CA Foundation

Business Environment – CA Foundation BCK Notes Chapter 2

Business Environment – CA Foundation BCK Notes Chapter 2

Browsing through CA Foundation BCK Notes Chapter 2 Business Environment helps students to revise the complete subject quickly.

Business Environment – BCK CA Foundation Notes Chapter 2

Business enterprises do not function in isolation. They operate within charging environment. Various elements of this environment and changes in them exercise a significant influence on the working and performance of business firms

2.1 Meaning of Business Environment:
The term business environment means “the aggregate of all the forces, factors and institutions which are external to and beyond the control of an individual business enterprise but which exercise a significant influence on the functioning and growth of individual enterprises.” Keith Davis defines business environment as “the aggregate of all conditions, events and influences that surround and affect business.”

According to Bayord O. Wheeler, business environment refers to “the total of all things external to firms and industries which affect their organisation and operation”. In the words of Arthtur M. Weimer, “business environment encompasses the climate or set of conditions, economic, social, political, or institutional in which business operations are conducted”.

Thus, business environment means all those internal and external factors that have an impact on business.

Business Organizations – CA Foundation BCK Notes Chapter 3

2.2 Nature (Characteristics) of Business Environment:
Business environment is characterised by the following features:
1. Aggregative – Business environment is the totality of all the internal and external forces which influence the working and decision-making of an enterprise.

2. Inter-related – Different elements of business environment are closely inter-related and interdependent. A change in one element affects the other elements. Economic environment influences the non-economic environment which in turn affects the economic conditions.

For example, economic liberalisation in India since 1991 has opened up new opportunities for private sector and foreign entrepreneurs. Similarly, social pressures against pollution led to the enactment of anti-pollution laws. Therefore, managers should not consider environmental factors in isolation from one another. A holistic approach is necessary for proper understanding of business environment.

3. Dynamic – Business environment is dynamic in nature as it keeps on changing from time to time.

4. General and Specific Forces – Business environment consists of both general and specific forces. General forces such as economic, social, political, legal, natural and technological conditions influence all business enterprises. Specific forces such as investors, customers, competitors, suppliers, etc. affect individual enterprises directly.

5. Relative – Business environment is a relative concept. It differs from country to country and even region to region. Capitalist economies like those of USA and UK have a different kind of environment than communist economies. The nature of economic system in a country affects the environment of business.

6. Inter-temporal – Business environment is also an inter-temporal concept as it changes over time. For example, business environment in India today is much different from that prevailing before 1991. In the short run business environment may remain static. But in the long run, it does change.

7. Uncertain – Business environment is largely uncertain because it is very difficult to forecast the future environment. When the environment is volatile, i.e. changes very fast, uncertainty increases.

8. Contextual – Business environment provides the macro framework within which the business firm (a micro unit) operates. The environmental forces are largely those given within which an individual enterprise and its management must function.

Business environment exercises tremendous influence on the working and success of business firms. Different elements of business environment have different types and degrees of influence on business. A factor that has a favourable impact on one firm may adversely effect another firm.

Therefore, management of a business enterprise must have a deep understanding and appreciation of the environment. The changes taking place in environment must be continuously monitored to judge their impact on business. Appropriate and timely steps must be taken to face the environmental changes.

2.3 Significance of Business Environment:
The survival and success of any enterprise depends upon its inherent capabilities (physical, financial, human and other resources) and its ability to adapt to the changing environment.

It is very important for business firms to understand their environment and changes occurring in it. Business enterprises which know their environment and are ready to adapt to environmental changes would be successful. On the other hand, firms which fail to adapt to their environment are unlikely to survive in the long run.

For example, some Indian firms suffered considerably because they failed to appreciate the tightening regulations against environmental pollution. Knowledge of environmental changes is very helpful in the formulation and implementation of business plans. A business can obtain this knowledge through environmental scanning.

Environmental scanning is the process by which organisations monitor their relevant environment to identify opportunities and threats affecting their business. With the help of environmental scanning, an enterprise can consider the impact of different events, trends, issues and expectations on its business operations. Firms which systematically analyse and diagnose the environment are more effective than those which do not.

Some of the direct benefits of understanding the environment are given below:
(i) First Mover Advantage – Awareness of environment helps an enterprise to take advantage of early opportunities instead of losing them to competitors. For example, Maruti Suzuki became the leader in small car market because it was the first to recognise the need for small car on account of rising petroleum prices and a large middle class.

(ii) Early Warning Signal – Environmental awareness serves as an early warning signal. It makes a firm aware of the impending threat or crisis so that the firm can take timely action to minimise the adverse effects, if any.

For example, ‘when new firms entered in the mid segment cars (threat), Maruti Suzuki increased the production of its Esteem threefold. Increase in production enabled the company to make faster delivery. As a result the company captured a substantial share of the market and became a leader in this segment.

(iii) Customer Focus – Environmental understanding makes the management sensitive to the changing needs and expectations of consumers. For example, Hindustan Unilever and several other FMCG companies launched small sachets of shampoo and other products realising the wishes of customers. This move helped the firms to increase sales.

(iv) Strategy Formulation – Environmental monitoring provides relevant information about the business environment. Such information serves as the basis for strategy making. For example, ITC realised that there is a vast scope for growth in the travel and tourism industry in India and the Government is keen to promote this industry because of its employment potential. With the help of this knowledge, ITC planned new hotels both in India and abroad.

Study of environment enables an organisation to analyse its competitors’ strategies and thereby formulate effective counter strategies. All strategic decisions such as what business to do, whether to expand or reduce a business, and so on require a thorough understanding of the internal and external environment of the organisation.

(v) Change Agent – Business leaders act as agents of change. They create a drive for change at the gross root level. In order to decide the direction and nature of change, the leaders need to understand the aspirations of people and other environmental forces through environmental scanning. For example, contemporary environment requires prompt decision-making and power to people. Therefore, business leaders are increasingly delegating authority to empower their staff and to eliminate procedural delays.

(vi) Public Image – A business firm can improve its image by showing that it is sensitive to its en-vironment and responsive to the aspirations of public. Leading firms like Reliance Industries, ICICI Bank and others have built good image by being sensitive and responsive to environmental forces. Environmental understanding enables business to be responsive to their environment.

(vii) Continuous Learning – Environmental analysis serves as broad based and ongoing education for business executives. It keeps them in touch with the changing scenario so that they are never caught unaware. With the help of environmental learning managers can react in an appropriate manner and thereby increase the success of their organisations. Knowledge of changing environment can keep the organisation dynamic in its approach.

There are two major components of business environment-micro and macro.

Business Organizations – CA Foundation BCK Notes Chapter 3

2.4 Meaning and Elements of Micro Environment:
Micro environment or task environment refers to those individuals, groups and agencies with which the organisations comes into direct and frequent contact in the course of its functioning. In the words of Philip Kotler, “micro environment consists of the actors in company’s immediate environment that affect the performance of the company.” Micro environmental factors exercise a direct and intimate influence on the operations of the enterprise. Therefore, it is also known as Direct Action Environment or specific forces or Stakeholders.

Micro environment consists of the groups in the company’s immediate operating environment which have a stake in the company. However, the micro forces may not influence all the firms in a particular industry in the same manner.

For example, one firm’s supplier environment may be entirely different from that of another firm which has in house supplies. Even when all the competing firms in an industry have similar micro environment, their relative success depends on how effectively they face the micro forces.

Micro environment consists of the following elements:
1. Customers – The people who buy a firm’s products and services are its customers. A business exists to create and satisfy customers. A firm may have different types of customers like individuals, households, Government departments, commercial establishments, etc. For example, the customers of a paper company may include students, teachers, educational institutions, business firms and other users of stationery.
Business Environment – CA Foundation BCK Notes Chapter 2 1
In order to be successful a company must understand and meet the needs and expectations of its customers. A firm can select the target customer group or market segment on the basis of factors like profitability, elasticity of demand, dependability, degree of competition and growth prospects.

It is generally risky to depend upon a single customer group. The customer environment is becoming global due to increasing globalisation and liberalisation of the economy. With the opening up of Indian market and foreign markets, the customer is becoming more global in the matter of shopping.

2. Competitors – A company may have both direct and indirect competitors. Direct competitors are the other firms which offer the same or similar products and services. For example, Sony TV faces direct competition from other brands like LG, Samsung, Onida, Videocon, BPL, etc.

Indirect competition comes from firms vying for discretionary income. For example, a cinema house, faces indirect competition from Casino, and other firms marketing entertainment. Due to economic liberalisation and globalisation, Indian companies are now facing competition from both domestic firms and multinational corporations. In order to understand the full range of its competition, a company must look at from buyers viewpoint.

3. Suppliers – Suppliers refer to the people and groups who supply raw materials and components to the company. Reliable sources of supply enable the company to carry on uninterrupted operations and to minimise inventory carrying costs. Suppliers also influence quality levels and costs of manufacturing. It is very risky to depend on a single supplier.

A strike or any other production problem of the supplier may cause interruptions in manufacturing. Therefore, it is advisable to develop and sustain multiple sources of supply. Some companies like Maruti Suzuki undertake vendor development to ensure timely and regular supply of materials and parts. The relationship between the suppliers and the firm reflects a power equation which is based on the extent to which each of them is dependent on the other.

4. Marketing Intermediaries – Several marketing intermediaries help a company in promoting, selling and distributing its products to consumers. Middlemen like agents, wholesalers, and retailers serve as a link between the company and its customers.

Transportation firms and warehouses assist in the physical distribution of products. Advertising agencies, marketing research agencies and insurance companies are other types of marketing intermediaries. Countrywide retail distribution network has contributed significantly to the success of companies like Hindustan Unilever and Dabur India.

5. Financiers – The shareholders, financial institutions, debenture holders and banks provide finance to a company. Financial capacity, policies and attitudes of financiers are important factors for the company. For example, the company cannot raise funds through shares if the financiers are not risk taking.

6. Publics – Publics include all those groups who have an actual or potential, interest in the company or who influence the company’s ability to achieve its objectives. Media groups, environmentalists, non-government organisations (NGOs), consumer associations and local community are examples of publics.

These publics can have both positive and negative impact on a business firm. For example, media groups can be used to disseminate useful information. A company can cooperate with the local people to improve its image as well as to provide some benefit to the people.

On the negative side, local community concerned with public health can force a company to suspend operations or to take pollution control measures. Non- government organisations often organise protests against firms suspected of being guilty for child labour, cruelty against animals and damage to nature.

For example, one of the leading companies in India was attacked by the media for writing advertisements on rocks near a famous hill station. Such activities of publics can tarnish the image of business.

7. Workers and Trade Union – Workers and their union are an important component of micro environment. A firm’s relations with its workers and trade union have a significant impact on its functioning and performance. Company’s work environment and industrial relations system must be conducive to efficient functioning.

According to Philip Kotler, “companies must put their primary energy into effectively managing their relationships with their customers, distributors and suppliers. Their overall success will be affected by how other publics in the society view their activity. Companies would be wise to spend time monitoring all their public, understanding their needs and opinions and dealing with them constructively.”

Business Organizations – CA Foundation BCK Notes Chapter 3

2.5 Meaning and Elements of Macro Environment:
Macro environment refers to the general environment or remote environment within which a business firm and forces in its micro environment operate. A company does not directly or regularly interact with the macro environment. Therefore, macro environment is also known as Indirect Action Environment. Forces in the macro environment, however, create opportunities for and pose threats to the company.

The macro environment forces are less controllable than the micro forces. Therefore, success of an enterprise depends on its ability to adapt to the macro environment. For example, when there is a substantial increase in the cost of imported raw materials due to depreciation of the Rupee, production of such materials within the country may become necessary.

Macro environment consists of the following components:

  • Demographic environment
  • Political and legal environment
  • Social and cultural environment
  • Economic environment
  • Technological environment
  • Natural environment
  • Global environment.

1. Demographic Environment: Demographic environment means various dimensions of country’s population. The demographic environment is important to business because people constitute the market for a business. Moreover, business management involves management of people and the efficiency of business depends largely on the competence and motivation of its people.

Business firms often use demographic factors (e.g., age, sex, family size, occupation, family life cycle, education, social class, income distribution) as the basis of market segmentation. The demographic environment differs from country to country and from one place to another within a country.

The demographic factors which have very significant implications for business are as follows:

  • Size and growth rate of population,
  • Age and sex composition of population,
  • Life expectancy,
  • Rate of employment,
  • Density of population,
  • Rural urban distribution,
  • Family size,
  • Ethnic composition,
  • Literacy levels, and
  • Income levels.

2. Economic Environment – The economic environment comprises all those economic forces which influence the functioning of business enterprises, e.g., the nature and structure of the economy, the stage of economic development, economic resources, the level of income, economic policies, distribution of income, etc.

The main components of economic environment are as follows:

  • The nature of economic system-capitalist, socialist or mixed economy.
  • Economic structure-occupational distribution of labour force, structure of national output, capital formation, investment pattern, composition of trade, balance/imbalance between different sectors, five year plans.
  • Economic policies-industrial policy, export-import policy, monetary policy, fiscal policy, for-eign investment and technology policy.
  • Organisation and development of the capital market-banking system, securities markets, etc.
  • Economic indices-gross national product, per capita income, rate of savings and investment, price level, balance of payments position, interest rates, etc.
  • Economic infrastructure and stage of development of the economy.
  • Product markets and factor markets-degree of competition, market size, etc.

3. Political and Legal Environment – Political environment comprises the elements relating to Government affairs. It serves as the regulatory framework of business. The main constituents of a country’s political and legal environment are as follows:

  • The constitution of the country.
  • Political organisation-organisation and philosophy of political parties, ideology of the Government, nature and extent of bureaucracy, influence of primary groups, business donations to political parties, political consciousness, etc.
  • Political stability-structure of military and police force, election system, law and order situation, President’s Rule, foreign infiltrations, secessionist activities, etc.
  • Image of the country and its leaders.
  • Foreign policy-alignment or non-alignment, relations with neighbouring countries.
  • Defence and military policy.
  • Laws governing business, and legal system.
  • Flexibility and adaptability of laws-constitutional amendments and direction of public policies. (ix) The judicial system-implementation and effectiveness of laws.

4. Social and Cultural Environment – Social environment refers to the characteristics of the society in which a business firm exists. Social and cultural environment consists of the following:

  • Social institutions and groups.
  • Caste structure and family organisation.
  • Educational system and literacy rates.
  • Customs, attitudes, beliefs, values and life styles.
  • Tastes, preferences of people, and their buying behaviour.
  • Religions, etc.

Family, marriage, education, religion, attitudes to work and wealth and ethics are some examples of socio-cultural factors.
Business Environment – CA Foundation BCK Notes Chapter 2 2

5. Technological and Physical Environment – The main elements of technological and physical environment are the following:

  • Sources and types of technology.
  • Rate of technological change*.
  • Approaches to production of goods and services.
  • New processes and equipment.
  • Research and Development (R&D) systems.

6. Natural Environment – The main natural forces are as follows:

  • Climatic and geographical conditions.
  • Agricultural, commercial and other natural resources.
  • Ecological system.
  • Levels of pollution.

7. Global Environment – International agencies (World Bank, IMF, WTO, EEC, etc.), international conventions, treaties and agreements, economic and business conditions in other countries, etc. Certain developments such as a hike in the crude oil price have global impact. Developments in information and communication technologies facilitate rapid spread of culture across countries. E

conomic conditions abroad affect Indian firms. For example, exports increase when markets expand abroad. International political factors can also affect business. For example, improvements in relations between India and Pakistan has led to higher trade between the two countries. WTO regulations have far reaching impact on business in India. Import and investment liberalisation by WTO has led to greater competition in India.

The main determinants of international environment are as follows:

  • The state of the world economy and distribution of world output.
  • International economic cooperation.
  • International market structure and competition.
  • Barriers to international trade and investment.
  • National economic policies of different countries.
  • Role of multilateral economic institutions.
  • International economic laws, treaties, agreements, codes and practices.
  • Political system and conditions in different countries.
  • Cultural factors in different countries.
  • Growth and transfer of technology.
  • Growth and spread of multinationals.

CA Foundation BCK Chapter 1 MCQ with Answers – Business and Commercial Knowledge: An Introduction

Students should practice CA Foundation BCK Chapter 1 MCQ with Answers Business and Commercial Knowledge: An Introduction – CA Foundation BCK MCQ Questions based on the latest syllabus.

BCK CA Foundation Chapter 1 MCQ Questions – Business and Commercial Knowledge: An Introduction

1. On the basis of activities as a domain, the list does not include:
(a) Manufacturing
(b) Trading
(c) Commerce and Services
(d) Human Resource
Answer:
(d) Human Resource

2. On the basis of functions as a BCK domain, the list includes:
(a) Production
(b) Accounting, Finance and Taxa-tion
(c) Human Resource
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

3. Economic laws, philosophy, Psychology, Sociology, etc. are related with the BCK domain:
(a) Mode
(b) Scale
(c) Underlying disciplines
(d) Focus
Answer:
(c) Underlying disciplines

CA Foundation BCK Chapter 1 MCQ with Answers – Business and Commercial Knowledge: An Introduction

4. As per Oxford online dictionary, a specified sphere of knowledge is called as ________.
(a) Business and Commercial Knowledge
(b) Domain
(c) Principle
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) Domain

5. Business and Commercial Knowledge as a domain is :
(a) Vast
(b) Eclectic
(c) Ever-evolving and expanding
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

6. In case of business, the range of activities includes manufacturing, trading, services, retail & domestic trade, door to door selling, malls, weekly haats, etc. Therefore, BCK is.
(a) Vast
(b) Eclectic
(c) Ever-evolving and expanding
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) Vast

7. BCK has derived from various dis-ciplines like marketing, accounting & finance, operations, human behaviour, laws, economics, ethics, etc. Therefore, BCK is.
(a) Eclectic
(b) Uni-disciplinary
(c) Bi-disciplinary
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) Eclectic

8. The businesses draw their strategies to beat their competitors. BCK has adapted the term “Strategy” from which of the following original discipline?
(a) Military
(b) Biology
(c) Chemistry
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Military

9. The BCK Vocabulary includes “Bulls & Bears”. These have been taken from the discipline:
(a) Military
(b) Biology
(c) Chemistry
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Biology

10. The information and communication technology has introduced several terms in the lexicon of BCK e.g. 24 X 7, B2B, B2C, etc. The impact of this evolution is the decline and demise of old businesses and newer ways of doing the business. On this basis, it can be said that BCK is.
(a) Vast
(b) Multi-disciplinary
(c) Eclectic
(d) Even-evolving and expanding.
Answer:
(d) Even-evolving and expanding.

11. The Chartered Accountants are responsible for putting in place a credible system of truthful and fair accounting and reporting of the society’s resources, their deployment and utilisation. Hence, the Chartered Accountants are the ________ of a nations resources.
(a) Custodians
(b) Investigators
(c) Supervisors
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Custodians

12. The BCK is important for the Chartered Accountants (CA). Which of the following Statement(s) is/are correct in this regard?
(a) The CA cannot develop notions of cost, inventory, revenue, profit is, etc. in case of FMCG business.
(b) The CA’s shall be able to conduct audit diligently only when they understand the nuances of the corresponding business.
(c) The knowledge of law is not re-quired to CA
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) The CA’s shall be able to conduct audit diligently only when they understand the nuances of the corresponding business.

CA Foundation BCK Chapter 1 MCQ with Answers – Business and Commercial Knowledge: An Introduction

13. According to the English Journalist Joseph Rudyard Kipling, each one of us have six honest servants. These are ________.
(a) What, why, when, how, where & who.
(b) Honesty, Integrity, diligence, loyalty, truthfulness & positive.
(c) Technology, Service, education, mental level, background & Finance.
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) What, why, when, how, where & who.

14. Which of the following is not a business magazine?
(a) Business word.
(b) Business Today.
(c) India Forbes.
(d) Hindu’s Year Book.
Answer:
(d) Hindu’s Year Book.

15. Which of the following is not a business Channel?
(a) CNBC TV 18
(h) ETNow
(c) NDTV Profit
(d) SAB TV
Answer:
(d) SAB TV

16. Which of the following is not an economic objective of the firm?
(a) Sales growth
(b) Improvement in market share
(c) Profits and return on investment
(d) Conservation of natural resources
Answer:
(a) Sales growth

17. Economic, Activities are driven cause of ________?
(a) Self-Interest
(b) Self-less motive
(c) Human welfare
(d) Self satisfaction
Answer:
(a) Self-Interest

18. Which of the following statements characterizes the best non-economic activities?
(a) Non-economic activities do not require any investment of re-sources
(b) These activities do not entail any operational costs
(c) These activities are undertaken by ascetics
(d) The underlying purpose of these activities is not earning of a livelihood but social, psychological or spiritual satisfaction.
Answer:
(d) The underlying purpose of these activities is not earning of a livelihood but social, psychological or spiritual satisfaction.

19. Usually non-economic activities are driven by the reasons:
(a) Emotional
(b) Sentimental
(c) Altruism
(d) Any of the above
Answer:
(d) Any of the above

20. The economic activities are dis-tinguishable merely by the present of motive.
(a) Livelihood
(b) Emotional
(c) Altruism
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) Livelihood

21. Which of the following is economic activity?
(a) Social, religions & cultural
(b) Personal & recreational
(c) Charity and patriotic
(d) Self-interest & rationality of what do I get in return.
Answer:
(d) Self-interest & rationality of what do I get in return.

22. Which of the following statement is false in respect of non-economic actinides?
(a) These can never have an economic dimension.
(b) These are not for livelihood motive.
(c) These are for selfless consent (i.e. altruism)
(d) These are for charity, patriotic, social, religious, etc.
Answer:
(a) These can never have an economic dimension.

23. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Economic Activities?
(a) Income generating.
(b) Productive.
(c) Saving, investment & wealth
(d) Personal satisfaction only.
Answer:
(d) Personal satisfaction only.

CA Foundation BCK Chapter 1 MCQ with Answers – Business and Commercial Knowledge: An Introduction

24. From the broader perspective, ________ may be defined as an economic activity comprising the entire spectrum of activities pertaining to production, distribution and trading (Exchange) of goods and Services.
(a) Business
(b) Employment
(c) Profession
(d) Economy
Answer:
(a) Business

25. The extraction of edible oil from rice bran, mustard, coconut, Soyboan, etc. represents:
(a) Pure agriculture
(b) Agro-based industries.
(c) Business
(d) Retail industry.
Answer:
(b) Agro-based industries.

26. Identify the economic activity:
(a) Cooking of food by the home-maker.
(b) Playing of piano as a hobby.
(c) Employment in a charitable or-ganisation.
(d) Exercising in a park.
Answer:
(c) Employment in a charitable or-ganisation.

27. Economic activities do not include ________.
(a) Profit earning
(b) Emotional sentimental
(c) Self interest
(d) Livelihood motive
Answer:
(b) Emotional sentimental

28. Identify which are of the following is economic activity?
(a) Cooking of food by Mr. X in a restaurant.
(b) Giving private tuitions.
(c) Dabbawalla picks up the food from home & delivers it to the office.
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

29. Usually non-economic activities are driver by the reasons:
(a) Emotional
(b) Sentimental
(c) Altruism
(d) Any of the above
Answer:
(d) Any of the above

30. Identify non-economic activity:
(a) Music Composer.
(b) Ice Cream Vendor.
(c) Cycle repair shop.
(d) Elder sibling assisting the younger one in studies.
Answer:
(d) Elder sibling assisting the younger one in studies.

31. Transfer of interest is possible in:
(a) Business
(b) Profession
(c) Employment
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) Business

32. Professional codes are used as the ethnical guidance in case of:
(a) Business
(b) Profession
(c) Employment
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) Profession

33. Letter of appointment and service agreement are the mode of establishment in case of
(a) Business
(b) Profession
(c) Employment
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Employment

CA Foundation BCK Chapter 1 MCQ with Answers – Business and Commercial Knowledge: An Introduction

34. Consider the following table showing columns for the nature of economic occupation and the corresponding characterization of income. And, then, choose the right solution option from the alternatives given below the table.
(a) i-c; ii-d; iii-e; iv-a; v-b
(b) i-b; ii-c; iii-d; iv-e; v-a
(c) i-b; ii-e; iii-a; iv-d; v-c
(d) i-c; ii-d; iii-e; iv-a; v-b
Answer:
(c) i-b; ii-e; iii-a; iv-d; v-c

35. The attribute of a profession does not include.
(a) Certificate of service from government
(b) Self imposed code of conduct
(c) Rendering of specialised nature of services
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) Certificate of service from gov-ernment

36. The periodic compensation, in case of employment, refers to:
(a) Wages
(b) Salaries
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) Lump Sum amount payable on retirement.
Answer:
(c) Both (a) & (b)

37. Business as a Institution is ________.
(a) Job creator
(b) Job seeker
(c) Both
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Job creator

38. The entire spectrum of market oriented activities coming under industry, trade and commerce is ________.
(a) Business
(b) Profession
(c) Employment
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) Business

39. Which of the following is organic objective of business?
(a) Fitness of Human Resources
(b) Community Service
(c) Effective waste handling and disposal
(d) Economic Value Added
Answer:
(a) Fitness of Human Resources

40. The source of livelihood in case of business is:
(a) Professional fee
(b) Profit
(c) Wages
(d) Salaries.
Answer:
(b) Profit

41. The occupation in which people work for others and get remunerated in return is known as:
(a) Business
(b) Employment
(c) Profession
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Employment

42. Which of the following statements distinguishes business from entrepre-neurship?
(a) Entrepreneurs are the business owners too
(b) All business owners are entrepreneurs too
(c) Entrepreneurs seek out new op-portunities and pursue innovative business ideas
(d) (a) and (b)
Answer:
(c) Entrepreneurs seek out new op-portunities and pursue innovative business ideas

43. Which are of the following does not require any investment?
(a) Small business
(b) Business
(c) Profession
(d) Employment.
Answer:
(d) Employment.

44. The Logo of Institute of Chartered Accountants of India (ICAI) is suggestive of ________.
(a) Integrity
(b) Vigilance
(c) Profession
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Vigilance

45. The Micro, Small, Medium and Large Enterprises are defined with respect to the:
(a) Number of employees
(b) Number of Products
(c) Area Served
(d) Size of investment.
Answer:
(d) Size of investment.

46. Which of the following occupations requires rendering of services based upon specialised knowledge and membership of an accreditation and assessment body?
(a) Employment
(b) Profession
(c) Business
(d) Agriculture
Answer:
(b) Profession

47. In which of the following case, the qualifications are strictly prescribed?
(a) Business
(b) Profession
(c) Employment
(d) Trading
Answer:
(b) Profession

48. Which of the following statement is false as regards profession?
(a) It is rendering of services of a specialized nature.
(b) Prescribed qualifications.
(c) Works under a certificate of practice from an established certification.
(d) The Source of livelihood is profit.
Answer:
(d) The Source of livelihood is profit.

49. Trading implies buying for the pur-poses of selling. Applying this criterion, tell which of the following activities would not qualify as trading?
(a) Purchase of goods in bulk quantity from the manufacturer and sale in smaller quantities to the retailers.
(b) Buying from the wholesaler and selling it to the consumers.
(c) Buying from the retailer for selfconsumption.
(d) Purchase of raw materials from the suppliers for further processing in the factory.
Answer:
(c) Buying from the retailer for selfconsumption.

CA Foundation BCK Chapter 1 MCQ with Answers – Business and Commercial Knowledge: An Introduction

50. Which one of following is true, in economics and finance?
(a) Risk and uncertainty are synonymous.
(b) Risk can be calculated in advance but not uncertainty.
(c) Uncertainty can be calculated but not rise.
(d) Under uncertainties, Risk must be zero.
Answer:
(b) Risk can be calculated in advance but not uncertainty.

51. Sustainable development/businesses imply:
(a) Consistent economic performance
(b) Attention to social problems
(c) Harmony with nature
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

52. ________ Suggests that business must be assessed not only in terms of their economic returns but also on the basis of their social and ecological returns.
(a) The objectives of business.
(b) The Plurality of Business.
(c) The vision of Business.
(d) The mission of Business.
Answer:
(b) The Plurality of Business.

53. The choice of an appropriate form of business organization depends upon:
(i) Ease of formation
(ii) Liability of aspects
(iii) Capital adequacy
(a) Only I
(b) Onlvm
(c) i&m
(d) I, n & m
Answer:
(d) I, n & m

54. On the basis of size and scale of the activity undertaken, business may be classified as:
(a) Micro, Small, medium & large.
(b) Public and Private.
(c) Big and Small.
(d) Small Scale and Large Scale.
Answer:
(a) Micro, Small, medium & large.

55. Business ownership is a bundle of ________.
(a) Benefits.
(b) Rights.
(c) Obligations.
(d) Advantages.
Answer:
(b) Rights.

56. The shared ownership is beneficial because.
(a) There is sharing of risks.
(b) There is sharing of Profits.
(c) There is sharing of Benefits.
(d) There is sharing of Expenses.
Answer:
(a) There is sharing of risks.

57. ________ form of business is/are appropriate for retail business.
(a) Sole proprietorship
(b) Partnership
(c) Company
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b)

CA Foundation BCK Chapter 1 MCQ with Answers – Business and Commercial Knowledge: An Introduction

58. Which form of business organisation has a separate legal entity?
(a) Hindu Undivided Family (HUF)
(b) Co-operative society
(c) Partnership firm
(d) Sole proprietorship.
Answer:
(b) Co-operative society

59. Which of the following Statement is incorrect?
(a) The Business ownership accrues because a person has invested money in it.
(b) A business may be owned single or jointly.
(c) Business may be organized as a Proprietary concern or a Corpo-rate concern.
(d) Joint family business is not a business.
Answer:
(d) Joint family business is not a business.

60. In case of ________, there is a separation of ownership and management.
(a) Sole Proprietorship.
(b) Partnership.
(c) Co-ownership.
(d) Company.
Answer:
(d) Company.

61. The choice of an appropriate form of business organisation largely depends upon:
(I) Ease of formation
(II) Continuity and stability
(III) Liability aspects
Correct option is –
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I and III
(d) I, II and ID.
Answer:
(d) I, II and ID.

62. Which of the following is not a form of organisation?
(a) Partnership
(b) Company
(c) Partners
(d) Sole Proprietorship
Answer:
(c) Partners

63. The size of structure of business depend on many factors which (are):
(a) In the control of enterprises
(b) Arbitrary and random
(c) Range from internal to external factors which are beyond the control of enterprises
(d) Beyond the control of enterprises.
Answer:
(a) In the control of enterprises

64. Which of the following Statement is incorrect as regards Corporate form?
(a) Life of business is entwined with the life of owner.
(b) Business is a Separate legal per-son.
(c) The life of business in independent from the lives of its owners.
(d) The business has distinct name.
Answer:
(a) Life of business is entwined with the life of owner.

65. The choice of form of business organisation depends upon:
(a) Funds required.
(b) Nature of Product.
(c) Risk Involved.
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

66. Which one of the following does not have perpetual succession?
(a) Company
(b) Statutory Corporation
(c) Sole Proprietorship
(d) Co-operative Society
Answer:
(c) Sole Proprietorship

67. Sole proprietary business is suitable when market is:
(a) Non Existent
(b) National
(c) Local
(d) Global
Answer:

68. Which are of the following is the easiest and earliest form of business as a human occupation?
(a) Sole Proprietorship
(b) Co-ownership
(c) Partnership
(d) Company
Answer:
(a) Sole Proprietorship

CA Foundation BCK Chapter 1 MCQ with Answers – Business and Commercial Knowledge: An Introduction

69. Which of the following form of enterprise are the largest in India?
(a) Sole Proprietorship.
(b) Partnership.
(c) Company.
(d) LLP
Answer:
(a) Sole Proprietorship.

70. In relation to business organization structure, which one of the following is easy to form and wind up?
(a) A company
(b) A sole proprietorship
(c) Statutory corporation
(d) Public enterprises.
Answer:
(b) A sole proprietorship

71. In which of the following form of business organisation, the entrepreneur is regarded as economic hero who organizes production, uses creativity and ingenuity in innovation, bears risks and uncertainty.
(a) Sole Proprietorship.
(b) Partnership.
(c) Company.
(d) LLP
Answer:
(a) Sole Proprietorship.

72. Which of the following statements describes the best Joint Hindu/Hindu Undivided Family (HUF) Business?
(a) It is a form of business particular to and recognized as such in India
(b) Every family business is in fact a HUF Business
(c) In HUF businesses, there is a family involvement in business
(d) Either (a) or (c)
Answer:
(d) Either (a) or (c)

73. Members of HUF are known as ________.
(a) Partners
(b) Shareholders
(c) Members
(d) Co-parceners
Answer:
(d) Co-parceners

74. Head of HUF is known as ________.
(a) Karta
(b) Co-parceners
(c) Manager
(d) Head
Answer:
(a) Karta

75. In HUF:
(a) Liability of Karta is limited
(b) No liability of Karta
(c) Liability of Karta is unlimited
(d) Liability of everyone is unlimited
Answer:
(c) Liability of Karta is unlimited

76. HUF ________ be formed by a group of people who do not constitute a family.
(a) Cannot
(b) Can
(c) Should not
(d) May
Answer:
(a) Cannot

77. As per Income Tax Act, HUF is a Separate Entity from the joint family that comprises it. Therefore, HUF cannot earn income from which of the following source?
(a) Salary.
(b) House Property.
(c) Business and Profession.
(d) Capital Gain.
Answer:
(a) Salary.

78. The definition of HUF includes:
(a) Buddhist
(b) Jain & Parsi.
(c) Sikh.
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

79. ________ Successive generations of an undivided family are known as HUF.
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four.
Answer:
(c) Three

80. HUF can comprise members of a:
(a) Hindu & Sikh family
(b) Parsi family
(c) Buddhist family
(d) Muslim family
Answer:
(d) Muslim family

81. In a Hindu Undivided Family, liability of ________ is unlimited.
(a) Karta
(b) Co-parceners
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) and (b)
Answer:
(a) Karta

CA Foundation BCK Chapter 1 MCQ with Answers – Business and Commercial Knowledge: An Introduction

82. The Karta is Joint Hindu Family business has:
(a) Unlimited liability
(b) Joint liability
(c) Limited liability
(d) No liability for debts.
Answer:
(a) Unlimited liability

83. Who can be the head of Joint Hindu Family business?
(a) Karta
(b) Co-parcener
(c) Manager
(d) Director
Answer:
(a) Karta

84. Liability of other Co-parceners are:
(a) Limited upto the extent of share except Karta
(b) Unlimited upto the extent of share except Karta
(c) Unlimited
(d) Limited
Answer:
(a) Limited upto the extent of share except Karta

85. The liability of each member of the Hindu Undivided Family business is:
(a) Limited to a sum as declared by him in general public
(b) Unlimited
(c) Limited to the extent of his share in the business except karta.
(d) Limited to the extent of his share in the business including that of karta.
Answer:
(c) Limited to the extent of his share in the business except karta.

86. Which is not a merit of LLP?
(a) Designated partners have to do all compliance
(b) Separate Legal entity
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) Designated partners have to do all compliance

87. Income tax Act, HUF cannot card which type of ________.
(a) Profit
(b) Salary
(c) House Property
(d) Other Sources.
Answer:
(b) Salary

88. Which of the following is correct?
(a) Max. No. of members is 50 in case of private limited company.
(b) Freely transferable shares in case of private limited company.
(c) Max. No. of members-200 in case of private limited company.
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Max. No. of members-200 in case of private limited company.

89. In case of Hindu Undivided Family, the individual share of each coparcener:
(a) Depends upon his efficiency
(b) Keeps charging on the death or birth of coparcener
(c) Is fixed
(d) Keeps changing annually
Answer:
(c) Is fixed

90. Which of the following statement is correct with respect to HUF ________.
(a) HUF earns income from salary
(b) Four successive generations of an undivided family
(c) HUF enjoys a separate entity status under Income Tax Act, 1961
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) HUF enjoys a separate entity status under Income Tax Act, 1961

91. In case of HUF what are liabilities of Coparcener and Karta ________.
(a) Both have unlimited liability.
(b) Coparcener’s Lability is limited while Karta’s liability is unlimited.
(c) Karta’s liability is limited while Coparcener’s liability is unlimited.
(d) Both have limited liability.
Answer:
(b) Coparcener’s Lability is limited while Karta’s liability is unlimited.

92. Which of the following is part of HUF?
(a) Hindu and Sikh Family
(b) Parsi Family
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

93. A partnership may be formed to carry on:
(a) Any trade
(b) Occupation
(c) Profession
(d) Social enterprise
Answer:
(d) Social enterprise

94. Which of the following is not a necessary feature of partnership?
(a) Sharing of Profit
(b) Sharing of losses
(c) Agency between partners
(d) Business Purpose
Answer:
(b) Sharing of losses

95. The agreement between partners must be ________.
(a) Verbal only
(b) Written only
(c) May be verbal or written
(d) In electronic form only.
Answer:
(c) May be verbal or written

CA Foundation BCK Chapter 1 MCQ with Answers – Business and Commercial Knowledge: An Introduction

96. To form a partnership, the mini-mum capital contribution should be:
(a) Rs. 1 Lakh
(b) There is no minimum limit
(c) Rs. 1 Crore
(d) Rs. 5 Lakh.
Answer:
(b) There is no minimum limit

97. ________ is a feature of partnership form of business.
(a) Separate legal entity from the firm
(b) Limited scope for raising finance
(c) The liability of a partner is limited to his contribution to capital
(d) Registration of partnership is compulsory
Answer:
(b) Limited scope for raising finance

98. There can be partnership between:
(a) Natural persons
(b) Artificial persons
(c) Partnership firms
(d) Any combination of natural and artificial persons
Answer:
(c) Partnership firms

99. The registration of partnership firm is:
(a) Compulsory
(b) Mandatory
(c) Statutorily required
(d) Optional.
Answer:
(d) Optional.

100. Which of the following is the feature of partnership?
(a) Agreement
(b) Unlimited liability
(c) Mutual Agency
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

101. Which of the following is not a feature of LLP?
(a) Every partner is agent of LLP
(b) Legal entity separate from its partners
(c) Registrar of firm is the administering authority
(d) No limit on maximum No. of partners
Answer:
(c) Registrar of firm is the administering authority

102. Which is not a feature of LLP?
(a) Separate legal entity.
(b) All LLP have existence for fixed period.
(c) Partnership in an LLP is required to turn into an agreement.
(d) In an LLP, partners are not liable for the act of other partners.
Answer:
(b) All LLP have existence for fixed period.

103. ________ is the hybrid form of business organisation which contains the features of both the corporate from as well as proprietary form of business organisation.
(a) Partnership
(b) Company
(c) Sole Proprietorship
(d) Limited Liability partnership.
Answer:
(d) Limited Liability partnership.

104. ________ oversees the governance of the LLP.
(a) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
(b) State Government
(c) SEBI
(d) FEMA
Answer:
(a) Ministry of Corporate Affairs

105. Which one of the following is treated as a separate legal entity Afferent from its members?
(a) Sole proprietorship
(b) Hindu undivided family
(c) Partnership
(d) Limited liability partnership.
Answer:
(d) Limited liability partnership.

106. Which of the following is incorrect as regards LLP?
(a) Incorporation is mandatory
(b) No personal liability of partners except in case of fraud.
(c) ROC is the administrating authority
(d) The minimum number of members required is seven.
Answer:
(d) The minimum number of members required is seven.

107. What is the liability of each partner under LLP?
(a) Limited
(b) Unlimited
(c) Partially Limited
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Limited

108. Which amongst the following is a feature of LLP?
(a) Separate legal entity
(b) Unlimited liability
(c) No perpetual succession
(d) Not a body corporate
Answer:
(a) Separate legal entity

CA Foundation BCK Chapter 1 MCQ with Answers – Business and Commercial Knowledge: An Introduction

109. Which corporation has both characteristics i.e. of a partnership and of a separate legal entity?
(a) Limited Liability Partnership (LLP)
(b) Company
(c) Partnership
(d) Statutory Body.
Answer:
(a) Limited Liability Partnership (LLP)

110. Limited Liability Partnership is constituted under ________.
(a) The Companies Act, 2013
(b) Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008
(c) Partnership Act, 1932
(d) None is applicable.
Answer:
(b) Limited Liability Partnership Act, 2008

111. In case of LLP.
(a) Every partner is agent of Firm only.
(b) Every partner is agent of other partners only.
(c) Every partner is agent of both firm and other partners.
(d) Every partner is not an agent at all
Answer:
(b) Every partner is agent of other partners only.

111A. What is the maximum No. of partners in case of LLP?
(a) 02
(b) 50
(c) 07
(d) No Limit.
Answer:
(a) 02

112. LLP has:
(a) Liability of Partners
(b) In case of fraud, liability of partners becomes unlimited
(c) It was incorporated under LLP Act, 2009
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.

113. When FERA is converted into a FEMA:
(a) 1934
(b) 1928
(c) 1999
(d) 1997
Answer:
(c) 1999

114. In order to make the system of diffused ownership of joint stock companies and their management work, ________ provides an elaborate system of corporate functioning.
(a) Companies Act, 2013
(b) Competition Act, 2002
(c) SEBI Act, 1992
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Companies Act, 2013

115. The Companies Act, 2013 provides registration for ________.
(a) One person company
(b) Small company
(c) Defunct company
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

116. The Indian Companies Act provides for the registration of:
(a) Private Limited and Public Company
(b) One Person Company and Small Company
(c) Defunct Company
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

CA Foundation BCK Chapter 1 MCQ with Answers – Business and Commercial Knowledge: An Introduction

117. CSR stands for:
(a) Cash Security Ratio
(b) Cash Supply Ratio
(c) Corporate Social Responsibility
(d) Consumer Satisfaction Ratio
Answer:
(c) Corporate Social Responsibility

118. Gas Authority of India Limited is an example of:
(a) Limited liability partnership
(b) Private limited company
(c) Public enterprise
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(c) Public enterprise

119. The affairs of a company is over-seen by:
(a) Shareholders
(b) Employees
(c) Board of Directors
(d) Dividend Holders.
Answer:
(c) Board of Directors

120. The objectives of the Company can be traced from which of the following document?
(a) Memorandum of Association
(b) Articles of Association
(c) Prospectus
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(a) Memorandum of Association

121. The company solicits Capital Contribution by the issue of ________.
(a) Memorandum of Association
(b) Articles of Association
(c) Prospectus
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Prospectus

122. The Indian Corporate sector is numerically dominated by ________ Companies.
(a) Public
(b) Private
(c) Government
(d) Small
Answer:
(b) Private

123. ________ has been the most recently introduced from of business organisation in India vide “The Companies Act, 2013”.
(a) One Person Company
(b) Private Company
(c) Public Company
(d) Defunct Company
Answer:
(a) One Person Company

124. As per Companies Act, 2013, ________ company be created for a future project or to hold an asset or intellectual property and has no Significant accounting transactions.
(a) Small Company
(b) Dormant Company
(c) Gestation Company
(d) Deferred Company
Answer:
(b) Dormant Company

125. Which of the following document of the company focuses on its internal regulation?
(a) Memorandum of Association
(b) Article of Association
(c) Prospectus
(d) Agreement
Answer:
(b) Article of Association

126. The minimum number of members in case of Private and Public companies are & respectively.
(a) 02 and 05
(b) 05 and 07
(c) 02 and 07
(d) 02 and 10
Answer:
(c) 02 and 07

127. What is the minimum number of directors in case of public companies?
(a) 01
(b) 02
(c) 03
(d) 07
Answer:
(c) 03

Government Policies for Business Growth – CA Foundation BCK Notes Chapter 4

Browsing through CA Foundation BCK Notes Chapter 4 Government Policies for Business Growth helps students to revise the complete subject quickly.

Government Policies for Business Growth – BCK CA Foundation Notes Chapter 4

India faced foreign exchange crises in 1990. Government of India adopted the policy of Liberalization, Privatization and Globalization (LPG) to overcome the crisis. Government controls on business and industry have since then been dismantled gradually. The process further gained momentum in 2014. Since then rules and regulations have been simplified to increase the ease of doing business. Goods and Services Tax (GST) is the latest step in this process.

4.1 Meaning of Liberalization:
Liberalization of an economy means removing or relaxing Government controls and restrictions on economic activities. It is the process of liberating the economy from unnecessary controls and restrictions on trade, industry, banking system, etc. of the country. It involves abolition of those policies, rules and regulations which impede economic development.

4.2 Liberalization In India Trends And Issues:
The process of economic liberalization in India began primarily in 1991. The economic reforms are being implemented in two stages, namely –

  • First Generation Reforms
  • Second Generation Reforms.

The main trends of liberalization in India are as follows :

(i) Infrastructural Reforms:

  • Opening up of oil exploration and petroleum to foreign investment.
  • Power sector reforms.
  • Private sector participation in infrastructure development.
  • Decontrol of steel.
  • Telecom sector reforms.

(ii) Industrial Reforms:

  • Delicensing of industry.
  • Public sector undertakings allowed access to capital market.
  • Simplification of licensing procedures.

(iii) Fiscal Reforms:

  • Reduction in customs duty.
  • Five year tax holiday to enterprises in specified sectors.
  • Downsizing of some departments.
  • Reduction in personal and corporate taxes.
  • Simplified tax administration.
  • Introduction of Value Added Tax (VAT).

(iv) Capital and Money Market Reforms:

  • Clearing Corporation of India set up.
  • Introduction of Negotiated Dealing System.
  • Floating rate Government bonds re-introduced.
  • Trading in index options, and stock futures introduced.

(v) External Sector Reforms :

  • Removal of import restrictions.
  • Liberalised Exchange Rate Management System (LERMS)
  • Liberalisation of NRI remittances.
  • Encouraging foreign tie-ups.
  • Automatic approval of foreign investment and foreign technology agreements to specified extent.

(vi) Banking Sector Reforms :

  • Reduction in CRR and SLR.
  • Introduction of capital adequacy norms.
  • Setting up of Debt Recovery Tribunals.
  • Issue of guidelines for entry to new private banks.
  • Setting up of IRDA.

Government Policies for Business Growth – CA Foundation BCK Notes Chapter 4

4.3 Impact of liberalization of indian economy:
Liberalization has considerably expanded the scope of private sector in India. Private enterprises can now enter most of the industries. The competitive strength and industrial efficiency have improved. Business opportunities have increased and many Indian companies have established subsidiaries and joint ventures abroad. Liberalisation has also boosted foreign investment in India. Thus, liberalisation has led to radical changes in India’s business environment.

Positive and Negative Effects of Liberalization In India:

Positive Effects Negative Effects
1. Increase in foreign investment 1. Decline in small scale sector
2. Decline in external debt 2. Increase in unemployment
3. Rise in foreign exchange reserves 3. Decrease in GDP rate
4. Increase in tax receipts
5. Increase in production
6. Technological advancement

4.4 Meaning of Privatization:
Privatization means the transfer of ownership and/or management of an enterprise from the public sector to the private sector. It refers to the introduction of private control and ownership in public sector undertakings. According to the World Bank, “privatization is the transfer of State owned enterprises to the private sector by sale (full or partial) of going concerns or by sale of assets following their liquidation.” In the words of Barbara Lee and John Nellis “Privatization is the general process of involving the private sector in the ownership or operation of a State owned enterprise,”.

There are several forms or methods of privatization such as :

  • Denationalization of a public enterprise by its complete sale to the private sector. For example, BALCO. was sold to Sterlite Industries.
  • Divestiture, i.e., the sale of equity in full or part of a public sector undertaking to private sector.
  • Transfer of management of a public sector enterprise to private sector through a management contract.
  • Joint venture, i.e., joint ownership of an enterprise by Government and private sector.
  • Leasing, Le., transferring the use of assets of a public sector unit to private bidders for a specified period.
  • Franchising of public sector services to designated private sector units.

4.5 Trends and Issues – Privatization In India:
The process of privatization began in India mainly after the Industrial Policy of July 1991. Under this policy the number of industries reserved for the public sector was reduced from 17 to 2 – Railways and Atomic Energy. Shares of several public sector enterprises have been sold to mutual funds, workers and the public.

4.6 Impact of Privatization n Indian Economy:
The main reason for privatization in India has been the poor performance of public sector units which results in wastage of national resources and burden on common man.

Positive and Negative Effects of Privatization:

Positive Effects Negative Effects
1. Expansion of market 1. Cut-throat competition
2. Growth of independent money market 2. Rise in monopoly
3. Free flow of resources 3. Increase in inequalities
4. Advancements in technology 4. Takeover of domestic firms
5. Equilibrium in balance of payments 5. Removal of protection to domestic firms
6. Development of infrastructure 6. Affect on national sovereignty
7. Higher living standards
8. International cooperation

4.7 Meaning of Globalization:
Globalization means reduction or removal of Government restrictions on the movement of goods and services, capital, technology and talent across national borders. It is the process of increasing economic interdependence between countries and their economic integration in the form of world economy. Markets become international and global firms consider the whole world as one market.

Government Policies for Business Growth – CA Foundation BCK Notes Chapter 4

4.8 Globalization In India – Trends And Issues:
The process of globalization of Indian economy began largely in 1991 due to the unprecedented balance of payments crisis. Since then the pace of globalization has gained momentum :

  • Foreign Direct Investment upto 100 per cent is now permitted in specified sectors.
  • Foreign investors can invest in Indian companies through GDRs without any lock-in period.
  • Indian companies are allowed to get themselves listed on overseas stock exchanges.
  • Guidelines for Euro issues were liberalised.
  • The Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA) has replaced the Foreign Exchange Regulations Act (FERA).

4.9 Impact of Globalization of Indian Economy:
Globalization has made India a huge consumer market. There has been rapid increase in GDP and India’s exports. India has emerged as one of the fastest growing economies in the world. Our foreign exchange reserves are now huge and there has been rapid increase in foreign direct investment (FDI).

Positive and negative effects of globalization:

Positive Effects Negative Effects
1. Expansion of market 1. Cut-throat competition
2. Growth of independent money market 2. Rise in monopoly
3. Free flow of resources 3. Increase in inequalities
4. Advancements in technology 4. Takeover of domestic firms
5. Equilibrium in balance of payments 5. Removal of protection to domestic firms
6. Development of infrastructure 6. Affect on national sovereignty
7. Higher living standards
8. International cooperation

4.10 Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)

4.10.1 Meaning of FDI:
Foreign Direct Investment means investment in a foreign country where the investor claims con¬trol over the investment in terms of actual power of management and effective decision-making. Foreign direct investment typically occurs in the form of setting up a subsidiary, starting a joint venture or acquiring a stake in an existing firm in a foreign country According to the Committee on Compilation of FDI in India (Oct 2002). FDI is “the process whereby residents of one country (the home country) acquire ownership of assets for the purpose of controlling the production, distribution and other activities of a firm in another country (the host country). There are three main categories of FDI-equity capital, reinvested earnings, and lending of funds by a multinational to its affiliate.

When the investor makes only investment and does not retain control over the enterprise it is known as portfolio investment. The investor is interested only in return on his capital and does not want control over the use of the invested capital. Portfolio investment is for a short period and is influenced by short-term gains. On the other hand, foreign direct investment involves long-term commitment and cannot be easily liquidated. Therefore, long-term considerations like political stability, Government policy, industrial prospects, etc. influence it.

Direct investors have direct responsibility for the promotion and management of the enterprise. But portfolio investors have no direct responsibility for promotion and management of the enterprise. Portfolio investment takes place through foreign institutional investors (Fils) like mutual funds and through American Depository Receipts (ADRs) Global Depository Receipts (GDRs) and Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds (FCCBs). ADRs, GDRs and FCCBs are securities issued by Indian companies in the foreign markets to mobilise foreign capital.

4.10.2 Advantages of Foreign Direct Investment:
Foreign direct investment offers the following benefits:
(i) FDI increases the level of investment by supplementing domestic capital. The host country gets scarce capital resources from abroad. As a result, FDI contributes towards the development of infrastructure, industry and service sector in the host country. FDI helps to enhance business activity and raise the level of economic development.

(ii) FDI facilitates transfer of technology, machinery and equipment to the host country. Advanced foreign technology helps to reduce costs and improve quality of products and services. Local firms get the opportunity for technology upgradation.

(iii) FDI can create a managerial revolution in the host country through professional man-agement and employment of sophisticated techniques of organisation and management. Local firms get access to world class management and corporate practices.

(iv) FDI helps to boost employment and incomes in the host country through establish¬ment of new industries and development of ancillary industries. Higher production and income in turn increase the tax revenue of the Government. Material and human resources can be utilised optimally.

(v) FDI can help the host country to increase its exports and reduce imports These add to the foreign exchange resources of the country and improve its balance of payments position. In fact, the Government of India announced economic liberalisation in July, 1991 due to foreign exchange crisis.

(vi) FDI may help to increase competition and break domestic monopolies in the host country. It can overcome trade barriers like tariffs and quotas. FDI can make Indian industries globally competitive.

(vii) FDI offers benefits to the home country also. There is inflow of foreign currency in the form of dividend and interest. Exports of technology machinery and equipment help to enhance industrial activity and employment in the home country.

(viii) There is greater choice of products by consumers. Their standard of living is likely to improve due to better quality and wider choice.

Government Policies for Business Growth – CA Foundation BCK Notes Chapter 4

4.10.3 Disadvantages of Foreign Direct Investment:
Foreign direct investment has been criticised for the following reasons:
(i) FDI tends to flow in the areas of high profits rather than in the priority sectors of the host country.

(ii) Considerable funds are repatriated from the host country in the form of royalty, fees, dividend, interest, etc. on FDI. Such outflows put pressure on the host country’s balance of payments. The cost of FDI is high.

(iii) FDI takes place mainly through multinational corporations. These corporations are large in size and have a wide resource base. They pose a threat to the domestic firms in the host country.

(iv) The technology brought in by the foreign investors may not be appropriate to the market size, resource base, stage of economic development and consumption needs of the host country. Excessive reliance on foreign technology may have an adverse effect on local initiative.

(v) FDI poses a threat to the economic autonomy and political sovereignty of the host country. Some of the multinational corporations have destabilised governments in African countries. Excessive reliance on foreign technology may have an adverse effect on local initiative.

(vi) FDI can lead to adverse effects on domestic savings, and adverse terms of trade for the host country which offers special concessions to attract FDI, Some foreign investors pre-empt investment plans of domestic companies. They engage in unfair and unethical trade practices.

(vii) FDI may involve costs and risks for the home country. Employment opportunities may shrink and balance of payment position may suffer due to FDI.

Government Policies for Business Growth – CA Foundation BCK Notes Chapter 4

4.10.4 Determinants of Foreign Direct Investment:
The volume of FDI in a country depends on the following factors:
1. Natural Resources – Availability of natural resources in the host country is a major determinant of FDI. Most foreign investors seek an adequate, reliable and economical source of minerals and other materials. FDI tends to flow in countries which are rich in resources but lack capital, technical skills and infrastructure required for the exploitation of natural resources. Though their relative importance has declined, the availability of natural resources still continues to be an important determinant of FDI.

2. National Markets – The market size of a host country in absolute terms as well as in relation to the size and income of its population and market growth is another major determinant of FDI. Large markets can accommodate more firms and can help firms to achieve economies of large scale operations. Market access has been the main motive for investment by American companies in Europe and Asia.

3. Availability of Cheap Labour – The availability of low cost unskilled labour has been a major cause of FDI in countries like China and India, Low cost labour together with availability of cheap raw materials enable foreign investors to minimise costs of production and thereby increase profits.

4. Rate of Interest – Differences in the rate of interest prevailing in different countries stimulate foreign investment. Capital tends to move from a country with a low rate of interest to a country where it is higher. Foreign investment is also inspired by foreign exchange rates. Foreign capital is attracted to countries where the return on investment is higher.

5. Socio-Economic Conditions – Size of the population, infrastructural facilities and income level of a country influence direct foreign investment.

6. Political Situation: Political stability, legal framework, judicial system, relations with other countries and other political factors influence movements of capital from one country to another.

7. Government Policies – Policy towards foreign investment, foreign collaborations, foreign exchange control, remittances, and incentives (monetary, fiscal and others) offered to foreign investors exercise a significant influence on FDI in a country. For example, Export Processing Zones have been developed in India to attract FDI and to boost exports.

Organizations Facilitating Business – CA Foundation BCK Notes Chapter 5

Browsing through CA Foundation BCK Notes Chapter 5 Organizations Facilitating Business helps students to revise the complete subject quickly.

Organizations Facilitating Business – BCK CA Foundation Notes Chapter 5

Government of India has constituted several bodies to regulate and control business activities for protecting the interests of various stakeholders. Similarly, several development banks have been established to assist in the establishment and growth of business enterprises. These regulatory bodies and development banks are described in this chapter.

5.1 Indian Regulatory Bodies:
Regulation and Control of business and related activities are necessary to ensure health growth and to safeguard the interests of various sections of the society. Some of the regulatory bodies in India are given below:

5.1.1 Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI):
In order to protect the interests of investors the Government of India constituted the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) in April, 1988. It is meant to be a supervisory body to regulate and promote the securities market in the country.

Objectives: The main objectives of SEBI are as under:

  • to promote fair dealings by the issuers of securities and to ensure a market place where they can raise funds at a relatively low cost;
  • to provide a degree of protection to the investors and safeguard their rights and interests so that there is a steady flow of savings into the market;
  • to regulate and develop a code of conduct and fair practices by intermediaries like brokers, merchant bankers, etc. with a view to making them competitive and professional.

Thus, the basic objectives of SEBI are to protect the interests of investors in securities and to pro-mote the development of, and to regulate, the securities markets.

Functions: SEBI performs the following functions:
1. Protective Functions – In order to protect the common investor, SEBI undertakes the following activities:

  • It prohibits fraudulent and unfair trade practices on stock exchanges.
  • It prohibits insider trading.
  • It undertakes steps to educate investors.
  • It promotes fair practices and code of conduct in securities market.
  • It is empowered to investigate cases of insider trading, impose fines and imprisonment.
  • It has issued guidelines for preferential allotment of shares.

2. Developmental Functions – These functions are as follows:

  • Training intermediaries in stock market.
  • Developing capital markets through internet trading, permitting stock exchanges to market/ IPO and making underwriting optional.

3. Regulatory Functions:

  • Prescribing rules and regulations for merchant bankers, underwriters and registrars.
  • Registering and regulating stock brokers, sub-brokers, etc.
  • Registering and regulating the working of mutual funds.
  • Regulating takeover of companies.
  • Conducting inquiries and audits of stock exchanges.

Organizations Facilitating Business – CA Foundation BCK Notes Chapter 5

5.1.2 Reserve Bank of India (RBI):
Every country has a Central Bank as an apex body to supervise and control the banking sector. Reserve Bank of India is India’s Central Bank. It was set up under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. It began its operations on April 1, 1935. It is managed by a Board of Governors headed by the RBI Governor.

The functions performed by the Reserve Bank of India may be classified broadly into three categories –

  • Traditional central banking functions
  • Supervisory functions
  • Development functions.

The central banking functions are given below:
(i) Issue of Bank Notes: Under the RBI Act, the RBI has the monopoly (sole right) to issue bank notes of all denominations. The RBI has a separate Issue Department to make issues of cur-rency notes. It has adopted the minimum reserve system of note issue.

(ii) Banker to Government: The Reserve Bank acts as the banker, agent and adviser to Government of India:

  • It maintains and operates government deposits.
  • It collects and makes payments on behalf of the government.
  • It helps the government to float new loans and manages the public debt.
  • It sells for the Central Government treasury bills of 91 days duration.
  • It makes ‘Ways and Means’ advances to the Central and State Governments for periods not exceeding three months.
  • It provides development finance to the government for carrying out five year plans.
  • It undertakes foreign exchange transactions on behalf of the Central Government.
  • It acts as the agent of the Government of India in the latter’s dealings with the International institutions.
  • It advises the government on all financial matters such as loan operations, investments, agricultural and industrial finance, banking, planning, economic development, etc.

(iii) Bankers’ Bank: The RBI keeps the cash reserves of all the scheduled banks and is, therefore, known as the ‘Reserve Bank’. The scheduled banks can borrow in times of need from RBI. The RBI acts not only as the bankers’ bank but also the lender of the last resort by providing rediscount facilities to scheduled banks. The RBI extends loans and advances to banks against approved securities.

(iv) Controller of Credit: A major function of the RBI is to formulate and administer the country’s monetary policy. The RBI controls the volume of credit created by banks in India. It can ask any particular bank or the entire banking system not to lend against particular type of securities or for a particular purpose. The RBI controls credit in order to ensure price stability and economic growth.

(v) Custodian of Foreign Exchange Reserves: The RBI acts as the custodian of India’s reserve of international currencies. In addition, RBI has the responsibility of maintaining exchange rate of the rupee and of administering the exchange controls of the country.

(vi) Clearing House Facility: As a clearing house, the central bank settles the claims of commercial banks and enables them to clear their dues through book entries. It makes debit and credit entries in their accounts for convenient adjustment of their daily balances with one another.

(vii) Collection and Publication of Data: The central bank conducts surveys and publishes reports and bulletins. It may provide staff training facilities to the personnel of commercial banks. It maintains relations with international financial institutions such as World Bank, IME etc.

Regulatory and Supervisory Functions: The RBI is the supreme banking authority in the country. Every bank has to get a licence from the RBI to do banking business in India. The licence can be cancelled if the stipulated conditions are violated.

Each scheduled bank is required to send a return of its assets and liabilities to the RBI. In addition, the RBI can call for information from any bank. It also has the power to inspect the accounts of any commercial bank. Thus, the RBI controls the banking system through licensing, inspection and calling for information.

The RBI has been given wide powers of supervision and control over commercial and cooperative banks. It can carry out periodical inspections of the banks and to call for returns from them. The supervisory and regulatory functions of the RBI are meant for improving the standard of banking in India and for developing the banking system on sound lines.

With liberalisation and growing integration of the Indian financial sector with the international market, the supervisory and regulatory role of RBI has become critical for the maintenance of financial stability. RBI has been continuously fine-tuning its regulatory and supervisory mechanism in recent years to match international standards.

Migration to new capital adequacy framework (Basel II) based on a three-pillar approach, namely, minimum capital requirements, supervisory review, and market discipline, involves implementation challenges for both RBI and banks. RBI has taken a number of initiatives to make migration to Base II smoother.

Promotional or Developmental Functions: The RBI is expected to promote banking habit, extend banking facilities to rural and semi-urban areas, establish and promote new specialised financial agencies. The RBI has helped in the setting of the IFCI, the SFCs, the UTI, the IDBI, the Agricultural Refinance Corporation of India, etc. These institutions were established to mobilise savings and to provide finance to industry and agriculture.

The RBI has developed the cooperative credit movement to encourage savings, to eliminate moneylenders from the villages and provide short-term credit to agriculture. The RBI has also taken initiative for widening financial facilities for foreign trade. It facilitates the process of industrialisation by setting up specialised institutions for industrial finance. It also undertakes steps to develop bill market in the country.

Functions of the RBI:

  • Monetary Functions: Issue of currency, banker to Government, banker’s bank, credit control, custodian of foreign exchange.
  • Supervisory Functions: Licensing, branch expansion, liquidity of assets, working methods, inspection, amalgamation and reconstruction.
  • Developmental Functions: Promotion and mobilisation of savings, extension of banking, elimination of money lenders.

Credit Control by RBI:
As stated earlier, RBI is the controller of credit in India. Credit control means the regulation of credit by the central bank for achieving the desired objectives. It involves expansion and contraction of credit. The control over credit is necessary for preventing too much money supply in the economy and to prevent price rise.

The objectives of credit control are as follows:

  • to stabilise the general price level in the country;
  • to keep the exchange rate stable;
  • to promote and maintain a high level of income and employment;
  • to maintain a normal and steady growth rate in business activity;
  • to eliminate undue fluctuations in production and employment.

In order to control the volume of credit in the country, the RBI employs both general and selective methods:
Organizations Facilitating Business – CA Foundation BCK Notes Chapter 5 IMG 1
(i) Bank Rate – The standard rate at which the RBI is prepared to discount bills of exchange or extends advances to the commercial banks is known as the bank rate. When the RBI increases the bank rate, borrowing from banks becomes costlier and the amount of borrowings from banks is reduced.

The effectiveness of bank rate is, however, limited due to certain constraints in the economy. Existence of non-banking finance institutions, large profit margins on speculative dealings, priority sector advances and increase in prices of final products to offset high interest rates are examples of these constraints.

(ii) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) – CRR refers to that portion of total deposits of a commercial bank which it has to keep with the RBI in the form of cash reserves. By raising the CRR, the RBI reduces the amount of loanable funds with commercial banks. As they can lend lesser amount, the volume of credit in the country gets reduced.

(iii) Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) – SLR means that portion of total deposits of a commercial bank which it has to keep with itself in the form of cash reserves. An increase in the SLR has the same effect on the volume of credit as increase in the CRR.

(iv) Open Market Operations – These refer to the purchase and sale by the RBI of a variety of assets such as gold, government securities, foreign exchange and industrial securities from the market to increase money supply and lower interest rates. This is done to stimulate banks to give out more loans, boost private spending and increase inflation.

It is called quantitative easing. If the RBI wants to reduce the volume of credit, it sells these assets. Such sale reduces money supply with banks and leads to increase in rates of interest. The open market operations of the RBI are however restricted to government securities due to underdeveloped securities market, and narrow gilt edged market.

Selective Credit Controls – Under these measures, the RBI diverts the flow of credit from speculative and unproductive activities to productive and priority areas. Under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 the RBI is empowered to issue directives to banks, regarding their advances.

These directives may relate to:

  • the purpose for which advances may or may not be made
  • the margins to be maintained in respect of secured advances
  • the maximum amount of advances to any borrower
  • the maximum amount upto which guarantees may be given by the bank on behalf of any firm, company, etc.
  • the rate of interest and other terms and conditions for granting advances.

The selective methods of credit control are as follows:
1. Margin Requirements – Commercial banks have to keep a margin between the amount of loan granted and the market value of the security against which the loan is granted. For example, they may be asked to grant loans upto 80 per cent of the security or asset. When the central bank raises margin requirements, the volume of credit is reduced. In the same manner, lowering of margin requirements leads to expansion of credit. Margin requirements is a selective method of credit control.

2. Credit Rationing – Sometimes, the Reserve Bank of India fixes a limit to the credit facilities avail¬able to commercial banks. The available credit is rationed among them according to the purpose of credit. This method of credit control is used in exceptional situations of monetary stringency. Moreover, credit rationing cannot be used for the expansion of credit in the economy.

3. Moral Suasion – Under this method, the central bank requests and persuades the commercial banks not to grant credit for speculative and non-essential activities. It is an informal and non-statutory method. But commercial banks honour the authority of the central bank. The central bank may also issue directives to commercial banks to refrain from certain types of lending. For example, the RBI asked banks to refrain from lending against food grains to check* hoarding.

4. Publicity – The central bank issues reports and review statements of assets and liabilities. These publications keep commercial banks aware of conditions in the money market, public finance, trade and industry in the country. They adjust their credit activities accordingly.

Role of RBI in Economic Development:
In a developing country like India, the central bank has to play a vital role. The developing countries generally do not have well organised money market and capital market. Therefore, the central bank is expected to develop the banking system and financial system of the country. In addition to the traditional functions, the RBI contributes towards the Indian economy in the following ways:

1. Development of Banking System – The RBI takes steps to develop a sound banking system in the country. Over the years, an integrated commercial banking structure has been developed under the supervision and control of the RBI. Regulation and control by the RBI creates public confidence in the banking system.

2. Development of Financial Institutions – The RBI has played an active role in the establishment of specialised institutions for agriculture, industry, small scale sector and foreign trade.

3. Development of Backward Areas – The RBI has encouraged banks to set up branches in backward regions so that financial facilities could be made available to people in these areas and to priority sectors. Social banking made rapid progress in India after the nationalisation of major banks in 1969.

4. Economic Stability – The RBI has used its monetary and credit policy to regulate inflationary pressures in the economy. The bank has controlled the volume of credit for this purpose. According to the Planning Commission, “the central bank has to take a direct and active role in creating or helping to create the machinery needed for financing development activities all over the country, and in ensuring that the finance available flows in the intended directions”.

5. Economic Growth – The RBI ensures adequate money supply for meeting the growing needs of different sectors of the economy.

6. Proper Interest Rate Structure – The RBI has helped in establishing a suitable interest rate struc¬ture so as to direct investment in the economy. A policy of low interest rate has been adopted for encouraging investment.

7. Miscellaneous – The RBI provides training and research facilities. It provides special facilities to priority sectors. It also guides the efforts of planners by its economic policies.

Organizations Facilitating Business – CA Foundation BCK Notes Chapter 5

5.1.3 Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA):
IRDA is a statutory and apex body that supervises and regulates insurance industry in India. It was established under the IRDA Act on December 16, 2014. It is managed by a chairman, five whole time members and four part time members all appointed by the Government of India.

Objectives:

  • to promote the interests and rights of policy holders
  • to promote and ensure the growth of insurance industry
  • to ensure speedy settlement of genuine claims and to prevent frauds and malpractices
  • to bring transparency and orderly conduct of financial markets dealing with insurance.

Functions:

  • to issue, register and regulate insurance companies
  • to protect the interests of policyholders
  • to provide licence to insurance intermediaries such as agents and brokers who met the qualifications and code of conduct specified by it
  • to promote and regulate the professional organizations related with insurance business so as to promote efficiency in the insurance sector
  • to regulate and supervise the rates of insurance premium and terms of insurance covers
  • to specify the conditions and manners according to which the insurance companies and other intermediaries have to make their financial reports
  • to regulate the investment of policyholders funds by insurance companies, and
  • to ensure the maintenance of solvency margin (Company’s ability to payment claims) by insurance companies.

5.1.4 Competition Commission of India (CCI):
Government of India constituted the CCI under the Competition Act, 2002 – Duties, Powers and Functions of the Commission:
Duties of Commission –
Under Section 18, Competition Commission has been charged with the following duties :

  • to eliminate practices having adverse effect on competition,
  • to promote and sustain competition,
  • to protect the interests of consumers, and
  • to ensure freedom of trade carried by other participants in markets in India.

Powers and Functions of Commission:
With a view to perform the duties enumerated under section 18, the Commission has been charged with certain obligations and conferred with certain powers. These obligations and powers are as follows:
1. Inquiry into Certain Agreements (Section 19) – The Commission may inquire into any alleged contravention of the provisions contained in section 3(1) or 4(1) either on its own motion or on:

  • receipt of a complaint from any person, consumer or their association or trade association; or
  • a reference made to it by the Central Government or a State Government or a statutory authority [Section 19(1)].

2. Inquiry whether an Enterprise Enjoys Dominant Position – The Commission shall, while inquiring whether an enterprise enjoys a dominant position or not under Section 4, have due regard to all or any of the following factors, namely :

  • market share of the enterprise
  • size and resources of the enterprise
  • size and importance of the competitors
  • economic power of the enterprise including commercial advantages over competitors
  • vertical integration of the enterprises or sale or service network of such enterprises
  • dependence of consumers on the enterprise
  • monopoly or dominant position whether acquired as a result of any statute or by virtue of being a Government company or a public sector undertaking or otherwise
  • entry barriers including barriers such as regulatory barriers, financial risk, high capital cost of entry, marketing entry barriers, technical entry barriers, economies of scale, high cost of substitutable goods or service for consumers
  • countervailing buying power
  • market structure and size of market
  • social obligations and social costs
  • relative advantage by way of contribution to the economic development by the enterprise enjoying a dominant position having or likely to have appreciable adverse effect on competition
  • any other factor which the Commission may consider relevant for the inquiry [Section 19(4)].

3. Inquiry into Combination by Commission (Section 20) – Inquiry into acquisition, control and combination. The Commission may, upon its own knowledge or information relating to acquisition referred to in Section 5(a) or acquiring of control or merger or amalgamation referred to in Section 5(6) or merger or amalgamation referred to in Section 5(c), inquire into whether such a combination has caused or is likely to cause an appreciable adverse effect on competition in India.

The Commission shall not initiate any inquiry under this sub-section after the expiry of one year from the date on which such combination has taken effect [Section 20(1)]. The Commission shall, on receipt of a notice or upon receipt of a reference under Section 6(2), inquire whether a combination referred to in that notice or reference has caused or is likely to cause an appreciable adverse effect on competition in India [Section 20(2)].

Factors having effect on combination. For the purposes of determining whether a combination would have the effect of or is likely to have an appreciable adverse effect on competition in the relevant market, the Commission shall have due regard to all or any of the following factors, namely :

  • actual and potential level of competition through imports in the market
  • extent of barriers to entry to the market
  • level of combination in the market
  • degree of countervailing power in the market
  • likelihood that the combination would result in the parties to the combination being able to significantly and sustainably increase prices or profit margins
  • extent of effective competition likely to sustain in a market
  • extent to which substitutes are available or are likely to be available in the market
  • market share, in the relevant market, of the persons or enterprise in a combination, individually and as a combination
  • likelihood that the combination would result in the removal of a vigorous and effective com-petitor or competitors in market.
  • nature and extent of vertical integration in the market.
  • possibility of a failing business.
  • nature and extent of innovation.
  • relative advantage by way of contribution to the economic development, by way of combination having or likely to have appreciable adverse effect on competition.
  • whether the benefits of the combination outweigh the adverse impact of the combination, if any [Section 20(4)].

4. Power to Grant Interim Relief (Section 33) – Section 33 empowers the Commission to grant interim relief by way of temporary injunctions.
Where during an inquiry before the Commission, it is proved to the satisfaction of the Commission, by affidavit or otherwise, that an act in contravention of Section 3(1), or Section 4(1) or Section 5 has been committed and continues to be committed or that such act is about to be committed, the Commission may grant a temporary injunction restraining any party from carrying on such act until the conclusion of such inquiry or until further orders, without giving notice to the opposite party, where it deems it necessary [Section 33(1)].

5. Power to Award Compensation (Section 34) – Without prejudice to any other provisions contained in this Act, any person may make an application to the Commission for an order for the recovery of compensation from any enterprise for any loss or damage shown to have been suffered, by such person as a result of any contravention of the provisions of Chapter II (Sections 3 to 6), having been ’ committed by such enterprise [Section 34(1)].

The Commission may, after an inquiry made into the allegations mentioned in the application made under sub-section (1), pass an order directing the enterprise to make payment to the applicant, of the amount determined by it as realisable from the enterprise as compensation for the loss or damage caused to the applicant as a result of any contravention of the provisions of Chapter II having been committed by such enterprise [Section 34(2)].

Orders by Commission after Inquiry into Agreements or Abuse of Dominant Position (Section 27):
Orders by Commission. Where after inquiry the Commission finds that any agreement or action of an enterprise in a dominant position, is in contravention of Section 3 or Section 4, it may pass all or any of the following orders, namely :
(a) direct any enterprise or association of enterprises or person or association of persons, involved in such agreement, or abuse of dominant position, to discontinue and not to re-enter such agreement or discontinue such abuse of dominant position.

(b) impose such penalty, as it may deem fit which shall be not more than 10 per cent of the average of the turnover for the three preceding financial years upon each of such person or enterprises which are parties to such agreements or abuse.

However, where any agreement referred to in Section 3 (i.e., any anti-competitive agreement) has been entered into by any cartel, the Commission shall impose upon each producer, seller, distributor, trader or service provider included in that cartel, a penalty equivalent to three times of the amount of profits made out of such agreement by the cartel or ten per cent of the average of the turnover of the cartel for the last preceding three financial years, whichever is higher.

(c) award compensation to parties in accordance with the provisions contained in Section 34;

(d) direct that the agreements shall stand modified to the extent and in the manner as may be specified in the order by the Commission;

(e) direct the enterprises concerned to abide by such other orders as the Commission may pass and comply with the directions, including payment of costs, if any;

(f) recommend to the Central Government for the division of an enterprise enjoying dominant position;

(g) pass such other order as it may deem fit.

Division of Enterprise Enjoying Dominant Position (Section 28):
The Central Government, on recommendation by the Commission under Section 27(f), may, in writing, direct division of an enterprise enjoying dominant position to ensure that such enterprise does not abuse its dominant position [Section 28(1)]. This order may provide for all or any of the following matters, namely:

  • the transfer or vesting of property, rights, liabilities or obligations.
  • the adjustment of contracts either by discharge or reduction of any liability or obligation or otherwise.
  • the creation, allotment, surrender or cancellation of any shares, stocks or securities
  • the payment of compensation to any person who suffered any loss due to dominant position of the enterprise
  • the formation or winding up of an enterprise or the amendment of the memorandum of association or articles of association or any other instruments regulating the business of any enterprise
  • the extent to which, and the circumstances in which, provisions of the order affecting an enterprise may be altered by the enterprise and the registration thereof;
  • any other matter which may be necessary to give effect to the division of the enterprise [Section 28(2)].

Organizations Facilitating Business – CA Foundation BCK Notes Chapter 5

5.2 Indian development banks:
A development bank may be defined as “a multipurpose institution which shares entrepreneurial risk, changes its approach in tune with the industrial climate and encourages new industrial projects to bring about speedier economic growth.

The concept of development banking is based on the assumption that mere provision of finance will not bring about entrepreneurial development. Development banks provide a package of financial and non-financial assistance. Their activities include discovery of new projects, preparation of project report, provision of funds, technical assistance and managerial advice.

These institutions do not compete with the conventional institutions but supplement them. Therefore, development banks are called ‘gap fillers’. They serve as motive engines of industrial development. As catalysts of economic growth they provide injections of capital, enterprise and management.

The distinctive features of a development bank are as follows:

  • It provides medium and long-term finance.
  • It is ‘project oriented’ rather than ‘security oriented’.
  • It acts as a ‘partner in progress’ by guiding, supervising and advising the entrepreneurs.
  • It provides both equity capital and debt capital.

5.2.1 Industrial Finance Corporation of India (IFCI):
The IFCI was set up under the IFCI Act on July 1, 1948. On July 1, 1993 it was converted into a public limited company. This was done to enable the IFCI to reshape its business strategies with greater authority, to tap the Capital market for funds to expand its equity base and to provide better customer services. It is now named IFCI Ltd.

Objects – IFCI has been set up for “making medium and long-term credits more readily available to industrial concerns in India, particularly in circumstances where . normal banking facilities are inappropriate or recourse to capital issue methods is impracticable”.

The corporation aims at assisting industrial concerns which have carefully considered schemes for manufacture or for modernisation and expansion of a plant for the purpose of increasing their productive efficiency and capacity. Now, public sector undertakings can also avail of assistance from the corporation.

IFCI provides project finance, merchant banking, suppliers credit, equipment leasing, finance to leasing and hire-purchase concerns, etc. and promotional services. The corporation gives priority to development of backward areas, new entrepreneurs and technocrats, indigenous technology, ancillary industries, cooperative sector, import substitution and export promotion.

The focus of IFCI is on providing financial assistance to public companies and cooperative societies engaged in manufacturing, mining, shipping, hotel business, etc.

Functions, Scope and Forms of Assistance:

  • Granting loans and advances to or subscribing to debentures of industrial concerns.
  • Guaranteeing loans raised by industrial concerns from the capital market, scheduled banks or State cooperative banks.
  • Providing guarantees in respect of deferred payments for imports of capital goods manufactured in India.
  • Guaranteeing with the approval of the Central Government, loans raised from or credit arrangements made by industrial concerns with any bank or financial institution outside India.
  • Underwriting the issue of shares and debentures by industrial concerns.
  • Subscribing directly to the shares and debentures of industrial concerns.
  • Acting as an agent of the Central Government and World Bank in respect of loans sanctioned by them to industrial concerns in India.
  • Participating along with other all India term lending institutions, in the administration of the Soft Loan Scheme for modernisation and rehabilitation of sick industries.
  • Providing financial assistance on concessional terms for setting up industrial projects in backward areas notified by the Central Government.
  • Providing guidance in project planning and implementation through specialised agencies like Technical Consultancy Organisations.

The financial assistance is available for setting up of new projects as well as for the expansion, diversification, and modernisation of existing units. IFCI Ltd. also provides financial assistance to industrial concerns not tied to any project. The following schemes of assistance have been introduced for this purpose:

  • Equipment leasing
  • Suppliers’ credit
  • Buyers’ credit.

Indirect finance is provided as assistance to leasing companies. Now IFCI also provides short-term loans for working capital purposes.

5.2.2 Industrial Development Bank of India (Now IDBI Ltd.):
The Industrial Development Bank of India (IDBI) was set up as an apex institution and it started its operations with effect from July 1, 1964. It was set up as a statutory corporation under Industrial Development Bank of India Act, 1964.

The needs of rapid industrialisation, long-term financial needs of heavy industry beyond the resources of the then existing institutions, absence of a central agency to coordinate the activities of other financial institutions and gaps in the financial and pro-motional services were the main causes behind the establishment of the IDBI.

The Bank represents an attempt to combine in a single institution the requirements of an expanding economy and need for a coordinated approach to industrial financing. The setting up of the IDBI is thus an important landmark in the history of institutional financing in the country IDBI was established as a wholly owned subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of India. But in 1976 the ownership of IDBI was transferred to the Central Government.

In March, 1994 the IDBI Act was amended to permit the Bank to issue equity- shares in the capital market. The majority of its shares are still owned by the Government.

Objects – The objectives of the IDBI are to:

  • co-ordinate, regulate and supervise the activities of all financial institutions providing term finance to industry;
  • enlarge the usefulness of these institutions by supplementing their resources and by widening the scope of their assistance;
  • provide direct finance to industry to bridge the gap between demand and supply of long-term and medium-term finance to industrial concerns in both public and private sectors;
  • locate and fill up gaps in the industrial structure of the country;
  • adopt and enforce a system of priorities so as to diversify and speed up the process of indus-rial growth. The Bank has been conceived of as a development agency that will ultimately be concerned with all questions or problems relating to industrial finance in the country.

Functions – The main functions of the IDBI are as follows:

  • subscribing to the shares and bonds of financial institutions and guaranteeing their under¬writing obligations;
  • refinancing term loans and export credits extended by other financial institutions;
  • granting loans and advances directly to industrial concerns;
  • guaranteeing deferred payments due from and loans raised by industrial concerns;
  • subscribing to and underwriting shares and debentures of industrial concerns;
  • accepting, discounting and rediscounting bona fide commercial bills or promissory notes of industrial concerns including bills arising out of sale of indigenous machinery on deferred payment basis;
  • financing turnkey projects by Indians outside India and providing credit to foreigners for buying capital goods from India;
  • planning, promoting and developing industries to fill gaps in the industrial structure of the country. The Bank may undertake promotional activities like marketing and investment research, techno-economic surveys, etc.
  • providing technical and managerial assistance for promotion and expansion of industrial undertakings;
  • coordinating and regulating the activities of other financial institutions.

Besides providing assistance to industry directly, IDBI also provides assistance to industries through other financial institutions and banks. IDBI provides project finance for new projects and for expansion, diversification and modernisation of existing projects. IDBI also provides equipment finance, asset credit, corporate loans, working capital loans, refinance, rediscounting, and fee based services (e.g., merchant banking, mortgage, trusteeship, forex services).

Thus, the Bank performs financial, promotional and coordinating functions. As an apex institution in the field of development banking, the IDBI supplements and coordinates the activities of various National and State level financial institutions in the country.

The IDBI has been given wide powers and it enjoys full operational autonomy. The Bank can provide ‘ financial assistance directly as well as through other institutions to all types of industrial concerns irrespective of their size or form of ownership. There are no maximum or minimum limits on the amount of assistance or security. The Bank has the freedom to deal with any problem relating to industrial development in general and industrial finance in particular.

The IDBI has created a special fund known as Development Assistance Fund to assist industrial concerns which are not able to get assistance from normal sources. It makes available foreign funds to industrial concerns.

5.2.3 Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI):
SIDBI was set up on April 2, 1990 under a special Act of Parliament, as a wholly owned subsidiary, of the IDBI. SIDBI took over the outstanding portfolio of IDBI relating to the small scale sector worth over ₹ 4,000 crores. It has taken over the responsibility of administering Small Industries Development Fund and National Equity Fund which were earlier administered by IDBI. SIDBI was r delinked from the IDBI through the SIDBI (Amendment) Act, 2000 with effect from March 27,2000. Its management vests with an elected Board of Directors.

Objectives – SIDBI was envisaged as “the principal financial institution for the promotion, financing and development of industry in the small scale sector and to coordinate the functions of other institutions engaged in the promotion, financing and developing industry in the small scale sector and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto”.

Thus, financing, promotion, development, and coordination are the basid objectives of SIDBI.

Functions – SIDBI’s main functions are:

  • Refinancing loans and advances extended by primary lending institutions to small scale industrial units.
  • Discounting and rediscounting bills arising from sale of machinery to or manufactured by industrial units in the small scale sector.
  • Extending need capital soft loan assistance under National Equity Fund, Mahila Udyam Nidhi, Mahila Vikas Nidhi and through specified agencies.
  • Granting direct assistance and refinance for financing exports of products manufactured in the small scale sector.
  • Extending support to State Small Industries Development Corporations (SSIDCs) for providing scarce raw materials to and marketing the end products of industrial units in the small scale sector.
  • Providing financial support to National Small Industries Corporation (NSIC) for providing leasing, hire-purchase and marketing support to industrial units in the small scale sector.

Organizations Facilitating Business – CA Foundation BCK Notes Chapter 5

5.2.4 Export-Import (EXIM) Bank of India:
Two major institutions which provide finance to exporters are the Export-Import Bank of India, and the Export Credit Guarantee Corporation. The Export-Import Bank of India was established on January 1,1982 under an Act of Parliament for the purpose of financing, facilitating and promoting India’s foreign trade. It is the principal financial institution for coordinating the working of institutions engaged in financing exports and imports.

Mission – The mission of Exim Bank is “to develop commercially viable relationships with externally oriented companies by offering them a comprehensive range of products and services to enhance their internationalisation efforts”.

Objectives – The main objectives of the Exim Bank are as follows:

  • To translate India’s foreign trade policies into concrete action plans.
  • To assist exporters to become internationally competitive by providing them alternate financing solutions.
  • To develop mutually beneficial relationships with international financial community.
  • To forge close working relationships with other export financing agencies, multilateral funding agencies and investment promotion agencies.
  • To initiate and participate in debates on issues central to India’s international trade.
  • To anticipate and absorb new developments in banking, export financing and information technology.
  • To be responsive to export problems of Indian exporters and pursue policy resolutions.

Exim Bank concentrates on medium and long-term financing, leaving the short-term financing to commercial banks. The Bank has developed a global network through strategic linkages with World Bank, Asian Development Bank and other agencies

Functions:
The Exim Bank provides a wide range of financial facilities and services. Some of these are sum-marised below:
(i) Pre-Shipment Credit: This credit is provided to buy raw materials and other inputs required to produce capital goods meant for exports. It meets temporary funding requirement of export contracts. Exim Bank offers pre-shipment credit for periods, exceeding 180 days. Exporters can also avail of pre-shipment credit in foreign currency for imports of inputs needed for manufacture of export products.

(ii) Supplier’s Credit: Exim Bank offers supplier’s credit in rupees or foreign currency at post-shipment stage to finance exports of eligible goods and services on deferred payment terms. Supplier’s credit’s available both for supply contracts and project exports which includes construction, turnkey or consultancy contracts undertaken overseas.

(iii) Finance for Exports of Consultancy and Technology Services: A special credit facility is available to exporters of consultancy and technology services on deferred payment terms. The services include transfer of technology/know-how, preparation of project feasibility reports, providing personnel for rendering technical services, maintenance and management contracts, etc.

(iv) Finance for Project Export Contracts: This scheme is meant to finance rupee expenditure for execution of overseas project export contracts such as for acquisition of materials and equipment, mobilisation of personnel, payments to be made to staff, sub-contractors, and to meet project related overheads. The amount involved is usually in excess of ₹ 50 lakhs and the maximum period of loan is four years.

(v) Credit to Overseas Entities: Overseas buyers can avail of Buyer’s Credit for importing eligible goods from India on deferred payment basis. Exim Bank also extends Lines of credit to overseas financial institutions, foreign governments and their agencies for enabling them to provide term loans for importing eligible goods from India.

(vi) Finance for Export-Oriented Units: Exim Bank offers several facilities to export-oriented units (EOUs). Some of these are:
(a) Project Finance – Exim Bank offers term loans for setting up new units and for mod-ernization expansion of existing units. The Bank also extends 100 per cent refinance to commercial banks for term loans sanctioned to an EOU.

(b) Equipment Finance – Exim Bank offers a line of credit for Indian/foreign production equipment, including equipment for packaging, pollution control, etc. It also provides term loans to vendors of EOUs to enable them to acquire plant and machinery and other assets required for increasing export capability. Such finance is given for non-project related capital expenditure of EOUs.

(c) Working Capital Finance – Exim Bank provides term loans both in rupees and foreign currency to help EOUs meet their working capital requirements. Short-term working capital finance is provided for imports of eligible inputs.

(d) R&D Finance – Exim Bank offers term loans to EOUs for development of new techno-logy as well as to develop and/or commercialise new product process applications.

(e) Import Finance – Term loans in Indian rupees/foreign currency are available to Indian manufacturing companies for import of consumable inputs, canalised items, capital goods, plant and machinery, technology and know-how.

(f) Export Facilitation – Exim Bank offers term finance and non-funded facilities to Indian companies to create infrastructure facilities for developing Indian’s foreign trade and thereby enhance their export capability. Software exporters can get term loans to set up/expand software training institutes and software technology parks. This facility is also available to Indian companies involved in development of ports and port related services.

(g) Export Marketing Finance – Term loans are offered to assist the firms in export marketing and development efforts. Desk/field research, overseas travel, quality certification, product launch are the typical activities eligible for finance under this schemes. Finance is also given to support export product development plans with focus on industrialised market.

(h) Underwriting – Exim Bank extends underwriting facility to help the firms raise finance from capital markets. It also issues guarantees to facilitate export contracts and import transactions.

(vii) Finance for Joint Ventures Abroad:
(a) Overseas Investment Finance – Any Indian promoter making equity investment abroad t in an existing company or in a new project is eligible for finance under the scheme. Assistance is provided both in terms of loans and guarantees.

(b) Asian Countries Investment Partners Programme – This programme seeks to promote joint ventures in India between Indian companies and companies from other Asian countries. Finance is provided at various stages of project cycle, viz., sector study, 1 project identification, feasibility study, proto-type development, setting up project, and technical and managerial assistance.

Exim Bank also offers a wide range of information, advisory and support services which help exporters to evaluate international risks, exploit export opportunities and improve competitiveness.

Organizations Facilitating Business – CA Foundation BCK Notes Chapter 5

5.2.5 National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD):
NABARD was established on December 15, 1981 under the NABARD Act. It started functioning on July 1, 1982. It was set up to provide credit for the promotion of agriculture, cottage and village industries, handicrafts and other rural crafts and other economic activities in rural areas with a view to promote Integrated Rural Development Program (IRDP) and to secure prosperity in rural areas.

Objectives:

  • to serve as a financing institution for institutional credit (both long term and short term) for promoting economic activities in rural areas.
  • to provide direct lending to any institution as approved by the Central Government.

Functions:
1. Credit Functions :
(a) providing short term credit to State Cooperative Banks, Regional Rural Banks and other RBI approved financial institutions for the following activities:

  • Seasonal agricultural operations
  • marketing of crops
  • pisciculture activities
  • production/procurement and marketing of co-operative weavers and rural artisans, i.e. individuals and societies.
  • production and marketing activities of industrial co-operations.

(b) providing medium term credit to State Cooperative Banks, State Land Development Banks, Regional Rural Banks and other RBI approved financial institutions for converting short-term agricultural purposes.

(c) Providing long term credit to State Land Development Banks, Regional Rural Banks, Commercial Banks, State cooperative Banks and other approved financial institutions.

(d) refinancing cottage/village and small scale industries located in rural areas.

2. Development Functions:

  • Co-coordinating the operations of rural credit institutions
  • Developing expertise to deal with agricultural and rural development efforts
  • Acting as an agent to the Government and RBI for business transactions in relevant areas and provide facilities for training, research and dissemination of information in rural banking and development
  • Contributing to the share capital of eligible institutions
  • Providing direct loans to centrally approved cases.

3. Regulatory Functions:

  • inspecting Regional Rural Banks and Cooperative Banks other than the Primary cooperative Banks
  • recommending for RBI approval opening of a new branch by Regional Rural Banks or Cooperative Banks
  • asking Regional Rural Banks and Cooperative Banks to file returns and documents.

Contingent & Quasi Contracts – CA Foundation Law Study Material

This Contingent & Quasi Contracts – CA Foundation Law Study Material is designed strictly as per the latest syllabus and exam pattern.

Contingent & Quasi Contracts – CA Foundation Business Law Study Material

Question 1.
Define a contingent contract and explain its essentials.
Answer:
“A contingent contract is a contract to do or not to do something, if some event, collateral to such contract, does or does not happen” – [Section 31]. Contracts of insurance, indemnity and guarantee are examples of contingent contracts. For this purpose collateral event means an event which is, “neither a performance directly promised as part of the contract, nor the whole of the consideration for a promise”.

ESSENTIALS OF CONTINGENT CONTRACTS

  • The performance of such contracts depends on a contingency i.e., on the happening or non-happening of the future event.
  • The event must be collateral ie., incidental to the contract. Thus the event must not be a part of reciprocal promises forming the contract.
  • The event must be uncertain. If the event is bound to happen the contract is due to be performed in any case then it is not a contingent contract.
  • The contingent event should not be the mere will of the promisor.

Question 2.
What are the rules regarding contingent contracts?
Answer:
Sections 32 to 36 of the Contract Act contain certain rules regarding the contingent contract, they are summarised below:

Sec. 32. Contracts dependent on the happening of a future uncertain event:
Contracts contingent upon the happening of a future uncertain event, cannot be enforced by law unless and until that event has happened. If the event becomes impossible, such contracts become void.

Example: Agrees to pay B a sum of money if a certain ship returns. The Contract can be enforced only where the ship returns. If the ship sinks, the contract becomes void.

Sec. 33. Contracts dependent on the non-happening of an uncertain future event: Contracts contingent upon the non-happening of an uncertain future event, can be enforced when the happening of that event becomes impossible and not before-illustration: 1. A agrees to pay B a sum of money if a certain ship does not return. The ship is sunk. The contract can be enforced when the ship sinks. If the ship returns the contract becomes void.

Sec. 35(1) Contracts dependent on the happening of an event within a fixed time: Contracts contingent upon the happening of an event within a fixed time become void if, at the expiration of the fixed time, such event has not happened or if, before the time fixed, such event becomes impossible.

Illustration: 1 A promises to pay B a sum of money if a certain ship returns within a year. The contract may be enforced if the ship returns within a year, and becomes
void if the ship is burnt within a year (since the event becomes impossible).

Sec. 35(2). Contracts dependent on the non-happening of an event within a fixed time: Contracts contingent upon the non-happening of an event within a fixed time may be enforced by law when the time fixed has expired and such event has not happened, or before the time fixed has expired, if it becomes certain that such event will not happen.

Illustration: 1 A promises to pay B a sum of money if a certain ship does not return within a year. The contract may be enforced if the ship does not return within the year, or is burnt within a year.

Sec. 34 Contracts dependent on the future conduct of a person acting in a particular way: If a contract is contingent upon how a person will act at an unspecified time, the event shall be considered to become impossible when such person does anything which renders it impossible that he should so act within any definite time, or otherwise than under further contingencies.
In other words, if a promise depends on the act of a third party, it will become void should such a third party refuse to do the act or if he incapacitates himself from doing it. For e.g. S sells goods to B and B promises to pay the price after C has fixed it. If C refuses to fix the price or if he dies before fixing it, the agreement becomes void.

Illustration: 1 A agrees to pay B a sum of money if B marries C. C marries D. The marriage of B to C must now be considered impossible although it is possible that D may die and that C may afterward marry B.

Sec. 36 Contracts dependent on an impossible event: Contingent agreements to do or not to do anything, if an impossible event happens, are void, whether the impossibility of the event is known or not to the parties to the agreement at the time when it is made.

Contingent & Quasi Contracts – CA Foundation Law Study Material

Question 3.
What is a Quasi Contract? What are the types of Quasi Contracts, as provided under the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
Answer:
A quasi-contract is similar to a contract. Just like a contract it also creates legal obligations. But the legal obligations created by quasi-contract do not rest on any agreement but are imposed by law. It is, therefore, contractual in law, but not in fact. It is an obligation which the law creates in the absence of any agreement when the acts of the parties or others have placed in the possession of one person, money or its equivalent, under such circumstances that in equity and good conscience he ought not to retain it, and which ex-auto Bono (in justice and fairness) belongs to another.
Quasi-contracts are based on principles of equity, justice, and good conscience. They aim at prevention of “unjust enrichment” i.e. no man shall be allowed to enrich himself at the cost of another.

Types of Quasi Contracts:-

Sections 68 to 72 of the Contract Act deals with five different types of quasi-contracts. In each of these cases, there is no real contract between the parties, but due to peculiar circumstances in which they are placed, the law imposes in each of these cases a contractual liability:-

1. Claim for necessaries supplied to persons incapable of contracting (section 68)
“If a person, incapable of entering into a contract, or anyone whom he is legally bound to support, is supplied by another person with necessaries suited to his condition in life, the person who has furnished such supplies is entitled to be reimbursed from the property of such incapable person.

2. Right to recover money paid for another person (Section 69):
A person who has paid a sum of money that another is obliged to pay, is entitled to be reimbursed by that other person provided the payment has been made by him to protect his own interest.
Conditions: The following are the conditions mentioned in sec. 69:

  1. The payment made should be bona fide for the protection of one’s interest.
  2. The payment should not be a voluntary one.
  3. The payment must be such as the other party was bound by law to pay.

3. Obligation of a person enjoying benefits of the non-gratuitous act (Section 70):
“Where a person lawfully does anything for another person or delivers anything to him not intending to do so gratuitously, and such other person enjoys the benefit thereof, the latter is bound to make compensation to the former in respect of, or to restore, the thing so done or delivered”.
It thus follows that for a suit to succeed, the plaintiff must prove:

  • that he had done the act or had delivered the thing lawfully,
  • that he did not do so gratuitously, and
  • that the other person enjoyed the benefit.

4. Responsibility of a finder of goods (Section 71)
“A person who finds goods belonging to another and takes them into his custody is subject to the same responsibility as a bailee”.

Conditions
1. A person who finds goods and takes possession of it is responsible as a bailee.
2. That is, he is liable –

  • to try and find out the true owner and
  • to take due care of the property (section 151)

3. Finder is entitled to a lien until paid compensation, but cannot file a suit to recover such compensation.
4. Finder is entitled to possession against all except the true owner.
5. When the owner declares reward, the finder can sue for reward.
6. Right of re-sale: If the owner is not found or if he refuses to pay lawful charges, the finder may sell-

  • When the thing is in danger of perishing or losing the greater part of its value.
  • When the lawful charges amount to two-thirds of its value.

5. Liability for money paid or things delivered by mistake or under coercion (Section 72):
“A person to whom money has been paid, or anything delivered by mistake or under coercion must repay or return it (Sec. 72) ”.

Contingent & Quasi Contracts – CA Foundation Law Study Material

Question 4.
Differentiate between Contingent Contracts and Wagering Agreements.
Answer:
Difference between contingent contract and wagering agreement:

Wagering Agreements contingent contract
A wagering agreement is void. A contingent contract is valid.
A wagering agreement consists of reciprocal promises. A contingency contract may not contain reciprocal promises.
In a wagering agreement, the parties have no interest in the subject matter of the contract. In a contingent contract, either party may have interest in the subject matter of the contract.
In a wagering agreement, the future event is the sole determining factor. In a contingent contract, the future event is only collateral and incidental.
Every wagering agreement is of a contingent nature. Every contingent contract is not of a wagering nature.

Question 5.
Z rent out his house situated at Mumbai to W for rent of ₹ 10,000 per month. A sum of ₹ 5 lakh, the house tax payable by Z to the Municipal Corporation being in arrears, his house is advertised for sale by the corporation. W pays the corporation, the sum due from Z to avoid legal consequences. Referring to the provisions of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 decide whether W is entitled to get the reimbursement of the said amount from Z.
Answer:
Hint: Quasi Contract; right to recover money paid for another; W is entitled to reimbursement from Z since he is an interested party.

Contingent & Quasi Contracts – CA Foundation Law Study Material

Question 6.
A agrees to pay B ₹ 5,000 if he marries C. C dies before the marriage. Can B recover the amount?
Answer:
Hint: No, the agreement has become void due to death.

Question 7.
A supplied necessaries of life to the wife of a lunatic. Can he get the payment? If yes, how?
Answer:
Hint: Yes, out of the property of the lunatic, if any. [Claim for necessaries of life supplied to an incompetent person or his dependent.]

Question 8.
A promises to pay B ? 1 lakh if B’s ship does not return. When can this promise be enforced?
Answer:
Hint: If the ship is destroyed or sunk, since the contract is contingent upon non-happening of a specific future uncertain event [ie. non-returning of ship]

Question 9.
Y holds agricultural land in Gujarat on a lease granted by X, the owner. The land revenue payable by X to the Government being in arrear his land is advertised for sale by the Government. Under the Revenue law, the consequence of such a sale will be termination of lease. Y, in order to prevent the sale and the consequent termination of his own lease, pays the Government, the sum due from X. Referring to the provisions of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 decide whether X is liable to make good to Y, the amount so paid?
Answer:
Hint: X is liable to pay to Y the amount paid by Y to the Government.

Communication – BCR CA Foundation Study Material

This Communication – BCR CA Foundation Study Material is designed strictly as per the latest syllabus and exam pattern.

Communication – BCR CA Foundation Study Material

Question 1.
What is communication? Explain the elements of the communication process.
Answer:
Communication is defined as the process of sharing (exchanging) information, ideas, thoughts, feelings, and emotions between two or more persons.

Process of Communication
The communication process consists of the following elements:

Communication – CA Foundation Law Study Material Chapter 20 Img 7

 

  1. Sender: The sender is the person who initiates the process of communication. The sender may be a speaker, a writer, an actor, a painter, etc.
  2. Encoding: The process of converting the message into words, symbols, pictures, etc. is called encoding.
  3. Message: Message means whatever is to be communicated. It is the heart of the communication process.
  4. Channel: The medium through which the message is sent is called a channel. It may be a speech, a letter, an e-mail, SMS, gesture, sound, etc.
  5. Receiver: The person to whom the message is sent is the receiver. The receiver may be a listener, a reader, or a viewer
  6. Feedback: The reaction or response to the message is called feedback
  7. Noise: Any disturbance, hurdle, or barrier to communication is noise.

Communication – BCR CA Foundation Study Material

Question 2.
What are the various types of communication networks?
Answer:
The pattern used to share information is known as a communication network. The main types of communication networks are given below:

1. VERTICAL NETWORK: This network is used for communication between a superior and a subordinate. It is two-way communication in which immediate feedback can be available

Communication – CA Foundation Law Study Material Chapter 20 Img 8

 

2. CIRCUIT NETWORK: When two employees at the same level of authority communicate with each other, it is a circuit network.

Communication – CA Foundation Law Study Material Chapter 20 Img 9

 

3. CHAIN NETWORK: In this network, communication flows through the chain of command. The message flows from the chief executive downward to different levels of employees. In the following, diagram A gives commands to B, C, D, E, F, and G working at different levels in the hierarchy. In chain network communication gets delayed as it has to pass through several layers. Communication may be distorted due to filtering at various levels.

Communication – CA Foundation Law Study Material Chapter 20 Img 10

 

4. WHEEL: In this network, a single authority gives orders and instructions to all the employees around him. They also report directly to him. This network may be efficient for a small organization provided the central authority is competent. But in a large organization, all decisions cannot be taken by one person.

Communication – CA Foundation Law Study Material Chapter 20 Img 11

 

5. STAR NETWORK: In this network members of an organization communicate through multiple channels. They exchange information with each other freely without any obstacles. Star network encourages group communication and teamwork in the organization.

Communication – CA Foundation Law Study Material Chapter 20 Img 12

 

Question 3.
What is meant by non-verbal communication?
Answer:
Communication without using words is called non-verbal communication. Non-verbal communication may take the following forms:

(a) Body Language: Communication through facial expressions, gestures, stance, touch, and other physical signs is called body language. For example, leaning forward may indicate interest and acceptance whereas leaning backward may mean rejection and lack of interest. Body language (e.g. smile, frown, clenching of hands, etc. can transmit emotions that cannot be expressed through words. Body language constitutes a major part (about 55 percent) of all communication.

(b) Paralanguage: Pitch, tone, quality, etc. of voice is known as paralanguage. The way one speaks, rather than words, reveals the intent of the speaker. Paralanguage constitutes about 38 percent of all communications.

(c) Aesthetics: Music, dancing, painting sculpture, and other forms of art serve as means of communication. These convey the feelings and thoughts of artists.

(d) Appearance: Dress and grooming create the first impression. In offices, there is a dress code. Formal dress for men may consist of shirt, trousers, coat and leather shoes. For women, it may consist of a saree, suit, shirt, trouser, or skirt.

(e) Symbols: Symbols may relate to religion, status, ego, etc. These convey a special meaning. For example, the number of stars on the shirt of a police officer reveals his/her status.

Communication – BCR CA Foundation Study Material

Question 4.
What are the barriers to communication?
Answer:
The various barriers in communication may be classified as under:

1. Language or Semantic Barriers: Difficult words, ambiguous words, jargon (terminology used in a specific field e.g. medical science), unfamiliar expressions have several meanings. People from different regions and nations may interpret the same words in different ways. Therefore, clear, simple, and easily understandable language should be used in communication.

2. Physical Barriers: These barriers arise due to noise, faulty equipment, distant locations, outdated technology, and lack of good infrastructure.

3. Technology Barriers: Anyone who is not familiar with modern communication technology (video conference, e-mail, SMS, WhatsApp, etc.) may fail to communicate effectively.

4. Physiological Barriers: Poor eyesight, difficulty in hearing, ill-health, and other such problems act as hurdles in communication.

5. Organizational Barriers: When the chain of command is unclear, an employee may not know whom to contact for a particular matter. Rigid and ambiguous structures, systems, and processes in an organization also hamper effective communication. Unclear roles and responsibilities cause confusion.

6. Cultural Barriers: People belonging to different cultures derive different meanings from the same message. People working in multinationals have to communicate with persons from different cultures. Lack of understanding of alien cultures inhibits communications. In this era of globalization, it is essential to understand cultural differences to communicate effectively.

7. Gender Barriers: Men and women often communicate in different ways. Men tend to talk in a logical and linear manner whereas women tend to use both logical emotions and are verbose. Men may blame women for transmitting too much information. Similarly, women may blame men for giving inadequate information. Gender bias is another barrier in communication. Male employees with the traditional mindset may find it difficult to take orders from a female boss.

8. Perception Barriers: Everyone perceives things in different ways. Two persons may interpret the same event/object differently. Differences in perception lead to miscommunication.

9. Emotional Barriers: Anger, jealousy, anxiety, lack of trust, fear of criticism, and similar feelings/sentiments hinder free and open communication. A disturbed or upset individual can neither convey nor receive information objectively.

10. Attitude Barriers: A shy introvert, lazy or frustrated worker cannot communicate effectively.

Question 5.
What are the essentials of Effective Communication? or What are the ‘7Cs’ of Communication? or Characteristics of Effective Communication.
Answer:

1. Clarity: The message must be expressed in simple and easy-to-understand language. Short sentences should be used and each idea must be stated in a separate paragraph.

2. Conciseness: Only necessary and relevant words must be used. Brevity is the essence of effective communication. There should be no repetitions & unnecessary words in the message.

3. Completeness: The message must be complete as omissions of necessary. facts create confusion and misunderstanding

4. Concreteness: Use facts and figures in place of abstract ideas. The mes¬sage must be expressed in precise words.

5. Coherence: Different elements of the message must be organized in a sequential and logical way. Words, sentences, and paragraphs must be inter-connected and there should be a smooth flow of information.

6. Courtesy: The sender of the message must take into consideration the feelings and viewpoints of the receiver. He should be polite, respectful, and honest. The message and its tune must not be offensive.

7. Correctness: The message must be accurate in all respects.

8. Attention and Listening: The receiver must pay full attention to the message. He should not only listen to the spoken words but also carefully observe the speaker’s body language. In the case of written messages, the reader must read between the lines.

9. Emotional Awareness & Control: Managing your own & other emotions & communicating keeping in mind the emotional state of others helps in smooth interaction & prevents the breakdown of the communication process.

Communication – BCR CA Foundation Study Material

Question 6.
Differentiate between the following:

  1. Formal & Informal Communication
  2. Written & Oral Communication

Answer:
1. Formal & Informal Communication

Basis & Distinction Formal Communication Informal communication
Meaning A type of verbal Communication whereby the exchange of information takes place through predefined & formally established channels in the organization. It is also known as Official Communication. A type of verbal as well as non-verbal communication in which the exchange of information does not follow any predefined & established channels in the organization. It is also known as Grapevine Communication.
Reliability it is more reliable in nature since it takes place through formally authorized channels. It is less reliable in comparison to formal communication.
Speed This type of Communication is time-consuming and slow. It is less time-consuming and very fast.
Secrecy Full secrecy is maintained and assured informal Communication. It is difficult to maintain secrecy in this type of Communication.
Disadvantage There is a possibility of distortion due to the filtration of information as it moves up and down the chain of hierarchy. There is a possibility of distortion of information on account of the spread of rumors and gossips.
Advantage Since control can be exercised on formal channels of communication, this type of communication is more effective and is able to meet organizational objectives. This type of Communication is efficient since employees can discuss their problems openly and this saves time and cost for the organization.
Evidence As this Communication is generally written, documentary evidence is present. This Communication is generally oral and is supported by non-verbal Communication, no documentary evidence is present.

2. Written & Oral Communication

Basis Distinction Written Communication Oral Communication
Meaning interchange of ideas, messages, and information through words in writing is said to be written Communication. The exchange of ideas, information, and messages through spoken words is said to be oral communication.
Literacy Since this communication requires written words, literacy is necessary for communication. Since this communication takes place through spoken words i.e. words of the month, literacy is not imperative.
Speed The transmission of the message takes place slowly. The transmission of messages is quick & speedy.
Evidence Written communication involves proper records & documents. There are no records in the case of oral communication.
Reference Since this Communication is well documented it can be retained and referred to in the future. Since there is no record of this type of Communication it cannot: be referred to in the future.
Feedback The feedback generated in the case of written Communication takes time. The feedback in the case of oral communication is prompt and immediate.

Question 7.
What are the main steps in the process of communication?
Answer:
Steps in the process of communication

  • The purpose of reason
  • The content or message
  • The medium used for conveying the message (internet, written text, speech, etc.)
  • Transmitting the message
  • Messages are often misinterpreted due to external disturbances. These factors disrupt communication
  • Receiving the message
  • Deciphering/decoding the message
  • Interpreting and figuring out what the real message is.

Communication – BCR CA Foundation Study Material

Question 8.
What is diagonal communication?
Answer:
Diagonal Communication.
It is part of the formal communication section. It refers to the cross-functional communication between different levels of employees in an organization. It is commonly found in large organizations. Diagonal communication is recommended as it reduces the gaps between communication and encourages direct talks with the third party. For example, a junior engineer directly reporting to the General Manager about the progress of a project.

Question 9.
Define visual communication.
Answer:
(a) Visual communication
Communication that happens through visual aids such as signs, graphic designs colors, illustrations, etc. is visual communication. It is a powerful medium these days, especially for office presentations. Visuals can also include pie charts, graphs, or any other colorful representation. It adds value to the content and forms a major part of audiovisual ppts.

Unpaid Seller – CA Foundation Law Study Material

This Unpaid Seller – CA Foundation Law Study Material is designed strictly as per the latest syllabus and exam pattern.

Unpaid Seller – CA Foundation Business Law Study Material

Question 1.
What are the rights of the buyer against the seller in case of breach of contract by him, under the provisions of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930?
Answer:
A buyer has the following rights against the seller for breach of contract under the Sale of Goods Act.

1. Suit for non-delivery [Sec. 57]
Where the seller wrongfully neglects or refuses to deliver the goods to the buyer, the buyer may sue the seller for damages for non-delivery. This remedy would be available even if the property has passed to the buyer.

2. Specific performance [Sec. 58]
Where a property has passed to the buyer, he also can exercise another right, viz., a right to sue for specific performance, and its limits are regulated by the Specific Relief Act. In such cases, the court may in its discretion grant a decree ordering the seller to deliver those specific or ascertained goods which formed the subject matter of the contract. It should be noted that the remedy is discretionary and will only be granted if the damages are not an adequate remedy or the goods are unique, e.g., a rare book, a picture, or a rare piece of jewelry.

3. Breach of Warranty [Sec. 59]
Where there is a breach of warranty by the seller (Le. defects in the goods delivered) or where the buyer elects or is compelled to treat any breach of a condition on the part of the seller as a breach of warranty, the buyer has the following remedies:

  • He may claim a deduction from the price.
  • He may refuse to pay the price altogether if the loss equals the price.
  • If the loss exceeds the price, he may not only refuse to pay the price but also claim the excess or
  • He may sue the seller for damages for the breach of the warranty in addition to the right to claim diminution or extinction of the price.

4. Suit for Anticipatory breach [Sec. 60]
The buyer has the right to sue the seller for damages for anticipatory breach of contract Section 60 lays down that where the seller repudiates the contracts before the date of delivery, the buyer may either treat the contract as subsisting and wait till the date of delivery or he may treat the contract as rescinded and sue for damages for the breach.

5. Suit for interest and recovery of the price [Sec. 61]
If the buyer has already paid the price and the seller fails to deliver the goods, the buyer is entitled to file a suit for the refund of the price. In such a suit, the buyer may also claim interest or special damages from the defaulting seller. In the absence of any other contract to the contrary, the court may award interest at such rate as it thinks fit on the amount of price from the date on which the payment was made.

Unpaid Seller – CA Foundation Law Study Material

Question 2.
Explain ‘Right of lien’ as the right of the unpaid seller against the goods in case of breach by the buyer, under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930.
Answer:
The ‘unpaid seller has a lien on the goods for the price while he is in possession until the payment or tender of the price. A lien is a right to retain possession of goods until payment of the price. He is entitled to lien in the following three cases, namely:-

  • where goods have been sold without any stipulation as to credit; ie. cash sale.
  • where goods have been sold on credit but the term of credit has expired; or
  • where the buyer becomes insolvent.

Rules:

  1. The seller may exercise his right of lien notwithstanding that he is in possession of the goods as agent or bailee for the buyer.
  2. If the goods have been sold on credit, the seller cannot refuse to part with possession unless the term of credit has expired.
  3. Lien can be exercised for non-payment of the price, not for any other charges.
  4. Effect of part delivery (Sec. 48): When an unpaid seller has made part delivery of the goods he can exercise a lien on the balance of the goods not delivered unless the part delivery was made under such circumstances as to show an intention to waive the lien.
  5. The seller can abandon or waive the lien if he so desires.
  6. Termination of lien (Sec. 49): If possession is lost, the lien is lost. The unpaid seller of goods loses his lien thereon in the following cases:

(a) When he delivers the goods to a carrier or other bailee for the purpose of transmission to the buyer without reserving the right of disposal of the goods;
(b) when the buyer or his agent lawfully obtains possession of the goods; and
(c) where the seller has waived the right of lien. The unpaid seller does not lose his lien by reason only that he has obtained a decree for the price of the goods.

Unpaid Seller – CA Foundation Law Study Material

Question 3.
What are the rights of unpaid sellers against the buyer personally, under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930?
Answer:
1. Suit for the Price [Sec. 55]
Where under a contract of sale the property in the goods has passed to the buyer and the buyer wrongfully neglects or refuses to pay for the goods according to the terms of the contract, the seller may sue him for the price of the goods.

Where the property in goods has not passed to the buyer, the seller as a rule cannot file a suit for the price and his remedy is to claim damages.
According to section 55(2), where under a contract of sale the price is payable on a certain day irrespective of delivery and the buyer wrongfully neglects or refuses to pay such price, the seller may sue him for the price although the property in the Goods has not passed and the goods have not been appropriated to the contract.

2. Suit for damages for non-acceptance [Sec. 56]
Where the buyer wrongfully neglects or refuses to accept and pay for the goods, the seller may sue him for damages for non-acceptance.

3. Suit for damages for repudiation of the contract [Sec. 60]
Where the buyer repudiates the contract before the date of delivery, the seller may either treat the contract as subsisting and wait till the date of delivery, or he may treat the contract as rescinded and sue for damages for the breach.

4. Claim for interest and special damages [Sec. 61]
The seller may recover interest or special damages in any case where by law interest or special damages may be recoverable.

Question 4.
Explain the rules with respect to Auction Sales.
OR
Referring to the provisions of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 state the rules provided to regulate the “Sale by Auction.”
Answer:

Rules of Auction Sale (Sec. 64) Following rules have been laid down to regulate the sales by auction:
Sale of goods in lots Where goods are put up for sale in lots, each lot is prima facie deemed to be the subject of a separate contract of sale.
Completion of Sale An auction sale is complete when the auctioneer announces its completion by the fall of the hammer or in another customary manner, and until then the bidder has the right to revoke or retract his bid.
Seller’s Right to Bid Unless the auction is notified to be subject to a right to bid on behalf of the seller, it is not lawful – (i) for the seller to bid himself or to employ any person to bid at such sale on his behalf and (ii)  for the auctioneer to, knowingly take any bid from the seller or any such person. Any contravention of this rule renders the sale fraudulent.
Pretended bidding If the seller makes use of pretended bidding to raise the price, the sale is voidable at the option of the buyer. However, the seller may expressly reserve the right to bid at the auction and in such case, the seller or anyone person on his behalf may hide at the auction.
Reserve Price The seller may notify that the auction will be subject to a reserve or upset price, that is, the price below which the auctioneer will not sell.

Unpaid Seller – CA Foundation Law Study Material

Question 5.
What is meant by the right of stoppage in transit? How can it be affected by the seller?
Answer:
When the buyer of goods becomes insolvent, and the goods are in course of transit to the buyer, the seller can resume possession of the goods from the carrier. This is known as the right of stoppage in transit. The right is exercisable by the seller only if the following conditions are fulfilled:

  • The seller must be unpaid.
  • He must have parted with the possession of goods.
  • The goods must be in transit.
  • The buyer must have become insolvent.

The right of stoppage means the right to stop further transit of the goods to resume possession and to retain the same till the price is paid.

The two modes of stoppage in transit are

  • By taking actual possession of the goods or
  • By giving notice to the carrier not to deliver the goods to the buyer or his agent.

When notice of stoppage in transit is given by the seller to the carrier or other bailee in possession of the goods, he shall re-deliver the goods to, or according to the directions of, the seller. The expenses of such re-delivery shall be borne by the seller.

Question 6.
Under the provisions of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, when are the goods considered to be in transit? When does the transit come to an end?
Ans. The goods are deemed to be in course of transit from the time they are delivered to a carrier or other bailee for the purpose of transmission to the buyer until the buyer or his agent takes delivery of them.
When does transit end?
1. Delivery before destination: If the buyer or his agent obtains delivery of the goods before their arrival at the appointed destination, the transit is at an end. [Sec. 51(2)]

2. Attornment by the carrier to the buyer: If after the arrival of the goods at the appointed destination, the carrier expressly or by implication enters into a new agreement to hold the goods for the buyer (for purpose of custody), the original transit comes to an end. [Sec. 51(3)]

3. Goods rejected by the buyer: If the goods are rejected by the buyer and they continue to be in possession of the carrier or other bailee, then the transit continues even if the seller has refused to receive them back. [Sec. 51(4)]

4. Delivery on a ship chartered by the buyer: When the goods are delivered to a carrier who is acting as an agent of the buyer, e.g. when goods are delivered to a ship chartered by the buyer, the transit comes to an end as soon as the goods are loaded on board the ship. [Sec. 51 (5)]

5. Wrongful refusal by the carrier to deliver: If the carrier wrongfully refuses to deliver the goods to the buyer, the transit is at an end. [Sec. 51(6)]

6. Part delivery. Where the part delivery of the goods has been made to the buyer the remainder of the goods may be stopped in transit unless such part delivery has been given in such circumstances as to show an agreement to give up possession of the whole of the goods.

Unpaid Seller – CA Foundation Law Study Material

Question 7.
Differentiate between Right of lien and stoppage in transit.
Answer:

BASIS RIGHT OF LIEN RIGHT OF STOPPAGE IN TRANSIT
Objective To retain the possession of goods. To regain the possession of goods handed over by the seller to a carrier for the purpose of transmission to the buyer.
Buyers’ Status This right can be exercised when the buyer has not paid the price, irrespective of the fact whether or not he is insolvent. This right can be exercised only in the event of the buyer’s insolvency.
Possession of Goods To exercise this right, the goods should be in the actual/ constructive possession of the seller. This right can be exercised when the seller has parted with the possession of goods. The goods should be in the custody of the carrier/bailee and the goods should not have been delivered to the buyer or his agent.
End Point The termination of the Right of lien is the starting point of the Right of Stoppage in transit. Right of Stoppage in transit begins when the right of lien ends.
Person acting The right of lien is generally exercised by the seller himself. Right of Stoppage in transit is generally exercised by the seller through the carrier/bailee in possession of goods.

Question 8.
Stale the circumstances in which the unpaid seller has the right of resale.
Ans. The unpaid seller who has retained possession of the goods in the exercise of his right of lien or who has resumed possession from the carrier upon insolvency of the buyer can resell the goods:

  • If the goods are of a perishable nature, without any notice to the buyer, and
  • In other cases after notice to the buyer, calling upon him to pay or tender the price within a reasonable time, and upon failure of the buyer to do so.

If the money realized upon such resale is not sufficient to compensate the seller, he can sue the buyer for the balance. But if he receives more than what is due to him, he can retain the excess. A resale does not absolve the buyer from his liabilities to compensate the seller for damages he may have suffered.

Unpaid Seller – CA Foundation Law Study Material

Question 9.
Mr. D Sold some goods to Mr. E for ? 5,00,000 on 15 days credit. Mr. D delivered the goods. On the due date, Mr. E refused to pay for it. State the position & rights of Mr. D as per the Sale of Goods Act, 1930.
Answer:
Hint: An unpaid seller is one who has not yet received the whole price under the contract of sale.
When such a seller has transferred the possession of goods to the buyer, then he cannot exercise his rights against the goods, he can only exercise his rights against the buyer which are as follows:

  1. Suit for price: The seller can sue the buyer for the price.
  2. Suit for damages for non-acceptance: The seller can sue for damages resulting from buyers’ refusal to accept & pay for goods.
  3. Suit for interest: The unpaid seller has a right to sue the buyer for interest on account of the delay in payment of the price.

Thus in the given case Mr. D, the unpaid seller is entitled to all the above remedies against Mr. E.

Question 10.
Ashu of Bombay enters into an agreement with Jay of New Delhi to supply five motor-cycles to be delivered to the latter at New Delhi. Ashu sends these motorcycles through Messers Deep Transport Ltd., a leading transporter. The motorcycle reaches New Delhi on time but Jyoti delays taking delivery. M/s Deep Transporter informs Jyoti that the motorcycles are lying at their godown at Jyoti’s risk. Before taking the delivery of these motorcycles, Jay becomes insolvent. Ashu wants to exercise his right of stoppage of goods in transit, under the Sale of Goods Act. Advise.
Answer:
Hint: Right of stoppage in transit can be exercised by an unpaid seller for the recovery of price on the fulfillment of the following conditions:

  1. the buyer must have become insolvent
  2. the goods must be in transit
  3. and the right must be exercised for the recovery of price.

Further goods are said to be in transit when they are out of the possession of the seller but not yet into the buyer’s possession of the buyer. However, if the carrier acknowledges to the buyer then the transit is deemed to have come to an end. In the given case the transporter M/s Deep acknowledges to the buyer Jay that the goods are at Jay’s risk. This results in termination of transit and hence the right to stoppage in transit cannot be exercised even if Jay subsequently becomes insolvent and has not taken delivery of the goods. Thus Ashu, the unpaid seller cannot exercise stoppage in transit.

Business Meeting – BCR CA Foundation Study Material

This Business Meeting – BCR CA Foundation Study Material is designed strictly as per the latest syllabus and exam pattern.

Business Meeting – BCR CA Foundation Study Material

Question 1.
Draft a notice convening the Twenty-Sixth Annual General Meeting of Strong Works Ltd. for the year ended 31st March 2007 to be held on 22nd September 2007 at Kalamandir Hall, 48 Shakespeare Sarani, Calcutta-17 at 11.00 a.m.
Answer:
Notice of The Annual General Meeting
Notice is hereby given that the 26th Annual General Meeting of Strong Works Ltd., will be held on 22nd of September of 2007 at Kalamandir Hall, 48 Shakespeare Sarani, Calcutta – 17, at 11:00 am; to transact the following business:-

Agenda of the Meeting-

  1. To confirm and adopt the minutes of the previous meeting of shareholders held on 25th June 2007.
  2. To receive, consider & adopt Profit & Loss Account for the year ended 31st March 2007 and the Balance Sheet as at the end of the said year together with the Auditors’ & Directors’ Report thereon.
  3. To appoint Auditors, to hold office for a period of 5 years ending on 22nd September 2012, subject to confirmation every year at Annual General Meeting and to fix their remuneration.
  4. To appoint a director in place of Mr. S.K. Agnihotri who retires by rota¬tion and being eligible offers himself for reappointment.
  5. To declare dividend @ t 5 per share as proposed by the directors at the board meeting, subject to the approval of shareholders by way of ordinary resolution for the year ended 31st March 2007.
    For and on behalf of B.O.D.
    Mr. A.K. Sharma
    Company Secretary
    Strong Works Ltd.

Business Meeting – BCR CA Foundation Study Material

Question 2.
You are Secretary of Ferguson College Thrift and Credit Cooperative Society (FCTCCS), Chennai. You had issued a notice to hold the monthly meeting of its Executive Committee to transact the following business:

  1. To confirm the minutes of the last meeting.
  2. To consider loan applications for ₹ 50,000 each received from three members.
  3. To recommend dividend for the year 2005-06.
  4. To consider the resignation of Mr. Pankaj Agarwal, the treasurer of the society.
  5. To fix the date of the Annual General Meeting of the Society.

The meeting took place on 10th September 2006 Draft the minutes keeping the above agenda in mind.
Answer:
Mr. Raghavan, President of the Society chaired the meeting. The Agenda of the meeting was taken up and the following resolutions were passed.

Decisions

1. Confirmation of the Minutes of the Last Meeting
The minutes of the previous meeting of the EC held on August 5, 2006, were read and confirmed.

2. To Consider Loan Applications from the Members
The loan applications of Mr. Sanjay Malhotra, Mr. Shrinivasan, and Ms. Rina Sliarma each seeking a loan of ₹ 50,000, were considered and loans were approved. The following resolution was passed unanimously: “Resolved that Mr. Sanjay Malhotra, Mr. Shrinivasan and Ms. Rina Shar- ma, who had applied for a loan of ₹ 50,000, each is sanctioned with interest @ 9% p.a. repayable in 40 equal installments. Further resolved that Secretary be and is hereby authorized to complete all formalities in this behalf”.

Business Meeting – BCR CA Foundation Study Material

3. Recommendation of Dividend for 2005-06
The matter of recommending payment of dividend for the year 2005-06 was taken up. After deliberations, it was resolved as under: “Resolved that Dividend at @ 6% for the year 2005-06 be and is hereby declared payable to the members of the Society.

4. To consider the resignation of Mr. Pankaj Agarwal, Treasurer of the Society.
The Chairman placed before the members the letter of resignation of Mr. Pankaj Agarwal, Treasurer. The resignation of Mr. Pankaj Agarwal was accepted with immediate effect. Mr. Mukesh Malik whose name was recommended by the Chairman was appointed interim Treasurer. It was resolved as under: “Resolved that resignation of Mr. Pankaj Agarwal be accepted with immediate effect.” Further resolved that Mr. Mukesh Malik, be and is hereby appointed interim treasurer of the society.

5. To fix the date the next Annual General Meeting
It was decided to hold the next Annual General Meeting of FCTCCS on October 15, 2006. The meeting ended with a vote of thanks to the Chair. Submitted by N.K. Jain Secretary

Resume Writing – BCR CA Foundation Study Material

This Resume Writing – BCR CA Foundation Study Material is designed strictly as per the latest syllabus and exam pattern.

Resume Writing – BCR CA Foundation Study Material

Question 1.
Draft a resume along with a cover letter in response to the advertisement for the post of Chief Accounts officer in a company.
Answer:
Name: Ms. Sulekha Sharma
Address: 28/56-J, Second floor
Mayur Vihar, Delhi
Contact: 9894026810
E-mail: sulekha.sharma@gmail.com

1. Career Objective: To be associated with an organization that will offer to me opportunities for growth and provides a challenging environment that will utilize my accounting skills & abilities to help the organization in attaining its objectives.

2. Experience:

  • Currently working with ABC Ltd. as Accounts Manager (Since January 2012)
  • Worked as Management Trainee in the Finance Department of RST Ltd. for IVz years (From May 2010 – Dec. 2011)

3. Educational Qualification

  • CA final in January 2010 from New Delhi with 62%
  • B.Com from Delhi University in 2007 with 70%
  • Class XII, CBSE Board in 2004 with 90.4%
  • Class X, CBSE Board in 2002 with 88%

4. Computer Skills :

  • Profound knowledge of Advanced MS Excel
  • Course in Tally – ERP
  • Working knowledge of SAP

5. Personal Skills:

  • Highly organized & efficient
  • Excellent communication & leadership skills

6. Personal Details :

  • Father’s Name – Mr. M.K. Sharma
  • Date of Birth – 8th Sep. 1985
  • Marital Status – Single

Date: 20.7.2018

Sulekha Sharma

Place: Delhi

(signature)

2. Specimen of a Covering Letter
28/56-J, Second Floor,
Mayur Vihar Delhi
Sulekha.sharma@gmail.com 24th July 2018.
H.R. Manager,
XYZ Ltd.
254, Safdarjung Enclave,
Delhi.
Dear Sir,
This is with reference to your advertisement in ‘The Times of India’ dated July 22, 2018, for the post of Chief Accounts Officer, in your esteemed organization. I hereby wish to apply for the same. Please find attached herewith my resume for your review.

I believe that my qualifications and professional experience highlighted in the enclosed resume will strongly indicate what I would be able to contribute to the value created by your organization. I assure you of my utmost sincerity and dedication if an opportunity is given to me.
I will be readily available for a personal interaction in case my candidature is considered for the aforesaid post. I look forward to a positive reply.
Thank you for your time & consideration,
Yours Sincerely,
Sulekha Sharma.

Resume Writing – BCR CA Foundation Study Material

Question 2.
Mr. Mohit Agarwal, a resident of Meerut has recently come across an advertisement for a job vacancy in a leading TV Channel for the post of journalist, in The Times of India dated August 1, 2018.
Draft a resume along with a cover letter in response to the advertisement.
Answer:

Cover Letter

To,

Dt. – August 6, 2018.

Manager – HR,
News – 360,
Honest Media Pvt. Ltd.
High Towers,
Hauz Khas,
New Delhi Dear Sir,
Subject: Application for the Post of Journalist
This is in response to your advertisement which appeared in the Times of India, New Delhi edition, dated August 1, 2018, inviting applications for the post of Journalist.

I meet all the academic and professional requirements as specified in the advertisement. I am a Post-graduate in Journalism & Mass Communication from Savitribai Phule Pune University and I did my internship at India Today Group. Currently, I am the head of the regional news section at Network 18’s – TV 18 Broadcast Ltd., at their Meerut office.

I am looking forward to a positive response and would appreciate an opportunity for a personal interview.
Thanking You,
Yours Sincerely,
Mohit Agarwal,
39, Defence Colony,
Meerut,
U.P.

Resume :
Mohit Agarwal 39, Defence Colony,
Meerut, U.P.
Ph. No. 9895641203
E-mail-14agarwalmohit@gmail.com

CAREER OBJECTIVE:
To associate with a reputed Media house that not only provides exciting opportunities for personal growth and value addition but also provides an enterprising and dynamic environment where I can apply my creativity & skills for the growth of the organization.

EXPERIENCE:
2015 – Present – Head, Regional News, TV18 Uttar Pradesh (Meerut)

  • Planning & hiring of staff correspondents
  • Selection and training of staff
  • planning production & presentation of news
  • Sponsorship planning & Media Planning for corporates

2013-2015 – Senior Staff Correspondent for PTC News.

  • Covering news stories
  • Capturing events
  • Conducting ground surveys in relation to pubic-related issues
  • Presenter for ‘Apki Khabar’ section of Daily News.

EDUCATION:
2012 – Masters in Journalism & Mass Communication, from Savitribai Phule Pune University.
2010 – Enghsh (Hons.) Delhi University, New Delhi.
INTERNSHIP
2012-4 Months at India Today Group.
2011 – 4 Months at HT Media.

SKILLS :

  • Well versed with Adobe Creative Suites & other Media Softwares
  • Ability to lead and take initiatives
  • Enterprising and creative skills.

PERSONAL DETAILS :
Date of Birth 14th October 1991
Marital Status Unmarried
Language Known English, Hindi & Punjabi

DECLARATION:
1 solemnly declare that all the above information is correct to the best of my knowledge & belief.
Date: August 6, 2018.
Place: Meerut. (Mohit Agarwal)

Resume Writing – BCR CA Foundation Study Material

PRACTICE QUESTIONS:
Question 1.
Draft your resume for the job of Software Engineer in a multinational.
Question 2.
Write a resume for the post of a Management Trainee in a multinational company located in Gurgaon. Assume necessary details.
Question 3.
Draft your resume for the position of the articled trainee in a firm.

Vocabulary – BCR CA Foundation Study Material

This Vocabulary – BCR CA Foundation Study Material is designed strictly as per the latest syllabus and exam pattern.

Vocabulary – BCR CA Foundation Study Material

Question 1.
Classify the following words as positive, negative, and neutral:

  1. Confident, Proud, Egotistical
  2. Childish, Childlike, Young, Youthful
  3. Disabled, Retarded, Crippled, Handicapped
  4. Cheap, Frugal, Economical, Miserly
  5. Different, Unique, Peculiar
  6. Use, Exploit, Employ
  7. Selective, Meticulous, Picky
  8. Observe, Spy, Watch
  9. Curious, Inquisitive, Nosy
  10. Slender, Slim, Scrawny, Thin, Skinny
  11. Smell, Aroma, Stench, Fragrance
  12. Manic, Elated, Happy
  13. Decrepit, Old, Vintage
  14. Filled, Sated, Crammed
  15. Adolescent, Immature, Juvenile, Innocent
  16. Guest, Intruder, Visitor
  17. Wet, Moist, Soggy, Damp, Dank
  18. Riot, Protest, Rally
  19. Assertive, Determined, Stubborn, Pushy
  20. Shack, House, Home
  21. Inactive, Lazy, Relaxed
  22. Sarcastic, Funny, Good-humoured
  23. Discuss, Argue, Debate
  24. Store, Save, Hoard
  25. Prudent, Cowardly, Timid
  26. Notorious, Famous, Illustrious
  27. Unusual, Exceptional, Strange
  28. Laughable, Ludicrous Hilarious
  29. Dreamer, Inventor, Visionary
  30. Up-to-date, Newfangled, New

Answer:

Positive Neutral Negative
Confident Proud Egotistical
Childlike,

Youthful

Young Childish
Disabled Crippled, Retarded & Handicapped
Economical Cheap, Frugal, Miserly
Unique Different Peculiar
Employ Use Exploit
Meticulous Selective Picky
Observe Watch Spy
Inquisitive Curious Nosy
Slender, Slim Thin Scrawny, Skinny
Aroma,

Fragrance

Smell Stench
Elated Happy Maniac
Vintage Old Decrepit
Sated Filled Crammed
Innocent Adolescent, Juvenile Immature
Guest Visitor Intruder
Moist Wet, Damp Soggy, Dank
Rally Protest Riot
Assertive Determined Stubborn, Pushy
Home House Shack
Relaxed Inactive Lazy
Good-humoured Funny Sarcastic
Debate Discuss Argue
Save Store Hoard
Prudent Timid Cowardly
Illustrious Famous Notorious
Exceptional Unusual Strange
Hilarious Laughable Ludicrous
Visionary Inventor Dreamer
Up-to-date New Newfangled

Vocabulary – BCR CA Foundation Study Material

Question 2.
Read the following sentences and identify the word that most suits the context.

1. My uncle is quite rich but is extremely (economical/miserly) and does not help the needy.
Answer:
miserly

2. The employees were advised to (use/exploit) the funds prudently.
Answer:
use

3. The (smell/ aroma) from the dishes prepared by Jenny for Thanksgiving dinner was mouth-watering.
Answer:
aroma

4. The new employee has been warned to beware of Mr. Das, who is notorious for being (crafty/clever).
Answer:
crafty

5. It is difficult for students to concentrate on studies with all that (music/ noise) from the blaring loudspeakers.
Answer:
noise

6. Each child is (unique/peculiar) and is blessed with different skills and talents.
Answer:
unique

7. As a student pursuing research, Shaina is quite (nosy/inquisitive) when it comes to the latest scientific developments.
Answer:
inquisitive

8. People, prize the possession of (old/vintage) cars and take pride in their display.
Answer:
vintage

9. The doctors shall (observe/watch) Sam for 24 hours before giving him a discharge from the hospital.
Answer:
observe

10. The Government has rightfully provided for reservation in job and educational opportunities for the (disabled/crippled)
Answer:
disabled

11. The army captain was awarded Param Vir Chakra (posthumously/ after death)
Answer:
posthumously

12. His parents were (adamant/stubborn) about not sending their son for a two-day trip.
Answer:
adamant

Question 3.
In the following questions choose the word which best expresses the meaning of the given word:- [SYNONYMS]

1. Abhor
(a) Detest
(b) Dislike
(e) Disapprove
(d) Distaste
Answer:
(a) Detest

2. Consequence
(a) Sequel
(b) Significance
(c) Repercussion
(d) Relevance
Answer:
(c) Repercussion

3. Palatial
(a) Main
(b) Grand
(c) Striking
(d) Major
Answer:
(b) Grand

4. Attack
(a) Fight
(b) Scuffle
(c) Assault
(d) Damage
Answer:
(c) Assault

5. Cacophony
(a) Sound
(b) Volume
(c) Voice
(d) Disagreeable Noise
Answer:
(d) Disagreeable Noise

6. Illicit
(a) Illegal
(b) Hidden
(c) Latent
(d) Implied
Answer:
(a) Illegal

7. Audacious
(a) Courageous
(b) Defiant
(c) Confident
(d) Strong
Answer:
(b) Defiant

8. Amiable
(a) Charming
(b) Pleasant
(c) Agreeable
(d) Belittle
Answer:
(a) Charming

9. Callous
(a) Careless
(b) casual
(c) Rude
(d) Insensitive
Answer:
(d) Insensitive

10. Crafty
(a) Clever
(b) Cunning
(c) Smart
(d) Wise
Answer:
(b) Cunning

11. Devious
(а) Crooked
(b) Impolite
(c) Cold
(d) Wild
Answer:
(а) Crooked

12. Gratification
(a) Gratitude
(b) Thankful
(c) Pleasure
(d) Satisfaction
Answer:
(d) Satisfaction

13. Fallacious
(a) Broken
(b) Deceptive
(c) Wrong
(d) Defective
Answer:
(b) Deceptive

14. Salutary
(a) Respectful
(b) Harmful
(c) Beneficial
(d) Renowned
Answer:
(c) Beneficial

15. Prodigal
(a) Wise
(b) Kind
(c) Generous
(d) Prudent
Answer:
(c) Generous

16. Reiterate
(a) Repeal
(b) Review
(c) Select
(d) Remind
Answer:
(a) Repeal

17. Transient
(a) New
(b) Temporary
(c) Transparent
(d) Steady
Answer:
(b) Temporary

18. Reticence
(a) Reservation
(b) Quiet
(c) Reluctant
(d) Disagreement
Answer:
(a) Reservation

19. Obliterate
(a) Remove
(b) Destroy
(e) Obsolete
(d) Wipe
Answer:
(b) Destroy

20. Assiduous
(a) Industrious
(b) Willing
(c) Brilliant
(d) Intelligent
Answer:
(a) Industrious

21. Chaotic
(a) Neat
(b) Organised
(c) Messy
(d) Orderly
Answer:
(c) Messy

22. Fervor
(a) Careless
(b) Passion
(c) Weak
(d) Shallow
Answer:
(b) Passion

23. Liberal
(a) Leave
(b) Restricted
(c) Freedom
(d) Lenient
Answer:
(d) Lenient

24. Perpetuate
(a) Preserve
(b) Finish
(c) Diffuse
(d) Discontinue
Answer:
(a) Preserve

25. Emanate
(a) Renowned
(b) Distinguished
(c) Radiate
(d) Induce
Answer:
(c) Radiate

26. Premonition
(a) Presumption
(b) Promotion
(c) Omen
(d) Guess
Answer:
(c) Omen

27. Quarantine
(a) A type of medicine
(b) Isolate
(c) Statistical unit
(d) Accompany
Answer:
(b) Isolate

28. Novice
(a) Professional
(b) Trainer
(c) Beginner
(d) Experienced
Answer:
(c) Beginner

29. Predisposition
(a) Disposable
(b) Bias
(c) Fair
(d) Behaviour
Answer:
(b) Bias

30. Impromptu
(a) Accidental
(b) Planned
(c) Spontaneous
(d) Quick
Answer:
(c) Spontaneous

31. Juvenile
(a) Adolescent
(b) Strange
(c) Elderly
(d) Responsible
Answer:
(a) Adolescent

32. Squalor
(a) Tidy
(b) Croup
(c) Noise
(d) Filth
Answer:
(d) Filth

33. Insinuate
(a) Apply
(b) Provoke
(c) Accuse
(d) Relieve
Answer:
(c) Accuse

34. Alleviate
(a) Raise
(b) Lighten
(c) Level
(d) Promote
Answer:
(b) Lighten

35. Explicit
(a) Understood
(b) Unclear
(c) General
(d) Specific
Answer:
(d) Specific

36. Purloin
(a) Cloth
(b) Steal
(e) Forgive
(d) Hold
Answer:
(b) Steal

37. Frivolous
(a) Important
(b) Significant
(c) Funny
(d) Trivial
Answer:
(d) Trivial

38. Aristocratic
(a) Despotic
(b) Cruel
(c) Nobel
(d) Generous
Answer:
(c) Nobel

39. Feign
(a) Bluff
(b) Show
(c) Concede
(d) Display
Answer:
(a) Bluff

40. Nimble
(a) Chew
(b) Eat
(c) Swift
(d) Numb
Answer:
(c) Swift

41. Despot
(a) Tyrant
(b) Storage
(c) Hot meal
(d) Against
Answer:
(a) Tyrant

Vocabulary – BCR CA Foundation Study Material

Question 4.
Select a suitable Antonym for the word given in the question:

1. Accord
(a) Agreement
(b) Understanding
(c) Disagreement
(d) Pact
Answer:
(c) Disagreement

2. Censure
(a) Praise
(b) Criticise
(c) Condemn
(d) Conceal
Answer:
(a) Praise

3. Fickle
(a) Unsteady
(b) Constant
(c) Fluctuate
(d) Waver
Answer:
(b) Constant

4. Gallant
(a) Brave
(b) Courageous
(c) Coward
(d) Small
Answer:
(c) Coward

5. Haughty
(a) Proud
(b) Humble
(c) Docile
(d) Meek
Answer:
(b) Humble

6. Tedious
(a) Simple
(b) Tiring
(c) Cumbersome
(d) Difficult
Answer:
(a) Simple

7. Affluent
(a) Fluent
(b) Rich
(c) Elite
(d) Poor
Answer:
(d) Poor

8. Disparage
(a) Defame
(b) Discourage
(c) Eulogize
(d) Belittle
Answer:
(c) Eulogize

9. Flamboyant
(a) Loud
(b) Dull
(c) Pompous
(d) Grand
Answer:
(b) Dull

10. Myriad
(a) Many
(b) Disease
(c) Dramatic
(d) Confusion
Answer:
(a) Many

11. Imperative
(a) Necessary
(b) Optional
(c) Compulsory
(d) Important
Answer:
(b) Optional

12. Legible
(a) Illegal
(b) Illegible
(c) Readable
(d) Coherent
Answer:
(b) Illegible

13. Notorious
(a) Disciplined
(b) Infamous
(c) Reputed
(d) Unknown
Answer:
(c) Reputed

14. Morbid
(a) Gloomy
(b) Unhealthy
(c) Unfit
(d) Healthy
Answer:
(d) Healthy

15. Rampant
(a) Widespread
(b) Scattered
(c) Checked
(d) Popular
Answer:
(c) Checked

16. Malign
(a) Dirty
(b) Praise
(c) Malice
(d) Inappropriate
Answer:
(b) Praise

17. Languid
(a) Energetic
(b) Dull
(c) Slow
(d) Slender
Answer:
(a) Energetic

18. Vulgar
(a) Cheap
(b) Coarse
(c) Civilised
(d) Crude
Answer:
(c) Civilised

19. Wearisome
(a) Tiring
(b) Refreshing
(c) Cumbersome
(d) Difficult
Answer:
(b) Refreshing

20. Censure
(a) Praise
(b) Criticise
(c) Stop
(d) Limit
Answer:
(a) Praise

21. Merry
(a) Enjoy
(b) Happy
(c) Mirthless
(d) Joyful
Answer:
(c) Mirthless

22. Genuine
(a) Original
(b) Imitation
(c) Seal
(d) True
Answer:
(b) Imitation

23. Liberty
(a) Freedom
(b) Open
(c) Captivity
(d) Choice
Answer:
(c) Captivity

24. Prose
(a) Poetry
(b) Story
(c) Tale
(d) Composition
Answer:
(a) Poetry

25. Serious
(a) Sombre
(b) Quiet
(c) Critical
(d) Trivial
Answer:
(d) Trivial

26. Hasten
(a) Speedy
(b) Prompt
(c) Dawdle
(d) Quicken
Answer:
(c) Dawdle

27. Praise
(a) Appreciate
(b) Compliment
(c) Applaud
(d) Criticism
Answer:
(d) Criticism

28. Transitory
(a) Permanent
(b) Temporary
(c) Short term
(d) Casual
Answer:
(a) Permanent

29. Within
(a) Inside
(b) Deep
(c) Without
(d) Outside
Answer:
(c) Without

30. Guardian
(a) Teacher
(b) Parent
(c) Elder
(d) Ward
Answer:
(d) Ward

31. Wax
(a) Candle
(b) Increase
(c) Bother
(d) Wane
Answer:
(d) Wane

32. Advance
(a) Loan
(b) Retreat
(c) Approach
(d) Deposit
Answer:
(b) Retreat

33. Lazy
(a) Laid-back
(b) Inactive
(c) Industrious
(d) Careless
Answer:
(c) Industrious

34. Turbulent
(a) Violent
(b) Calm
(c) Disturbed
(d) Alarming
Answer:
(b) Calm

35. Cheap
(a) Economical
(b) Valueless
(c) Dear
(d) Inexpensive
Answer:
(c) Dear

36. Accidental
(а) Chance
(b) Natural
(c) Unplanned
(d) Intentional
Answer:
(d) Intentional

37. Opaque
(а) Dark
(b) Unclear
(c) Visible
(d) Transparent
Answer:
(d) Transparent

38. Heavy
(a) Slim
(b) Thick
(c) Thin
(d) Light
Answer:
(d) Light

39. Domestic
(a) Homely
(b) Tame
(c) Wild
(d) Pet
Answer:
(c) Wild

40. Feeble
(a) Weak
(b) Sturdy
(c) Unfit
(d) Minor
Answer:
(b) Sturdy

Vocabulary – BCR CA Foundation Study Material

Question 5.
Make new words, combining the given root words:
‘Arch’; ‘Auto’; ‘Derm’; ‘Cracy’; ‘Biblo’; ‘Aer/o’; ‘Cide’; ‘Anthrop’; ‘Cent’; ‘Acri’; ‘Eu’; ‘Vor’; ‘Omni’; ‘Mal’; ‘Vince’; ‘Ambi’; ‘De’:
1. ____________ ology [Study of man]
Answer:
Anthrop

2. __________ thansia [To kill for good]
Answer:
Eu

3. Demo __________ [Rule of the people]
Answer:
Cracy

4. __________ bishop [Head of Church]
Answer:
Arch

5. ______________ enary [100 years anniversary]
Answer:
Cent

6. __________ atology [Study of the skin]
Answer:
Derm

7. _____________ graph [Persons own signature]
Answer:
Auto

8. ____________ phile [Lover of Books]
Answer:
Biblio

9. ___________ d [Bitter/Foul Smell]
Answer:
Acri

10. ____________ ial [Air related acts]
Answer:
Aer

11. Geno _________ [To kill the whole racej
Answer:
Cide

12. __________ acious [Greedy]
Answer:
Vor

13. ______________ throne [remove from throne]
Answer:
De

14. ____________ matic [working by Itself]
Answer:
Auto

15. __________ vorous [eating all kinds of food]
Answer:
Omni

16. ___________ dextrous [use both hands well]
Answer:
Ambi

17. Con _________ [persuade a person]
Answer:
Vince

18. _________ evolent [wishing bad things on 01
Answer:
Mal

19. Per _________ [fraction of hundred]
Answer:
Cent and

20. ____________ guity [double meaning]
Answer:
Ambi

Vocabulary – BCR CA Foundation Study Material

Question 6.
Complete the following sentences by using the appropriate form of the word given in the bracket. (Add a prefix or a suffix)
1. Sachin and Dhoni’s _________ helped India in building up a big score against Australia, in the match (partner)
Answer:
partnership

2. The board of directors met to __________ the decision before implementing the same, (consider)
Answer:
reconsider

3. He was muttering incoherently in a ______________ state (conscious)
Answer:
semi-conscious

4. We have not been able to contact him ever since his phone __________ (connect)
Answer:
disconnected

5. No organization can accomplish its target with such a ______________ team, (functional)
Answer:
dysfunctional

6. It was strange to see him act in such a _________ way (child)
Answer:
childish

7. There were only a ________________ of people at Sam’s party (hand)
Answer:
handful

8. The doctor said that this medicine is the most ___________ for treating cold, (effect)
Answer:
effective

9. The company decided to issue ____________ debentures to raise funds for the project, (convert)
Answer:
convertible

10. The _____________ activity that goes on in the village has attracted a number of inquisitive tourists, (natural)
Answer:
supernatural

11. The child is _____________ and must be trained to channelize his energy to productive activities, (active)
Answer:
hyperactive

12. Her ___________ hair and disheveled appearance were telling the story of her rough journey, (kempt)
Answer:
unkempt

13. The road to the temple was quite narrow, so the administration decided to ____________ it. (wide)
Answer:
widen

14. The children were punished for __________ with the new teacher, (be-have)
Answer:
misbehaving

15. The police tried to nab the __________ elements responsible for rioting and arsoning. (social)
Answer:
antisocial

Vocabulary – BCR CA Foundation Study Material

Question 7.
Each sentence given below contains an incomplete phrasal verb. Complete the expression by supplying a suitable preposition or adverb particle. Choose your answer from the options given in the brackets.
1. The entire discussion boils ____________ to this, that the team must work in a coordinated manner for achieving targets (up/down/above)
Answer:
down

2. The meeting was called ____________ owing to emergency in the factory. (off/up/about)
Answer:
off

3. Sandy has taken ________________ his father (over/after/up)
Answer:
after

4. Angie ran _________________ Simona, on her way to the bank after 15 years, when they had parted on their graduation party (out/over/into)
Answer:
into

5. The tourists trapped in the cave, were asked by the police to hang ____________, till the rescue team came (over/about/on)
Answer:
on

6. Dorothy had to look ___________ plenty of books in the library, for her research work (after/over/up)
Answer:
up

7. She broke ____________ in front of everybody as she had grown weak on account of her struggle, (down/up/in)
Answer:
down

8. More people came for the party, than were expected and we ran _______________ of food, (with/away/out)
Answer:
out

9. I know that his incessant chatter exasperates you but you will have to bear ______________ him for another day. (with/down/up)
Answer:
with

10. Everybody thought that seminar would not be worthwhile but it turned ____________ to be quite interesting and useful, (up/after/out)
Answer:
out

Question 8.
Form collocations for the given words
1. Leaves _______________
Answer:
rustle

2. Cash ______________
Answer:
flow

3. Profit _____________
Answer:
margin

4. __________ fever
Answer:
High

5. Read __________
Answer:
thoroughly

6. Service ____________
Answer:
tax/charge

7. ______________ a meeting
Answer:
Chair

8. Burst into ___________
Answer:
tears

9. ______________ The ice
Answer:
Break

10. _____________ criteria
Answer:
Meet

11. Price _____________
Answer:
tag

12. Time ______________
Answer:
management

13. Opinion ______________
Answer:
poll

14. __________ exchange
Answer:
Stock/Foreign

15. ______________ reduction
Answer:
Cost

16. Brand __________
Answer:
name/loyalty

17. Human _________________
Answer:
resource

18. ____________ route
Answer:
Trade

19. Burning ______________
Answer:
sensation

20. interest _____________
Answer:
rates

21. Progress ___________
Answer:
report

22. ___________ a new product
Answer:
Launch

23. ___________ a deal
Answer:
Close

24. Option ______________
Answer:
Stock

25. __________ voyage
Answer:
Maiden

26. ____________ destruction
Answer:
Mass

27. _______________ support
Answer:
Strong

28. Keep ____________
Answer:
quiet/calm

29. ____________ money
Answer:
Make/Black

30. _____________ time
Answer:
Free/Pass

31. __________ sense
Answer:
Common

32. ____________ drinker
Answer:
Heavy

33. ____________ sleep
Answer:
Deep

34. _____________ analysis
Answer:
Critical

35. False ________________
Answer:
Statement/pretense

36. ______________ turnover
Answer:
Annual

37. Counterfeit _____________
Answer:
money

38. _____________ the news
Answer:
Break

39. ___________ exercise
Answer:
Regular &

40. _______________ sympathy
Answer:
Have

Vocabulary – BCR CA Foundation Study Material

Question 9.
Select the correct meaning of the idioms/phrases given below:

1. Storm in a teacup
(a) Crave for something
(b) Drink tea after
(c) Get into quarrels
(d) Make a big issue out of a small thing
Answer:
(d) Make a big issue out of a small thing

2. Black sheep
(a) Different color skin
(b) A racial remark
(c) The odd one in the family
(d) To be like someone else
Answer:
(c) The odd one in the family

3. A far cry
(a) Very different
(b) Shout loudly
(c) To break the silence
(d) To cry for help
Answer:
(a) Very different

4. Shoot the breeze
(a) Being focused
(b) To spend time talking about unimportant things
(c) To waste effort
(d) To try something difficult
Answer:
(b) To spend time talking about unimportant things

5. A trip to the Sun
(a) Something that is easy
(b) Going for a long trip
(c) Something which is very unlikely
(d) Difficult task
Answer:
(c) Something which is very unlikely

6. Tip of the iceberg
(a) Small noticeable part of a huge problem
(b) Big issue
(c) Make a big issue out of a small one
(d) To exaggerate
Answer:
(a) Small noticeable part of a huge problem

7. At the drop of a hat
(a) Immediately
(b) To miss an opportunity
(c) To be careless
(d) To be fashionable
Answer:
(a) Immediately

8. Lion’s share
(a) Huge portion of meat
(b) A major part
(c) Partnership
(d) A difficult task
Answer:
(b) A major part

9. A bolt from the blue
(a) Heavy rains & lightning
(b) A significant impact
(c) An unexpected disaster
(d) To be gloomy/sad
Answer:
(c) An unexpected disaster

10. A whole nine yards
(a) A unit of measurement
(b) Far off place
(c) Difficult journey
(d) All of it, everything that possible
Answer:
(d) All of it, everything that possible

11. Devil’s advocate
(a) One who presents a counterargument
(b) Defend someone
(c) To represent a criminal
(d) To behave unethically
Answer:
(a) One who presents a counterargument

12. Wild goose chase
(a) Hopeless & fruitless pursuit
(b) To chase wild birds
(c) Performing a difficult task
(d) Doing, something unique
Answer:
(a) Hopeless & fruitless pursuit

13. Beard the lion in his den
(a) fight with someone stronger.
(b) challenge someone in his own area
(c) hurt someone deeply
(d) to play with someone
Answer:
(b) challenge someone in his own area

14. In the bag
(a) a secret information
(b) keeping something safe
(c) taking away something
(d) the situation when success is sure
Answer:
(d) the situation when success is sure

15. Live in an ivory tower
(a) to live in a palace
(b) living in one’s own dreams
(c) living a lifestyle that keeps one from real-world problems.
(d) living abroad.
Answer:
(c) living a lifestyle that keeps one from real-world problems.

16. Lump in your throat
(a) a tight feeling in the throat because of overwhelming emotions
(b) an out-growth in the throat
(c) difficulty to swallow’
(d) a type of disease
Answer:
(a) a tight feeling in the throat because of overwhelming emotions

17. Close to home
(a) a nearby place
(b) proximate
(c) confidential
(d) true and therefore un-comfortable
Answer:
(d) true and therefore un-comfortable

18. Works like a charm
(a) to do magic
(b) has the desired effect
(c) to trick someone
(d) to be pleasing
Answer:
(b) has the desired effect

19. Get ducks in a row
(a) getting things well organized
(b) getting lucky
(c) performing a challenging task
(d) training strictly
Answer:
(a) getting things well organized

20. Get the ax
(a) getting hurt
(b) doing something difficult
(c) lose one’s job
(d) to set out to kill someone
Answer:
(c) lose one’s job

21. Keep a stiff upper lip
(a) having bad expression
(b) not to show one’s emotions
(c) being rude
(d) being shy & introvert
Answer:
(b) not to show one’s emotions

22. cook someone’s goose
(a) invite someone for dinner
(b) doing a difficult task
(c) spoil someone else’s chances of success
(d) help someone
Answer:
(c) spoil someone else’s chances of success

23. Place in the sun
(a) difficult place
(b) impossible task
(c) position of favor or advantage
(d) top-level management
Answer:
(c) position of favor or advantage

24. Hit the road running
(a) start performing immediately
(b) meet with an accident
(c) to run away
(d) to travel
Answer:
(a) start performing immediately

25. Bee in one’s bonnet
(a) to be in a difficult situation
(b) to have an advantage
(c) carry an idea that constantly occupies one’s thoughts
(d) to put in a lot of efforts
Answer:
(c) carry an idea that constantly occupies one’s thoughts

26. Lick one’s wounds
(a) to heal someone
(b) to offer sympathy
(c) to accept defeat & give up
(d) retire to recover confidence after defeat
Answer:
(d) retire to recover confidence after defeat

27. Gift of gab
(a) a powerful skill
(b) speaking fluently
(c) a rated strength
(d) a blessing
Answer:
(b) speaking fluently

28. To take French leave
(a) to go for a holiday to France
(b) to leave uninformed
(c) to take something secretly
(d) to go away quickly
Answer:
(b) to leave uninformed

29. Other fish to fry
(a) other important works to do
(b) multiple employments
(c) many customers to deal
(d) many dishes to cook
Answer:
(a) other important works to do

30. Go bananas
(a) to buy fruits
(b) to go for a trip
(c) to go crazy out of emotions
(d) to get a prize
Answer:
(c) to go crazy out of emotions

Question 10.
Give one-word substitutes for the following sentences :
1. A person residing in a country of which he is not a citizen.
Answer:
Alicn

2. A member of the middle class,
Answer:
Bourgeois

3. People living in the same age.
Answer:
Contemporary

4. A letter claimed by nobody.
Answer:
Dead letter

5. To root out a disease or evil.
Answer:
Eradicate

6. One who believes in fate.
Answer:
Fatalist

7. A post for which no salary is paid.
Answer:
Honorary

8. That which cannot be altered or withdrawn.
Answer:
Irrevocable

9. A shady fertile place in the desert.
Answer:
Oasis

10. Stories that build morale.
Answer:
Parables

11. A person who collects postage stamps
Answer:
Philatelist

12. A place where Government records are kept
Answer:
Archives

13. A remedy for all diseases
Answer:
Panacea

14. One who hates mankind
Answer:
Misanthrope

15. A person working for money only
Answer:
Mercenary

16. One who looks after a museum
Answer:
Curator

17. One who cannot be corrected
Answer:
Incorrigible

Nature of Contract – CA Foundation Law Study Material

This Nature of Contract – CA Foundation Law Study Material is designed strictly as per the latest syllabus and exam pattern.

Nature of Contract – CA Foundation Business Law Study Material

Question 1.
All contracts are agreements but all agreements are not contracts. Comment.
Answer:
As per section 2(h) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, an agreement enforceable by law is a contract. Thus an agreement backed by enforceability by law i.e. the intention to create legal relations is regarded as a contract. An agreement is a prerequisite for the creation of a contract.

Every promise & every set of promises forming consideration for each other is an agreement. Thus when an offer made by a person is accepted by another, an agreement is said to be created. However, an agreement is a wider term in comparison to contracting. It includes even those agreements which are not enforceable since they were not created with an intention of forming legal relations, such as domestic, political or social agreements.

Thus agreement is the genus of which contract is the species & only those agreements grow into contracts that create legal relations.

Nature of Contract – CA Foundation Law Study Material

Question 2.
Explain briefly the essentials of a valid contract.
Answer:
Section 10 provides “all agreements are contracts if they are made by the free consent of parties competent to contract for a lawful consideration and with a lawful object, and are not hereby expressly declared to be void”.

Offer and acceptance:
There must be a “lawful offer” and a “lawful acceptance” of the offer, thus resulting in an agreement.

Intention to create legal relations:
There must be an intention among the parties that the agreements should be attended by legal consequences and create legal obligations. Agreements of a social or domestic nature do not contemplate a contract.

Lawful consideration:
Consideration means “something in return”. An agreement is enforceable when each of the parties to it gives something and gets something in return. The payment of money is a common form of consideration. But it may also consist of an act, forbearance, and a promise to do or not to do something. Consideration must be real, valuable and lawful.

The capacity of parties:
The parties to an agreement must be competent to contract; otherwise, it cannot be enforced by a court of law. Every person who is competent to contract who is (a) of the age of majority, (b) of sound mind and (c) is not disqualified from contracting by any law.

Free consent:
The consent of the parties must be free ie. the parties should enter into a contract voluntarily and of free will. Section 14 lays down that consent is not free if it is caused by (a) coercion, (b) undue influence, (c) fraud, (d) misrepresentation or (e) mistake.

Lawful object:
The object of the agreement should be lawful. It should be authorised or sanctioned by law. The object of an agreement is unlawful if it is forbidden by law or is fraudulent or is immoral or opposed to public policy.

Agreement not expressly declared void:
The Indian Contract Act, 1872, has expressly declared certain agreements to be not enforceable at law, e.g. agreements in restraint of marriage, agreements in restraint of trade, wagering agreements etc. The parties to the agreement should ensure that their agreement does not fall in the category of these void agreements.

Certainty:
The terms of the contract should be certain and definite and not vague. Section 29 says “Agreements, the meaning of which is not certain or capable of being made certain are void.”

Possibility of performance:
Yet another essential feature of a valid contract is that it must be capable of performing. Section 56 lays down that “An agreement to do an act impossible in itself is void.” If the act is impossible in itself, physically or legally, the agreement cannot be enforced at law.

Writing and registration:
According to the Indian Contract Act, a contract may be oral or in writing. An oral contract is as much enforceable as a written contract. However, if there is a provision in any law prescribing that contracts should be in writing/ registered then, this formality of writing and registration should be followed.

Nature of Contract – CA Foundation Law Study Material

Question 3.
“The law of contracts is not the whole law of agreements nor is it the whole law of obligations.” – Comment.
Answer:
Obligations may arise from different sources. The law of contract deals only with such legal obligations which arise from agreements. Obligations that are not contractual in nature are outside the purview of the law of contract. For example, the obligation to observe traffic rules does not fall within the scope of the Contract Act.

The other sources of obligations are obligations under the trust law or the law of tort or the fundamental duties under the Constitution etc. They are outside the purview of the Contract law since they are not voluntarily created through an agreement. Salmond has rightly observed: “The law of contracts is not the whole law of agreements, nor is the whole law of obligation. It is the law of those agreements which create obligations and those obligations, which have their source in agreements”.

Question 4.
Differentiate between:
(a) Void agreements & Void Contracts
(b) Voidable & Void Contracts
(c) Void Agreements & Illegal Agreements
Answer:
(a)

Void Agreement Void contracts
An agreement not enforceable by law is said to be void. A contract that ceases to be enforceable by law becomes void when it ceases to be enforceable.
It is void right from the beginning i.e., ab initio since one or more of the essentials of a valid contract are missing. it becomes void subsequently. On account of change is law, change in circumstances or on an account of the subsequent impossibility of performance.
No restitution of benefits is allowed. Restitution may be granted when the contract is discovered to be void or becomes void.

(b)

Void contracts Voidable contracts
A contract that ceases to be enforceable by law becomes void when it ceases to be enforceable. A contract which is enforceable by law at the option of one or inure of the Parties hereto, but not at the option of the other or others. Thus it is enforceable at the option of the aggrieved part’.
It ¡s valid at the time of Formation & remains valid till an event takes place which results in the contract ceasing to be enforceable. It may be voidable right from the beginning or voidable subsequently. It remains valid if the aggrieved par1 does not elect to avoid it within a reasonable time.
A contract becomes void due to change in circumstances, change in law or subsequent impossibility of performance etc. A contract is avoidable right from the beginning if consent is caused by coercion, undue influence, fraud or misrepresentation. A contract becomes voidable subsequently on account of breach of contract or failure to perform the contract at the time fixed if the time is of the essence of the contract.
Compensation is not payable. The aggrieved party can claim damages for loss sustained by him if any.

(c)
Difference between Void & Illegal agreements:
a. Scope: An illegal agreement is narrower in scope than a void agreement. All illegal agreements are void but all void agreements are not necessarily illegal. For E.g. an agreement with a minor is void, but not illegal.

b. Collateral Transactions: When an agreement is illegal, other agreements which are incidental or collateral to it are also tainted with illegality, hence void. However, agreements collateral to avoid agreement are not necessarily void.

c. Restitution: In the case of an illegal agreement, no right/remedy is available to either party. Hence money paid under an illegal agreement cannot be recovered. Under sec. 65 if an agreement is discovered to be void any person who has received advantage/benefit must restore it or make compensation for it.

d. Punishment: In case of an illegal agreement the parties may be punished under the criminal law, in case of a void agreement (which is not illegal) there is no such punishment.

Question 5.
Write Short Notes on:
(a) Unenforceable Contracts
(b) Quasi Contracts
(c) Unilateral Contracts
Answer:
(a) Unenforceable contract. An unenforceable contract is one, which suffers from some technical defect. It is valid in itself but is not capable of being enforced in a court of law because of non-observance of some technical formalities such as insufficiency of the stamp, want of registration, attestation etc. In some cases such contracts can be enforced if their technical defects are removed, for example, the defect of under stamping can be removed by affixing the right value of stamps.

(b) Quasi-Contract. Quasi-contract is a contract in which there is no intention on the part of either party to make a contract but the law imposes a contract upon parties. These are not actual contracts but they resemble a contract that is created by law under certain circumstances. Here, the law creates legal rights and obligations when there is no real contract. For example; obligation of Under of lost goods to return them or liability of person whom money is paid by mistake to repay it back.

(c) In the case of a unilateral contract, only one party has to perform his obligation and the other party has performed his obligation at the time of formation of the contract or before. If A buys a railway ticket for his journey from Nagpur to Bombay. A has performed his duty under the contract by paying the fare but the railways are yet to perform their promise i.e. of carrying him from Nagpur to Bombay. Such contracts are also called contracts with executed consideration or one-sided contracts.

Question 6.
Lekhpal promises today ? 5 lakhs to his son if the son passes the CA exams. On passing the exams, the son claims the money. Can the son file a suit against the father?
Answer:
No. Because it is a domestic agreement [no intention to create legal relations]

Question 7.
X, a coolie in uniform carried Y’s luggage from the railway platform to taxi without being asked by Y to do so. Y does not make any attempt to stop X from carrying the luggage. Is Y bound to make payment to X?
Answer:
Yes [implied contract: implied offer & implied acceptance (silence as a manifestation of acceptance)]

Nature of Contract – CA Foundation Law Study Material

Question 8.
Arun has two cars – one of white colour and another of red colour. He offers to sell one of the cars to Basu thinking that he is selling the car which has white in colour. Basu agrees to buy the car thinking that Arun is selling the car which has red in colour. Will this agreement becomes a valid contract?
Answer:
No. [Hint – since consensus idem is missing]

Question 9.
Point out with reason whether the following agreements are valid or void:

  1. Riya promised Samarth to lend Rs. 500,000 in lieu of consideration that Samarth gets Riya’s marriage dissolved and he himself marries her.
  2. Aryan agrees with Mathew to sell his black horse. Unknown to both the parties, the horse was dead at the time of agreement.
  3. Ravi sells the goodwill of his shop to Shyam for Rs. 4,00,000 and promises not to carry on such business forever and anywhere in India.
  4. In an agreement between Prakash and Girish, there is a condition that they will not institute legal proceedings against each other without consent.

Answer:
1. Void Agreement – As per Section 23 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, an agreement is void if the object or consideration is against public policy. The agreement in the given case is of the nature which interferes with marital rights & duties of a person and is therefore opposed to public policy, illegal and void ab initio.

2. Void Agreement – As per Section 20 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, an agreement made on the grounds of a Bilateral Mistake of fact is regarded as void. The mistake of fact is with respect to the existence of subject matter at the time of formation of the contract.

3. Void Agreement – As per Section 27 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, an agreement that is in restraint of trade is treated as void. However, a buyer of goodwill can exceptionally impose certain restrictions on the seller of goodwill, not to carry on the same business provided such restrictions are reasonable regarding the duration & place of business. The restrictions imposed in the given case are unreasonable and therefore the agreement is in restraint of trade & void.

4. Void Agreement – As per Section 28 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, an agreement that is in restraint of legal proceedings is void. The agreement in the given case imposes an absolute restriction on the rights of the parties to institute legal proceedings & is therefore regarded as void.

Nature of Contract – CA Foundation Law Study Material

Question 10.
Mr W boards a bus at a bus stop. He travels for some distance and on arrival at his destination, he makes a move to get off the bus. The conductor stops him and asks for the fare. He denies his duty to pay to say they did not form any contract comment.
Answer:
Hint: Implied contract – a contract that can be understood from the conduct of the parties – Mr W is bound to pay the fare for availing the transportation services.

Question 11.
State whether a contract is created in the following cases:-

  1. Mr. R promises to supply 4 teakwood chairs to Mr. S for a price which shall be fixed by Mr. F.
  2. Mr. P promises to pay Rs. 10 Lacs to Mr. T, if he brings back to life Mr. P’s dead wife.
  3. A mother promises to give Rs. 500 to her son, if he accompanies her for shopping.
  4. Mr. P promises to pay Rs. 10 Crores to Mr. N if he resigns from his party and joins Mr. P’s political party.

Answer:
Hint:

  1. A valid contract is created – the terms of the contract should be certain or capable of being made certain.
  2. No contract is created – the impossibility of performance – void ab initio.
  3. No contract is created – domestic agreements are mere agreements and not contracts.
  4. No contract is created – political agreements are mere agreements and not enforceable.