route:
1. Minimum listing period: Equity shares of the issuer have been listed on any stock exchange for a period of at least three years immediately preceding the reference date.

2. Shareholding of promoter group is in the dematerialized form: Entire shareholding of the promoter group of the issuer is held in dematerialized form on the reference date.

3. Market Capitalization: Average market capitalization of public share-holding of the issuer is at least ₹ 1,000 Crore in case of public issue.

4. Annualized trading turnover: Annualized trading turnover of the equity shares of the issuer during 6 calendar months immediately preceding the month of the reference date has been at least 296 of the weighted average number of equity shares listed during such 6 months period. However, for issuers, whose public shareholding is less than 1596 of its issued equity capital, the annualized trading turnover of its equity shares has been at least 296 of the weighted average number of equity shares available as a free float during such 6 months period. [Free float shares are not defined in the SEBI (ICDR) Regulations, 2018. Generally, it means the portion of shares of a company that are held by public investors]

5. Annualized delivery-based trading turnover: Annualized delivery-based trading turnover of the equity shares during 6 calendar months immediately preceding the month of the reference date has been at least 1096 of the annualized trading turnover of the equity shares during such 6 months period.

6. Compliance with listing agreement: The Issuer has been in compliance with the equity listing agreement or the SEBI (LODR) Regulations, 2015, as applicable, for a period of at least 3 years immediately preceding the reference date. However, if the issuer has not complied with the provisions of the listing agreement or the SEBI (LODR) Regulations, 2015, relating to the composition of Board of directors, for any quarter during the last 3 years immediately preceding the reference date, but is compliant with such provisions at the time of filing of letter of offer, and adequate disclosures are made in the letter of offer about such non-compliances during the 3 years immediately preceding the reference date, it shall be deemed as compliance with the condition. Imposition of only monetary fines by stock exchanges on the issuer shall not be a ground for ineligibility for undertaking issuances under this regulation.

7. Grievances Redressed: Issuer has redressed at least 95% of the complaints received from the investors till the end of the quarter immediately preceding the month of the reference date.

8. No pending prosecution: No show-cause notices have been issued or prosecution proceedings have been initiated by the SEBI and pending against the issuer or its promoters or whole-time directors as on the reference date.

9. Violation of securities laws: Issuer or promoter or promoter group or director of the issuer has not settled any alleged violation of securities laws through the consent or settlement mechanism with the SEBI during 3 years immediately preceding the reference date.

10. No suspension of trading of equity shares: Equity shares of the issuer have not been suspended from trading as a disciplinary measure during the last 3 years immediately preceding the reference date.

11. No conflict of interest: There shall be no conflict of interest between the lead manager and the issuer or its group companies in accordance with the applicable regulations.

12. Impact of audit qualifications: Impact of audit qualifications, if any and where quantifiable, on the audited accounts of the issuer in respect of those financial years for which such accounts are disclosed in the letter of offer does not exceed 5% of the net profit or loss after tax of the issuer for the respective years.

Question 29.
Write a short note on Lock-in-period [Dec. 2011 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Lock-in means promoters or other specified persons cannot sell the shares to others during the prescribed period. The idea is that promoters should have a stake; in the company. Moreover, they are not expected to make a profit by selling the shares which earlier they had.

The SEBI (ICDR) Regulations, 2018 makes the following provisions for lock-in of securities.

Lock-in of specified securities held by the promoters [Regulation 16]:
1. The specified securities held by the promoters shall not be transferable (hereinafter referred to as “lock-in ”) for the stipulated periods.
(a) Minimum promoter’s contribution including the contribution made by Alternative Investment Funds or Foreign Venture Capital Investors or Scheduled Commercial Banks or Public Financial Institutions or Insurance Companies registered with IRDA, shall be locked-in for a period of 3 years from the date of commencement of commercial production or date of allotment in IPO, whichever is later.

(b) Promoters’ holding in excess of minimum promoters’ contribution shall be locked in for a period of 1 year from the date of allotment in the initial public offer.

2. The SR equity shares shall be under lock-in until conversion into equity shares having voting rights same as that of ordinary shares or shall be locked-in for a period specified above, whichever is later.

Lock-in of specified securities held by persons other than the promoters [Regulation 17]: The entire pre-issue capital held by persons other than the promoters shall be locked in for a period of 1 year from the date of allotment 1 in the initial public offer. This provision shall not apply to:

(a) Equity shares allotted to employees, whether currently an employee or not, under an employee stock option or employee stock purchase scheme of the issuer prior to the initial public offer, if the issuer has made full disclosures with respect to such options or scheme in accordance with Part A of Schedule VI.

(b) Equity shares held by an employee stock option trust or transferred to the employees by an employee stock option trust pursuant to exercise of options by the employees, whether current employees or not, in accordance with the employee stock option plan or employee stock purchase scheme. However, equity shares allotted to the employees shall be subject to the provisions of lock-in as specified under the SEBI (Share Based Employee Benefits) Regulations, 2014.

(c) Equity shares held by a Venture Capital Fund or Alternative Investment Fund of Category-I or Category-II or a Foreign Venture Capital Investor. Such equity shares shall be locked in for a period of at least 1 year from the date of purchase by the venture capital fund or alternative investment fund or foreign venture capital investor.

Lock-in of specified securities lent to the stabilizing agent under the Green Shoe Option (GSO) [Regulation 18]: The lock-in provisions shall not apply with respect to the specified securities lent to stabilizing agent for the purpose of greenshoe option, during the period starting from the date of lending of such specified securities and ending on the date on which they are returned to the lender. However, the specified securities shall be locked in for the remaining period from the date on which they are returned to the lender.

Lock-in of party-paid securities [Regulation 19]: If the specified securities which are subject to lock-in are partly paid up and the amount called up on such specified securities is less than the amount called up on the specified securities issued to the public, the lock-in shall end only on the expiry of 3 years after such specified securities have become pari passu with the specified securities issued to the public.

Inscription or recording of non-transferability [Regulation 20]: The certificates of specified securities which are subject to lock-in shall contain the inscription “non-transferable” and specify the lock-in period and in case such specified securities are dematerialized, the issuer shall ensure that the lock-in is recorded by the depository.

Question 30.
Write a short note on the Period of subscription [Dec. 2011 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Period of subscription:
Period of subscription [Regulation 46 of the SEBI (ICDR) Regulations, 2018]:

  • An initial public offer shall be kept open for at least 3 working days and not more than 10 working days.
  • In case of a revision in the price band, the issuer shall extend the bidding (issue) period disclosed in the red herring prospectus, for a minimum period of 3 working days.
  • In case of force majeure, banking strike, or similar circumstances, the issuer may, for reasons to be recorded in writing, extend the bidding (issue) period disclosed in the red herring prospectus (in case of a book built issue) or the issue period disclosed in the prospectus (in case of a fixed price issue), for a minimum period of 3 working days.

Question 31.
Discuss the rules for the preferential issue of shares by existing listed companies. [Dec. 2011 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Preferential Issue [Regulation 2(l)(11)]: Preferential issue means an issue of specified securities by a listed issuer to any select person or group of persons on a private placement basis and does not include an offer of specified securities made through employee stock option scheme, employee stock purchase scheme or an issue of sweat equity shares or depository receipts issued in a country outside India or foreign securities.

To whom preferential issue cannot be made [Regulation 159]: Preferential issue of specified securities shall not be made to any person who has sold or transferred any equity shares of the issuer during the six months preceding the relevant date:

Conditions for preferential issue [Regulation 160]: A listed issuer making a preferential issue of specified securities shall ensure that:
(a) All equity shares allotted by way of preferential issue shall be made fully- paid up at the time of the allotment.
(b) A special resolution has been passed by its shareholders.
(c) All equity shares held by the proposed allottees in the issuer are in dematerialized form.
(d) The issuer is in compliance with the conditions for continuous listing of equity shares as specified in the listing agreement with the stock exchange where the equity shares of the issuer are listed and the SEBI (LODR) Regulations, 2015, and any circular or notification issued by the SEBI thereunder.
(e) The issuer has obtained the Permanent Account Numbers of the proposed allottees, except those allottees which may be exempt from specifying their Permanent Account Number for transacting in the securities market by the Board.

Question 32.
Write a short note on Promoters Contribution [June 2012 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Promoters must have some reasonable contribution to the company. If they have no stake in the company, they are less likely to be careful. Following norms have been prescribed for promoter’s contributions under the SEBI (ICDR) Regulations, 2018:
Minimum promoters’ contribution [Regulation 14]: The promoters of the issuer shall hold at least 20% of the post-issue capital.

However, in case the post-issue shareholding of the promoters is less than 20%, Alternative Investment Funds or Foreign Venture Capital Investors or Scheduled Commercial Banks or Public Financial Institutions or Insurance Companies registered with IRDA may contribute to meet the shortfall in minimum contribution as specified for the promoters, subject to a maximum of 10% of the post-issue capital without being identified as promoters.

The requirement of minimum promoters’ contribution shall not apply in case an issuer does not have any identifiable promoter.

The minimum promoters’ contribution shall be as follows:
(a) The promoters shall contribute 20% of the post-issue capital either by way of equity shares including SR equity shares, if any, or by way of subscription to convertible securities. If the price of the equity shares allotted pursuant to conversion is not pre-determined and not disclosed in the offer document, the promoters shall contribute only by way of subscription to the convertible securities being issued in the public issue and shall undertake in writing to subscribe to the equity shares pursuant to the conversion of such securities.

(b) In case of any issue of convertible securities which are convertible or exchangeable on different dates and if the promoters’ contribution is by way of equity shares (conversion price being pre-determined), such contribution shall not be at a price lower than the weighted average price of the equity share capital arising out of the conversion of such securities.

(c) Subject to the above conditions, in case of an initial public offer of convertible debt instruments without a prior public issue of equity shares, the promoters shall bring in a contribution of at least 25% of the project cost in the form of equity shares, subject to contributing at least 2596 of the issue size from their own funds in the form of equity shares. However, if the project is to be implemented in stages, the promoters’ contribution shall be with respect to total equity participation till the respective stage vis-a-vis the debt raised or proposed to be raised through the public issue.

The promoters shall satisfy the requirements of this regulation at least one day prior to the date of opening of the issue.

In case the promoters have to subscribe to equity shares or convertible securities towards minimum promoters’ contribution, the amount of promoters’ contribution shall be kept in an escrow account with a scheduled commercial bank, which shall be released to the issuer along with the release of the issue proceeds.

Where the promoters’ contribution has already been brought in and utilized, the issuer shall give the cash flow statement disclosing the use of such funds in the offer document.

Where the minimum promoters’ contribution is more than ^100 Crore and the initial public offer is for partly paid shares, the promoters shall bring in at least ₹ 100 Crore before the date of opening of the issue and the remaining amount may be brought on a pro-rata basis before the calls are made to the public.

Securities ineligible for minimum promoters’ contribution [Regulation 15]: For the computation of minimum promoter’s contribution, the following specified securities shall not be eligible:
(a) Specified securities acquired during the preceding 3 years if these are:
1. acquired for consideration other than cash and revaluation of assets or capitalization of intangible assets is involved in such transaction; or

2. resulting from a bonus issue by utilization of revaluation reserves or unrealized profits of the issuer or from bonus issue against equity shares which are ineligible for minimum promoters’ contribution.

(b) Specified securities acquired by the Promoters and Alternative Investment Funds or Foreign Venture Capital Investors or Scheduled Commercial Banks or Public Financial Institutions or Insurance Companies registered with IRDA, during the preceding 1 year at a price lower than the price at which specified securities are being offered to the public in the initial public offer.

However, nothing contained in this clause shall apply:
1. if the promoters and alternative investment funds, as applicable, pay to the issuer the difference between the price at which the specified securities are offered in the initial public offer and the price at which the specified securities had been acquired;

2. if such specified securities are acquired in terms of the scheme under sections 230 to 234 of the Companies Act, 2013, as approved by High Court/Tribunal/Central Government, by the promoters in lieu of business and invested capital that had been in existence for a period of more than 1 year prior to such approval;

3. to an initial public offer by a government company, statutory authority or corporation, or any special purpose vehicle set up by any of them, which is engaged in the infrastructure sector.

(c) Specified securities allotted to the Promoters and Alternative Investment Funds during the preceding 1 year at a price less than the issue price, against funds brought in by them during that period, in case of an issuer formed by conversion of one or more partnership firms or LLPs, where the partners of the erstwhile partnership firms or LLPs are the promoters of the issuer and there is no change in the management. However, specified securities, allotted to the promoters against the capital existing in such firms for a period of more than 1 year on a continuous basis, shall be eligible.

(d) Specified securities pledged with any creditor. Specified securities shall be eligible for the computation of promoters’ contribution if such securities are acquired pursuant to a scheme that has been approved by a tribunal or the Central Government under sections 230 to 234 of the Companies Act, 2013.

Question 33.
Write a short note on Basis of Allotment [June 2012 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
The person responsible for the basis of allotment: In a public issue of securities, the Executive or Managing Director of the Designated Stock Exchange along with the post issue Lead Merchant Banker and the Registrars to the Issue shall be responsible to ensure that the basis of allotment is finalized in a fair and proper manner in accordance with the SEBI (ICDR) Regulations, 2018.

Allotment procedure and basis of allotment [Regulation 49 of the SEBI (ICDR) Regulations, 2018]:

  1. The issuer shall not make an allotment pursuant to a public issue if the number of prospective allottees is less than 1,000.
  2. The issuer shall not make any allotment in excess of the specified securities offered through the offer document except in case of oversubscription for the purpose of rounding off to make allotment, in consultation with the designated stock exchange. However, in case of oversubscription, an allotment of not more than 1% of the net offer to the public may be made for the purpose of making allotments in minimum lots.
  3. The allotment of specified securities to applicants other than to the retail individual investors and anchor investors shall be on a proportionate basis within the respective investor categories and the number of securities allotted shall be rounded off to the nearest integer, subject to minimum allotment being equal to the minimum application size as determined and disclosed in the offer document. The value of specified securities allotted to any person, except in the case of employees, shall not exceed t 2 lakhs for retail investors or up to ? 5 lakhs for eligible employees.
  4. The allotment of specified securities to each retail individual investor shall not be less than the minimum bid lot, subject to the availability of shares in the retail individual investor category, and the remaining available shares, if any, shall be allotted on a proportionate basis.
  5. The authorized employees of the designated stock exchange, along with the lead manager and registrars to the issue, shall ensure that the basis of allotment is finalized in a fair and proper manner in accordance with the procedure as specified in Part A of Schedule XIV.

Question 34.
“An issuer can offer specified securities at different prices.” Comment. [Dec. 2012 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Issue Price: There is no restriction on the price at which shares can be issued. The pricing can be decided by the issuer and the Lead Merchant Banker. They can charge any price which they feel the market can bear, but the justification for the price is required to be given in the offer document.

Differential Pricing [Regulation 30 of the SEBI (ICDR) Regulations, 2018]:
The issuer may offer its specified securities at different prices, subject to the following:
(a) Retail individual investors or retail individual shareholders or employees entitled for reservation may be offered specified securities at a price not lower than by more than 10% of the price at which net offer is made to other categories of applicants, excluding anchor investors.

(b) In the case of a book-built issue, the price of the specified securities offered to the anchor investors shall not be lower than the price offered to other applicants.

(c) In case the issuer opts for the alternate method of book building in terms of Part D of Schedule XIII, the issuer may offer the specified securities to its employees at a price not lower than by more than 10% of the floor price.

Discount, if any, shall be expressed in rupee terms in the offer document.
Part D of Schedule XIII deals with the “alternate method of book building process”.

Question 35.
Write a short note on Promoters Contribution [Dec. 2012 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Lock-in means promoters or other specified persons cannot sell the shares to others during the prescribed period. The idea is that promoters should have a stake in the company. Moreover, they are not expected to make a profit by selling the shares which earlier they had.

The SEBI (ICDR) Regulations, 2018 makes the following provisions for lock-in of securities.
Lock-in of specified securities held by the promoters [Regulation 16]:
1. The specified securities held by the promoters shall not be transferable for the stipulated periods.
(a) Minimum promoter’s contribution including the contribution made by Alternative Investment Funds or Foreign Venture Capital Investors or Scheduled Commercial Banks or Public Financial Institutions or Insurance Companies registered with IRDA, shall be locked-in for a period of 3 years from the date of commencement of commercial production or date of allotment in IPO, whichever is later.

(b) Promoters’ holding in excess of minimum promoters’ contribution shall be locked in for a period of 1 year from the date of allotment in the initial public offer.

2. The SR equity shares shall be under lock-in until conversion into equity shares having voting rights same as that of ordinary shares or shall be locked-in for a period specified above, whichever is later.

Lock-in of specified securities held by persons other than the promoters [Regulation 17]: The entire pre-issue capital held by persons other than the promoters shall be locked in for a period of 1 year from the date of allotment 1 in the initial public offer. This provision shall not apply to:

(a) Equity shares allotted to employees, whether currently an employee or not, under an employee stock option or employee stock purchase scheme of the issuer prior to the initial public offer, if the issuer has made full disclosures with respect to such options or scheme in accordance with Part A of Schedule VI.

(b) Equity shares held by an employee stock option trust or transferred to the employees by an employee stock option trust pursuant to exercise of options by the employees, whether current employees or not, in accordance with the employee stock option plan or employee stock purchase scheme. However, equity shares allotted to the employees shall be subject to the provisions of lock-in as specified under the SEBI (Share Based Employee Benefits) Regulations, 2014.

(c) Equity shares held by a Venture Capital Fund or Alternative Investment Fund of Category-I or Category-II or a Foreign Venture Capital Investor. Such equity shares shall be locked in for a period of at least 1 year from the date of purchase by the venture capital fund or alternative investment fund or foreign venture capital investor.

Lock-in of specified securities lent to the stabilizing agent under the Green Shoe Option (GSO) [Regulation 18]: The lock-in provisions shall not apply with respect to the specified securities lent to stabilizing agent for the purpose of greenshoe option, during the period starting from the date of lending of such specified securities and ending on the date on which they are returned to the lender. However, the specified securities shall be locked in for the remaining period from the date on which they are returned to the lender.

Lock-in of party-paid securities [Regulation 19]: If the specified securities which are subject to lock-in are partly paid up and the amount called-upon such specified securities are less than the amount called-up on the specified securities issued to the public, the lock-in shall end only on the expiry of 3 years after such specified securities have become pari passu with the specified securities issued to the public.

Inscription or recording of non-transferability [Regulation 20]: The certificates of specified securities which are subject to lock-in shall contain the inscription “non-transferable” and specify the lock-in period and in case such specified securities are dematerialized, the issuer shall ensure that the lock-in is recorded by the depository.

Question 36.
Write a short note on Qualified Institutional Buyer [Dec. 2012 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Qualified Institutional Buyer means:

  • A Mutual Fund, Venture Capital Fund, Alternative Investment Fund & Foreign Venture Capital Investor registered with the SEBI
  • A Category I & II Foreign Portfolio Investor registered with the SEBI
  • A Public Financial Institution
  • A Scheduled Commercial Bank
  • A multilateral and bilateral development financial institution
  • A state industrial development corporation
  • An Insurance Company registered with the IRDA
  • A Provident Fund with a minimum corpus of ₹ 25 Crore
  • A Pension Fund with a minimum corpus of ₹ 25 Crore
  • National Investment Fund
  • Insurance Funds set up and managed by the army, navy, or air force of the Union of India
  • Insurance Funds set up and managed by the Department of Posts, India.
  • Systematically important non-banking financial companies.

Thus, only above stated institutional buyers are QIB and not other institutional if buyers.

Question 37.
Discuss briefly the SEBI Regulations for preferential issue of shares by listed companies. [Dec. 2012 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Preferential issue means the issuance of equity shares to promoter group or selected investors. It covers the allotment of convertible debentures or any other financial instruments that could be converted into equity shares at a later date. The investors could be institutional investors, private equity investors, high j net-worth individuals, or companies.

The preferential issue is one of the key sources of funding for companies. One of the biggest advantages of a preferential issue is that the company can raise money quickly and cheaply compared with other means of raising money, says IPO or issue of shares on a rights basis.

Preferential issues and private placement is only for the selected class of investors and not for the retail investors. It is like a wholesale market, where institutions with financial clout are allowed to participate.

Preferential Issue [Regulation 2(l)(11)]: Preferential issue means an issue of specified securities by a listed issuer to any select person or group of persons on a private placement basis and does not include an offer of specified securities made through employee stock option scheme, employee stock purchase scheme or an issue of sweat equity shares or depository receipts issued in a country outside India or foreign securities.

To whom preferential issue cannot be made [Regulation 159]: Preferential issue of specified securities shall not be made to any person who has sold or transferred any equity shares of the issuer during the six months preceding the relevant date:

Conditions for preferential issue [Regulation 160]: A listed issuer making a preferential issue of specified securities shall ensure that:
(a) All equity shares allotted by way of preferential issue shall be made fully- paid up at the time of the allotment.
(b) A special resolution has been passed by its shareholders.
(c) All equity shares held by the proposed allottees in the issuer are in dematerialized form.
(d) The issuer is in compliance with the conditions for continuous listing of equity shares as specified in the listing agreement with the stock exchange where the equity shares of the issuer are listed and the SEBI (LODR) Regulations, 2015, and any circular or notification issued by the SEBI thereunder.
(e) The issuer has obtained the Permanent Account Numbers of the proposed allottees, except those allottees which may be exempt from specifying their Permanent Account Number for transacting in the securities market by the Board.

Question 38.
What are the eligible conditions for making a fast track issue (FTI)? [June 2013 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Making public issues is a very time-consuming and costly affair. The company has to make a lot of compliance under the SEBI Regulations. To overcome this difficulty, SEBI has provided a Fast Track Route to already listed companies who are coming with public issues and rights issues. The fast-track route is an alternative to access public funds by way of further capital offerings. The facility of Fast Track Route is available to well-established and compliant listed companies.

Eligibility conditions for ‘Fast Track Further Public Offer’ [Regulation 155 of the SEBI (ICDR) Regulations, 2018]: Sub-regulations (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (9) of Regulation 123 fie. provisions relating to filing of the draft offer document and offer documents]shall not apply if the issuer satisfies the following conditions for making a further public offer through the fast track route:
1. Minimum listing period: Equity shares of the issuer have been listed on any stock exchange for a period of at least three years immediately preceding the reference date.

2. Shareholding of promoter group is in the dematerialized form: Entire shareholding of the promoter group of the issuer is held in dematerialized form on the reference date.

3. Market Capitalization: Average market capitalization of public share-holding of the issuer is at least ₹? 1,000 Crore in case of public issue.

4. Annualized trading turnover: Annualized trading turnover of the equity shares of the issuer during 6 calendar months immediately preceding the month of the reference date has been at least 296 of the weighted average number of equity shares listed during such 6 months period. However, for issuers, whose public shareholding is less than 1596 of its issued equity capital, the annualized trading turnover of its equity shares has been at least 296 of the weighted average number of equity shares available as a free float during such 6 months period. [Free float shares are not defined in the SEBI (ICDR) Regulations, 2018. Generally, it means the portion of shares of a company that are held by public investors]

5. Annualized delivery-based trading turnover: Annualized delivery-based trading turnover of the equity shares during 6 calendar months immediately preceding the month of the reference date has been at least 1096 of the annualized trading turnover of the equity shares during such 6 months period.

6. Compliance with listing agreement: The Issuer has been in compliance with the equity listing agreement or the SEBI (LODR) Regulations, 2015, as applicable, for a period of at least 3 years immediately preceding the reference date. However, if the issuer has not complied with the provisions of the listing agreement or the SEBI (LODR) Regulations, 2015, relating to the composition of Board of directors, for any quarter during the last 3 years immediately preceding the reference date, but is compliant with such provisions at the time of filing of letter of offer, and adequate disclosures are made in the letter of offer about such non-compliances during the 3 years immediately preceding the reference date, it shall be deemed as compliance with the condition. Imposition of only monetary fines by stock exchanges on the issuer shall not be a ground for ineligibility for undertaking issuances under this regulation.

7. Grievances Redressed: Issuer has redressed at least 95% of the complaints received from the investors till the end of the quarter immediately preceding the month of the reference date.

8. No pending prosecution: No show-cause notices have been issued or prosecution proceedings have been initiated by the SEBI and pending against the issuer or its promoters or whole-time directors as on the reference date.

9. Violation of securities laws: Issuer or promoter or promoter group or director of the issuer has not settled any alleged violation of securities laws through the consent or settlement mechanism with the SEBI during 3 years immediately preceding the reference date.

10. No suspension of trading of equity shares: Equity shares of the issuer have not been suspended from trading as a disciplinary measure during the last 3 years immediately preceding the reference date.

11. No conflict of interest: There shall be no conflict of interest between the lead manager and the issuer or its group companies in accordance with the applicable regulations.

12. Impact of audit qualifications: Impact of audit qualifications, if any and where quantifiable, on the audited accounts of the issuer in respect of those financial years for which such accounts are disclosed in the letter of offer does not exceed 5% of the net profit or loss after tax of the issuer for the respective years.

Question 39.
What do you understand by Qualified Institutions Placement (QIP)? [June 2013 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
A company can raise funds from the primary market through different methods as given below:
1. Public Issue: When a company issues securities to new’ investors for becoming part of the shareholders family of the issuer it is called a public issue. The public issue can be further classified into the following two categories:
(a) Initial Public Offer (IPO): When an unlisted company makes either a fresh issue of securities or offers its existing securities for sale or both for the first time to the public, it is called an IPO.

(b) Further public offer (FPO) or Follow on offer: When an already listed company makes either a fresh issue of securities to the public or an offer for sale to the public, it is called an FPO.

2. Right Issue: When an issue of securities is made by an issuer to its existing shareholders it is called a rights issue.

3. Bonus Issue: When the company issues securities to its existing shareholders without any consideration it is called a bonus issue. Such shares are issued generally by capitalizing the company’s profit & loss account, free reserve or securities premium account.

4. Private Placement: When an issuer makes an issue of securities to a select group of persons it is called private placement. However, the issue of securities by way of private placement cannot be made to more than 49 persons.

Private placement of securities can be of the following three types:
(a) Preferential Allotment: When a listed issuer issues shares or convertible securities, to a select group of persons it is called a preferential allotment.
(b) Qualified Institutions Placement (QIP): When a listed issuer issues equity shares or securities convertible into equity shares to selected Qualified Institutions Buyers (QIBs) it is called a QIP.
(c) Institutional Placement Programme (IPP): When a listed issuer makes a further public offer of equity shares, or offer for sale of shares by the promoter to QIBs. IPP can only be used to raise minimum j public shareholding requirements to 25%.

Offer Document: Offer document means a prospectus, red-herring prospectus or shelf prospectus, and information memorandum in terms of Section 31 of the Companies Act, 2013 in case of a public issue. In case of a rights issue, a ‘letter of offer’ is an offer document.

An offer document covers all the relevant information to help an investor to make his investment decision.

Red-herring Prospectus: The term ‘red-herring prospectus’ is not defined in the SEBI (ICDR) Regulations, 2018.

As per Explanation to Section 32 of the Companies Act, 2013, “red-herring prospectus” means a prospectus that does not include complete particulars of the quantum or price of the securities included therein.

Provisions of the red-herring prospectus are applicable to all companies except those are covered under the shelf prospectus. The provision is mainly applicable for book building.

A company proposing to issue a red-herring prospectus shall file it with the ROC at least 3 days prior to the opening of the subscription list and the offer.

A red-herring prospectus shall carry the same obligations as are applicable to a prospectus and any variation between the red herring prospectus and a prospectus shall be highlighted as variations in the prospectus.

Question 40.
Aishwarya Ltd. proposes to make a preferential issue of 10,00,000 shares to eligible investors under the SEBI (ICDR) Regulations. From the following share price data, identify the price at which share warrants should be issued and the amount payable by the promoters at the time of allotment:
(i) Closing price in the market on the relevant date: ₹ 340
(ii) The average of the weekly high and low of the volume-weighted average price of the related equity shares quoted on the recognized stock exchange during the 26 weeks preceding the relevant date: ₹ 354
(iii) The average of the weekly high and low of the volume-weighted average prices of the related equity shares quoted on a recognized stock exchange during the 2 weeks preceding the relevant date: ₹ 350. [Dec. 2013(5 Marks)]
Answer:
As per the SEBI (ICDR) Regulations, 2018 the price of equity shares that have been listed on a stock exchange for 26 weeks or more on the relevant date will be higher of the following two:

  1. The average of the weekly high and low of the volume-weighted average price of the related equity shares quoted on the recognized stock exchange during the 26 weeks preceding the relevant date:₹ 354
  2. The average of the weekly high and low of the volume-weighted average prices of the related equity shares quoted on a recognized stock exchange during the 2 weeks preceding the relevant date: ₹ 350.

Thus, the price should bet 354.

Question 41.
A company cannot offer shares at different prices to different sets of people in a particular public issue. Comment. [Dec. 2013 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Issue Price: There is no restriction on the price at which shares can be issued. The pricing can be decided by the issuer and the Lead Merchant Banker. They can charge any price which they feel the market can bear, but the justification for the price is required to be given in the offer document.

Differential Pricing [Regulation 30 of the SEBI (ICDR) Regulations, 2018]:
The issuer may offer its specified securities at different prices, subject to the following:
(a) Retail individual investors or retail individual shareholders or employees entitled for reservation may be offered specified securities at a price not lower than by more than 10% of the price at which net offer is made to other categories of applicants, excluding anchor investors.

(b) In case of a book-built issue, the price of the specified securities offered to the anchor investors shall not be lower than the price offered to other applicants.

(c) In case the issuer opts for the alternate method of book building in terms of Part D of Schedule XIII, the issuer may offer the specified securities to its employees at a price not lower than by more than 10% of the floor price.

Discount, if any, shall be expressed in rupee terms in the offer document.
Part D of Schedule XIII deals with the “alternate method of book building process”.

Question 42.
Every institutional buyer is a qualified institutional investor. Comment. [Dec. 2013 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Qualified Institutional Buyer means:

  • A Mutual Fund, Venture Capital Fund, Alternative Investment Fund & Foreign Venture Capital Investor registered with the SEBI
  • A Category I & II Foreign Portfolio Investor registered with the SEBI
  • A Public Financial Institution
  • A Scheduled Commercial Bank
  • A multilateral and bilateral development financial institution
  • A state industrial development corporation
  • An Insurance Company registered with the IRDA
  • A Provident Fund with a minimum corpus of ₹ 25 Crore
  • A Pension Fund with a minimum corpus of ₹ 25 Crore
  • National Investment Fund
  • Insurance Funds set up and managed by the army, navy, or air force of the Union of India
  • Insurance Funds set up and managed by the Department of Posts, India.
  • Systematically important non-banking financial companies.

Thus, only above stated institutional buyers are QIB and not other institutional if buyers.

Question 43.
Write a short note on Anchor Investor [June 2014 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Anchor Investor [Regulation 2(c)]: Anchor investor means a Qualified Institutional Buyer who makes an application for a value of at least 10 Crore in a public issue on the mainboard made through the book-building process in accordance with these regulations or makes an application for a value of at least 2 Crore for an issue made in accordance with Chapter IX of these regulations. /Chapter IX deals with IPO by Small & Medium Enterprises (SME,)]

As per schedule XIII, an issuer proposing to issue specified securities through the book-building process shall comply with the following provisions relating to allocation to Anchor Investor.
(a) An anchor investor shall make an application of a value of at least 10 Crore in a public issue on the mainboard made through the book-building process or an application for a value of at least 2 Crore in case of a public issue on the SME exchange.

(b) Up to 60% of the portion available for allocation to QIBs shall be available for allocation/allotment (“anchor investor portion”) to the anchor investors.

(c) Allocation to the anchor investors shall be on a discretionary basis, subject to the following:

(I) In case of the public issue on the mainboard, through the book-building process:

  • A maximum of 2 such investors shall be permitted for allocation up to 10 Crore.
  • Minimum of 2 and maximum of 15 such investors shall be permitted for allocation above 10 Crore and up to 250 Crore, subject to minimum allotment of 5 Crore per such investor.
  • In case of allocation above 250 Crore; a minimum of 5 such investors and a maximum of 15 such investors for allocation up to ₹ 250 Crore and an additional 10 such investors for every additional ₹ 2500 Crore or part thereof, shall be permitted, subject to a minimum allotment of ₹ 5 Crore per such investor.

(II) In case of the public issue on the SME exchange, through the book-building process:

  • A maximum of 2 such investors shall be permitted for allocation up to ₹ 2 Crore.
  • Minimum of 2 and maximum of 15 such investors shall be permitted for allocation above ₹ 2 Crore and up to ₹ 25 Crore, subject to a minimum allotment of ₹ 1 Crore per such investor.
  • In case of allocation above ₹ 25 Crore; a minimum of 5 such investors and a maximum of 15 such investors for allocation up to ₹ 25 Crore and an additional 10 such investors for every additional ₹ 25 Crore or part thereof, shall be permitted, subject to a minimum allotment of ₹ 1 Crore per such investor.

(d) One-third of the anchor investor portion shall be reserved for domestic mutual funds.
(e) The bidding for anchor investors shall open one day before the issue opening date.
(f) The anchor investors shall pay on the application the same margin which is payable by other categories of investors and the balance, if any, shall be paid within two days of the date of closure of the issue.
(g) The allocation to anchor investors shall be completed on the day of the bidding by the anchor investors.

(h) If the price fixed as a result of book building is higher than the price at which the allocation is made to the anchor investors, the anchor investors shall pay the additional amount. However, if the price fixed as a result of book building is lower than the price at which the allocation is made to the anchor investors, the excess amount shall not be refunded to the anchor investors and the anchor investor shall be allotted the securities at the same price at which the allocation was made to it.

(i) The number of shares allocated to the anchor investors and the price at which the allocation is made, shall be made available to the stock exchange(s) by the lead manager(s) for dissemination on the website of the stock exchange(s) before the opening of the issue.

(j) There shall be a lock-in of 30 days on the shares allotted to the anchor investors from the date of allotment.

(k) Neither the
1. lead manager or any associate of the lead managers (other than mutual funds sponsored by entities which are associate of the lead managers or insurance companies promoted by entities which are associate of the lead managers or Alternate Investment Funds (AIFs) sponsored by the entities which are associate of the lead manager or FPIs other than Category III sponsored by the entities which are associate of the lead manager) nor

2. any person related to the promoter/promoter group shall apply under the Anchor Investors category.

Question 44.
Explain the mechanism of an offer for sale (OFS) through secondary market settlement. [Dec. 2014 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Offer for Sale (OFS) is another form of the share sale, very much similar to Follow-On Public Offer (FPO). OFS mechanism facilitates the promoters of an already listed company to sell or dilute their existing shareholdings through an exchange-based bidding platform.

Except for the promoters of the company, all market participants like individuals, mutual funds, Fils, insurance companies, corporates, QIBs, HUFs, etc. can bid/ participate in the OFS process or buy the shares. The promoters of the company can only participate as the sellers in the process.

What differentiates the Offer for Sale process from IPOs/FPOs?
Physical Application: Unlike IPOs/FPOs, no physical application forms are issued to apply for shares in the OFS process. OFS process is completely platform-based.

Time Period: While IPOs/FPOs remain open for 3-4 days, OFS gets over in a single trading day as the markets get closed for trading at 3:30 p.m.

Question 45.
Whether a fast track issue can proceed just like an IPO or, are there any other conditions to fast track issue? Explain. [Dec. 2015 (8 Marks)]
Answer:
Making public issues is a very time-consuming and costly affair. The company has to make a lot of compliance under the SEBI Regulations. To overcome this difficulty, SEBI has provided a Fast Track Route to already listed companies who are coming with public issues and rights issues. The fast-track route is an alternative to access public funds by way of further capital offerings. The facility of Fast Track Route is available to well-established and compliant listed companies.

Eligibility conditions for ‘Fast Track Further Public Offer’ [Regulation 155 of the SEBI (ICDR) Regulations, 2018]: Sub-regulations (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (9) of Regulation 123 fie. provisions relating to filing of the draft offer document and offer documents]shall not apply if the issuer satisfies the following conditions for making a further public offer through the fast track route:
1. Minimum listing period: Equity shares of the issuer have been listed on any stock exchange for a period of at least three years immediately preceding the reference date.

2. Shareholding of promoter group is in the dematerialized form: Entire shareholding of the promoter group of the issuer is held in dematerialized form on the reference date.

3. Market Capitalization: Average market capitalization of public share-holding of the issuer is at least ₹ 1,000 Crore in case of public issue.

4. Annualized trading turnover: Annualized trading turnover of the equity shares of the issuer during 6 calendar months immediately preceding the month of the reference date has been at least 296 of the weighted average number of equity shares listed during such 6 months period. However, for issuers, whose public shareholding is less than 1596 of its issued equity capital, the annualized trading turnover of its equity shares has been at least 296 of the weighted average number of equity shares available as a free float during such 6 months period. [Free float shares are not defined in the SEBI (ICDR) Regulations, 2018. Generally, it means the portion of shares of a company that are held by public investors]

5. Annualized delivery-based trading turnover: Annualized delivery-based trading turnover of the equity shares during 6 calendar months immediately preceding the month of the reference date has been at least 1096 of the annualized trading turnover of the equity shares during such 6 months period.

6. Compliance with listing agreement: The Issuer has been in compliance with the equity listing agreement or the SEBI (LODR) Regulations, 2015, as applicable, for a period of at least 3 years immediately preceding the reference date. However, if the issuer has not complied with the provisions of the listing agreement or the SEBI (LODR) Regulations, 2015, relating to the composition of Board of directors, for any quarter during the last 3 years immediately preceding the reference date, but is compliant with such provisions at the time of filing of letter of offer, and adequate disclosures are made in the letter of offer about such non-compliances during the 3 years immediately preceding the reference date, it shall be deemed as compliance with the condition. Imposition of only monetary fines by stock exchanges on the issuer shall not be a ground for ineligibility for undertaking issuances under this regulation.

7. Grievances Redressed: Issuer has redressed at least 95% of the complaints received from the investors till the end of the quarter immediately preceding the month of the reference date.

8. No pending prosecution: No show-cause notices have been issued or prosecution proceedings have been initiated by the SEBI and pending against the issuer or its promoters or whole-time directors as on the reference date.

9. Violation of securities laws: Issuer or promoter or promoter group or director of the issuer has not settled any alleged violation of securities laws through the consent or settlement mechanism with the SEBI during 3 years immediately preceding the reference date.

10. No suspension of trading of equity shares: Equity shares of the issuer have not been suspended from trading as a disciplinary measure during the last 3 years immediately preceding the reference date.

11. No conflict of interest: There shall be no conflict of interest between the lead manager and the issuer or its group companies in accordance with the applicable regulations.

12. Impact of audit qualifications: Impact of audit qualifications, if any and where quantifiable, on the audited accounts of the issuer in respect of those financial years for which such accounts are disclosed in the letter of offer does not exceed 5% of the net profit or loss after tax of the issuer for the respective years.

Question 46.
A company cannot offer its shares to different sets of people in a particular public issue. Comment. [Dec. 2015 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Issue Price: There is no restriction on the price at which shares can be issued. The pricing can be decided by the issuer and the Lead Merchant Banker. They can charge any price which they feel the market can bear, but the justification for the price is required to be given in the offer document.

Differential Pricing [Regulation 30 of the SEBI (ICDR) Regulations, 2018]:
The issuer may offer its specified securities at different prices, subject to the following:
(a) Retail individual investors or retail individual shareholders or employees entitled for reservation may be offered specified securities at a price not lower than by more than 10% of the price at which net offer is made to other categories of applicants, excluding anchor investors.

(b) In the case of a book-built issue, the price of the specified securities offered to the anchor investors shall not be lower than the price offered to other applicants.

(c) In case the issuer opts for the alternate method of book building in terms of Part D of Schedule XIII, the issuer may offer the specified securities to its employees at a price not lower than by more than 10% of the floor price.

Discount, if any, shall be expressed in rupee terms in the offer document.
Part D of Schedule XIII deals with the “alternate method of book building process”.

Question 47.
“Every Institutional Buyer is the qualified institutional buyer.” Comment. [June 2017 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Qualified Institutional Buyer means:

  • A Mutual Fund, Venture Capital Fund, Alternative Investment Fund & Foreign Venture Capital Investor registered with the SEBI
  • A Category I & II Foreign Portfolio Investor registered with the SEBI
  • A Public Financial Institution
  • A Scheduled Commercial Bank
  • A multilateral and bilateral development financial institution
  • A state industrial development corporation
  • An Insurance Company registered with the IRDA
  • A Provident Fund with a minimum corpus of ₹ 25 Crore
  • A Pension Fund with a minimum corpus of ₹ 25 Crore
  • National Investment Fund
  • Insurance Funds set up and managed by the army, navy, or air force of the Union of India
  • Insurance Funds set up and managed by the Department of Posts, India.
  • Systematically important non-banking financial companies.

Thus, only above stated institutional buyers are QIB and not other institutional if buyers.

Question 48.
The warrant cannot be issued along with public issues or right issues of specified securities. Comment. [Dec. 2017 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Warrants are securities that give the holder the right, but not the obligation, to buy a certain number of securities (usually the issuer’s common stock ie. equity shares) at a certain price before a certain time.

Occasionally, companies offer warrants for direct sale or give them to employees as an incentive, but the vast majority of warrants are “attached” to newly issued bonds or stock.

Issue of warrants [Regulation 13]: An issuer shall be eligible to issue warrants in an initial public offer subject to the following:
(a) Tenure of such warrants: The tenure of such warrants shall not exceed 18 months from the date of their allotment in the initial public offer.
(b) No. of warrants: A specified security may have one or more warrants attached to it;
(c) Price & Consideration: The price or formula for determination of exercise price of the warrants shall be determined upfront and disclosed in the offer document and at least 25% of the consideration amount based on the exercise price shall also be received upfront.

However, in case the exercise price of warrants is based on a formula, 25% consideration amount based on the cap price of the price band determined for the linked equity shares or convertible securities shall be received upfront.

(d) Forfeiture of warrant: In case the warrant holder does not exercise the option to take equity shares against any of the warrants held by the warrant holder, within three months from the date of payment of consideration, such consideration made in respect of such warrants shall be forfeited by the issuer.

Similar provisions are also applicable for the issue of warrants in the right issue. [Regulation 67]

Question 49.
XYZ Ltd. is proposing to make a public issue of 400 Crore equity shares through the book building mechanism where 50% of the issue size is required j to be allotted to Qualified Institutional Buyers. Determine the following:
(i) The quantum available for allocation to anchor investors.
(ii) The quantum reserved for domestic mutual funds in the anchor investor portion, if any.
(iii) The amount, if any, required to be brought in by the anchor investors given:
(a) The price at which allocation is made to anchor investors is ₹ 855 per share, and
(b) The price fixed as a result of book building is ₹ 858 per share. [Dec. 2017 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
As per Regulation 32(1 )(c) of the SEBI (ICDR) Regulations, 2018, if an issue is made through the book-building process under regulation 6(1), the allocation in the net offer category shall be as follows:
(a) Not less than 35% to retail individual investors;
(b) Not less than 15% to non-institutional investors;
(c) Not more than 50% to Qualified Institutional Buyers, 5% of which shall be allocated to mutual funds.

In addition to 5% allocation available in terms of clause (c), mutual funds shall be eligible for allocation under the balance available for Qualified Institutional Buyers.

Provisions of the Schedule XIII:

  • Up to 60% of the portion available for allocation to qualified institutional buyers shall be available for allocation/allotment (‘‘anchor investor portion”) to the anchor investors.
  • One-third of the anchor investor portion shall be reserved for domestic mutual funds.
  • The anchor investors shall pay on the application the same margin which is payable by other categories of investors and the balance, if any, shall be paid within two days of the date of closure of the issue.
  • If the price fixed as a result of book building is higher than the price at which the allocation is made to the anchor investors, the anchor investors shall pay the additional amount. However, if the price fixed as a result of book building is lower than the price at which the allocation is made to the anchor investors, the excess amount shall not be refunded to the anchor investors and the anchor investor shall be allotted the securities at the same price at which the allocation was made to it.
  • Margin Money: The entire application money shall be payable as margin money by all the applicants. Payment accompanied with any revision of bid shall be adjusted against the payment made at the time of the original bid or the previously revised bid.

Keeping in view the above provisions, the answer to the given problem is as follows:
It assumed that an issue is made through the book-building process under Regulation 6(1).

  • Quantum of equity shares available for allocation to QIBs = 400 Crore × 50% = 200 Crore
  • Quantum of equity shares available for allocation to anchor investors = 200 Crore × 60% =120 Crore
  • Quantum of equity shares available for allocation to domestic mutual funds = 120 Crore × 1/3 = 40 Crore

Amount to required to be brought in by the anchor investor (assuming the full amount is payable and allocation is made as stated above) = 120 Crore × 855 = ₹ 1,02,600 Crore.

Additional amount to required to be brought in by the anchor investor if price fixed as a result of book building is ₹ 858 = 120 Crore × (858 – 855) = ₹ 360 Crore.

Question 50.
XYZ Ltd. made a public issue of equity shares in September 2014 and sought listing of BSE and NSE. Soon, thereafter, the promoters of the company started contemplating a change in the objects clause mentioned in the prospectus. To give effect to the same the company convened an extraordinary general meeting of shareholders in November 2015. Though the resolution was passed by the company there were nevertheless, dissenting shareholders too. The promoters decided to provide an exit opportunity to the dissenting shareholders. In the light of the above, answer the following questions:
(i) Is this act of the promoters justified? Highlight the relevant regulatory legal framework for the same?
(ii) Who are the dissenting shareholders?
(iii) Enumerate the conditions required to be complied with to give effect to this recourse which was availed by the promoters. [Dec. 2017 (6 Marks)]
Answer:
As per Section 13(8) of the Companies Act, 2013, a company that has raised money from the public through prospectus and still has any unutilized amount out of the money so raised, shall not change its objects for which it raised the money through prospectus unless a special resolution is passed by the company and:
1. The details in respect of such resolution shall also be published in the newspapers (one in English and one in vernacular language) which is in circulation at the place where the registered office of the company is situated and shall also be placed on the website of the company, indicating the justification for such change.

2. The dissenting shareholders shall be given an opportunity to exit by the promoters and shareholders having control in accordance with regulations to be specified by the SEBI.

As per Section 27 of the Companies Act, 2013 a company shall not, at any time, vary the terms of a contract referred to in the prospectus or objects for which the prospectus was issued, except subject to the approval of, or except subject to an authority given by the company in general meeting by way of special resolution.

The details, as may be prescribed, of the notice in respect of such resolution to shareholders, shall also be published in the newspapers (one in English and one in vernacular language) in the city where the registered office of the company is situated indicating clearly the justification for such variation. Such a company shall not use any amount raised by it through prospectus for buying, trading, or otherwise dealing in equity shares of any other listed company.

The dissenting shareholders being those shareholders who have not agreed to the proposal to vary the terms of contracts or objects referred to in the prospectus, shall be given an exit offer by promoters or controlling shareholders at such exit price, and in such manner and conditions as may be specified by the SEBI by making regulations in this behalf.

Post-listing exit opportunity for dissenting shareholders [Regulation 59]: The promoters, or shareholders in control of an issuer, shall provide an exit offer to dissenting shareholders as provided for in the Companies Act, 2013, in case of change in objects or variation in the terms of contract related to objects referred to in the offer document as per conditions and manner is provided in Schedule XX. However, the exit offer shall not apply where there are neither any identifiable promoters nor any shareholders in control of the issuer.

Provisions of Schedule XX of the SEBI (ICDR) Regulations, 2018 are discussed below:
“Dissenting Shareholders” means those shareholders who have voted against the resolution for change in objects or variation in terms of a contract relating to objects, referred to in the offer document of the issuer.

“Frequently traded shares” shall have the same meaning as assigned to it in the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares & Takeovers) Regulations, 2011.

Conditions for exit offer: The promoter or the shareholders in control, as the case may be, shall make an exit offer to the dissenting shareholders if:
(a) the proposal for change in objects or variation in terms of a contract, referred to in the offer document is dissented by at least ten percent of the shareholders who voted in the general meeting; and

(b) the amount to be utilized for the objects for which the offer document was issued is less than 75% of the amount raised (including the amount earmarked for general corporate purposes as disclosed in the offer document).

Eligibility of shareholders for availing of the exit offer: Only those dissenting shareholders of the issuer who are holding shares as of the relevant date shall be eligible to avail of the exit offer.

Exit Price: The ‘exit price’ payable to the dissenting shareholders shall be the highest of the following:
(a) The volume-weighted average price paid or payable for acquisitions, whether by the promoters or by any person acting in concert with them, during the fifty-two weeks immediately preceding the relevant date;

(b) The highest price paid or payable for any acquisition, whether by the promoter or by any person acting in concert with them, during the twenty-six weeks immediately preceding the relevant date.

(c) The volume-weighted average market price of such shares for a period of 60 trading days immediately preceding the relevant date as traded on the stock exchange where the maximum volume of trading in the shares of the issuer are recorded during such period, provided such shares are frequently traded.

(d) Where the shares are not frequently traded, the price determined by the promoter or shareholders having control and the lead manager taking into account valuation parameters including book value, comparable trading multiples, and such other parameters as are customary for valuation of shares of such issuers.

Manner of providing exit to dissenting shareholders:
1. Notice proposing the passing of a special resolution for changing the objects of the issue and varying the terms of the contract relating to objects, referred to in the offer document, shall also contain information about the provision for an exit offer to the dissenting shareholders.

2. A statement to the effect that the promoter/shareholders in control shall provide an exit opportunity to the dissenting shareholders shall be included in the explanatory statement to the notice for passing a special resolution.

3. After passing of the special resolution, the issuer shall submit the voting results to the stock exchange, in terms of the provisions of the SEBI (Listing Obligations & Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2015.

4. The issuer shall also submit the list of dissenting shareholders, as certified by its compliance officer, to the stock exchanges.

5. The promoter/shareholders in control, as the case may be, shall appoint a merchant banker and finalize the exit offer price in accordance with these regulations.

6. The issuer shall intimate the stock exchange about the exit offer to dissenting shareholders and the price at which such offer is being given.

7. The stock exchange shall, on receipt of such intimation, disseminate the same to the public within 1 working day.

8. To ensure security for the performance of their obligations, the promoter or shareholders in control, as the case may be, shall create an escrow account that may be interest-bearing and deposit the aggregate consideration in the escrow account at least 2 working days prior to the opening of the tendering period.

9. The tendering period shall start not later than 7 working days from the passing of the special resolution and shall remain open for 10 working days.

10. The dissenting shareholders who have tendered their shares in acceptance of the exit offer shall have the option to withdraw such acceptance till the date of closure of the tendering period.

11. The promoter/shareholders in control, as the case may be, shall facilitate tendering of shares by the shareholders and settlement of the same through the stock exchange mechanism as specified by SEBI for the purpose of the takeover, buy-back, and delisting.

12. The promoter/shareholders in control, as the case may be, shall, within a period of 10 working days from the last date of the tendering period, make payment of the consideration to the dissenting shareholders who have accepted the exit offer.

13. Within a period of 2 working days from the payment of the consideration, the issuer shall furnish to the stock exchange, disclosures giving details of an aggregate number of shares tendered, accepted, payment of the consideration, and the post-offer shareholding pattern of the issuer and a report by the lead manager that the payment has been duly made to all J the dissenting shareholders whose shares have been accepted in the exit offer.

Offer not to exceed maximum permissible non-public shareholding [Regulation 5 69G]: In the event, the shares accepted in the exit offer were such that the 1 shareholding of the promoters or shareholders in control, taken together with persons acting in concert with them pursuant to completion of the exit offer, results in their shareholding exceeding the maximum permissible non-public shareholding, the promoters or shareholders in control, as applicable, shall be required to bring down the non-public shareholding to the level specified and within the time permitted under the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Rules, 1957.

Question 51.
Define “Dissenting shareholders”. What are the conditions for applicability of Exit offers by dissenting shareholders according to SEBI (Issue of Capital & Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2018? [Dec. 2018 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Please refer to the answer to Question No. 51.

Question 52.
Technopoly Ltd., an unlisted public company, having a paid-up equity share capital of ₹ 3.00 Crore consisting of 30,00,000 equity shares of ₹ 10 each fully paid-up proposes to reduce the denomination of equity shares to less than ₹ 10 per share and make the initial public offer of equity shares at a premium. Whether it is possible for the company to issue shares at a denomination of less than ₹ 10? Based on the above facts, you are required to state the minimum issue price, with reference to the provisions of SEBI (Issue of Capital & Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2018. [Dec. 2018 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Par value means the face value of shares. It is the value per unit of shares disclosed in the memorandum of the company.
Norms relating to ‘face value’ as per ICDR Regulation are as follows:

  • Face value can be below ₹ 10. However, face value should be in multiple of Rupee i.e. ₹ 2, ₹ 3, ₹ 5, etc. Face value should not be in decimal of a; rupee.
  • The face value and a statement about the issue price being “X” time of the j face value should be included in the offer document and application form j in identical size as that of the issue or price band.
    Thus, Technopoly Ltd. can reduce the denomination of equity shares to less than ₹ 10 per share.

Question 53.
Startup companies have now come up with an Initial Public offer with the relaxation of many conditions applicable for an Initial Public Offer. In this context, briefly, explain the “Institutional Trading Platform (ITP)” and eligibility for listing. [Dec. 2018 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Innovator’s growth platform’ means the trading platform for listing and trading of specified securities of issuers that comply with the eligibility criteria specified in regulation 283.

1. Substituted by the SEBI (Issue of Capital & Disclosure Requirements) (Second Amendment) Regulations, 2019. Prior to its substitution, it read as iusiìutional trading platform means the trading platform for listing and trading of specified securities of issuers that comply with the eligibility criteria specified in regulation 288.

Eligibility [Regulation 283]: Following entities are eligible for listing on Innovators growth platform:
1. An issuer that is intensive in the use of technology, information technology, intellectual property, data analytics, biotechnology, or nano-technology to provide products, services, or business platforms with substantial value addition shall be eligible for listing on the innovator’s growth platform, provided that as on the date of filing of draft information document or draft offer document with the Board, as the case may be, 25% of the pre-issue capital of the Issuer Company for at least a period of two years, should have been held by:

I. Qualified Institutional Buyers;
II. Family trust with net-worth of more than 500 Crore, as per the last audited financial statements;
III. Accredited Investors for the purpose of Innovators Growth Platform;
IV. Following regulated entities:
(a) Category III Foreign Portfolio Investor;
(b An entity meets all the following criteria:
1. It is a pooled investment fund with minimum assets under management of $150 million;

2. It is registered with a financial sector regulator in the jurisdiction of which it is a resident;

3. It is resident of a country whose securities market regulator is a signatory to the International Organization of Securities Commission’s Multilateral Memorandum of Understanding (Appendix A Signatories) or a signatory to bilateral Memorandum of Understanding with the Board;

4. It is not resident in a country identified in the public statement of Financial Action Task Force as:

  • a jurisdiction having a strategic Anti-Money Laundering or Combating the Financing of Terrorism deficiencies to which counter measures apply; or
  • a jurisdiction that has not made sufficient progress in addressing the deficiencies or has not committed to an action plan developed with the Financial Action Task Force to address the deficiencies.

Explanation:
(a) Following entities shall be eligible to be considered as accredited investors for the purpose of innovators growth platform:

  1. any individual with a total gross income of ₹ 50 lakh annually and who has a minimum liquid net worth of ₹ 5 Crore; or
  2. anybody corporate with a net worth of ₹ 25 Crore.

(b) Not more than 10% of the pre-issue capital may be held by Accredited Investors.

(c) For the purpose of accreditation: The persons/corporate bodies who wish to get accreditation for the purpose of innovators growth platform, shall approach the stock exchanges or depositories and follow the procedures prescribed by the Board and/or such stock exchange or depository for the purpose of accreditation as an Accredited Investor, from time to time.

2. An issuer shall be eligible for listing on the institutional trading platform if none of the promoters or directors of the issuer company is a fugitive economic offender.

Question 54.
What is meant by Anchor Investor? What are the limitations of allocation to anchor investors in the Book building process? [Dec. 2018 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Anchor Investor [Regulation 2(c)]: Anchor investor means a Qualified Institutional Buyer who makes an application for a value of at least 10 Crore in a public issue on the mainboard made through the book-building process in accordance with these regulations or makes an application for a value of at least 2 Crore for an issue made in accordance with Chapter IX of these regulations. /Chapter IX deals with IPO by Small & Medium Enterprises (SME,)]

As per schedule XIII, an issuer proposing to issue specified securities through the book-building process shall comply with the following provisions relating to allocation to Anchor Investor.
(a) An anchor investor shall make an application of a value of at least 10 Crore in a public issue on the mainboard made through the book-building process or an application for a value of at least 2 Crore in case of a public issue on the SME exchange.

(b) Up to 60% of the portion available for allocation to QIBs shall be available for allocation/allotment (“anchor investor portion”) to the anchor investors.

(c) Allocation to the anchor investors shall be on a discretionary basis, subject to the following:

(I) In case of the public issue on the mainboard, through the book-building process:

  • A maximum of 2 such investors shall be permitted for allocation up to 10 Crore.
  • Minimum of 2 and maximum of 15 such investors shall be permitted for allocation above 10 Crore and up to 250 Crore, subject to minimum allotment of 5 Crore per such investor.
  • In case of allocation above 250 Crore; a minimum of 5 such investors and a maximum of 15 such investors for allocation up to ₹ 250 Crore and an additional 10 such investors for every additional ₹ 2500 Crore or part thereof, shall be permitted, subject to a minimum allotment of ₹ 5 Crore per such investor.

(II) In case of the public issue on the SME exchange, through the book-building process:

  • A maximum of 2 such investors shall be permitted for allocation up to ₹ 2 Crore.
  • Minimum of 2 and maximum of 15 such investors shall be permitted for allocation above ₹ 2 Crore and up to ₹ 25 Crore, subject to a minimum allotment of ₹ 1 Crore per such investor.
  • In case of allocation above ₹ 25 Crore; a minimum of 5 such investors and a maximum of 15 such investors for allocation up to ₹ 25 Crore and an additional 10 such investors for every additional ₹ 25 Crore or part thereof, shall be permitted, subject to a minimum allotment of ₹ 1 Crore per such investor.

(d) One-third of the anchor investor portion shall be reserved for domestic mutual funds.

(e) The bidding for anchor investors shall open one day before the issue opening date.

(f) The anchor investors shall pay on the application the same margin which is payable by other categories of investors and the balance, if any, shall be paid within two days of the date of closure of the issue.

(g) The allocation to anchor investors shall be completed on the day of the bidding by the anchor investors.

(h) If the price fixed as a result of book building is higher than the price at which the allocation is made to the anchor investors, the anchor investors shall pay the additional amount. However, if the price fixed as a result of book building is lower than the price at which the allocation is made to the anchor investors, the excess amount shall not be refunded to the anchor investors and the anchor investor shall be allotted the securities at the same price at which the allocation was made to it.

(i) The number of shares allocated to the anchor investors and the price at which the allocation is made, shall be made available to the stock exchange(s) by the lead manager(s) for dissemination on the website of the stock exchange(s) before the opening of the issue.

(j) There shall be a lock-in of 30 days on the shares allotted to the anchor investors from the date of allotment.

(k) Neither the
1. lead manager or any associate of the lead managers (other than mutual funds sponsored by entities which are associate of the lead managers or insurance companies promoted by entities that are associate of the lead managers or Alternate Investment Funds (AIFs) sponsored by the entities which are associate of the lead manager or FPIs other than Category III sponsored by the entities which are associate of the lead manager) nor

2. any person related to the promoter/promoter group shall apply under the Anchor Investors category.

Question 55.
MIs Highspeed Ltd. manufacturing car components for leading car manufacturer. Its public Issue of 500 Crore was fully subscribed. The public Issue money ought to be utilized to set up an assembly line for the existing business. Out of 500 Crore, the company spent400 Crore for assembly-line.
The management consultant, hired for Business Process re-engineering has suggested investing a balanced amount to set up bike components manufacturing unit. You, being company secretary of the company, advise on the opinion of the management consultant by referring to provisions of SEBI Guidelines. [June 2019 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
As per Section 13(8) of the Companies Act, 2013, a company that has raised money from the public through prospectus and still has any unutilized amount out of the money so raised, shall not change its objects for which it raised the money through prospectus unless a special resolution is passed by the company and:
1. The details in respect of such resolution shall also be published in the newspapers (one in English and one in vernacular language) which is in circulation at the place where the registered office of the company is situated and shall also be placed on the website of the company, indicating the justification for such change.

2. The dissenting shareholders shall be given an opportunity to exit by the ‘ promoters and shareholders having control in accordance with regulations to be specified by the SEBI.

The dissenting shareholders being those shareholders who have not agreed to the proposal to vary the terms of contracts or objects referred to in the pro; pectus, shall be given an exit offer by promoters or controlling shareholders at such exit price, and in such manner and conditions as may be specified by the SEBI by making regulations in this behalf.

Conditions for Exit Offer: As per the SEBI (ICDR) Regulations, 2018, the promoter or the shareholders in control, shall make an exit offer to the dissenting shareholders if :
(a) the proposal for change in objects or variation in terms of a contract, referred to in the offer document is dissented by at least 10% of the shareholders who voted in the general meeting; and
(b) the amount to be utilized for the objects for which the offer document was issued is less than 75% of the amount raised (including the amount earmarked for general corporate purposes as disclosed in the offer document).

As per facts given in the case, Highspeed Ltd. made a public issue of ₹ 500 Crore. Out of ₹ 500 Crore, ₹ 400 Crore (80% of the issue amount) was utilized by the company for the set-up of an assembly line for the existing business. The company intends to use the remaining money for investing in the setup of a ‘bike components manufacturing unit’.

Thus, if the object clause of the company does not cover ‘investment in the setup of bike components manufacturing unit’, the company must pass the special resolution as required by Section 13(8) of the Companies Act, 2013. However, no exit opportunity is required to be given as per the SEBI (ICDR) Regulations, 2018 because the amount to be utilized for the objects for which the offer document was issued is more than 75% of the amount raised,

Question 56.
Financial data of Natural Energy Ltd. as of 31st March 2018 are as under:
(i) Authorised Share Capital: ₹ 700 Crore
(ii) Paid-up Capital: ₹ 300 Crore
(iii) Free Reserves: ₹ 800 Crore
Does the company have a pending convertible debenture of ₹ 150 Crore, due for conversion in the financial year 2018-2019? The company proposes to issue bonus shares in the ratio of 1:1 after conversion of the debenture. You being a company secretary, advise on the procedure to be followed by referring to SEBI regulations. [June 2019(7 Marks)]
Answer:
As per Regulation 293 of the SEBI (ICDR) Regulations, 2018, subject to the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013 or any other applicable law, a listed issuer shall be eligible to issue bonus shares to its members if:
(a) It is authorized by its articles of association for the issue of bonus shares, capitalization of reserves, etc. However, if there is no such provision in the articles of association, the issuer shall pass a resolution at its general body meeting making provisions in the articles of associations for capitalization of the reserve.

(b) It has not defaulted in payment of interest or principal in respect of fixed deposits or debt securities issued by it.

(c) It has not defaulted in respect of the payment of statutory dues of the employees such as contribution to provident fund, gratuity, and bonus.

(d) Any outstanding partly paid shares on the date of the allotment of the bonus shares, are made fully paid-up.

(e) Any of its promoters or directors is not a fugitive economic offender. Calculation of post bonus issue paid-up capital:

Paid-up Capital ₹ 300 Crore
Addition in share capital due to conversion of debentures ₹ 150 Crore
Addition in share capital due to bonus (Ratio of 1:1) ₹ 450 Crore

₹ 450 Crore

Paid-up capital after bonus issue ₹ 900 Crore

Paid-up capital after bonus issue will be ₹ 900 Crore, which is more than the present authorized capital of ₹ 900 Crores and hence authorized capital will have to be increased by ₹ 200 Crores.

Question 57.
What is a price stabilization fund? [June 2009 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
The fund created for stabilization of the share price after the public issue is known as the price stabilization fund. The aim of the fund is to protect the share price from falling below the issue price. For the purpose of operating a price stabilization fund, the issuer company appoints a Stabilization Agent (SA).

The stabilization mechanism shall be available for the company for the period disclosed in the prospectus which shall not exceed 30 days from the date of listing of shares.

Question 58.
Write a short note on Green Shoe Option [June 2013 (3 Marks)], [June 2017 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
“Green Shoe Option” means an option of allocating shares in excess of the shares included in the public issue and operating a post-listing price stabilizing mechanism in accordance with the provisions of the SEBI (ICDR) Regulations, 2018.

Green Shoe Option is also legally referred to as an over-allotment option.

The Green Shoe Company (now called Stride Rite Corp.) was the first issuer to allow the over-allotment option to its underwriters, hence the name Green j Shoe Option.

GSO was recognized by SEBI in the year 2003. ICICI Bank has used the Green Shoe Option first time in its public issue through a book building mechanism in India.

Green Shoe Option system is available only in IPO and not for subsequent issues,

Thus, the basic purpose of ‘Green Shoe Option’ is no to make available additional g share capital to the company, but to as stabilizing force for its share price, if the issue is oversubscribed.

Question 59.
A listed company, Nishan Hitech Ltd. issued 10 lakh equity shares at a price of ₹ 150 per share. The company provided Greenshoe option for stabilizing the post listing price of the shares. On the day of the listing of shares, the news of a trade war between the two developed countries flashes, and the price of shares of the company fall to ₹ 110. Decide how many shares can be purchased by the stabilizing agent to control the price? State the provisions for balance money lying in the special account for the greenshoe option. [Dec. 2018 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
As per the Green Shoe concept, as contained in SEBI (ICDR) Regulations, | 2018, the stabilizing agent has to enter an agreement with the promoters or pre-issue shareholders or both for borrowing specified securities from them, j specifying therein the maximum number of specified securities that may be I borrowed for the purpose of allotment or allocation of specified securities in excess of the issue size, which shall not be in excess of 15% of the issue size.

As per facts given in the case, Nishan Hitech Ltd. issued 10 lakh shares. The stabilizing agent will borrow 15% of issued shares i.e. 1.5 lakh shares.

In public issue total of 11.5 shares will be allotted to the public.
Total proceeds received in IPO = ₹ 1,725 lakh (11.5 lakh shares × 150)
Out of total proceeds of ₹ 1,725 lakh
(a) Amount of ₹ 1,500 lakh (10 lakh shares × 150) will be remitted to Nishan Hitech Ltd.
(b) Amount received from the Green Shoe Shares ₹ 225 lakh (1.5 lakh shares × 150) will be parked in a special escrow bank account Le. Green Shoe Escrow Account.

Price has been fallen to ₹ 110. Thus, out of the money in the Escrow Account, the stabilizing agent will start to buy shares at ₹ 110 or above so that the price increases or stabilizes.

(Here simple principle of economics will apply as Stabilizing Agent starts to buy shares demand increases and thus it will lead to increase the price or at least it will stop falling share price)

From the promoters stabilizing agent has borrowed 1.5 lakh shares and hence stabilizing agent can buy up 1.5 lakh shares only.

Any monies left in the special bank account after remittance of monies to the issuer and deduction of expenses incurred by the stabilizing agent for the stabilization process shall be transferred to the ‘Investor Protection & Education Fund’ established by the SEBI and the special bank account shall be closed soon thereafter.

Question 60.
Discuss the eligibility criteria and conditions for the issue of India Depository Receipts (IDRs). [Dec. 2010 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Eligibility conditions to make an issue of IDRs [Regulation 183]:
1. An issuer shall be eligible to make an issue of IDRs only if:
(a) The issuing company is listed in its home country for at least 3 immediately preceding years.
(b) The issuer is not prohibited to issue securities by any regulatory body.
(c) The issuer has a track record of compliance with the securities market regulations in its home country.
(d) Any of its promoters or directors is not a fugitive economic offender.

2. The issue shall be subject to the following conditions:
(a) Issue size shall not be less than ₹ 50 Crore.
(b) At any given time, there shall be only one denomination of IDRs of the issuer.
(c) Issuer shall ensure that the underlying equity shares against which IDRs are issued have been or will be listed in its home country before listing of IDRs in the stock exchange(s).
(d) Issuer shall ensure that the underlying shares of IDRs shall rank pari passu with the existing shares of the same class.

3. The issuer shall ensure that:
(a) It has made an application to one or more stock exchanges to seek an in-principle approval for listing of the IDRs on such stock exchanges and has chosen one of them as the designated stock exchange, in terms of Schedule XIX.
(b) It has entered into an agreement with a depository for dematerialization of the IDRs proposed to be issued.
(c) It has made firm arrangements of finance through verifiable means towards 75% of the stated means of finance for the project proposed to be funded from issue proceeds, excluding the amount to be raised through the proposed issue of IDRs or through existing identifiable internal accruals, have been made.

4. The amount for general corporate purposes, as mentioned in objects of the issue in the draft offer document and the offer document, shall not exceed 25% of the amount being raised by the issuer.

Issuance conditions [Regulation 191]: The procedure to be followed by each class of applicant shall be mentioned in the offer document. The minimum application amount shall be ₹ 20,000.

Question 61.
What are the conditions for the issue of India Depository Receipts (IDRs)? [June 2011 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Eligibility conditions to make an issue of IDRs [Regulation 183]:
1. An issuer shall be eligible to make an issue of IDRs only if:
(a) The issuing company is listed in its home country for at least 3 immediately preceding years.
(b) The issuer is not prohibited to issue securities by any regulatory body.
(c) The issuer has a track record of compliance with the securities market regulations in its home country.
(d) Any of its promoters or directors is not a fugitive economic offender.

2. The issue shall be subject to the following conditions:
(a) Issue size shall not be less than ₹ 50 Crore.
(b) At any given time, there shall be only one denomination of IDRs of the issuer.
(c) Issuer shall ensure that the underlying equity shares against which IDRs are issued have been or will be listed in its home country before listing of IDRs in the stock exchange(s).
(d) Issuer shall ensure that the underlying shares of IDRs shall rank pari passu with the existing shares of the same class.

3. The issuer shall ensure that:
(a) It has made an application to one or more stock exchanges to seek an in-principle approval for listing of the IDRs on such stock exchanges and has chosen one of them as the designated stock exchange, in terms of Schedule XIX.
(b) It has entered into an agreement with a depository for dematerialization of the IDRs proposed to be issued.
(c) It has made firm arrangements of finance through verifiable means towards 75% of the stated means of finance for the project proposed to be funded from issue proceeds, excluding the amount to be raised through the proposed issue of IDRs or through existing identifiable internal accruals, have been made.

4. The amount for general corporate purposes, as mentioned in objects of the issue in the draft offer document and the offer document, shall not exceed 25% of the amount being raised by the issuer.

Issuance conditions [Regulation 191]: The procedure to be followed by each class of applicant shall be mentioned in the offer document. The minimum application amount shall be ₹ 20,000.

Question 62.
Girdhar (Retail Individual Investor) had applied for Initial Public Offer of Six Sigma Ltd. through the Applications Supported By Block Amount (ASBA) process. The Self Certified Syndicate Banks (SCSBs) failed to make bids in the Stock Exchange system even after the amount has been blocked. The issue was oversubscribed. Based on the SEBI guidelines/circulars, answer the following:
(i) What are the factors that have been taken into account by SEBI for the finalization of a uniform policy for calculation of the minimum fair compensation?
(ii) Calculate the minimum fair compensation payable to Girdhar based on the following information:
Listing Price: ₹ 350, Issue Price: ₹ 300, Minimum Bid lot-20 shares, probability of allotment of shares on the basis of allotment (ratio 7:8). [Dec. 2018 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
As per SEBI Circular dated 15-2-2018 [SEBI/HO/CFD/DIL2/ CIR/P/2018/22], while the process of Applications Supported by Block Amount (ASBA) has resulted in almost complete elimination of complaints pertaining j to refunds, there have been instances where the applicants in an Initial Public Offering have failed to get an allotment of specified securities and in the process may have suffered an opportunity loss due to the following factors:

  • Failure on part of the Self Certified Syndicate Banks (SCSBs) to make bids in the concerned Exchange system even after the amount has been blocked in the investors’ bank account with such SCSB.
  • Failure on part of the SCSB to process the ASBA applications even when they have been submitted within time.
  • Any other failures on part of an SCSB which has resulted in the rejection of the application form.

A need has been felt to have a uniform policy for the calculation of minimum compensation payable to investors. While doing so, the following factors have been taken into account:

  • The opportunity loss suffered by the investor due to the non-allotment of shares.
  • The number of times the issue was oversubscribed in the relevant category.
  • The probability of allotment.
  • The listing gains if any on the day of listing.

The proposed formula for calculation of minimum fair compensation is as follows:
Compensation = (Listing price – Issue Price) × No. of shares that would have been allowed if bid was successful × Probability of allotment of shares determined on the basis of allotment

The listing price shall be taken as the highest of the opening prices on the day of listing across the recognized stock exchanges.
Compensation = (350- 300) × 20 × 7/8 = 875

Securities Laws and Capital Markets Questions and Answers

Directors – Company Law Important Questions

Directors – Company Law Important Questions

Directors – Company Law Important Questions

Question 1.
Mr. Solid, a young professional of 29 years, has stayed in India for 150 days in the previous financial year. He does not hold any shares in Happy Retails Limited, which is quoted (listed) company. Small shareholders have decided among themselves that he is proposed to be appointed as small shareholders director who shall not be liable to retire by rotation and his tenure shall be for five years from the date of joining the office of director. Examining the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013, state whether Mr. Solid can be so appointed as small shareholder’s director. (June 2017) (4 marks)
Answer:
1. As per Section 151 of the Companies Act, 2013:
A listed company may have one director elected by small shareholders. Small shareholders mean a shareholder holding shares of the nominal value of not more than twenty thousand rupees or such other sum prescribed.

2. As per Rule 7 of the Companies (Appointment and Qualification) Rules, 2014:
The appointment of Small Shareholders director shall be subject to applicable provisions except:

  • He shall not be liable to retire by rotation
  • His tenure shall not exceed a period of three consecutive years.
  • On the expiry of the tenure, the small shareholder director shall not be eligible for re-appointment.
    In light of the above-discussed provisions, Mr. Solid can be appointed as Small Shareholder Director for 3 years and not for 5 years.

Question 2.
Johnson, a director in Disha Ltd. proceeds on leave for 8 months to France for personal reasons. The Board of Directors at a meeting appoints Peter for a period of two months, as an alternate director. Article of Association of the company does not confer upon the Board of directors any such power to appoint anyone as an alternate director. Referring to the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013, examine the validity of the above appointment. What shall be your answer in case the Board appoints Peter for the entire period of Johnson’s leave? (December 2015) (4 marks)
Answer:
Under Section 161(2) of the Companies Act, 2013, Conditions for appointment of an alternate director:

  1. The Board of Directors of a company must be authorized by its articles or by a resolution passed by the company in a general meeting for the appointment of the alternate director.
  2. The person in whose place the Alternate Director is being appointed should be absent for a period of not less than 3 months from India.
  3. The person to be appointed as the Alternate Director shall be the person other than the person holding any alternate directorship for any other Director in the company or holding directorship in the same company.
  4. If it is proposed to appoint an Alternate Director to an Independent Director, it must be ensured that the proposed appointee also satisfies the criteria of Independence as per section 149(6) of the Companies Act, 2013.

In the given case, if Articles of Association of Disha Ltd. do not confer power to appoint an alternate director, Disha Ltd can appoint an alternate director in place of Mr. Johnson by passing a resolution in a general meeting.

Question 3.
Newly incorporated Abhay Limited has not mentioned the names of the first directors of the company in the Articles of Association. Referring to the provi¬sions of the Companies Act, 2013, advise the Board of Directors regarding the appointment of the first directors of the company. What would be your answer in case the company is a Person Company? Also, state whether provisions of the Act are applicable to a Private Limited company. (June 2017) (4 marks)
Answer:
1. The provisions of Section 152(1) of the Companies Act, 2013 is applicable to all companies, whether public or private.

2. The first directors of most of the companies are named in their articles. Regulation 60 of Table F provides that the number of the directors and the names of the first directors shall be determined in writing by the subscribers of the memorandum or a majority of them. If they are not so named in the articles of a company, then subscribers to the memorandum who are individuals shall be deemed to be the first directors of the company until the directors are duly appointed.

3. In the case of a One Person Company, an individual being a member shall be deemed to be its first director until the director(s) are duly appointed by the member in accordance with the provisions of Section 152 Thus, subscribers of Abhay Ltd. are deemed to be first directors of the Company. As discussed above, the provisions are applicable to all companies.

Question 4.
The Board of Directors of Goodwill (India) Ltd. wishes to appoint an alternate director on the Company’s Board in the absence of Mr. Prince, a director, who proceeded on leave. Referring to the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013, state the conditions to be satisfied before the Board appoints such a director. What shall be the tenure of such alternate director in case Mr. Prince incurs a disqualification and ceases to be a director? (December 2017) (4 marks)
Answer:

  1. Section 161(2) of the Act empowers the Board if so authorized by its articles or by a resolution passed by the company in general meeting, to appoint a director (termed as ‘alternate director’) to act in the absence of an original director during his absence for a period of not less than three months from India.
  2. A person can be appointed as an alternative director only for one director and not for more than one director.
  3. If the term of office of the original director is determined before he so returns to India, any provisions for the automatic re-appointment of the retiring director shall apply to the original and not to the alternate director.
  4. As per Section 167 of the Companies Act, 2013, the office of a director shall become vacant in case he incurs any of the disqualifications specified in Section 164.

Hence, if the original director attracts disqualified and cease to be a director then the person appointed as an alternate director in the place of the original director automatically ceases to be a director.

Question 5.
R Systems Ltd. is holding 40% of the paid-up share capital of ATC Aviation Pvt. Ltd. R Systems Ltd. appointed a representative director in ATC Aviation Pvt. Ltd. to safeguard its interest. The Board of Directors of R Systems Ltd. wishes to know whether the director appointed by them shall be treated as a nominee director. Advice the Board. (June 2018) (4 marks)
Answer:
1. Section 161(3) of the Companies Act, 2013, provides that subject to the articles of a company, the Board may appoint any person as a director nominated by any institution in pursuance of the provisions of any law for the time being in force or of any agreement or by the Central Government or the State Government by virtue of its shareholding in a Government company.

2. A nominee director means a director appointed by a third Parties e.g. financial institution or Bank which has provided financial assistance to the Company.

3. In the given case, R Systems Ltd. is holding 40% of the paid-up share capital of ATC Aviation Pvt. Ltd. R Systems Ltd. appointed a representative director in ATC Aviation Pvt. Ltd. to safeguard its interest.

Thus, R System Ltd. appointed nominee director in ATC Aviation Pvt. Ltd., if there is a provision in Articles of Association of ATC Aviation Pvt. Ltd. to that effect.

Question 6.
In Bright Ltd, the vacancy of a director is caused by the death of Mohan, a director of the company, after three months of his joining the company as a director. The Board of the company, therefore, appointed Sumit in his place but did not seek approval of the company in a general meeting. Referring to the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013, examine the validity of Sumit’s appointment. (December 2015) (4 marks)
Answer:
1. Section 161(4) provides that if any vacancy is caused by death or resig¬nation of a director appointed by the shareholders in general meeting, before the expiry of his term, the Board of directors can appoint a director to fill up such vacancy.

2. The appointed director shall hold office only up to the term of the director in whose place he is appointed.

3. Section 161(4) in the case of a public company, if the office of any direc¬tor appointed by the company in general meeting is vacated before his term of office expires in the normal course, the resulting casual vacancy may, in default of and subject to any regulations in the articles of the company, be filled by the Board of Directors at a meeting of the Board which shall subsequently be approved by the members in the immediate next general meeting.

4. The person so appointed shall hold office only up to the day up to which the director in whose place he has been appointed, would have held office if he had not vacated as aforesaid.

However, where a person appointed by the Board vacates his office it is not a case of casual vacancy and cannot be filled by the Board in the place.

In view of above provisions, vacancy caused by the death of Mohan, a director of Bright Ltd. can be filed by the Board of Directors at a meeting of the Board which shall be subsequently approved by the members in the immediate next general meeting.

Question 7.
Write a short note on alternate directors. (June 2010) (4 marks)
Answer:
1. Section 161(2) of the Companies Act, 2013, empowers the Board if so authorized by its articles or by a resolution passed by the company in general meeting, to appoint a director (termed as ‘alternate director’) to act in the absence of an original director during his absence for a period of not less than three months from India. Section 161(2) of the Companies Act, 2013, applies to all companies whether public or private.

2. The person to be appointed as the Alternate Director shall be the person other than the person holding any alternate directorship for any other Director in the company or holding directorship in the same company.

3. If it is proposed to appoint an Alternate Director to an Independent Director, it must be ensured that the proposed appointee also satisfies the criteria of Independence as per Section 149(6) of the Companies Act, 2013.

4. Terms of Office of an Alternate Director:
An alternate director shall not hold office for a period longer than that permissible to the director in whose place he has been appointed and shall vacate the office if and when the director in whose place he has been appointed returns to India.

Question 8.
Write a short note on independent directors. (June 2010) (4 marks)
Or
Write a short note on independent directors. (December 2011) (4 marks)
Or
Write a short note on independent directors. (June 2013) (4 marks)
Or
In terms of the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013, answer the following:
(i) Which companies are required to have independent directors?
(ii) What is the tenure of independent directors in the number of terms for with such a director can be appointed? Are independent directors required to hold meetings of their own without the presence of non-independent directors? (December 2015) (4 marks)
Answer:
1. An independent director means a director other than a managing director or a whole-time director or a nominee director who does not have any material or pecuniary relationship with the company/directors. Basically, an independent director is a non-executive director. Section 149(6) of the Act prescribes the criteria for independent directors

2. Section 149(4) read with Rule 4 of Companies (Appointment and Qualification of Directors) Rules, 2014 provides the following companies to have a specified number of independent directors.

All Listed public companies At least 1 /3rd of the total number of Directors as Independent Directors.
Other Public Companies:

  • paid up capital of INR 10 crore or more,
  • turnover of INR 100 crore or more,
  • outstanding loans, debentures, and deposits of INR 50 crore or more.
At least 2 independent Directors.

3. In case a company covered under this rule is required appoint higher number of independents directors due to composition of its audit com-mittee and then they shall appoint such higher number of independent directors.

4. Further if there is any intermittent vacancy of an independent director then it shall be filled up by the board of directors within 3 months from the date of such vacancy or not later than immediate next board meeting, whichever is later.

However, the following classes of unlisted public company shall not be covered under sub-rule as above:

  • a joint venture;
  • a wholly owned subsidiary; and
  • a dormant company as defined under Section 455 of the Companies Act, 2013.

Question 9.
Three Singapore Nationals who have never been to India have decided to be the shareholders holding 100% equity shares and the only directors of a private company in India in the year 2015 which is not a subsidiary of a public company. (June 2016) (5 marks)
Answer:
1. As per Section 149 of the Companies Act, 2013, every company shall have a Board of Directors consisting of Individuals as directors and shall have minimum three directors in the case of a public company, two directors in the case of a private company and one director in the case of One Person Company.

2. Every company shall have at least one director who has stayed in India for a total period of not less than 182 days during the financial year.

In the given case, three Singapore Nationals who have never been to India have decided to be the shareholders holding 100% equity shares and the only directors of a private company in India in the year 2015 which is not a subsidiary of a public company.

Thus, they should appoint at least one director who should be present in India for at least 182 days during the financial year.

Question 10.
Write notes on resident director. (June 2016) (4 marks!
Answer:
Section 149(3) of the Companies Act, 2013, provides that every company shall have at least one director who has stayed in India for a total period of not less than one hundred and eighty-two days during the financial year.
However, in case of a newly incorporated company the requirement under this sub-section shall apply proportionately at the end of the financial year in which it is incorporated.

Question 11.
In what way does the Companies Act, 2013 and Rules made there under regulate the appointment of women director in a company? Explain. (June 2015) (4 marks)
Answer:
1. Second proviso to Section 149( 1) read Rule 3 of Companies (Appointment and Qualification of Directors) Rules, 2014 following class of companies must have at least one Women Director.

All Listed Companies
Public Companies with

2. Paid-up Share Capital of INR 100 crore or more, or

3. Turnover of INR 300 crore or more.

Note: The paid-up share capital or turnover, as on the last date of latest audited financial statements shall be taken into account. .

4. Additionally for listed entities SEBI vide recent notification provides that the Board of directors of the top 500 listed entities shall have at least one independent woman director by April 1,2019 and the Board of directors of the top 1000 listed entities shall have at least one independent woman director by April 1, 2020.

However, the top 500 and 1000 entities shall be determined on the basis of market capitalisation, as at the end of the immediate previous financial year.

5. Vacancy of a Women Director:
Any intermittent vacancy of a woman director shall be filled up by the Board at the earliest but not later than immediate next Board Meeting or 3 months from the date of such vacancy whichever is later.

Question 12.
Divine Industries (Pvt.) Ltd. has a turnover of INR 350 crores during the financial year 2014-2015. The bankers of the company have advised the company to compulsorily appoint a woman director in the company as re¬quired under the Companies Act, 2013. Referring to the provisions of the Act, examine the validity of the banker’s advice. What would be your answer in case the company in question is a public limited company? (December 2016) (4 marks)
Answer:
1. Second proviso to Section 149( 1) read Rule 3 of Companies (Appointment and Qualification of Directors) Rules, 2014 following class of companies must have at least one Women Director.

All Listed Companies
Public Companies with

2. Paid-up Share Capital of INR 100 crore or more, or
Turnover of INR 300 crore or more.

Note: The paid-up share capital or turnover, as on the last date of latest audited financial statements shall be taken into account.

3. Additionally for listed entities SEBI vide recent notification provides that the Board of directors of the top 500 listed entities shall have at least one independent woman director by April 1,2019 and the Board of directors of the top 1000 listed entities shall have at least one independent woman director by April 1, 2020.

However, the top 500 and 1000 entities shall be determined on the basis of market capitalisation, as at the end of the immediate previous financial year.

4. Vacancy of a Women Director:
Any intermittent vacancy of a woman director shall be filled up by the Board at the earliest but not later than immediate next Board Meeting or 3 months from the date of such vacancy whichever is later.

As per the facts of the given case, Divine Industries (Pvt.) Ltd. are not required to appoint women director irrespective of its turnover.

Hence, advice given by bankers to Divine Industries (Pvt.) Ltd. is not tenable.

Question 13.
Distinguish between: Non-executive Director and Independent Di-rector. (June 2015) (4 marks)
Answer:
1. Non-executive Director:

  • Non-executive directors do not get involved in the day-to-day running of the business.
  • Non-executive directors participate and execute work through Board Meetings
  • All non-executive directors are not Independent directors.

2. Independent Director:

  • An independent director in relation to a Company means a direc-tor other than a managing director or a whole time director or a nominee director.
  • The additional condition that a person fulfils the conditions laid down in Section 149(6) of the Companies Act, 2013.
  • All Independent directors are non-executive directors.

Question 14.
Distinguish between: Appointment of directors by nomination and Appointment of directors against casual vacancy. (June 2016) (4 marks)
Answer:

Basis of Distinction Appointment of Director by Nomination Appointment of Director against casual vacancy
Meaning Appointment of director by nomination means appointing a director by a third parties like financial institution or a bank which has provided financial assistance to the company. Appointment of director against casual vacancy means

appointing a director due to vacancy caused by reason of death, resignation, disqualification or failure of an elected director to accept the office or for any reason other than retirement by rotation.

Term of Office Term of office of nominee director depends upon his appointment. For example, nominee director appointed by financial institution continues to be a director until loan is fully repaid. Any person appointed to fill the casual vacancy shall hold office only up to the date up to which the director in whose place he is appointed would have held office if it had not been vacated.
Provisions in Articles Director nominated under statutory powers can be appointed even if there is no provision in Articles of Association of the Company. In the case of a public company, if the office of any director appointed by the company in gen eralmeeting is vacated before his term of office expires in the normal course, the resulting casual vacancy may, in default of and subject to any regulations in the articles of the company be filled by the board of directors at a meeting of the Board.
Appointment In certain cases i.e. pursuant to loan agreement appointment of nominee director becomes necessary. It is not obligatory for the company to fill a casual vacancy and the Boar d may resolve to keep vacancy unfilled

Question 15.
Is it mandatory for all directors to obtain DIN? Discuss. (December 2008) (4 marks)
Answer:

  1. 1. Section 158 specified that every person or company shall mention the DIN in return, information or particulars as required to be furnished under this Act, in case such return, etc. relates to the director or contain any reference of any director.
  2. MCA-21 has introduced the concept of Director Identification Number (DIN) which is mandatory, unique, and lifetime identification for all existing and prospective directors.
  3. In the Era of e-filing, DIN is a prerequisite for filing certain company-related documents.
  4. All existing and any person who intends to be a director of a company should apply for DIN first.
  5. DIN has to be obtained by the directors of the company before commencing the procedure for incorporation of a company.

Question 16.
Director Identification Number is not mandatory for directors of foreign companies having branch offices in India. (December 2011) (5 marks)
Or
Director Identification Number (DIN) is not mandatory for directors of foreign companies having branch offices in India. (June 2013) (5 marks)
Answer:

  1. DIN is a unique number once obtained is valid for the lifetime of a director.
  2. Section 158 specified that every person or company shall mention the DIN in return, information or particulars as required to be furnished under this Act, in case such return, etc. relates to the director or contain any reference of any director.
  3. MCA-21 has introduced the concept of Director Identification Number (DIN) which is mandatory, unique, and lifetime identification for all existing and prospective directors.
  4. All existing and any person intending to be appointed as a director is required to obtain the Director Identification Number (DIN).
  5. DIN is also mandatory for directors of Indian Companies who are not citizens of India.
    However, DIN is not mandatory for directors of the foreign company having branch offices in India.

Question 17.
A Foreign National was intended to be appointed to the Board of MNC in India. He contends that Director Identification Number (DIN) is not required for him as he is a foreign national. Whether his contention is correct? (December 2013) (4 marks)
Answer:

  1. DIN is a unique number once obtained is valid for the lifetime of a director.
  2. MCA-21 has introduced the concept of Director Identification Number (DIN) which is mandatory, unique, and lifetime identification for all existing and prospective directors.
  3. All existing and any person intending to be appointed as a director is required to obtain the Director Identification Number (DIN).
  4. DIN is also mandatory for directors of Indian Companies who are not citizens of India.

However, DIN is not mandatory for directors of foreign companies having branch offices in India.
Hence, if Foreign National is to be appointed to the Board of MNC in India, DIN will be necessary.

Question 18.
Directors ought not to misuse the trust interested in them. Comment (December 2010) (5 marks)
Answer:
1. Directors are trustees for the company i.e. the directors are persons selected to manage the affairs of the company for the benefit of the shareholders.

2. Director stands in a fiduciary position towards the company in regards to the powers conferred on them by the Companies Act, 2013 and by the articles of association of the company and also with regard to the funds of the company which is under their control.

3. To some extent, directors are also trustees for the properties of the company. Directors are accountable for their proper use and are required to refund or restore the same if improperly used.

4. Directors are always been considered and treated as trustees of money which comes to their hands or which is actually under their control; and ever since joint-stock companies were invented directors have been held liable to make good, money which they have misapplied upon the same footing as if they were trustees.

To sum up, directors are trustees of the money is of the company, but not of the debts due to the company. They are trustees also in respect of powers of the company that are conferred upon them for example powers of:
(a) issuing and allotting shares,
(b) approving transfers of shares
(c) making calls on shares and
(d) forfeiting shares for non-payment of calls.
They must exercise this power solely for the benefit of the company.

Thus, directors ought not to misuse the trust entrusted to them.

Question 19.
Enumerate the disqualification of directors mentioned in section 164 of the Companies Act, 2013. (December 2010) (8 marks)
Answer:
Section 164(1) provides that a person shall not be eligible for appointment as a director of a company, if –
(a) He is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent court;

(b) He is an undischarged insolvent;

(c) He has applied to be adjudicated as an insolvent and his application is pending;

(d) He has been convicted by a court of any offense, whether involving moral turpitude or otherwise, and sentenced in respect thereof to imprisonment for not less than six months and a period of five years has not elapsed from the date of expiry of the sentence.

However, if a person has been convicted of any offense and sentenced in respect thereof to imprisonment for a period of seven years or more, he shall not be eligible to be appointed as a director in any company.

(e) An order disqualifying him for appointment as a director has been passed by a court or Tribunal and the order is in force;

(f) He has not paid any calls in respect of any shares of the company held by him, whether alone or jointly with others, and six months have elapsed from the last day fixed for the payment of the call;

(g) He has been convicted of the offense dealing with related party transac¬tions under section 188 at any time during the last preceding five years; or

(h) He has not complied with Section 152(3). (i.e. not allotted DIN)

(i) He has not complied with the provisions of Section 165(1) (i.e. appointed as a director in more than 20 companies).

Question 20.
Manish, a director of QPR Limited, defaulted in filing annual accounts and annual returns with ROC for a continuous period of three financial years ended 31st March 2016. Based on the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013, validate the following:
(i) Whether Manish can continue to be director of QPR Ltd. when he is also a director in UV Ltd? Also, narrate whether he can be reappointed in QPR Ltd. as well as UV Ltd.
(ii) If the defaulting company is a private limited company, what would be your answer? (December 2013) (4 marks)
Answer:
Section 164(2) also provides that no person who is or has been a director of a company which:
(a) Has not filed financial statements or annual returns for any continuous period of three financial years; or
(b) Has failed to repay the deposits accepted by it or pay interest thereon or to redeem any debentures on the due date or pay the interest due thereon or pay any dividend declared and such failure to pay or redeem continues for one year or more, shall be eligible to be re-appointed as a director of that company or appointed in other company for a period of five years from the date on which the said company fails to do so.

Keeping in view of the provisions of Section 164(2) of the Companies Act, 2013:

  1. Manish can continue to be director of QPR Ltd. and in UV Ltd. till his term is over. However, he cannot be reappointed in QPR Ltd. and UV Ltd. as directors for 5 years.
  2. Provisions of Section 164(2) of the Companies Act, 2013, are applicable to all companies whether it is a public company or a private company.

Hence, if the defaulting company is a private limited company answer is still the same i.e. Manish cannot be reappointed in QPR Ltd. and UV Ltd. as director for 5 years.

Question 21.
Mr. X is a director of Greenfield Industries Limited. He is a man of wild knowledge of commercial matters. The company has not filed financial statements with the Registrar of Companies for the year endi|d 31st March 2014, 31st March 2015, and 31st March 2016. However, it has filed the annual returns for those years in compliance with the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013. Considering Mr. X’s huge experience, Redfield Industries Limited wants to induct him as a director on its Board. Referring to the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013, examine the validity of such a proposition. (June 2017) (4 marks)
Answer:
Section 164(2) also provides that no person who is or has been a director of a company which –
(a) Has not filed financial statements or annual returns for any continuous period of three financial years; or

(b) Has failed to repay the deposits accepted by it or pay interest thereon or to redeem any debentures on the due date or pay the interest due thereon or pay any dividend declared and such failure to pay or redeem continues for one year or more, shall be eligible to be re-appointed as a director of that company or appointed in other company for a period of Eve years from the date on which the said company fails to do so.

Keeping in view of the above provisions, Mr. X director of Greenfield Ltd. is disqualified to be appointed as a director in that Company as well as in other companies.

Thus, Mr. X cannot be appointed as a director in Redfield Ltd.

Question 22.
A housing company has sold a Hat to its Managing Director by ac¬cepting 50% in cash and balance in installment. Decide whether this transaction attracts the provision pertaining to loan to directors under section 185. If so, validate the transaction. (December 2014) (4 marks)
Answer:
In Freddie Ardeshir Mehta. Union of India (1991) 1 CompLJ 437 (Bom.), it was held that if the company sells one of its flats to one of its directors on receiving half the price in cash and agreeing to accept the balance in installments does not amount to giving of loan to the director.

In view of above, the observation made by Accounts Department that purchasing flat by Managing Director will tantamount to providing house building advance is not correct.

Question 23.
A person other than a retiring director is eligible for appointment as director. Examine (December 2012) (4 marks)
Answer:
Right of persons other than retiring directors to stand for directorship [Section 160 of the Companies Act, 2013]:
1. A person who is not a retiring director shall be eligible for appointment to the office of a director at any general meeting, if he, or some member intending to propose him as a director, has, not less than fourteen days before the meeting, left at the registered office of the company, a notice in writing under his hand signifying his candidature as a director or, as the case may be, the intention of such member to propose him as a candidate for that office. Such a person may be a member or a non-member, an additional director or a director to fill a casual vacancy, or an alternate director or a nominee director.

2. Such notice must come along with the deposit of one lakh rupees or such higher amount as may be prescribed which shall be refunded to such person or, as the case may be, to the member, if the person proposed gets elected as a director or gets more than twenty-five of total valid votes cast either on a show of hands or on the poll on such resolution.

In the case of Nidhi Company, instead of Rupees One Lakh, the deposit of Rupees ten thousand is required with the notice.

The requirements of deposit of amount shall not apply in case of appointment of an independent director or a director recommended by the Nomination and Remuneration Committee, if any, constituted under sub-section (1) of section 178 or a director recommended by the Board of Directors of the Company, in the case of a company not required to constitute Nomination and Remuneration Committee.

3. Section 160 is not applicable to Government Company where the entire paid-up share capital is held by Central Government jointly or severally or in case of a subsidiary of Government Company in which the entire paid-up capital is held by that Government Company.

Further, Section 160 is not applicable to Private Companies, Section. 8 Companies whose article provides for the election of directors by Ballot.

Question 24.
The Board of Directors of Zest Ltd. appoints Pavan as a director under section 161 by passing a resolution by circulation. The appointee now seeks your advice about the tenure of his appointment. Advise him (June 2012) (4 marks)
Answer:
According to Section 161 (1) of the Companies Act, 2013, the Articles of Association of a Company may confer on its Board of Directors the power to appoint any person as an additional director at any time who shall hold office up to the date of the next Annual General Meeting or the last date on which the Annual General Meeting should have been held, whichever is earlier.

The appointment of an additional director may be made either at a meeting of the Board or by circular resolution.

Question 25.
In a public limited company, certain directors who guaranteed the company’s debts retired, and new directors were appointed in their places and they also signed the guarantee bonds. There was no agreement to show that the earlier guarantee had ceased to be operative. The bank who is the beneficiary exercised its option and demanded the repayment. The retired directors contended that they have already retired and they are not liable to the bank on strength of the bond. Is the contention valid? Decide the case with regard to the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013? (December 2014) (4 Marks)
Answer:
1. In the decided case, Bank of Baroda v. Official Liquidator (1992) 73 Com Cases 688 (MP), it was held that where certain directors who had guaranteed the company’s debts retired and new directors were appointed in their place who also signed the guarantee bond and there was no agreement to show that the earlier guarantee had ceased to be operative it was held that all the directors including retired directors were liable jointly and severally under guarantee.

2. In the given case, in a public limited company, certain directors who guaranteed the company’s debts retired, and new directors were appointed in their places and they also signed the guarantee bonds. There was no agreement to show that the earlier guarantee had ceased to be operative. The bank who is the beneficiary exercised its option and de¬manded the repayment. The retired directors contended that they have already retired and they are not liable to the bank on strength of the bond.

Thus, the contention of retired directors is not correct and they are liable to the bank.

Question 26.
Kruger Holdings Ltd. promoted Ms. Bhavna and designated her as the Director (Administration). Examine the validity of such a designation under the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013. (June 2016) (4 marks)
Answer:
1. As per Section 2(36) of the Companies Act, 2013, a director means a director appointed to the Board of the Company. Mere giving designation as the director is not relevant.

2. If Company wants to appoint any person as a director then it can appoint him in Annual General Meeting or if during two Annual General Meet-ing director has to be appointed then such person can be appointed as additional director as per Section 161(1) of the Companies Act, 2013.

3. As per Section 161(1) of the Companies Act, 2013, the articles of associ¬ation of a company may confer on its Board of Directors the power to appoint any person as an additional director at any time who shall hold office up to the date of the next Annual General Meeting or the last date on which the Annual General Meeting (AGM) should have been held, whichever is earlier.

Thus, it is advised to the Kruger Holdings (P.) Ltd. to appoint Ms. Bhavna as additional director in Board Meeting and she will hold the office till the next Annual General Meeting. In the next AGM she can be appointed as a regular director. As far as the designation of “Director (Administration) is concerned, the company can use any suitable designation to identify the work of the director.

Question 27.
Barkha Ltd. has four directors on Its Board. A Board meeting was convened which was attended by only two directors, where Rekha was appointed as an additional director. Rekha is related to both the directors. Referring to the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013, examine the validity of the appointment. (December 2016) (4 marks)
Answer:
1. In the decided case, Shailesh Harilal Shah v. Matushree Textiles Ltd. (1994) 2 Comp LJ 291 at 301: AIR 1994 Bom. 20]:
The appointment as an additional director of a person who is related to a director has been held not to violate the requirement of Section 184 because such appointment does not constitute any “contract or arrangement” of the Company with the sitting director.

2. The director in question was not accordingly disentitled from participation and voting at a meeting of the Board.

3. In the given case, Barkha Ltd. has four directors on its Board. A Board meeting was convened which was attended by only two directors, where Rekha was appointed as an additional director. Rekha is related to both the directors.

Thus, Rekha not disentitled from participation and voting at a meeting of the Board.

Question 28.
Five Board meetings were held in Asha Ltd. during the period from January to June in the calendar year 2016. Rajeev, an additional director, attended none of these meetings. For the first two meetings, he sought leave of absence from the Board but did not inform the Board for the remaining three meetings. Examining the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013, decide whether he is disqualified to act as a director. (December 2016) (4 marks)
Answer:
1. As per Section 161 of the Companies Act, 2013, the additional director shall hold office up to the date of the next Annual General Meeting or the last date on which the Annual General Meeting should have been held, whichever is earlier.

2. As per Section 167 of the Companies Act, 2013, the office of a director shall become vacant if he absents himself from all the meetings of the Board of Directors held during a period of 12 months with or without seeking leave of absence of the Board.

3. In the given case, Five Board meetings were held in Asha Ltd. during the period from January to June in the calendar year 2016. Rajeev, an additional director, attended none of these meetings. For the first two meetings, he sought leave of absence from, the Board but did not inform the Board for the remaining three meetings.

Thus, the office of Rajeev, director of Asha Ltd. vacated as he is absent from all board meetings in a calendar year.

However, he is not disqualified to become a director as per Section 164 of the Companies Act, 2013.

Question 29.
The Chairman and Managing Director of Progressive Limited resigned on 6th May 2015 as such but the company filed Form No. DIR 12 with the ROC stating the date of resignation as 15th March 2016. The company is-sued various cheques to its investors in the repayment of their deposits after 6th May 2015 which were bounced. The investors filed a complaint against the former Chairman and Managing Director. Will the Chairman and Managing Director be liable in the instant case? (December 2011) (4 marks)
Answer:
1. According to section 168 of the Companies Act, 2013, a director may resign from its office by giving notice with the reasons of resignation in writing to the company. The Board shall on receipt of such a notice from a director take note of the same.

2. The company shall within 30 days from the date of receipt of notice of resignation from a director, intimate the registrar in Form DIR-12 and post the information on its website if any as provided in Rule 15 of the Companies (Appointment and Qualification of Directors) Rules, 2014.

3. The Board shall place the facts of such resignation by the director in the Report of Directors laid in immediately following the general meeting by the company. The Director may within 30 days from his resignation, forward to the registrar a copy of his resignation along with reasons for resignation with reasons.

4. The resignation shall be effective from:

  • the date on which the notice is received by the company or
  • the date specified by the Director in the notice whichever is later.

5. When all the Directors resign at the same time under section 167, in such case the required number of directors are to be appointed by the promoter or, the Central Government. The Directors so appointed shall hold office till the Directors are appointed by the company in general meeting.

However, the Director shall be liable even after his resignation for the offenses which occurred during his tenure.

As Managing Director of Progressive Ltd has resigned on 6the May 2015. However, the company filed Form DIR-12 on 15th March 2016.

Thus, the Chairman and managing director are not liable for cheques to its investors in the repayment of their deposits after 6th May 2015 which were bounced.

Question 30.
Pawan, the Managing Director of ABC Limited, resigned on 10th May 2012. The company has filed e-form Number 32 with the Registrar of Companies mentioning the date of resignation as 5th July 2013. The compa¬ny issued various cheques to its investors in the repayment of the deposits after 10th May 2012 and the said cheques were dishonored. The investors filed complaints against the company and Pawan, the former Managing Director of the company. Discuss and advise whether Pawan shall be liable or not. (June 2014) (8 marks)
Answer:
1. According to Section 168 of the Companies Act, 2013, a director may resign from its office by giving notice with the reasons for resignation in writing to the company. The Board shall on receipt of such a notice from a director take note of the same.

2. The company shall within 30 days from the date of receipt of notice of resignation from a director, intimate the registrar in Form DIR-12, and post the information on its website if any as provided in Rule 15 of the Companies (Appointment and Qualification of Directors) Rules, 2014.

3. The Board shall place the facts of such resignation by the director in the Report of Directors laid in immediately following the general meeting by the company. The Director may within 30 days from his resignation, forward to the registrar a copy of his resignation along with reasons for resignation with reasons.

4. The resignation shall be effective from:

  • the date on which the notice is received by the company or
  • the date specified by the Director in the notice whichever is later.

5. When all the Directors resign at the same time under section 167, in such case the required number of directors are to be appointed by the promoter or, the Central Government. The Directors so appointed shall hold office till the Directors are appointed by the company in general meeting.

However, the Director shall be liable even after his resignation for the offenses which occurred during his tenure.

As Managing Director of ABC Ltd. has resigned from 10th May 2012 and form filed on 5th July 2013, the resignation is effective whichever is later amongst two dates. Thus, Mr. Pawan Managing Director is liable.

Question 31.
Paras, a director of Spike (Pvt.) Ltd resigns from the office of direc¬tor. He has forwarded a copy of his resignation to the company and the Registrar of Companies (ROC) in time. The company, however, has not filed a relevant forms to the ROC. Explaining the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013 in this regard, decide the status of Paras. (June 2016) (4 marks)
Answer:
1. According to Section 168 of the Companies Act, 2013, a director may resign from its office by giving notice of the reasons for resignation in writing to the company. The Board shall on receipt of such a notice from a director take note of the same.

2. The company shall within 30 days from the date of receipt of notice of resignation from a director, intimate the registrar in Form DIR-12 and post the information on its website if any as provided in Rule 15 of the Companies (Appointment and Qualification of Directors) Rules, 2014.

3. The Board shall place the facts of such resignation by the director in the Report of Directors laid in immediately following the general meeting by the company. The Director may within 30 days from his resignation, forward to the registrar a copy of his resignation along with reasons for resignation with reasons.

4. The resignation shall be effective from:

  • the date on which the notice is received by the company or
  • the date specified by the Director in the notice whichever is later.

5. When all the Directors resign at the same time under section 167, in such case the required number of directors are to be appointed by the promoter or, the Central Government. The Directors so appointed shall hold office till the Directors are appointed by the company in general meeting.

However, the Director shall be liable even after his resignation for the offenses which occurred during his tenure.

As per facts given in the case, Paras, a director of Spike (Pvt.) Ltd. has forwarded a copy of the resignation to the Company and ROC in time and hence his resignation is valid and effective. It is irrelevant whether the company files the form with ROC or not.

Question 32.
Mr. Sunil Goyal, a director of XYZ Limited wants to go on a foreign trip. He wants to assign his office to the Vice President of the company. Mr. Sunil Goyal seeks your advice on whether he can do so. Referring to the provi¬sions of the Companies Act, 2013, advise him in the matter. (June 2017) (4 marks)
Answer:

  1. In terms of the provisions of Section 166 of the Companies Act, 2013, A director of a company shall not assign his office and any assignment so made shall be void.
  2. In the given case, Mr. Sunil Goyal a director of XYZ Limited wants to go on foreign trip. He wants to assign his office to the Vice President of the company.

Thus, Mr. Sunil Goyal a director of XYZ Limited cannot assign his office to the Vice President of the company.

Question 33.
Power to borrow money includes the power to give security. Com¬ment. (December 2010) (5 marks)
Answer:
1. The power to borrow includes the power to give security, which may take the form of a mortgage, charge, hypothecation, lien, guarantee, pledge, etc. The creditor’s position becomes safer when security is given.

2. A company, like a natural person, can give security. Normally, the debentures and other borrowings of the company are secured by a charge on the assets of the company.

3. Every company may necessarily possess certain powers which are implied, such as, a power to appoint an act by agents and where it is a trading Company, a power to borrow and give security for the purposes of its business, and also a power to sell. Such powers are incidental and can be inferred from the powers expressed in the memorandum.
[Oak Bank Oil Co. v. Crum (1882) 8 App Cas 65],

4. The principle underlying the exercise of such powers is that a company in carrying on the business for which it is constituted must be able to pursue those things which may be regarded as incidental to or consequential upon that business.
[Egyptian Salt and Soda Co. v. Port Said Salt Association].

Question 34.
State the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013 relating to Loans to directors. (June 2012) (6 marks)
Answer:
1. A company cannot directly or indirectly advance any loan, including any loan representing by a book debt to its directors or to any other person in whom the directors are interested.

Similarly, a company cannot directly or indirectly give any guarantee or provide any security in connection with any loan taken by its directors or to any other person in whom the director is interested.

2. No provision in certain cases:
The provision of Section 185 shall not apply to:

3. The giving of any loan to a managing or whole-time director as a part of the condition of service extended by the company to all its employee or pursuant to any scheme approved by the members by a special resolution or

4. A company that in the ordinary course of its business provides loans or gives guarantees or securities for the due repayment of any loan and in respect of such loans an interest is charged at a rate not less than the bank rate declared by the RBI.

5. If any loan is advanced or a guarantee or security is given or provided in contravention of the provisions of Section 185, the company shall be punishable with a fine which shall not be less than INR 5,00,000 but which may extend to 25,00,000.

6. The director or the other person to whom any loan is advanced or guar¬antee or security is given or provided in connection with any loan taken by him or the other person, shall be punishable:

  • with imprisonment which may extend to 6 months or
  • with fine which shall not be less than INR 5,00,000 but which may extend to 25,00,000 or
  • with both

7. As per Rule 10 of the Companies (Meeting of Board and its Powers) Rules, 2014. Section 185 does not apply to the following transactions.

  • Any loan made by a holding company to its wholly-owned subsidiary company or any guarantee given or security provided by a holding company in respect of any loan made to its wholly-owned sub¬sidiary company is exempted from the requirements under this section.
  • Any guarantee given or security provided by holding company in respect of loan made by any bank or a financial institution to its subsidiary company.
    However, such loans are utilized by the subsidiary company for its principal business activities.

Question 35.
Can the board of directors of a company delegate any of its power to others? Discuss. (June 2013) (4 marks)
Answer:
1. The Board of Directors of a company shall exercise the following powers on behalf of the company by means of resolutions passed at meetings of the Board, namely:

  • To make calls on in respect of money unpaid on shares.
  • To authorize buy-back of securities under Section 68
  • To issue securities, including debenture, whether in or outside India.
  • To borrow monies.
  • To invest the funds of the company
  • To grant loans or give a guarantee or provide security in respect of loans.
  • To approve financial statement and the board’s report
  • To diversify the business of the company.
  • To approve amalgamation, merger, or reconstruction.
  • To take over a company or acquire a controlling or substantial stake in another company.

2. The specified power to borrow monies, to invest the funds of the company, and to grant loans or give guarantee or provide security in respect of loans by the board may be delegated to:

  • committee of directors,
  • managing director,
  • manager or
  • the principal officer of the company or
  • the principal officer of the branch office.

3. Every resolution of the board delegating the powers must specify:

  • the total amount to be borrowed
  • the total amount that may be invested and the nature of the investment
  • the total amount up to which loans may be made.

4. Rule 8 of the Companies (Meeting of Board and its Powers) Rules, 2014

  • prescribes that the following power shall be exercised by the board by passing a resolution at a board meeting only:
  • power to make political contributions.
  • power to appoint or remove KMP.
  • power to appoint internal auditors and secretarial auditors.

Question 36.
The Board of directors of Nav Avlar Ltd. passed a resolution for the issue of rights shares. However, certain shareholders of the company raised an objection as to whether the company needed additional capital. Discuss the validity of the counter-move taken by the shareholders and the resolution passed by the Board. (June 2012) (4 marks)
Answer:
In terms of the provisions of Section 179 of the Companies Act, 2013:
The board of directors of a company shall be entitled to exercise all such powers, and to do all such acts and things, as the company is authorized to exercise and do. However, in exercising such power or doing such act or thing, the board shall be subject to the provisions contained in the Companies Act, 2013, or in the memorandum or articles or in any regulations made by the company in general meeting.

Thus, the Board shall not exercise any power or do any act or thing which is to be exercised or done by the company in general meeting.

The directors shall exercise their powers bona fide and in the interest of the company. The directors while exercising their powers do not act as agents for the majority or even all the members and so the members cannot by resolution passed by a majority or even unanimously supersede the director’s powers, or instruct them how they shall exercise their powers.

In Milan Sen v. Guardian Plasticate Ltd (1998) 2 Comp LJ 320, the directors passed a resolution for rights issue which was questioned by certain shareholders. The Calcutta High Court held that the question of whether the company needed additional capital was a question that should primarily be decided by the directors of the company and if they were of the view that further capital in the form of rights issue was required, the court would not be allowed to disturb the same unless there were extreme circumstances of mala fide or breach of trust.

Thus, shareholders of a company will succeed only if they are able to show that directors are exercising their power mala fidely or in breach of trust.

Question 37.
Explain the prohibitions and restrictions regarding political contributions by a company. (June 2014) (4 marks)
Answer:
1. According to Section 182 of the Companies Act, 2013, a company, other than a government company and a company that has been in existence for less than three financial years, may contribute any amount directly to any political party. Further, the contribution under this section shall not be made except by an account payee cheque drawn on a bank or an account payee bank draft or use of an electronic clearing system through a bank account.

2. The Finance Act, 2017 amended section 182 of the Companies Act, 2013, accordingly the limit on the maximum amount that can be contributed by a company to a political party has been removed. Hence a company now can contribute any percentage without any limit.

3. The contribution must be authorized by the board in its meeting by resolution and such resolution deemed to be the justification in law for such contribution. The donation may be directly or indirectly. The contribution so made if or likely to affect the public support for a political party deemed to be the contribution for political purpose.

4. If the expenditure incurred on advertisement in any publication souvenir, brochure, tract, pamphlet or the like is deemed as a political contribution if such publication is by or on behalf of a political party or if not, then for the advantage to such political party for a political purpose.

5. Every company is required to disclose in its profit and loss account the total amount contributed by it under this section during the financial year to which the account relates.

Question 38.
In what way does the Companies Act, 2013 regulate the payment made by companies towards contribution to political parties for political purposes? Explain. (June 2015) (4 marks)
Answer:
1. According to Section 182 of the Companies Act, 2013, a company, other than a government company that has been in existence for less than three financial years, may contribute any amount directly to any political party. Further, the contribution under this section shall not be made except by an account payee cheque drawn on a bank or an account payee bank draft or use of an electronic clearing system through a bank account.

2. The Finance Act, 2017 amended section 182 of the Companies Act, 2013, accordingly the limit on the maximum amount that can be contributed by a company to a political party has been removed. Hence a company now can contribute any percentage without any limit.

3. Every company is required to disclose in its profit and loss account the total amount contributed by it under this section during the financial year to which the account relates.

4. Deemed political contribution:
If the expenditure incurred on advertisement in any publication souvenir, brochure, tract, pamphlet, or the like is deemed as a political contribution. if such publication is by or on behalf of a political party or if not, then for the advantage to such political party for a political purpose.

Question 39.
The powers of the directors of a company are co-extensive with those of the company. Comment (June 2015) (5 marks)
Answer:
1. The Board of Directors of a Company shall be entitled to exercise all such powers and to do all such acts and things as the Company is authorized to exercise and do.

However, in exercising such power or doing such act or thing, the Board shall be subject to the provisions contained in the Companies Act, 2013, or in the memorandum or articles or in any regulations made by the company in general meeting.

2. It is evident and clear that subject to the restrictions contained in the Companies Act, 2013, Memorandum of Association, and Articles of Association, the powers of directors are co-extensive with those of the Company itself.

Thus, the Board shall not exercise any power or do any act or thing which is to be exercised or done by the Company in general meeting.

Question 40.
Bright Products Ltd. wishes to sell one of its undertakings for which it decided to call an extraordinary general meeting (EOGM) and to pass a resolution thereat. State the material facts to be set out in the explanatory statement to be annexed to the notice of the EOGM on this special business to be transacted at the meeting. (June 2016) (4 marks)
Answer:
1. As per Section 180(l)(a) of the Companies Act, 2013, the board of directors can exercise the following powers only with the consent of the company by special resolution to sell, lease or otherwise dispose of the whole or substantially the whole of the undertaking of the company or where the company owns more than one undertaking, of the whole or substantially the whole of any of such undertakings.

2. As per Section 102 of the Companies Act, 2013, in case of special busi¬ness items to be transacted at a general meeting, a statement setting out the following material facts, shall be annexed to the notice calling the meeting:

3. The nature of concern or interest, financial or otherwise in respect of each item of:

  • Every director and the manager, if any
  • Every other key managerial personnel and
  • Relatives of the persons mentioned above.

4. Any other information and facts that may enable members to understand the meaning, scope, and implications of the items of business and to take a decision thereon.

5. In accordance with the provisions, for selling one of the undertakings of the Company explanatory statement annexed to the notice must specify the following material facts:

  • General nature of business of the Company.
  • Role of undertaking in the business of the Company.
  • Nature of assets and liabilities of the undertaking.
  • Reasons for the sale of the undertaking.
  • The financial effect after sales on the balance sheet and income of the Company.
  • Major terms and conditions relating to the sale of the undertaking.
  • The fact that sale of undertaking requires approval of shareholder in terms of Section 180.
  • The nature of interest, if any of the director, manager, and Key Managerial Personnel (KMPs).

Question 41.
It is mandatory for every director of a company to disclose his interest or the nature of his concern in other companies in which he is a director. Comment (June 2016) (5 marks)
Answer:
1. Section 184(1) of the Companies Act, 2013, states that every director shall at the first meeting of the Board in which he participates as a director and thereafter at the first meeting of the Board in every financial year or whenever there is any change in the disclosures already made, then at the first Board meeting held after such change, disclose his concern or interest in any company or companies or bodies corporate, firms, or other association of individuals which shall include the disclosure of shareholding held by him in Form MBP-1.

2. Consequences of non-disclosure of Interest:
As per Section 184(4) of the Companies Act, 2013, in case of default such director shall be liable to a penalty of one lakh rupees.

3. Vacation of Office of Director:
Under Section 167 of the Companies Act, 2013, the office of a director shall become vacant in case he acts in contravention of the provisions of Section 184 relating to entering into contracts or arrangements in which he is directly or indirectly interested.

Thus, it is mandatory for every director of a company to disclose his interest or nature of his concern in other companies in which he is the director.

Question 42.
Explaining the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013, state the duties of the Nomination and Remuneration Committee. (June 2016) (4 marks)
Answer:
1. Constitution of Nomination and Remuneration Committee [Section 178]: The board of directors of every listed company and other prescribed classes of the company shall constitute the nomination and remuneration committee comprising of three or more non-executive directors out of which not less than one half shall be independent directors. The chairperson of the company may be appointed as a member of the Nomination and Remuneration Committee but shall not chair such committee.

2. Duties of Nomination and Remuneration Committee [Section 178(2)]: The Nomination and Remuneration Committee shall identify persons who are qualified to become directors and who may be appointed in senior management in accordance with the criteria laid down, recommend to the board their appointment and removal and shall carry out an evaluation of every director’s performance.

3. The Nomination and Remuneration Committee shall formulate the criteria for determining qualifications, positive attributes, and independence of a director and recommend to the board a policy, relating to the remuneration for the directors, KMP, and other employees.

  • The Nomination and Remuneration Committee shall while formulating the policy ensure that the level and composition of remuneration is reasonable and sufficient to attract, retain and motivate directors of the quality required to run the company successfully.
  • The relationship of remuneration to performance is clear and meets appropriate performance benchmarks; and
  • Remuneration to directors, key managerial personnel, and senior management involves a balance between fixed and incentive pay reflecting short and long-term performance objectives appropriate to the working of the company and its goals. Such policy shall be disclosed in the board’s report.

Question 43.
Examining the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013, relating to the constitution of a ‘Nomination and Remuneration Committee’ and ‘Stake¬holders Relationship Committee’, answer the following:
(i) Is it mandatory for a listed company to constitute such a committee? Also, state whether it is mandatory for a non-listed public company having paid-up share capital of INR 5 crore to constitute such committees?
(ii) What shall be the composition of the committee in case the company is required to constitute such committees? (December 2015) (4 marks)
Answer:
Constitution of Nomination and Remuneration Committee [Section 178(1)]:
1. The board of directors of every listed public company and other prescribed classes of companies shall constitute the Nomination and Remuneration Committee consisting of three or more non-executive directors out of which not less than one-half shall be independent directors.

2. The chairperson of the company may be appointed as a member of the Nomination and Remuneration Committee but shall not chair such a Committee.

3. As per Rule 6 of the Companies (Meetings of Board and its Powers) Rules, 2014, the board of director of the following classes of companies shall constitute an audit committee and nomination and remuneration committee of the board:

  • All public companies with paid-up share capital of INR 10 crore or more;
  • All public companies having turnover of INR 100 crore or more;
  • All public companies, having in aggregate, outstanding loans or borrowings or debentures or deposits exceeding INR 50 crores or more.

Constitution of Stakeholders Relationship Committee [Section 178(1)]:
The Board of Directors of a company which consists of more than 1,000 shareholders, debenture- holders, deposit holders, and any other security holders at any time during the financial year shall constitute a Stakeholder Relationship Committee consisting of a chairperson who shall be a non-executive director and such other members as may be decided by the board.

As per the provisions discussed above:
1. It is mandatory for a listed company to constitute such committees.
In the case of a non-listed public company having a paid-up share capital of 5 crores, it is not necessary to constitute such committees.

2. Nomination and Remuneration Committee shall consist of three or more non-executive directors out of which not less than one-half shall be independent directors.

Stakeholders Relationship Committee shall consist of a chairperson who shall be a non-executive director and such other members as may be decided by the Board.

Question 44.
The balance sheet of Duck Ltd. shows a paid-up capital of INR 5 Crore and a free reserve of INR 2 Crore. Due to the heavy financial requirements of the company, it plans to apply for a loan of INR 8 Crore with XYZ Bank Ltd. Advise the company on the formalities to be fulfilled. Also advise on the alternative course of action, if any. (December 2013) (4 marks)
Answer:
As per Section 180(l)(c), the Board of Directors of a company
1. cannot borrow a sum which together with the monies already borrowed exceeds the aggregate of the paid-up share capital of the Company and

2. its free reserves apart from temporary loans obtained from the company’s bankers in the ordinary course of a business unless they have received the prior sanction of the company by a special resolution in a general meeting.

As per the facts given in the case, the total paid-up capital and its free reserves of Duck Ltd. is INR 7 Crores and the company intend to apply for a loan of INR 8 crores which exceed the aggregate of the paid-up share capital of the Company and its free reserves; thus sanction by a special resolution in general meeting is necessary. On the other hand, Duck Ltd. can take a loan up to INR 7 crore bypassing board resolution, and complying with the provisions of its article and approval of shareholders by way of special resolution will not be necessary.

Question 45.
Net profits of QPR Ltd. during the following years as disclosed in the statement of profit and loss are as under:

Financial year ended Net profit (INR in Crore)
31st March, 2013 10
31st March 2014 12
31st March 2015 08

The Board of directors of the company at its meeting decides to contribute to a charitable organisation, for charitable purposes, a sum of INR 3 crore out of the net profits of the financial year ended 31st March 2015. This contribution has been made by the Board without seeking approval of shareholders in general meeting.
In light of the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013, examine the validity of the contribution made by the company. What shall be your answer in case the Board decides to contribute INR 1 crore only? (December 2015) (4 marks)
Answer:
Company to contribute to charitable funds [Section 181 of the Companies Act, 2013]:
1. The Board of directors of the Company may contribute to bona fide charitable and other funds. However, if contribution to charitable and other funds exceeds 5% of its average net profits for the three imme-diately preceding financial years, prior permission of the Company in general meeting shall be required.

2. As per the facts given in case, the Board of Directors of PQR Ltd. desires to contribute INR 3 crore to a charitable organization, which is more than 5% of its average net profits for the three immediately preceding financial years, hence prior permission of the Company in general meet¬ing shall be required.

3. If the Board of Directors of PQR Ltd. desires to contribute INR 1 crore to a charitable organization, answer will be still same that is to say prior permission of the Company in general meeting shall be required as INR 1 crore is more than 5% of its average net profits of the three immediately preceding financial years.

Working Note:
Average Net profit = \(\frac{10 \text { crore }+12 \text { crore }+8 \text { crore }}{3}\) = INR 10 Crore
5% of Average Net Profit =10 Crore × 596 = INR 0.5 Crore

Question 46.
Board of directors of Divine Ltd. decides to enter into a contract whereby Manish, a director of the company shall acquire certain assets from the company for consideration other than cash, without seeking approval of the company in its general meeting. Certain shareholders of the company object to the set decision of the Board. Referring to the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013, examine the validity of the Board’s decision and state whether the contention of the shareholder shall be tenable. (December 2015) (4 marks)
Answer:
1. Under Section 192 of the Companies Act, 2013, Restriction on non-cash transactions involving Directors:
No company shall enter into following non-cash transaction:

  • A director of the Company or its holding, subsidiary or associate company or a person connected with him acquires assets for consideration other than cash from the company, or
  • The Company acquires assets from director or person connected with directors.

2. Non-cash transactions can be entered into by the Company only with the approval of shareholder in general meeting.

3. If the director or connected person is a director of its holding company, approval shall also be obtained by passing a resolution in general meeting of the holding company.

4. Notice of general meeting approving non-cash transaction under Section 192(2) of the Companies Act, 2013:
The notice for approval of the resolution by the Company or holding company in general meeting shall include the particulars of the arrangement along with the value of the assets duly calculated by a registered valuer.

As per the facts given in case, the board of directors of Divine Ltd. decides to enter into a contract whereby Manish, a director of the Company shall acquire certain assets from the Company for consideration other than cash, without seeking approval of the Company in general meeting, which is not valid as per Section 192 of the Companies Act, 2013. The Company should have taken approval of shareholder in general meeting by way of passing special resolution.

Question 47.
Serious Ltd. is having three factories in Chennai. The company wants to sell one of the Factory. Can the company sell its factory? Further, assuming that the company has also borrowed credit facilities from the bank, explain the statutory provisions under the Companies Act, 2013. (June 2018) (4 marks)
Answer:
1. As per Section 180(1) of the Companies Act, 2013, the board of directors of a public company shall exercise the following powers only with the consent of the company by a special resolution:

  • Sell, Lease or dispose of the whole of the undertaking of the company;
  • Invest the amount of compensation received by it as a result of any merger or amalgamation;
  • Borrow money, where the money to be borrowed, together with the money already borrowed by the company will exceed the aggregate of its paid-up share capital and free reserves and securities premium;
  • However, if the amount borrowed is a temporary loan from the company’s bankers in the ordinary course of business then this clause is not applicable, hence member approval by way of special res¬olution is not required.
  • Remit, or give time for the repayment of any debt due from a director.

2. The undertaking shall mean an undertaking in which the investment of the company exceeds 20% of its net worth as per the audited balance sheet of the preceding financial year or an undertaking that generates 20% of the total income of the Company during the previous financial year.

As per the facts of the case, Serious Ltd. is having three factories in Chennai. The company wants to sell one of the Factory. Thus, Serious Ltd. can dispose of its undertaking by passing a special resolution if the investment in its undertaking proposed to sell exceeds 20% of its net worth as per the audited balance sheet of the preceding financial year or if such undertaking generates 20% of the total income of the Company during the previous financial year.

However, if the proposed undertaking to be sold does not fulfill the criteria stated above then such undertaking can be sold by passing a resolution at the board meeting subject to compliance of provisions of the article of association of the Company.

If a Serious Ltd. also has borrowed facilities from the bank then prior approval of the bank should also be taken if the loan agreement contains a provision regarding disposal of any assets or undertaking subject to prior approval of the Bank.

Question 50.
The Managing Director of a public limited company applied for purchasing a company’s flat. The price of the flat is INR 40 lakh. The Man¬aging Director suggested that he may be allowed to pay INR 20 lakh and the balance of INR 20 lakh may be recovered from his salary in 40 installments. Accounts Department observed that it will tantamount to providing house building advance to the Managing Director which is not covered by the rules of the company. Being the Company Secretary of the company, you have been asked by the board of directors to examine and submit a note stating the rules in this regard and action to be taken for considering the request. IfSlI (December 2011) (8 marks)
Answer:
In the decided case, Freddie Ardeshir Mehta v. Union of India (1991) 1 Comp LJ 437 (Bom.), it was held that if the company sells one of its flats to one of its directors on receiving half the price in cash and agreeing to accept the balance in installments does not amount to giving of loan to the director.

In the given case, the Managing Director of a public limited company applied for purchasing a company’s flat. The price of the flat is INR 40 lakh. The Managing Director suggested that he may be allowed to pay INR 20 lakh and the balance of INR 20 lakh may be recovered from his salary in 40 installments. Accounts Department observed that it will tantamount to providing house building advance to the Managing Director which is not covered by the rules of the Company.

In view of above, the observation made by Accounts Department that purchasing flat by Managing Director will tantamount to providing house building advance is not correct.

Question 51.
In a Limited Company, the Managing Director terminated an employee on the charge of various misconducts. The aggrieved employee filed a writ petition before the High Court challenging the dismissal contending that the Managing Director had no power to do so and the proper authority was the Board of directors. During the pendency of writ, the Board of directors passed a resolution ratifying the action of the Managing Director. The High Court while setting aside the Managing Director’s dismissal order, allowed the writ petition. The managing director appealed to the Supreme Court. Decide the case having regard to the judicial pronouncements in the matter. (December 2014) (8 marks)
Answer:
1. In the decided case of Maharashtra State Mining Corpn. v. Sunil (2006) 5 SCC 96, the appellant corporation’s Managing Director terminated the respondent’s services for various misconducts. The respondent filed a writ petition challenging the said dismissal order on the ground that the managing director had no authority to do since the same was vested in the appellant’s Board of Directors. While the said petition was pending, the board of directors passed a resolution ratifying the Man¬aging Director’s impugned action.

2. The High Court, while setting aside the impugned termination order, allowed the respondent’s writ petition. Appellant appealed to the Supreme Court. The appeal was allowed. According to Supreme Court, the High Court was right when it held that an act by a legally incompetent authority was invalid. But it was entirely wrong in holding that such an invalid act cannot be subsequently rectified by the ratification of the competent authority.

3. In the instant case, the managing director’s order dismissing the respondent from the service was admittedly ratified by the board of directors and the board of directors unquestionably had the power to terminate the services of the respondent. However, the order of the managing director had been ratified by the board of directors, such ratification related back to the date of the order and validated it.

Therefore, the instant appeal was allowed, the impugned judgment and order of the High Court was quashed and the dismissal order was upheld as ratification assumed an invalid act if it was retrospectively validated.

Question 52.
Anil, a shareholder holding 9% equity shares of the company, who is not holding any directorship wants to stand for directorship in Pritam Ltd. in its next annual general meeting. State the procedure lor appointment of Anil as per the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013. (December 2018) (5 marks)
Answer:
1. Right of persons other than retiring directors to stand from directorship [Section 160 of the Companies Act, 2013]:
A person who is not a retiring director shall be eligible for appointment or to the office of a director at any General Meeting.

2. Such a person or some member intending to propose him as a director has to give a notice in writing at least 14 days before the meeting. A sum of rupees 1 lakh shall be deposited along with the notice.

However, the requirement of a deposit of amount rupees 1 lakh shall not apply in case of the appointment of an independent director or director recommended by the nomination and remuneration committee.

3. The amount deposited will be refunded to such person or to the member if the person proposed gets elected as a director or gets more than 25% of the total valid vote cast either on a show of hands-on poll on such resolution.

4. On receipt of notice as stated above, the company shall inform its members about the candidature of the person proposed as a director in the prescribed manner.
Thus, Anil can stand for directorship in Pritam Limited after compliance with the above-stated provisions.

Question 53.
In a general meeting, a motion was put for the removal of small shareholders’ director. A small shareholder contended that only small shareholders are entitled to vote on this motion as it is related to the removal of small shareholders’ director and the motion should be passed as a special resolution. Is the argument valid? Analyze with reference to the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013 (December 2018) (4 marks)
Answer:
1. All types of directors including a small shareholders director can be removed by the company after complying with the provisions of section 169 of the Companies Act, 2013.

2. As per applicable provisions of the Section ordinary resolution is required to be passed from the removal of the director.

3. In the given case, in a general meeting, a motion was put for the removal of small shareholders’ directors. A small shareholder contended that only small shareholders are entitled to vote on this motion as it is related to the removal of small shareholders’ director and the motion should be passed as a special resolution.

Hence, the contention of the small shareholder’s directors that only small shareholders are entitled to vote on a motion to remove him from a position of small shareholder director and that special resolution is required for such removal is incorrect.

Question 54.
SRM Ltd. has paid INR 15 lakh as an insurance premium on behalf of its Company Secretary and Managing Director for indemnifying any of them against any liability in respect of any negligence, default, misfeasance, breach of duty, or breach of trust for which they may be guilty in relation to the company. Can the company pay such an insurance premium? Discuss refer¬ring to the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013. (December 2018) (4 marks)
Answer:
1. As per Section 197(13) of the Companies Act, 2013. A company may take insurance on behalf of its MD, WTD, Manager, CEO, or CS for indemnifying any of them against any liability in respect of any negligence, default misfeasance, breach of duty, or breach of trust for which they may be guilty.

2. The premium paid on such insurance shall not be treated as part of the managerial remuneration.
However, if such a person is proved to be guilty, the premium paid on insurance shall be treated as part of the remuneration.

3. In the given case, SRM Ltd. has paid INR 15 lakh as an insurance premium on behalf of its Company Secretary and Managing Director for indemnifying any of them against any liability in respect of any negligence, default, misfeasance, breach of duty, or breach of trust.

Thus, SRM Limited can pay an insurance premium of 15 lakh on behalf of its company secretary and managing director for indemnifying any of them against any liability in respect of any negligence default, misfeasance, breach of duty, or breach of trust for which they may be guilty.

Question 55.
On 5th January 2018 in a general meeting, a motion for the removal of a director was put to vote. The Chairman declared the motion passed as an ordinary resolution by show of hands. In the next general meeting held on 28th September 2018, a member questioned the validity of the said resolution which was declared as passed by the Chairman alleging that majority votes were against the motion and asked the chairman to disclose a number of votes cast in favor of and against the said resolution. Referring to the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013 discuss if the demand of members is tenable. (December 2018) (4 marks)
Answer:
1. As per the provisions of Section 107 of the Companies Act, 2013:
At any General Meeting, a resolution put to the vote of the meeting shall in the first instance be decided on a show of hands.

2. A declaration by the chairman of the meeting of the passing of a resolu¬tion by show of hands shall be conclusive evidence of the fact of passing of such resolution unless a poll is demanded before immediately on a declaration by the chairman.

3. In the given case, on 5th January 2018 in a general meeting a motion for removal of a director was put to vote. The Chairman declared the motion passed as an ordinary resolution by show of hands. In the next general meeting held on 28th September 2018, a member questioned the validity of the said resolution which was declared as passed by the Chairman alleging that majority votes were against the motion and asked the chairman to disclose a number of votes cast in favor of and against the said resolution.

Thus, a member cannot question the validity of the resolution in the next general meeting which was declared as passed in the earlier General Meeting.

Question 56.
“A” Ltd., a public company wants to appoint Alternate Directors.
Examine the validity of acts of the company with reference to provisions of
Companies Act, 2013 in following cases :
(i) ‘D’ a director was absent for a period of two and half months. It is proposed to appoint an alternate director.
(ii) ‘E’ a director was absent for 4 months. It is proposed to appoint T’ as an alternate director in the place of E\ ‘F’ is already acting as an alternate director in “A” Ltd. for a director ‘G’ who was absent for 5 months.
(iii) Can the said appointment, if permitted, be passed by circular resolution? (June 2019) (1 + 2 + 2 = 5 marks)
Answer:
1. Section 161(2) of the Companies Act, 2013, empowers the Board if so authorized by its articles or by a resolution passed by the company in general meeting, to appoint a director (termed as ‘alternate director’) to act in the absence of an original director during his absence for a period of not less than three months from India. Section 161(2) of the Companies Act, 2013, applies to all companies whether public or private.

2. The person to be appointed as the Alternate Director shall be the person other than the person holding any alternate directorship for any other Director in the company or holding directorship in the same company.

3. If it is proposed to appoint an Alternate Director to an Independent Di¬rector, it must be ensured that the proposed appointee also satisfies the criteria of Independence as per Section 149(6) of the Companies Act, 2013.

As per the provisions of the above-mentioned provisions:
L Mr. D is absent for a period less than 3 months and hence alternate director cannot be appointed for him. ii Mr. E is absent for a period of more than 3 months and hence an alternate director can be appointed for him. However, Mr. F cannot be appointed as an alternate director for Mr. E as Mr. F is already acting as an alternate director for Mr. G. Advisable to appoint some other person as an alternate director who is not a director in the Company and who is not appointed as an alternate director for any other director in the Company.

Hi, An alternate director cannot be appointed by passing a resolution by circulation.

Question 57.
‘X’ was appointed as an Additional Director of Precious Ltd w.e.f. 21st November 2018 in a casual vacancy caused by the unexpected death of “P” by way of a circular resolution passed by the Board of directors. With reference to the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013 advise the company on the validity of the appointment of ‘X’ and his continuation as Additional director. (June 2019) (4 marks)
Answer:
1. As per Section 161(1) of the Companies Act, 2013, the additional direc¬tor shall hold office up to the date of the next Annual General Meeting or the last date on which the Annual General Meeting should have been held, whichever is earlier.

2. The articles of a company may confer on its Board of Directors the power to appoint any person as an additional director.
However, a person who fails to get appointed as a director in a general meeting cannot be appointed as an additional director.

3. An additional director can be appointed by passing a resolution by circulation.

Thus, the appointment of Mr. X as an additional director by circular resolution is valid.

Question 58.
On 4th September 2018. Varun was appointed as Managing Director of Astha Ltd. by the Board of directors subject to the approval of the members at the next general meeting. On 10th September 2018, Varun in the capacity of managing director executed an agreement with Shabeer to purchase some machines. On 3rd October 2018 members in the general meeting did not approve the appointment of Varun. Later on, the company refuses to accept de¬livery of machines from Shabeer on the ground that the agreement was executed by Varun whose appointment is not approved by the members. Is the refusal of the company valid on the said ground? Examine. (December 2018) (4 marks)
Answer:
1. As per Section 196( 5) of the Companies Act, 2013, where an appointment of managing director, whole-time director, or manager is not approved by the Company at a General Meeting any act done by him before such approval shall not be deemed to be invalid.

2. As per the given case law, on 4th September 2018. Varun was appointed as Managing Director of Astha Ltd. by the Board of directors subject to the approval of the members at the next general meeting. On 10th September 2018, Varun in the capacity of managing director executed an agreement with Shabeer to purchase some machines. On 3rd October 2018 members in the general meeting did not approve the appointment of Varun. Further, the company refuses to accept delivery of machines from Shabeer on the ground that the agreement was executed by Varun whose appointment is not approved by the members.

Thus, the contract of purchase of machines executed incapacity of managing director by Varun is binding on the Company even though his appointment is not approved by the company in General Meeting.

CS Executive Company Law Questions and Answers

Special Courts, Tribunals Under Companies Act & Other Legislations

Special Courts, Tribunals Under Companies Act & Other Legislations – Jurisprudence, Interpretation & General Laws Important Questions

Special Courts, Tribunals Under Companies Act & Other Legislations – Jurisprudence, Interpretation & General Laws Important Questions

Question 1.
Write a short note on Advantages of Tribunals
Answer:
Tribunals have certain characteristics which often given advantages over the Courts. Some of the advantages of the tribunals are discussed below:

Speedy disposal of the case: The Tribunals are much quicker than that of Courts in hearing and deciding a case. A related advantage of the tribunal system is that it will hear a case on a specified date and it will decide a case within a specific period of time.

Example:
1. Section 254 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 provides that – In every appeal, the Appellate Tribunal, where it is possible, may hear and decide such appeal within a period of four years from the end of the financial year in which such appeal.

2. As per Section 18 of the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, the application or appeal filed before the Tribunal shall be dealt with by it as expeditiously as possible, and endeavor shall be made by it to dispose of the application or appeal, finally within 6 months from the date of filing the same.

3. Less Cost: Tribunals are a much cheaper way of deciding cases than taking recourse to the regular procedure of the Court.

4. Less Informality: Tribunals are not required to follow strict court procedures. The strict rules relating to the evidence pleading and procedure, which apply in the Courts, are not binding in the tribunal’s proceedings in many cases. Tribunals observe principles of natural justice and fair play.

5. Expertise: In the ordinary Court, the judges may not be well acquainted with the cases, or a judge may not feel comfortable hearing particular categories of cases because he does not have sufficient knowledge on that issue. Tribunals are free from such problems because the judges of the tribunals are well versed with the issue for which the tribunals were set up. Example: Special cases arising out of pollution control are heard by National Green Tribunal. Similarly, special cases in income tax are heard by Income Tax Appellate Tribunal.

6. Accessibility: The aim of the tribunals is to provide individuals with a read¬ily accessible forum in which they can refer to their grievances. In the tribunal system, all persons concerned know the forum and thus the tribunals are easily accessible.

Question 2.
Distinguish between: Court & Tribunal
Answer:
Following are the main points of distinction between Court and Tribunal:

Points Court Tribunal
Meaning Court refers to a part of the legal system which is established to give their decisions on civil and criminal cases. Tribunals can be described as minor courts that adjudicate disputes arising in special cases.
Decision The decision of the Court can be divided into three parts – Order, Decree & Judgment. The decision of the tribunal may be in form of an order or Award.
Deals with Court deals with criminal and civil cases. Tribunal deals with special cases.
Headed by Courts are headed by judges, a panel of Judges, or a Magistrate. Tribunal normally consists of single-member. [Section 7A of the Industrial Dispute Act, 1947 provides that a Tribunal shall consist of one person only to be appointed by the appropriate Government]
In some cases, Tribunal may consist of Chairperson and other judicial & technical members. [As per Section 53Cof the Competition Act, 2002, the Appellate Tribunal shall consist of a Chairperson and not more than two other members to be appointed by the Central Government]
Procedure Civil Court has to follow the procedure as laid down in the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 while Criminal Court has to follow the procedure as laid down in the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973. Tribunals are not required to follows strict court procedures. The strict rules relating to the evidence pleading and procedure, which apply in the Courts, are not binding in the tribunal’s proceedings in many cases.
Appearance Normally Advocate appears on behalf of the client before the Court. In addition to Advocates, other professionals like the Company Secretary or Chartered Accountant can also appear before Tribunal. [As per Section 53C of the Competition Act, 2002, a person preferring an appeal to the Appellate Tribunal may either appear in person or authorize one or more Chartered Accountants or Company Secretaries or Cost Accountants or legal practitioners or any of its officers to present his or its case before the Appellate Tribunal]

Question 3.
State the qualifications of President and Members of National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)
Answer:
Qualification of President [Section 409(1)]: The President shall be a person who is or has been a Judge of a High Court for 5 years.

Qualification for Judicial Member [Section 409(2)]: A person shall not be qualified for appointment as a Judicial Member unless:

  • he is or has been, a judge of a High Court or
  • he is or has been, a District Judge for at least 5 years or
  • he has, for at least 10 years been an advocate of a Court.

Explanation: For the purposes of computing the period during which a person has been an advocate of a Court, there shall be included any period during which the person has held judicial office or the office of a member of a tribunal or any post, under the Union or a State, requiring special knowledge of law after he becomes an advocate.

Qualification for Technical Member [Section 409(3)]: A person shall not be qualified for appointment as a Technical Member unless:

  1. He has 15 years of experience as a member of the Indian Corporate Law Service or Indian Legal Service and was holding the rank of Secretary or Additional Secretary to the Government of India.
  2. He has been in practice as a Chartered Accountant for at least 15 years.
  3. He has been in practice as a Cost Accountant for at least 15 years.
  4. He has been in practice as a Company Secretary for at least 15 years.
  5. He is a person of proven ability, integrity, and standing having special knowledge and professional experience of not less than 15 years in industrial finance, industrial management, industrial reconstruction, investment, and accountancy.
  6. He was the presiding officer of a Labour Court, Tribunal, or National Tribunal constituted under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 for at least 5 years.

Question 4.
XYZ Ltd. is aggrieved by the order passed by the National Company Law
Tribunal. As a practicing Company Secretary advise the directors of XYZ Ltd. relating to the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013 regarding the filing of the appeal.
Answer:
Appeal from Orders of Tribunal [Section 421]:

  1. Any person aggrieved by an order of the Tribunal may prefer an appeal to the Appellate Tribunal.
  2. No appeal shall lie to the Appellate Tribunal from an order made by the Tribunal with the consent of parties.
  3. Every appeal shall be filed within a period of 45 days from the date on which a copy of the order of the Tribunal is made available to the person aggrieved and shall be in such form, and shall be accompanied by prescribed fees.
  4. The Appellate Tribunal may entertain an appeal after the expiry of the period of 45 days but within a further period not exceeding 45 days if it is satisfied that the appellant was prevented by sufficient cause from filing the appeal within that period.
  5. On the receipt of an appeal, the Appellate Tribunal shall, after giving the parties to the appeal a reasonable opportunity of being heard, pass such orders thereon as it thinks fit, confirming, modifying, or setting aside the order appealed against.
  6. The Appellate Tribunal shall send a copy of every order made by it to the Tribunal and the parties to appeal.

Question 5.
On what grounds appeal to Supreme Court can be filed against the order of the Appellate Tribunal? What is the time limit for filing such an appeal?
Answer:
Appeal to Supreme Court [Section 423]: Any person aggrieved by any order of the Appellate Tribunal may file an appeal to the Supreme Court within 60 days from the date of receipt of the order of the Appellate Tribunal to him on any question of law arising out of such order.

Extension of time filing the appeal: The Supreme Court may, if it is satisfied that the appellant was prevented by sufficient cause from filing the appeal within the said period, allow it to be filed within a further period not exceeding 60 days.

Question 6.
Whether Civil Court has jurisdiction to entertain any suit or proceeding in respect of any matter which the Tribunal is empowered to determine under the Companies Act, 2013?
Answer:
Civil Court not to have jurisdiction [Section 430]: No Civil Court shall have jurisdiction to entertain any suit or proceeding in respect of any matter which the Tribunal or the Appellate Tribunal is empowered to determine by or under the Act or any other law for the time being in force.

No injunction shall be granted by any court or other authority in respect of any action taken or to be taken by the Tribunal or the Appellate Tribunal.

Question 7.
The only Advocate can appear before the Tribunal or Appellate Tribunal constituted under the Companies Act, 2013. Comment.
Or
Explain the rights of a party to appear before the National Company Law Tribunal. [Dec 2019 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Right to legal representation [Section 432]: A party to any proceeding or appeal before the Tribunal or the Appellate Tribunal, may either appear in person or authorize one or more Chartered Accountants or Company Secretaries or Cost Accountants or legal practitioners or any other person to present his case before the Tribunal or the Appellate Tribunal, as the case may be.

Thus, a statement that “only advocate can appear before the Tribunal or Appellate Tribunal” is incorrect.

Question 8.
Explain provisions for contempt and caveat under the Companies Act, 2013. [June 2019 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Power to punish for contempt [Section 425]: The Tribunal and the Appellate Tribunal shall have the same jurisdiction, powers, and authority in respect of contempt of themselves as the High Court has and may exercise, the powers under the provisions of the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, which shall have the effect subject to modifications that:
(a) The reference therein to a High Court shall be construed as including a reference to the Tribunal and the Appellate Tribunal; and

(b) The reference to Advocate-General in section 15 of the said Act shall be construed as a reference to such Law Officers as the Central Government may specify on this behalf.

Powers of High Court under Contempt of Courts Act, 1971: The High Court has and exercises the same jurisdiction, powers, and authority, in accordance with the same procedure and practice, in respect of contempt of courts subordinate to it as it has and exercises in respect of contempt of itself. However, no High Court shall take cognizance of a contempt alleged to have been committed in respect of a court subordinate to it where such contempt is an offense punishable under the Indian Penal Code, 1860.

These powers of the NCLT shall have the effect subject to the modification prescribed in Section 425 of the Companies Act, 2013, namely as under:

  • The reference to a High Court shall be construed as including a reference to the NCLT and the NCL-AT.
  • The reference to Advocate-General in section 15 of the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 shall be construed as a reference to such Law Officers as the Central Government may specify on this behalf.

Caveat: A caution registered with the public court to indicate to the officials that they are not to act in the matter mentioned in the caveat without first giving notice to the caveator.

As per Rule 20(1) of the National Company Law Tribunal Rules, 2016, every appeal or petition or application or caveat petition or objection or counter presented to the Tribunal shall be in English, and in case it is in some other Indian language, it shall be accompanied by a copy translated in English and shall be fairly and legibly type written, lithographed or printed in double spacing on one side of standard petition paper with an inner margin of about four-centimeter width on top and with a right margin of 2.5 cm, and left margin of 5 cm, duly paginated, indexed and stitched together in paper book form.

Lodging of caveat [Rule 25]: Any person may lodge a caveat in triplicate in any appeal or petition or application that may be instituted before this Tribunal by paying the prescribed fee after forwarding a copy by registered post or serving the same on the expected petitioner or appellant and the caveat shall be in the Form No. NCLT-3C and contain such details and particulars or orders or directions, details of authority against whose orders or directions the appeal or petition or application is being instituted by the expected appellant or petitioner or applicant which full address for service on another side so that the appeal or petition or application could be served before the appeal or petition or interim application is taken up.

However, the Tribunal may pass interim orders in case of urgency.

The caveat shall remain valid for a period of 90 days from the date of its filing.

Question 9.
Discuss in brief the provisions for filing an appeal before the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) under the Companies Act, 2013. [June 2019 (8 Marks)]
Answer:
Appeal from Orders of Tribunal [Section 421]:

  1. Any person aggrieved by an order of the Tribunal may prefer an appeal to the Appellate Tribunal.
  2. No appeal shall lie to the Appellate Tribunal from an order made by the Tribunal with the consent of parties.
  3. Every appeal shall be filed within a period of 45 days from the date on which a copy of the order of the Tribunal is made available to the person aggrieved and shall be in such form, and shall be accompanied by prescribed fees.
  4. The Appellate Tribunal may entertain an appeal after the expiry of the period of 45 days but within a further period not exceeding 45 days if it is satisfied that the appellant was prevented by sufficient cause from filing the appeal within that period.
  5. On the receipt of an appeal, the Appellate Tribunal shall, after giving the parties to the appeal a reasonable opportunity of being heard, pass such orders thereon as it thinks fit, confirming, modifying, or setting aside the order appealed against.
  6. The Appellate Tribunal shall send a copy of every order made by it to the Tribunal and the parties to appeal.

Question 10.
State the provisions relating to the establishment of Special Courts under the Companies Act, 2013.
Or
Describe the constitution of the Special Court established under Section 435 of the Companies Act, 2013. [Dec 2019 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Establishment of Special Courts [Section 435]: The Central Government may, for the purpose of providing speedy trial of offenses under the Act, by notification, establish or designate as many Special Courts as may be necessary.

A Special Court shall consist of:

  1. A single Judge holding office as Session or Additional Session Judge, in case of offenses punishable under the Act with imprisonment of 2 years or more.
  2. A Metropolitan Magistrate or a Judicial Magistrate of the First Class, in the case of other offenses.
  3. Such Judge or Magistrate shall be appointed by the Central Government with the concurrence of the Chief Justice of the High Courts.

Question 11.
How the proceedings of the Special Courts are conducted?
Answer:
Application of Code to proceedings before Special Court [Section 438]:
The provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 shall apply to the proceedings before a Special Court and for the purposes of the said provisions, the Special Court shall be deemed to be a Court of Session or the Court of Metropolitan Magistrate or a Judicial Magistrate of the First Class, as the case may be and the person conducting a prosecution before a Special Court shall be deemed to be a Public Prosecutor.

Question 12.
Explain the powers of Special Courts for offenses triable by it under Special Courts, Tribunal under Companies, and other legislations. [June 2019 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Offenses triable by Special Courts [Section 436 of the Companies Act, 2013]:
1. All offenses specified in Section 435(1) shall be triable only by the Special Court established for the area in which the registered office of the com¬pany in relation to which the offense is committed. Where there are more than one Special Courts offense shall be triable by such one of them as may be specified in this behalf by the High Court.

2. Where a person accused of or suspected of the commission of, an offense under the Act is forwarded to a Magistrate, such Magistrate may authorize the detention of such person in such custody as he thinks £t for a period not exceeding 15 days in the whole where such Magistrate is a Judicial Magistrate and 7 days in the whole where such Magistrate is an Executive Magistrate. However, where such Magistrate considers that the detention of such person upon or before the expiry of the period of detention is unnecessary, he shall order such person to be forwarded to the Special Court having jurisdiction.

3. The Special Court may exercise, in relation to the person forwarded to it, the same power which a Magistrate having jurisdiction to try a case may exercise u/s 167 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.

4. A Special Court may, upon perusal of the police report of the facts constituting an offense or upon a complaint on that behalf, take cognizance of that offense without the accused being committed to it for trial. When trying an offense, a Special Court may also try an offense other than an offense under the Act with which the accused may, under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 be charged at the same trial.

The Special Court may, if it thinks fit, try in a summary way any offense which is punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 years. However, in the case of any conviction in a summary trial, no sentence of imprisonment for a term exceeding 1 year shall be passed.

When at the commencement of, or in the course of, a summary trial, it appears to the Special Court that the nature of the case is such that the sentence of imprisonment for a term exceeding one year may have to be passed or that it is, for any other reason, undesirable to try the case summarily, the Special Court shall, after hearing the parties, record an order to that effect and thereafter recall any witnesses who may have been examined and proceed to hear or rehear the case in accordance with the procedure for the regular trial.

Jurisprudence, Interpretation & General Laws Questions and Answers