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Report Writing – CA Foundation BCR Notes

Report Writing – CA Foundation BCR Notes

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Report Writing – BCR Notes CA Foundation

Reports as a means of written communication are used in all types of organisations. Branch managers send weekly or monthly performance reports to the head office. A company secretary prepares the Annual Report for presentation at the Annual General Meeting of the company.

Meaning And Nature of A Report:
A report may be defined as a formal or official document describing a state of affairs or what has happened. It contains a detailed description of a problem or a situation, findings of an investigation, recommendations or action taken. It generally includes conclusions and suggestions for future course of action. A report is expected to be written in an informative and clear manner often drawing conclusions, making recommendations and suggesting courses of action.

The purpose of such reports is usually to bring information to the attention of senior management authorities so that any decision regarding the matters under review can be taken by them with full knowledge of the background, facts and circumstances. Reports can also be requests for action, or they can make suggestions to initiate action.

A report is a written statement or document stating what has happened or describing the state of affairs. In business there are many occasions when some form of “report” is required. A report is a detailed examination of a situation or problem, of action taken, or of the findings of an investigation. It is written in a clear, informative way, often drawing conclusions, making recommendations and suggesting course of action.

Report Writing – CA Foundation BCR Notes

The main features of a report are as follows:
→ A report is a statement containing some information or an account of something.

→ It is an orderly presentation of facts about some activity, event or programme. In other words, a report is an organised and factual account of work done by a person/group or activities of an organisation. A report differs from the routine and casual exchange of information that takes place daily in business.

→ A report is an objective and unbiased presentation of facts. It is designed to present the truth irrespective of the consequences.

→ A report is written for a specific audience.

→ It contains conclusions drawn by the writer together with the procedure followed for collection and interpretation of data.

→ A report often includes recommendations.

→ A report is written for some specific purpose.

→ A report is submitted by a lower authority to a higher authority.

→ A business report serves the following purposes:

  • It presents factual information to management.
  • It contains results of investigation and analysis for future reference.
  • It provides useful information to shareholders, creditors, general public and other stakeholders.
  • It offers recommendations for future course of action.

Distinction Between Project And Report:

Basis of Distinction Project Report
1. Nature It is not official communication It is an official communication
2. Time Orientation It concerns the future It concerns the past
3. Investment It involves investment of money It may not involve investment of money
4. Sequence It involves a time bound sequence of activities a beginning and an end It may not involve a time bound sequence of activities
5. Purpose To complete a major task To present findings and recommendation.

Report Writing – CA Foundation BCR Notes

Importance of Report Writing:
In business, there are several occasions when some type of report is required. Business reports play a very significant role in the management of modern business. Several types of reports have to be prepared and presented on different aspects of business. Reporting is the backbone of communication. The quality of business decisions depends on the quality of information with managers. Managers are away from the scene of action and rely upon the reports sent by their subordinates. A newspaper editor runs his newspaper on the basis of reports sent by his correspondents.

In business reporting is a continuous activity. Executives need objective and timely information about the internal working and external environment of business for taking business decisions, for evaluating progress and for planning the future. A sales manager depends on reports from branch offices.

A branch manager operates on the basis of reports from field sales force. A factory manager receives reports of output and quality from his subordinates. Top managers decide expansion and diversification programmes on the basis of reports from departmental heads and market experts.

Writing reports provides training in planned and orderly procedures. It reveals gaps in reasoning, highlights woolly thinking and identifies faults in presentation. Report writing develops the power of judgment, discrimination, organisation of ideas, presentation of details and communication. Thus, there is an intrinsic value in report writing. Universities and institutes are offering professional programmes introducing courses in report writing. Progressive organisations also conduct programmes in report writing for their employees.

Thus, reports serve the following functions:

  • Reports provide valuable information for planning and decision-making.
  • Reports help to measure employee performance and thereby assist in managerial control.
  • Reports aim to analysing the impact of changing business conditions on the performance and growth of an enterprise. With such analysis, management can develop measures to combat the changes. Reports facilitate coordination.
  • Reports are a means of keeping in touch, and maintaining contacts with customers, share-holders, creditors and the Government.

Reports are vital for large organisations particularly when the work involved is technical and complex. Engineers and technicians are often required to write technical reports. While writing such reports attention should be paid to formal, courtesies to be observed, correct English (spellings, punctuations, word meanings, vocabulary, idiomatic expression, etc.). Technical writing skill can be improved through practice.

Report Writing – CA Foundation BCR Notes

Types of Reports:
Reports can be classified into several categories :
On the basis of communication media, reports can be oral or written.
1. Oral Reports:
An oral report is a face-to-face communication of an impression or observation. It is comparatively informal and time saving. It is simple and easy to present. But the receiver has to listen to every word of it. It tends to be vague and provides no record for future reference.
Report Writing – CA Foundation BCR Notes IMG 1

2. Written Reports:
A written report is relatively more accurate and precise. It tends to be more formal and can be referred to again and again. A written report provides a permanent record and cannot be denied at any time. It can change hands without any danger of distortion during transmission. For example, a divisional manager may write a report giving his assessment of the working of various branches he visits for the information of the top management of the bank. On the basis of the format and procedures adopted, reports may be informal or formal.

3. Informal Reports:
An informal report is usually in the form of person-to-person communication. It may range from a few lines to several pages of detailed information. An informal report is often written in the form of a letter or a memorandum. Informal reports do not comply with any law or specified procedure.

They are prepared according to the convenience and needs of the organisation. They do not have a uniform structure. Informal reports may be prepared to get detailed information, to investigate a given situation, to report on an event, to comment on the work progress or to suggest a course of action. These reports are short and use simple style.

4. Formal Reports:
A formal report is presented in a prescribed form. It is prepared in accordance with an established law or procedure and is submitted to the prescribed authority. A report submitted by a commission or committee appointed by the Government is a formal report. The report submitted by the Board of Directors of a company to its shareholders is also a formal report.

The main features of a formal report are as follows:

  • It is written by an individual or a committee which was assigned a specific object.
  • It is written to assist higher authorities in taking an important decision.
  • It contains specific information, findings and recommendations.
  • It is well-planned and properly organised.
  • It is generally submitted along with a transmittal letter which introduces the report.
  • It is not presented in a letter or memorandum form. Formal reports can be statutory or non-statutory.

5. Statutory Reports:
Reports prepared and presented according to the form and procedure laid down by law are called statutory reports.’Reports submitted at the statutory meeting of shareholders, Directors’ report to the Annual General Meeting, Auditors’ Report are examples of statutory reports. These are prepared as per the requirements of the Companies Act, 1956.

6. Non-statutory Reports:
Formal reports which are not required under any law but which are prepared to help the management in formulating policies and in taking important decisions are called non-statutory reports. For example, every branch of a company may be asked to submit a monthly report on sales. On the basis of frequency of issue, there can be routine reports and special reports.

7. Routine Reports:
These reports are prepared and presented in the usual routine of business. For example, branch managers of banks submit regular reports to the Head Office on the quantum of business transacted during the period. Progress reports, inventory reports, confidential reports on employees are examples of routine reports. Such reports contain a mere statement of facts without an opinion or recommendation.

From these reports the concerned authority can judge the progress of work. Since these reports are presented at prescribed intervals, these are also called periodic reports. They may be submitted annually, semi-annually, quarterly, monthly, fortnightly, weekly or even daily. Routine reports are usually written on the prescribed proforma.

8. Special Reports:
A special report is prepared and presented in connection with specific situations or occasions. These deal with non-recurrent problems or issues. A report on the desirability of opening a new branch, a report on the unrest among staff in a particular branch, a report suggesting the restructuring of the bank’s operations, laboratory report are examples of special reports. On the basis of function, a report can be either informational or interpretative.

9. Informational Reports:
An informational report presents the data collected or facts observed in an organised form. It does not contain analysis, conclusions or recommendations. It presents the situation as it is and not as it should be. For example, a report containing only the data on deposits and advances of branches during the year is an informational report.

Informational reports usually bring information to the attention of senior management/ authorities/stakeholders so that any decision regarding the matters under review can be taken by them with full knowledge of the background, facts and circumstances. The Annual Report prepared by the company secretary or administrator for presentation at the Annual General Meeting of the shareholders is an example of information report.

10. Interpretative or Recommendary Reports:
Such a report not only contains facts but also interpretation or evaluation of data. It includes the report’s conclusions and also contains recommendations for action. In the above example, if reasons for unsatisfactory position of deposits and advances and suggestions for improvement in future are added, the report will become interpretative. Reports are meant to convince the audience that the conclusions and recommendations developed are valid. For example technical reports.

It may be pointed out that both informational and interpretative reports are based on analysis or investigation of the problem or survey or research. On the basis of the nature of the subject dealt with, there can be fact-finding report, problem-determining report or technical report. In a fact-finding report only the data are presented but in a problem-determining report the causes of the problem are given. A technical report presents data on a specialised subject.

On the basis of number of persons involved, there can be reports by individuals, and reports by committees. Reports concerning the work of one person/branch/ department are usually submitted by individuals. When the subject or problem relates to more than one department, a committee may be formed to draft the report.

Report Writing – CA Foundation BCR Notes

Characteristics of A Good Report:
A good report must satisfy the following requirements :
1. Simplicity:
A good report must be written in a simple and lucid language. It must be easy to read and understand as otherwise it would be of little utility. Literary style is unnecessary for reports and ease of presentation is vital.

A satisfactory writing style can be developed after practising report writing and by studying the reports of other writers. Any statistical matter, photographs, tabulated materials should be attached on separate sheets and referred to in the report. Information should be arranged either in logical sequence or in chronological depending on the subject matter.

2. Clarity:
A good report contains a proper arrangement of facts. It has a clear purpose or, clearly defined problems, definite sources of data and clear findings and recommendations. It should be divided into short paragraphs and must have a clear title. Short paragraphs facilitate comprehension and make the report look attractive. Proper headings and sub- headings should be used to give the report an appearance of not being overcrowded.

3. Accuracy:
A good report contains accurate and unbiased information. Only accurate reports can lead to correct decisions and right actions. A report should be accurate both in terms of facts and grammar.

4. Precision:
Conciseness and coherence are essential characteristics of a good report. There should be no ambiguity about recommendations contained in a report. Precision makes a report useful and a valuable means of communication. Apt words should be used and salient points may be highlighted.

5. Completeness:
A good report must be complete in all respects. It must contain all the required facts and conclusions. Generally, it should specify the purpose, facts, conclusions and recommendations.

6. Relevance and Reliability:
The contents of a report must be relevant to the purpose for which it is prepared. Irrelevant facts make a report misleading, obscure and cumbersome. The report must be reliable.

7. Cross-reference:
Whenever necessary, cross referencing should be done in a report. Cross referencing means making a mention at one place in the report about some other points of the report. For example, against every point in the summary the page number of the report where the details against that point are given may be mentioned.

Cross- referencing helps to save time and space and facilitates the task of the persons who are to read and use the report. A report should be organised properly, keep all parts related and use good transition, appropriate graphic aids should be used.

8. Objectivity:
There should be objectivity in investigation, collection of data and writing of reports. There should be no bias at any stage. Recommendations made in a report must be impartial and free from prejudice. There should be logically derived conclusions from investigations and analysis. Facts must be separated from emotions.

9. Brevity:
A good report should be brief without being incomplete. It should include every significant detail yet be brief. Brevity and precision are interrelated but brevity should not be at the cost of clarity and completeness.

10. Reader-oriented:
While preparing a report the person who is to read and use it should be kept in mind. For example, a report meant for a specialist is not appropriate for a layman. The main purpose of a report is the presentation of facts. Therefore, it should be designed to attract the attention of the reader and convey,to him the message effectively. Use of precise and clear language can make the report readable.

11. Consistency:
A good report must be consistent with the purpose of writing it. Different stages in report preparation like enquiry, collection of facts, analysis and interpretation and recommendations should flow towards the main theme.

12. Logical Contents:
The contents of a report must be arranged in a logical order. Suitable headings and sub-headings must be used and these should be self-explanatory.

13. Timeliness:
A report must be submitted at the right time. Any delay in the submission of reports makes report writing a futile exercise.

14. Appearance:
The format, layout and cover of a good report must be pleasing and eye catching. The report must be elegant.

15. Definite Authority:
The report should be addressed to a specific authority.

Report Writing – CA Foundation BCR Notes

Preparing A Report:
The process of preparing a report consists of the following stages :
Stage 1 – Collect the Material
Collect all the relevant materials, notes, documents, etc.

Stage 2 – Plan the Report

  • Define the purpose of your report to whom it is to be submitted and how will it be used?
  • Determine the information it should contain – contents
  • Arrange the information in a logical order – layout
  • Prepare an outline of the report, making rough notes
  • Decide where illustrations and diagrams are required – style

Stage 3 – Draft the Report

  • Write the introduction-the purpose, the heading and the summary.
  • Write the body of the report.
  • Write the conclusions and recommendations.
  • Summarise the report

Stage 4 – Edit the Report

  • Examine the draft-will it serve the purpose.
  • Check your grammar, spelling, punctuations, style, etc.
  • Check your illustrations.

Main Parts of a Report:

  • Title or title page-it should be short and clear
  • Preface or Foreword and Acknowledgements
  • Terms of reference indicating why the report is submitted
  • Executive Summary or Abstract
  • Table of Contents and List of Illustrations
  • Introduction
  • Analysis
  • Descriptions
  • Explanations
  • Conclusions and Recommendations
  • Appendix – Support Materials

A letter of transmittal may accompany.

Report Writing – CA Foundation BCR Notes

Structure of A report:
A report contains three main parts – introduction, the main body and the conclusion. There is no limitations for the length to be maintained in the three sections. The length depends upon the nature and objectives of the report.

In the introduction section, the nature and importance of the subject are mentioned. It must focus on the total subject in brief so that the reader can anticipate what is to follow. Letter of authorisation is also given in this part. The main body contains the entire details and is therefore more elaborate. This section analyses the problems, gives details, collating the collected information.

The main body is the central or core part of the report. Therefore, it must present the ethos of the entire text. The conclusion or closing part of the report must touch upon the subject and highlight the suggested course of action.

Appendix and bibliography are given as a supplement to the report. Appendix lists the material used. Bibliography contains the references.
→ Timing : Promptness in preparation and submitting is of paramount importance. If there is any delay or time lag between occurrence and reporting the information communicated may be futile because serious action may not be taken in time.

→ Form : Every report should have title suggesting the subject-matter. In big organisations, various coloured forms are used for different reports.

→ Accuracy : The report must be as far as possible accurate. Accuracy is one of the essential requirements because decisions are based on the reports. Any inaccurate information furnished may produce wrong decisions and the organization will have to bear the cost.

→ Contents : Information must not be superficial and superfluous. It must be adequate, clear, brief and only what is needed. Unnecessary dumping of insignificant and unintelligible data should be avoided.

→ Cost : Preparation and presentation of reports involve cost. While designing the system of reporting the costs associated with the preparation and presentation of reports must be compared with the benefits resulting therefrom. Such comparison is desirable to ensure efficiency in reporting.

Principles of Drafting A Report:
The following principles are helpful in drafting a useful report:
1. Principle of Purpose: The report must have a specific and sound purpose. A careful statement of the purpose is necessary for drafting an effective report. Clear statement of purpose is necessary because reports form the basis for decision-making and they constitute a record for future reference.

2. Principle of Clarity : A report should be drafted in simple language. In case unknown terms are used they should be properly defined to avoid any confusion. Complicated language fails to convey the message clearly.

3. Principle of Organisation : A report should be well planned and well organised. It should be divided properly into headings and sub-headings. The organisational set up of a report is given in the above table.

4. Principle of Brevity: The report should be brief because it is difficult to analyse long reports. Such reports are costly to prepare. Major points may be ignored due to irrelevant details.

5. Principle of Cost: A report should not cost more than its benefits otherwise if would not be worth while to prepare a report.

6. Principle of Scheduling : The time interval between the collection of data and writing the report should not be long. Otherwise the report may become obsolete and useless.

Principles of Drafting A Report:
1. Principle of Purpose: Every report must have a specific and sound purpose. A clear statement of the purpose helps in the preparation and use of the report.

2. Principle of Organisation : The elements of a report should be properly planned and well- organised in the right sequence.

3. Principle of Clarity : A report should be written in a simple language.

4. Principle of Brevity : The report should be brief because, short reports are easy to prepare and analyse, cost less and highlight the relevant points.

5. Principle of Scheduling: Reports should be scheduled in such a way that they can be prepared without undue burden on the staff and with sufficient time for their preparation. However, too long a time interval between collection of data and presentation of the report may render the report obsolete and useless.

6. Principle of Cost: The cost of a report should always be less than the benefit.

Report Writing – CA Foundation BCR Notes

Styles of Reports:
A report may be drafted in the following two styles :
1. Letter Style Report:
In this style, a report is written like a letter on the letter-head of the company. It is divided into paragraphs and signed at the end. Such a report is short and less detailed. A letter-style report, covers mainly one topic, which is often unsolicited and which is used to make requests, pass necessary information, suggest actions, or bring some matter to the attention of others.

A letter style report is short and is written in the form of a letter. It is used mainly to present information to someone outside the organisation. For example, an outside consultant may write a report of analysis and recommendations. It is usually, written in a personal style and ends with a friendly comment. Though written in paragraphs like an ordinary letter, it carries no salutation and only a signature without any subscription.
This style is used for brief and informal reports.
Two letter style reports are given below:

Wear Well Corporation Ltd.
11, Sansad Marg, New Delhi-110001

December 31, 2011

To,
The Managing Director
Sub.: Declining Sales
Dear Sir,
As desired by you in your letter No ………….. dated …………… I have investigated the decline in the sales of our company during the last year. I wish to report as under:
1. The sales of our readymade shirts have declined from 60,000 shirts in 2008 to 40,000 in 2009.

2. During the last year there has been a spurt of new brands of readymade shirts in the market. Highly reputed companies like Reliance, Grasim, Bombay Dyeing, Raymonds, etc., have introduced readymade shirts. These companies have made a considerable dent into our sales.

3. Our competitors have better marketing distribution network and advertising system.

4. These competitors produce shirts with greater variety of designs and colours.

5. The competition is growing rapidly and one must take immediate remedial steps to prevent further decline in sales.

6. The following steps may be taken to improve our sales :

  • We should introduce new designs in plain, strips and checks.
  • Our packing also needs improvement keeping in view the modern packing systems.
  • We should undertake a regular advertising campaign on radio and television. At present we have no publicity except an occasional advertisement in the local newspaper.
  • We should increase the number of our dealers particularly in the suburbs.

I am quite confident that the above measures will enable us to meet the challenge of growing competition and to improve our sales.

Yours faithfully XYZ
Sales
Manager

National Distributors Ltd.
5, Park Street, Kolkata

1st January, 2012

To,
The Managing Director,
Dear Sir,
Sub.: Installation of Computers
In accordance with your letter No ………. dated ………….. asking me to examine the desirability of installing a computer in our head office. I have thoroughly examined the proposal and would like to report as under:
→ During the last ten years there has been tremendous increase in the amount of clerical work in the correspondence, accounts and records sections of the office.

→ With increase in the number of shareholders the work of the Share Transfer Department has increased.

→ The office is understaffed to do the increased amount of work.

→ In order to handle the increased workload efficiently, accurately and promptly, there is need to instal computers.

→ Installation of a computer will obviate the need for additional staff and also reduce the over¬time bill. In addition the accuracy and speed of clerical work will improve.

→ Office staff should be taken into confidence before placing order for the purchase of a computer.

Yours faithfully
ABC
Secretary

Report Writing – CA Foundation BCR Notes

2. Schematic Style Report:
A schematic report deals with a number of related topics. It is usually requested by a senior executive. In this style the report is presented in a prescribed format under specific headings. It is written according to a specific scheme. Generally, the following headings are used:
→ Terms of Reference : Under this heading, the purpose of the report, the. requesting authority and the scope of enquiry are stated clearly.

→ Action Taken: This heading contains details of the actions taken to collect the data and other material for investigations.

→ Findings : This part contains the details of what was discovered and what information was collected. All the data relevant to the enquiry is presented in a systematic manner.

→ Conclusions : This section comprises the conclusions drawn from the data and other evidence. Conclusions reflect the writer’s opinion and assessment of the situation.

→ Recommendations: Under this heading, the suggestions based on conclusions are given.

Generally a covering letter is sent along with the Schematic report. Two examples of Schematic report are given below :

Beauty Aids Limited
C-5, Connaught Place, New Delhi-110 001
Report on Labour Unrest At Nagda Plant

To: Mr. S.C. Jain, Managing Director
From: The Labour Unrest Investigation Committee
Terms of Reference:
To investigate into the workers’ unrest and make recommendations to restore peace.
Action Taken:
The committee met the manager of the Nagda Plant twice and detailed discussions were held. Subsequently, two meetings were held with the foremen. Ten workers selected at random were interviewed personally. The President and the Secretary of the labour union in the plant were also consulted.

Finding and Conclusions:
(a) The unrest is widespread involving all sections of the factory. The unrest was observed in March 2011 for the first time. In the beginning there were occasional outbursts of ill-temper. Later groups of workers discussed the problems.

In December 2011 a meeting of the plant union was held and a memorandum was submitted to the plant manager. The plant manager sent a report to the General Manager without enclosing the memorandum of the plant union. Most of the foremen felt that unless immediate remedial action was taken, the situation might get out of hand with the possibility of total strike.

(b) Workers made the following complaints:

  • The plant canteen does not provide wholesome refreshments and the prices charged are high
  • There was no suitable bus service from the railway station to the factory
  • The plant manager behaved like a dictator.

Recommendations:

  • The canteen contractor should be asked to improve the quality of refreshments and reduce the rates.
  • A bus service should be introduced between the factory and the railway station, to be run four times daily to coincide with the two shifts.
  • The plant manager should be advised to be more humane in dealing with workers and union leaders.

M.C. Goel
Chairman of the Committee

Modern Bank of India
Zonal Office, Park Street, Kolkata

The Managing Director,                                                                                          May 5, 2011
Head Office
Nariman Point
Mumbai
Dear Sir,
Sub.: Report on our proposed new branch of Modern Bank of India at Midnapore, West Bengal.
In accordance with the resolution passed at the Board meeting held on April 20,2011 instructing us to submit a report on the possibilities of setting up a branch at Midnapore, West Bengal, we have just completed preliminary enquiries and wish to submit the enclosed report.

Yours faithfully,
Prashant Chatterjee
(Convener)
D.K Bose (Member)
Rahul Banerjee (Member)
S.K. Roy (Member)
P. Majumdar (Member)

Encl.: Report
Report of the Committee on our Proposed Branch of the Modern Bank of India at Midnapore, West Bengal.
Terms of Reference
The Committee was appointed in accordance with the following resolutions adopted by the Board of Directors at their meeting on April 20, 2011:

  • That a committee be appointed to consider the possibilities of setting up a new branch at Midnapore, West Bengal.
  • That the committee would consist the following members:

Mr. Prashant Chatterjee, Manager, Howrah Branch, Convener,
Mr. D.K. Bose, Manager, Hooghly Branch, Member,
Mr. Rahul Banerjee, Manager, Burdwan Branch, Member,
Mr. S.K. Roy, Manager, Darjeeling Branch, Member,
Mr. R Majumdar, Manager, Shantiniketan Branch, Member.
Action Taken:
1. The members of the Committee visited Midnapore to study the suitability of this town for setting up a branch there.

2. The members met some leading residents, landlords as well as the Chairman, Subhash Bose, Market Traders’ Association to assess the situation and to find out if some suitable premises could be made available for the proposed branch.

3. The Committee met five times between April 21 and April 28 to discuss the findings and for-mulate concrete suggestions.

Findings and Conclusions:
1. Midnapore, a sleepy town in a remote corner of West Bengal, has suddenly sprung into ac¬tivity with the West Bengal Government’s decision to develop it as an industrial area. The Government has offered attractive incentives to NRIs to invest their money in this industrial area. All infrastructural facilities have been promised at concessional rates.

2. Three major NRI groups-the JKS group of industries, the House of Sarafs and the Jupiter Industries-have already started setting up industrial units in the area. They will be producing computers, electronic goods like television sets and music systems and cycles. Ancillary units are also coming up.

3. With a constant inflow of workers, the population of this town is fast multiplying. A vast com-mercial complex is also under development. The original inhabitants of Midnapore as well as the neighbouring areas, with their newly acquired riches, have suddenly become conscious of their living standards.

4. At present, two nationalised banks have their branches at Midnapore. Both the branches are located in the old market. We don’t think these two branches, with a provision for only skeleton staff, can handle all the business going to be available.

5. We have come across a very suitable site in the shopping complex under development. A building with 300 square metre floor area on ground floor and an 8m x 6m basement is available on rent. Still under construction, it is expected to be ready for possession in another three months.

Recommendations:
The Committee makes the following recommendations:
1. The Management should seize this opportunity and set up a branch at Midnapore. The branch can start functioning with a skeleton staff of one officer, three clerks and two members of the subordinate staff. The branch can then be developed and the strength of the staff reinforced as the need arises.

2. The Management should negotiate with Mr. S.(Goenka, the owner of the building mentioned above. At this stage, it is very easy to build the strong room with the safe deposit vaults and to make other alterations to earmark areas for the counters, the Manager’s cabin and the lounge.

3. Memorandum Reports: There are the most widely reports in business. They are a form of internal communication. Most memorandum reports are communications between people who know each other. Therefore, these are usually written in informal style unless the reader is a high official. Memorandum reports require little introductory information.

May 5, 2011
Kolkata

Prashant Chatterjee (Convener)
D.K. Bose (Member)

Report Writing – CA Foundation BCR Notes

Sample Report on Field Work:

Modern Bank of India
Zonal Office, Park Street
Kolkata

May 5, 2011

The Managing Director,
Head Office
Nariman Point
Mumbai
Dear Sir,
Sub.: Report on our proposed new branch of Modern Bank of India at Midnapore, West Bengal.
In accordance with the resolution passed at the Board meeting held on April 20,2011 instructing us to submit a report on the possibilities of setting up a branch at Midnapore, West Bengal, we have just completed preliminary enquiries and wish to submit the enclosed report.

Yours faithfully,
Prashant Chatterjee
(Convener)
D.K. Bose (Member)
Rahul Banerjee (Member)
S.K. Roy (Member)
P. Majumdar (Member)

Enel.: Report
Report of the Committee on our Proposed Branch of the Modern Bank of India at Midnapore, West Bengal.
Terms of Reference
The Committee was appointed in accordance with the following resolutions adopted by the Board of Directors at their meeting on April 20, 2001 :

  • That a committee be appointed to consider the possibilities of setting up a new branch at Midnapore, West Bengal.
  • That the committee would consist the following members:

Mr. Prashant Chatterjee, Manager, Howrah Branch, Convener,
Mr. D.K. Bose, Manager, Hooghly Branch, Member,
Mr. Rahul Banerjee, Manager, Burdwan Branch, Member,
Mr. S.K. Roy, Manager, Darjeeling Branch, Member/
Mr. P. Majumdar, Manager, Shantiniketan Branch, Member.
Action Taken:
1. The member’s of the Committee visited Midnapore to study the suitability of this town for setting up a branch there.

2. The members met some leading residents, landlords as well as the Chairman, Subhash Bose, Market Traders’ Association to assess the situation and to find out if some suitable premises could be made available for the proposed branch.

3. The Committee met five times between April 21 and April 28 to discuss the findings and for-mulate concrete suggestions.

Findings and Conclusions:
1. Midnapore, a sleepy town in a remote corner of West Bengal, has suddenly sprung into ac¬tivity with the West Bengal Government’s decision to develop it as an industrial area. The Government has offered attractive incentives to NRIs to invest their money in this industrial area. All infrastructural facilities have been promised at concessional rates.

2. Three major NRI groups-the JKS group of industries, the House of Sarafs and the Jupiter Industries-have already started setting up industrial units in the area. They will be producing computers, electronic goods like television sets and music systems, and cycles. Ancillary units are also coming up.

3. With a constant inflow of workers, the population of this town is fast multiplying. A vast com-mercial complex is also under development. The original inhabitants of Midnapore as well as the neighbouring areas, with their newly acquired riches, have suddenly become conscious of their living standards.

4. At present, two nationalised banks have their branches at Midnapore. Both the branches are located in the old market. We don’t think these two branches, with a provision for only skeleton staff, can handle all the business going to be available.

5. We have come across a very suitable site in the shopping complex under development. A building with 300 square metre floor area on ground floor and an 8m x 6m basement is available on rent. Still under construction, it is expected to be ready for possession in another three months.

Recommendations:
The Committee makes the following recommendations :
1. The Management should seize this opportunity and set up a branch at Midnapore. The branch can start functioning with a skeleton staff of one officer, three clerks and two members of the subordinate staff. The branch can then be developed and the strength of the staff reinforced as the need arises.

2. The Management should negotiate with Mr. S. Goenka, the owner of the building mentioned above. At this stage, it is very easy to build the strong room with the safe deposit vaults and to make other alterations to earmark areas for the counters, the Manager’s cabin and the lounge.
May 5,2011
Kolkata

Prashant Chatterjee (Convener)
D.K. Bose (Member)
Rahul Banerjee (Member)
P. Majumdar (Member)

Ends.: The plan of the Midnapore Industrial Area showing the exact situation of the three industries being set up by some NRI groups and the shopping complex under development.

Sample Report On Visit To Industry:

Beauty Aids Limited
C-5, Connaught Place
New Delhi-110 001
Report On Labour Unrest At Nagda Plant

To: Mr. S.C. Jain, Managing Director
From: The Labour Unrest Investigation Committee
Terms of Reference:
To investigate into the workers’ unrest and make recommendations to restore peace.
Action Taken:
The committee met the manager of the Nagda Plant twice and detailed discussions were held. Subsequently, two meetings were held with the foremen. Ten workers selected at random were interviewed personally. The President and the Secretary of the labour union in the plant were also consulted.

Finding and Conclusions:
(a) The unrest is widespread involving all sections of the factory. The unrest was observed in March 2001 for the first time. In the beginning there were occasional outbursts of ill-temper. Later groups of workers discussed the problems.

In December 2001 a meeting of the plant union was held and a memorandum was submitted to the plant manager. The plant manager sent a report to the General Manager without enclosing the memorandum of the plant union. Most of the foremen felt that unless immediate remedial action was taken, the situation might get out of hand with the possibility of total strike.

(b) Workers made the following complaints:

  • The plant canteen does not provide wholesome refreshments and the prices charged are high
  • There was no suitable bus service from the railway station to the factory
  • The plant manager behaved like a dictator.

Recommendations:
(a) The canteen contractor should be asked to improve the quality of refreshments and reduce the rates.

(b) A bus service should be introduced between the factory and the railway station, to be run four times daily to coincide with the two shifts.

(c) The plant manager should be advised to be more humane in dealing with workers and union leaders.

M.C. Goel
Chairman of the Committee
Rahul Banerjee (Member)
P. Majumdar (Member)

Ends.: The plan of the Midnapore Industrial Area showing the exact situation of the three industries being set up by some NRI groups and the shopping complex under development.

Report Writing – CA Foundation BCR Notes

Techniques of Report Writing:
Good report writing involves the following:
1. Adaptation: Adaptation means the use of words that have similar meanings to the report writer and the reader of the report.

2. Objectivity: The report writer must be objective in both thinking and writing style. Keep out all bias, prejudice and emotions. Approach the problem with an open mind. Objective writing is believable.

3. Time View Point: Keep a consistent time viewpoint throughout the report. In other words, the report writer should view all similar information in the report from the same position in time (past or present).

4. Coherence: Various parts of a report must be arranged logically and interrelated. Long reports require words, sentences and paragraphs to connect the parts.

5. Transition: Transition means bridging across by words and sentences. Use transitions where you need to connect parts of the report. Transitions should be natural not mechanical. Transitional sentences are used for connecting large parts. Topic sentences on the other hand improve flow of thoughts. Transitional words show relations between succeeding parts of a report.

6. Interest: Good report writing should be interesting. Choice of words, rhythm and concreteness help to make the report interesting.

Summary:

  • Meaning of Report: A formal statement of what happened, why and what should less be done.
  • Importance of Reports : Provide information insight and guidance for future course of action.
  • Types of Reports: Formal and informal, statutory and non-statutory, routine and special, informational and interpretative.
  • Characteristics of a Good Report : Simplicity, clarity, accuracy, precision, completeness, relevance, cross-reference, objectivity, brevity and reader-oriented.
  • Preparation of Reports : Collect the material, plan the report, draft the report, edit the report.
  • Styles of Reports : Letter style and schematic.
Price Determination in Different Markets – CA Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 4

Price Determination in Different Markets – CA Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 4

Browsing through CA Foundation Business Economics Notes Chapter 4 Price Determination in Different Markets help students to revise the complete subject quickly.

Price Determination in Different Markets – Business Economics CA Foundation Notes Chapter 4

Meaning of market:
In ordinary language, a market refers to a place where the buyers and sellers of a commodity gather and strike bargains.

In economics, however, the term “Market” refers to a market for a commodity.
Example – Cloth market; furniture market; etc.

According to Chapman, “the term market refers not necessarily to a place and always to a commodity and buyers and sellers who are in direct competition with one another”.

According to the French economist Cournot, “Market is not any particular place in which things are bought and sold, but the whole of any region in which buyers and sellers are in such free intercourse with each other that the prices of the same goods tend to equality easily and quickly”.

The above mentioned definitions reveals the following features of a market:

  • A region. A market does not refer to a fixed place. It covers a region, which may be a town, state, country or even world.
  • Existence of buyers and sellers. Market refers to the network of potential buyers and sellers who may be at different places.
  • Existence of commodity or service. The exchange transactions between the buyers and sellers can take place only when there is a commodity or service to buy and sell.
  • Bargaining for a price between potential buyers and sellers.
  • Knowledge about market conditions. Buyers and sellers are aware of the prices offered or accepted by other buyers and sellers through any means of communication.
  • One price for a commodity or service at a given time.

Classification of Market:
Markets may be classified on the basis of different criteria. In Economics, generally the classification is made as pointed out in the following chart –

Price Determination in Different Markets:
Price Determination in Different Markets – CA Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 4 1

Types of market structures:
→ Market can be classified on the basis of area, volume of business, time, status of sellers, regulation and control.

→ The main types of markets can be summed up as follows :
1. Perfect Competition :

  • Perfect competition market is one where there are many sellers selling identical products to many buyers at a uniform.

2. Monopoly:

  • Monopoly market structure is a market situation in which there is a single seller of a commodity selling to many buyers.
  • The commodity has no close substitutes available.
  • A monopolist therefore, has a considerable influence on the price and supply of his commodity.

3. Monopolistic Competition :
Monopolistic competition is a market situation in which there are many sellers selling differentiated goods to many buyers.

4. Oligopoly:
Oligopoly is a market situation in which there are few sellers selling either homogeneous or differentiated goods.

Table : Features of major types of markets
Price Determination in Different Markets – CA Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 4 2

Concepts of total revenue, average revenue and marginal revenue:
Total Revenue : (TR)

  • Total revenue may be defined as the total amount of money received by the firm by selling a certain units of a commodity.
  • It is obtained by multiplying the price per unit of a commodity with the total number of units sold.
  • Total Revenue = Price per unit X Total No. of units sold
    TR = P X Q
  • Example – A firm sells 100 units of a commodity @ ₹ 15 each, then its total revenue is ₹ 15 X 100 units = ₹ 1,500

Average Revenue : (AR)
→ Average revenue is the revenue per unit of the commodity sold.

→ It is simply the total revenue divided by the number of units of output sold.

→ Average Revenue = \(\frac { Total Revenue }{ No.of units sold }\)
AR = \(\frac { TR }{ Q }\)

→ Example – A firm earns total revenue of ₹ 2,000 by the sale of 100 units of a commodity, then its average revenue is ₹ 20 (₹ 2000 ÷ 100 units)

→ By definition average revenue is the price per unit of output. To prove it –
∴ AR = \(\frac { TR }{ Q }\), since TR = P x Q
AR = \(\frac { P×Q }{ Q }\)
∴ AR = P (Price)

Marginal Revenue (MR):
→ Marginal revenue refers to the addition to total revenue by selling one more unit of a commodity.

→ Marginal revenue may also be defined as the change in total revenue resulting from the sale of one more unit of a commodity

→ Example – If a firm sells 100 units of a commodity @ ₹ 15 each, its TR is ₹ 1,500. Now, if it increases the sale by ten units i.e. it sells 110 units @ ₹ 14 each, its TR is ₹ 1,540. Thus,
MR = \(\frac { ∆ TR }{ ∆ Q }\)

→ Where – ∆ TR is the change in total revenue
∆ Q is the change in the quantity sold

→ For one unit change – MRn = TRn – TRn-1
Where
MRn = Marginal Revenue from ‘n’ units
TRn = Total Revenue of ‘n’ units
TRn-1 = Total Revenue from ‘n-1’ units
n = any give number

Price Determination in Different Markets – CA Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 4

Marginal revenue, average revenue, total revenue and elasticity of demand:
→ The relationship between AR, MR and price elasticity of demand can be examined with the formula –
MR = AR x \(\frac { e – 1 }{ e }\)
Where, e = price elasticity of demand.
If e = 1, MR = 0
If e > 1, MR will be positive i.e. MR > 0
If e < 1, MR will be negative i.e. MR < 0
Price Determination in Different Markets – CA Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 4 3
The relationship between AR, MR, TR & elasticity of demand.

→ The above figure reveals the following on a straight line demand curve (or AR curve):

  • When e > 1, marginal revenue is positive and therefore total revenue is rising,
  • When e = 1, marginal revenue is zero and therefore total revenue is maximum, and
  • When e < 1, marginal revenue is negative and therefore total revenue is falling.

Behavioural Principles:

  • Principle 1 : A firm should not produce at all if its total revenue is either equal to or less than its I total variable cost.
  • Principle 2 : It will be profitable for the firm to expand output so long as marginal revenue is more than marginal cost till the point where marginal revenue equals marginal cost.

Also the marginal cost curve should cut its marginal revenue curve from below.

Determination of prices:

Determination of equilibrium price:
→ We know that law of demand reveals, if other conditions remain unchanged, more quantity | of a commodity is demanded in the market at a lower price and less quantity is demanded at a higher price. Therefore, demand curve slopes downward.

→ Similarly, the law of supply reveals, if other conditions remain unchanged, more quantity of a commodity is supplied in the market at a higher price and less quantity is supplied at a lower price. Therefore, supply curve slopes upward.

→ Demand and supply are the two main factors that determine the price of a commodity in the market. In other words, the price of a commodity is determined by the inter-action of the forces of demand and supply.

→ The price that will come to prevail in the market is one at which quantity demanded equals 1 quantity supplied.

→ This price at which quantity demand equals quantity supplied is called equilibrium price.

→ The quantity demanded and supplied at equilibrium price is called equilibrium quantity.

→ The process of price determination is illustrated with the help of following imaginary schedule and diagram.

Table – Determination of Price:
Price Determination in Different Markets – CA Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 4 4The The above table shows that at a price of ₹ 3 per unit, the quantity demanded equals quantity supplied of the commodity. At ₹ 3 two forces of demand and supply are balanced. Thus, ₹ 3 is the equilibrium price and equilibrium quantity at ₹ 3 is 300 units.
Price Determination in Different Markets – CA Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 4 5
→ The equilibrium between demand and supply can also be explained graphically as in Fig.

→ In Fig – the market is at equilibrium at point ‘E’, where the demand curve and supply curve intersect each other. Here quantity demanded and supplied, are equal to each other.

→ At point ‘E’, the equilibrium price is ₹ 3 per unit and equilibrium quantity is 300 units.

→ If the price rises to ₹ 4 per unit, the supply rises to 400 units but demand falls to 200 units. Thus, there is excess supply of 200 units in the market.

→ In order to sell off excess supply of 200 units the sellers will compete among themselves and in doing so the price will fall.

→ As a result the quantity demand will rise and quantity supplied will fall and becoming equal to each other at the equilibrium price ₹ 3.

→ Similarly, if the price falls to ₹ 2 per unit, the demand rises to 400 units but supply falls to 200 units. Thus, there is excess demand of 200 units in the market.

→ As the price is less there is competition among the buyers to buy more and more. This competition among buyers increases with the entry of new buyers.

→ More demand and less supply and competition among buyers will push up the price.

→ As a result, quantity demanded will fall and quantity supplied will rise and become equal to each other at the equilibrium price of ₹ 3.

Effects of shifts in demand and supply on equilibrium price:
→ While determining the equilibrium price, it was assumed that demand and supply conditions were constant. In reality however, the condition of demand and supply change continuously.

→ Thus, changes in income, taste and preferences, changes in the availability and prices of related goods, etc. brings changes in demand conditions and cause demand curve to shift either to right or left.

→ In the same way, changes in the technology, changes price of labour, raw materials, etc., changes in the number of firms, etc. brings changes in supply conditions and cause supply curve to shift either to right or left.
(a) Change (shift) in Demand and Supply remaining constant:
Price Determination in Different Markets – CA Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 4 6
→ In Fig.- DD and SS are the original demand and supply curves respectively inter-secting each other at point E.

→ At point E, the equilibrium price is OP and the demand and supply (ie. equilibrium quantity) are equal at OQ.

→ When the demand increases, the demand curve shifts upwards from DD to D1D1, supply remaining the same.

→ As a result, the equilibrium price rises from OP to OP1, and the equilibrium quantity increases from OQ to OQ1 as shown at point E1.

→ When the demand decreases, the demand curve shifts downwards from DD to D2 D2, Supply remaining the same.

→ As a result, the equilibrium price falls from OP to OP2 and the equilibrium quantity decreases from OQ to OQ2 as shown at point E2

(b) Change (shift) in Supply and Demand remaining constant:
Price Determination in Different Markets – CA Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 4 7
Effects of Changes in Supply on Equilibrium Price.
→ In Fig. – DD and SS are the original demand and supply curves respectively inter-sections each other at point E.

→ At point E, the equilibrium price is OP and the demand and supply (i.e. Equilibrium quantity) are equal at OQ.

→ When the supply increases, the supply curve shifts to the right from SS to S1 S1, demand remaining the same.

→ As a result, the equilibrium price falls from OP to OP1, and the equilibrium quantity increases from OQ to OQ1, as shown at point E1.

→ When the supply decreases, the supply curve shifts to the left from SS to S2 S2, demand remaining the same.

→ As a result, the equilibrium price rises from OP to OP2 and the equilibrium quantity decreases from OQ to OQ2 as shown at point E2.

Price Determination in Different Markets – CA Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 4

Effects of simultaneous shifts in demand and supply on equilibrium price:
Sometimes demand and supply conditions may change at the same time changing the equilibrium price and quantity. The changes in both demand and supply simultaneously can be discussed with the help of following diagrams :
Price Determination in Different Markets – CA Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 4 8
Effect of simultaneous changes in Demand & Supply on Equilibrium Price.
→ In Fig. – DD and SS are the original demand and supply respectively intersecting each other at point E at which the equilibrium price is OP and the equilibrium quantity is OQ.

→ Fig. (a) shows that the increase in demand is equal to increase in supply. The new curves D1, D1, and S1, S1, intersect at E1. Therefore, the new equilibrium price is equal to old equilibrium price OP. But equilibrium quantity increases.

→ Fig. (b) shows that the increase in demand is more than increase in supply. The new curves D1, D1, and S1, S1, intersect each other at point E1, which shows that new equilibrium price OP1, is higher than old equilibrium price OP. But equilibrium quantity increases.

→ Fig. (c) shows that the increase in supply is more than increase in demand. The new curves D1D1, and S1S1 intersect each other at point E1 which shows that new equilibrium price OP1 is lower than old equilibrium price OP. But equilibrium quantity increases.

Perfect competition:
Introduction :
→ Perfect competition is a market structure where there are large number of firms (seller) which produce and sell homogeneous product. Individual firm produces only a small portion of the total market supply.

→ Therefore, a single firm cannot affect the price.

  • Price is fixed by industry.
  • Firm is only a price taker.
  • So the price of the commodity is uniform.

Features of perfect competition.
→ Following are the main features of perfect competition :
(1) Large number of buyers and sellers :

  • The number of buyers and sellers is so large that none of them can influence the price in the market individually.
  • Price of the commodity is determined by the forces of market demand and market supply.

(2) Homogeneous Product:
The product produced by all the firms in the industry are homogeneous.

  • They are identical in every respect like colour, size, etc.
  • Products are perfect substitutes of each other.

(3) Free entry and exit of the firms from the markets :

  • New firms are free to enter the industry any time.
  • Old firms or loss incurring firms can leave industry any time.
  • The condition of free entry and exit applies only to the long run equilibrium of the industry.

(4) Perfect knowledge of the market:

  • Under perfect competition, all firms (sellers) and buyers have perfect knowledge about the market.
  • Both have perfect information about prices at which commodities can be sold and bought.

(5) Perfect mobility :
The factors of production can move freely from one occupation to another and from one place to another.

(6) No transport cost:
Transport cost is ignored as all the firms have equal access to the market.

(7) No selling cost:

  • Under perfect competition commodities traded are homogeneous and have uniform price.
  • Therefore, firm need not make any expenditure on publicity and advertisement.

Equilibrium of the Industry :
→ Industry is a group of firms producing identical commodities.

→ Under perfect competition, price of a commodity is determined by the interaction between market demand and market supply of the whole industry.

→ The equilibrium price is determined at a point where demand for and supply of the whole industry are equal to each other.

→ No individual firm can influence the price.

→ Firm has to accept the price determined by the industry.

→ Therefore, the firm is said to be price taker and industry, the price maker.

→ Equilibrium of the industry is illustrated as follows :
Table – Price Determination:

Industry
Price ₹ Per unit Demand (Units) Supply (units)
10
8642
20
40
60
80
100
100
80
60
40
20

Price Determination in Different Markets – CA Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 4 9
Figure : Equilibrium Price (Industry)
→ The above table and fig. shows that at a price of ₹ 6 per unit, the quantity demanded equals quantity supplied.

→ The industry is at equilibrium at point ‘E’, where the equilibrium price is ₹ 6 and equilibrium quantity is 60 units.

Equilibrium of a firm:
→ We have already seen that under the perfect competition, the price of the commodity is determined by the forces of market demand and market supply i.e. price is determined by industry.

→ Individual firm has to accept the price determined by the industry. Hence, firm is a Price taker.
Table – Equilibrium price (Industry)
Price Determination in Different Markets – CA Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 4 10→ In the table – the equilibrium price for the industry has been fixed at ₹ 6 per unit through the inter-action of market demand and supply.

→ Table – shows that the firm has no choice but to accept and sell their commodity at a price that has been determined by the industry i.e. ₹ 6 per unit.

→ The firm cannot charge higher price than the market price of ₹ 6 per unit because of fear of loosing customers to rival firms.

→ There is no incentive for the firm to lower the price also.

→ Firm will try to sell as much as it can at the price of ₹ 6 per unit.

→ Table – shows that firm’s AR = MR = Price.
Price Determination in Different Markets – CA Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 4 11

Figure : The firm’s demand curve, AR and MR curves under perfect competition.

→ Fig. shows that being a price taker firm, it has to sell at a given price i.e. 16 per unit.

→ Therefore, firm’s demand curve is a horizontal straight line parallel to X-axis i.e. a perfectly elastic demand curve.

→ We know that price of a commodity is also the AR for the firm.

→ Therefore, demand curve also shows the AR for different quantities sold by the firm.

→ As every additional unit is sold at a given price i.e. ₹ 6 per unit, the MR = AR and the two curves coincides.

→ Thus, in a perfectly competitive market a firm’s
AR = MR = Price = Demand Curve

Conditions for equilibrium of a firm :
→ In perfect competition, the firms are price takers and output adjusters.

→ This is because the price of the commodity is determined by the forces of market demand and market supply i.e. by whole industry and individual firm has to accept it.

→ Therefore firm has to simply choose that level of output which yields maximum profit at the prevailing prices.

→ The firm is at equilibrium when it maximises its profit.

→ The output which helps the firm to maximise its profit is called equilibrium output.

→ There are two conditions for the equilibrium of a firm.
They are –

  • Marginal Revenue should be equal to the marginal cost i.e. MR = MC. (First order condition)
  • Firm’s marginal cost curve should cut its marginal revenue curve from below i.e. marginal cost curve should have positive slope at the point of equilibrium. (Second order condition)

→ If MR > MC, there is incentive to produce more and add to profits.

→ If MR < MC, the firm will have to decrease the output as cost of production of additional units is high.

→ When MR = MC, it is equilibrium output which maximises the profits.
Price Determination in Different Markets – CA Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 4 11a
→ Fig. shows that OP is the price determined the industry and firm has to accept it.

→ At prevailing price OP the firm faces horizontal demand curve or average revenue curve.

→ Since the firm sells every additional unit at the same price, marginal revenue curve coincides with average revenue curve.

→ In the fig. at point ‘A’,
MR = MC
but second condition is not fulfilled.

→ Therefore, OQ1 is not equilibrium output. Firm should expand output beyond OQ1 because

  • it will result in the fall of marginal cost, and
  • add to firm’s profits.

→ In the fig. at point ‘B’ not only
MR = MC
but MC curve cuts the MR curve from below Le. it has positive slope.

→ Therefore, OQ2 is the equilibrium level of output and point ‘B’ represents equilibrium of firm.

Price Determination in Different Markets – CA Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 4

Supply curve of the firm in a competitive market:
In a perfectly competitive industry, the MC curve of the firm is also its supply curve. This can be explained with the help of following figure.
Price Determination in Different Markets – CA Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 4 12
Figure : Marginal Cost and Supply curve of a competitive firm

  • The fig. shows that at the market price OP1, the firm faces demand curve D1.
  • At OP1, price the firm supplies OQ1, quantity because here MC = MR.
  • If the price rises to OP2 the firm faces demand curve D2.
  • At OP2 price the firm supplies OQ2 quantity.
  • Similarly at OP3 and OP4 price corresponding supplies are OQ3 and OQ4 respectively.
  • Thus, the firm’s marginal cost curve indicates the quantities of output which it will supply at different prices.
  • It can be observed that the competitive firm’s short run supply curve is identical only with that portion of
  • MC curve, which lies above the AVC.
  • Hence, price ≥ AVC.

Short Run Equilibrium of a Competitive Firm. (Price – Output Equilibrium):
→ A competitive firm in the short run attains equilibrium at a level of output which satisfies the following two conditions:

  • MC = MR, and
  • MC curve cuts the MR curve from below.

→ When a competitive firm, is in short run equilibrium, it may find itself in any of the following situations –

  • it break evens i.e. earn NORMAL PROFITS where Average Revenue = Average Cost i.e. AR = AC.
  • it earns profit i.e. earn SUPER NORMAL PROFITS where Average Revenue > Average Cost i.e. AR > AC.
  • it suffer LOSSES where Average Revenue < Average Cost i.e. AR < AC.

Normal Profits (AR = AC):
A firm would earn normal profits if at the equilibrium output AR=AC.
Price Determination in Different Markets – CA Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 4 13
Short Run Equilibrium of a competitive firm : Normal Profits
Equilibrium point : E (MR = MC)
Equilibrium output : OQ
Average Revenue : QE (= OP)
Average Cost : QE
Therefore, AR = AC. Hence, Normal Profits.

Super Normal Profits (AR > AC):
A firm would earn super normal profits if at the equilibrium output AR > AC.
Price Determination in Different Markets – CA Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 4 14
Figure : Short Run Equilibrium of a competitive firm : Super Normal Profits
Equilibrium point : E (where MR = MC)
Equilibrium output : OQ
Average Revenue : QE(= OP)
Average Cost : QF
∴ Profit Per unit : Average Revenue – Average Cost
= QE – QF = EF
Total Profits : Total output x profit per unit
= OQ X EF
Area PEFG.

Losses (AR < AC):
A firm suffer losses, if at the equilibrium level of output, its AR < AC.
Price Determination in Different Markets – CA Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 4 15
Figure : Short Run Equilibrium of Competitive Firm : Losses
Equilibrium Point : E (where MR MC)
Equilibrium Output : OQ
Average Revenue : QE
Average Cost : QF
∴ Loss per unit : Average cost – Average Revenue
= QF – QE = EF
Total Loss : Total output x loss per unit
= OQ x EF
= Area PEFG

→ When the firm incur losses, a question arises whether it should continue to produce or should it shut down ?

→ The answer to this lies in the cost structure of the firm. → Total cost of a firm = Total Fixed Costs + Total Variable Costs

→ Fixed costs once incurred cannot be recovered even if the firm shuts down.

→ Therefore, whether to shut down or not depends on variable costs alone.

→ If AR (Price) > AVC or AR = AVC, the firm can continue to produce even though it suffer losses at the equilibrium level of output.

→ If AR (Price) < AVC, the firm should shut down.

Price Determination in Different Markets – CA Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 4

Long run Equilibrium of a Competitive Firm:
→ In a perfectly competitive market there is no restriction on the entry or exit of firms.

→ Therefore, if existing firms are earning super normal profits in the short run, they will attract new firms to enter the industry.

→ As a result of this, the supply of the commodity increases. This brings down the price per unit.

→ On the other hand, the demand for factors of productions rises which pushes up their prices and so the cost of production rises.

→ Thus, the price line or AR curve will go down and cost curves will go up.

→ As a result of this, price line or AR curve becomes tangent to long run average cost curve. This wipes out super normal profit.

→ Hence, in long run firms earn only normal profits.
Price Determination in Different Markets – CA Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 4 16
Figure : Long run equilibrium of a cofnpetitive industry and its firms.

→ Fig. Shows that long run LMR = LMC = LAC = LAR = Price

→ The firm is at equilibrium at point Er

→ E1 is the minimum point of LAC curve. Thus firm produces equilibrium output OQ1 at the minimum or optimum cost.

→ In the long run under competitive market –

  • Firms earn just normal profits, and
  • competitive firms are of optimum size because they produce at optimum cost Le. at the lowest point of long run average cost curve.

Price Determination in Different Markets – CA Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 4

Monopoly

Introduction :
→ ‘Mono’ means single and ‘Poly’ means seller.

→ So monopoly refers to that market structure where there is a single firm producing and selling a commodity which has no close substitute.

→ As there is no rival firms producing close substitute,

  • the monopoly firm itself is industry, and
  • its output constitutes the total market supply.

Features of Monopoly Market:
Following are the main features of the monopoly market:
1. Single seller and Large number of buyers.

  • There is only one seller or producer of a commodity in the market but there are many buyers.
  • As a result, the monopoly firm has full control over the supply of the commodity.

2. No close substitutes.

  • The commodity sold by the monopolist generally has no close substitutes.
  • Therefore, the cross elasticity of demand between monopolist’s commodity and other commodity is zero or less than one.
  • As a result monopoly firm faces a downward sloping demand curve.

3. Restrictions to entry for new firms.

  • The monopoly firm controls the situation in such a way that it becomes difficult for new firms to enter the monopoly market and compete with monopoly firm.
  • There are many barriers to the entry of new firm which can be economic, institutional or artificial in nature.

4. Price maker.

  • A monopoly firm has full control over the supply of the commodity
  • Price is solely fixed by the monopoly firm.
  • So, a monopoly firm is a “price maker”.

Sources of Monopoly:
The sources of monopoly may be listed as follows :
1. Patents, copyrights and trade marks.
Legal support provided by the government to promote inventions, to produce a particular commodity, etc. by granting patents, copyrights, trademarks, etc. creates monopoly.

2. Control of raw materials.
If one firm acquires the sole ownership or control of essential raw materials, then the other firms cannot compete.

3. Economies of large scale.

  • The monopoly firm may be very big and enjoy economies of large scale of production.
  • The cost of production is therefore low, hence it may supply goods at low prices.
  • This leaves no scope for new firms to enter the market.

4. Government control on entry:
Example – In defense production; public utility services like water, transportation, electricity, etc.

5. Business combines.
Monopolies are created by forming cartels, pools, syndicates, etc. by the firms producing the same goods to control price and output.

Average Revenue and Marginal Revenue Curves under Monopoly:

  • Monopoly firm constitutes industry.
  • Therefore, the entire demand of the consumers faces the monopolist
  • The demand curve of a monopoly firm is the same as the market demand curve of the commodity.
  • As the demand curve of the consumers for a commodity slopes downward, the monopolist faces a downward sloping demand curve.
  • This means that monopolist can sell more quantity only by lowering the price of the commodity
  • The demand curve facing the monopolist is also his average revenue curve. Thus, average revenue curve of the monopolist slopes downwards
  • As the demand curve i.e. average revenue curve slopes downwards, marginal revenue curve will be below it.

Price Determination in Different Markets – CA Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 4

Table : Revenue Schedule of a Monopoly Firm.

Units Sold Price (₹) (AR) Total Revenue ₹  (TR) Marginal Revenue ₹ (MR)
1 10 10 10
2 9 18 8
3 8 24 6
4 7 28 4
5 6 30 2
6 5 30 0
7 4 28 -2

Price Determination in Different Markets – CA Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 4 17
→ In the figure above, AR curve of the monopolist slopes downward and MR curve lies below it.

→ At a quantity OQ, average revenue i.e. price is OP (=QT) and marginal revenue is QK which is less than average revenue OP (=QT).

→ Thus, in case of monopoly –

  • AR and MR are both negatively sloped curves,
  • MR curve lies half way between the AR curve and the Y-axis,
  • AR cannot be zero i.e. AR curve cannot’touch X-axis,
  • MR can be zero or even negative i.e. MR curve can touch or cut the X-axis.

Short Run Equilibrium of the Monopoly Firm (Price – Output Equilibrium):
→ A monopolist will produce an output that maximizes his total profits.

→ A monopolist will maximize his total profits when –

  • Marginal Cost = Marginal Revenue (MC = MR), and
  • Marginal cost curve cuts the marginal revenue curve from below.

→ When a monopoly firm is in the short run equilibrium, it may find itself in the following situations –

  • Firm will earn SUPER NORMAL PROFITS if its AR > AC;
  • Firm will earn NORMAL PROFITS if its AR = AC, and
  • Firm will suffer LOSSES if its AR < AC.

1. Super Normal Profits (AR > AC) :
The monopoly firm would earn super normal profits if at the equilibrium output AR > AC.
Price Determination in Different Markets – CA Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 4 18
Figure : Short Run Equilibrium of a Monopoly Firm : Super Normal Profits.
Equilibrium point : E (where MR = MC)
Equilibrium output : OQ
Average Revenue : QL(= OP)
Average Cost : QM
∴ Profit Per unit : Average Revenue – Average Cost
= QL – QM = LM
Total Profits : Total Output x Profit per unit
= OQ x ML
= Area PLMR

2. Normal Profits (AR = AC) :
The monopoly firm would earn normal profits if at the equilibrium output AR = AC.
Price Determination in Different Markets – CA Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 4 19
Equilibrium point : E (where MR = MC)
Equilibrium output : OQ
Average Revenue : QL
Average Cost : QL
Therefore, AR=AC.
Hence, normal profits.

3. Losses (AR < AC) :
The monopoly firm would suffer losses, if at the equilibrium output its AR < AC.
Price Determination in Different Markets – CA Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 4 20
Equilibrium point : E (where MR = MC)
Equilibrium output : OQ
Average Revenue : QL(= OP)
Average Cost : QM
∴ Loss Per unit : Average Cost – Average Revenue
= QM – QL
= ML
Total Loss : Total output x Loss per unit
= OQ x ML
= Area PLMR
→ If monopoly firm’s AR > AVC or AR = AVC, it can continue to produce though it suffer losses at the equilibrium level of output.

Long Run Equilibrium of a Monopoly Firm:
→ The long run equilibrium of the monopoly firm is attained where its MARGINAL COST = MARGINAL REVENUE i.e. MC = MR.

→ The monopoly firm can continue to earn super normal profits even in the long run.

→ This is because entry to the market for new firms is blocked.

→ All costs are variable costs in the long run and these must be recovered.

→ This means that monopoly firm does not suffer loss in the long run.

→ However, if it is unable to recover variable costs, it should shut down.

→ Fig. Shows the long run equilibrium of a monopoly firm.
Price Determination in Different Markets – CA Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 4 21
Equilibrium point : E (where MR = MC)
Equilibrium output : OQ
Average Revenue : QL(= OP)
Average Cost : QM
∴ Profit per unit : Average Cost – Average Revenue
= QL – QM = LM
Total Profits : Total Output x Profit per unit
= OQ x LM
= Area PLMR
→ Thus, we find that monopoly firm continue to earn super normal profits in long run.

→ A monopoly firm does not produce at the lowest point of LAC curve i.. does not produce at optimum level because of absence of competition.

→ In other words, it operates at sub-optimum level and therefore, does not produce optimum output.

Price Discrimination:

  • A monopoly firm is also the industry.
  • A single firm controls the entire supply.
  • Therefore, the firm has the power to sell the same commodity to different buyers at different prices.
  • When the firm charge different prices to different customers for the same commodity, it is engaged in price discrimination.
  • Example – Electricity supplying firm charge higher rate per unit of electricity from industrial units than domestic consumers.

Conditions for price discrimination:
Price discrimination is possible under the following conditions :
1. Existence of two or more than two sub-markets.

  • The monopolist should be able to divide the total market for his commodity into two or more sub-markets.
  • Such division of market may be on the basis of income, geographic location, age, sex, etc.
  • Example – on the basis of income, a doctor may charge high fees from rich patients than from poor.

2. Different markets should have different price elasticity of demand.

  • The difference in price elasticity of demand in different markets enables the monopolist to discriminate among customers.
  • He can charge higher price in inelastic market and lower price in elastic market.

3. No possibility of resale.

  • It should not be possible for buyers to purchase the commodity from a cheaper market and sell it in the costlier markets.
  • In other words, there should be no contact among the buyers of the two markets.

4. Control over supply.
The supply should be in full control of the monopolist.

Price-output determination under price discrimination:
→ Suppose a discriminating monopolist sell his output in market ‘A’ and market ‘B’.

→ Market ‘A’ has less elastic demand and market ‘B’ has more elastic demand.

→ Suppose the monopolist has only one production facility then he is faced with the questions

  • How much to produce?
  • How much to sell in each market?
  • How much price to charge in each market?

→ The monopolist will first decide profitable level of total output (ie. where MR = MC) and then allocate the quantity between two markets.

→ The condition for equilibrium here would be –

  • MC = MRa = MRb. It means that MC must be equal to MR in individual markets separately.
  • MC = AMR (aggregate marginal revenue). It means that the monopolist must be in equilibrium not only in individual markets but also when the two markets are treated as one.

→ The process of price determination under price discrimination is shown in the following figure
Price Determination in Different Markets – CA Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 4 22
→ In the fig. – MC curve intersect the AMR curve at point E

→ Point E shows the total output is OQ.

→ When a perpendicular EH is drawn, it intersect MRa at E1 and MRb at E2. These are the equilibrium point of market A and B

→ Point E1 shows that quantity sold in market A is OQ1 and the price charged is OP1.

→ Point E2 shows that quantity sold in market B is OQ2 and the price charged is OP2

→ Price charged in market ‘A’ is higher than in market ‘B’.

→ Thus, a discriminating monopolist chargers a higher price in the market ‘A’ having less elastic demand and a lower price in the market ‘B’ having more elastic demand.

→ The marginal revenue is different in different markets.
Example – Suppose the single monopoly price is ₹ 40 and elasticity of demand in market A and B is 2 and 4 respectively.
MR in market A = ARa(\(\frac { e-1 }{ e }\))
= 40(\(\frac { 2-1 }{ 2 }\))
= ₹ 20
MR in market B = ARa(\(\frac { e-1 }{ e }\))
= 40(\(\frac { 4-1 }{ 4 }\))
= ₹ 30
→ It is clear from the above example that the marginal revenue is different in different markets when elasticity of demand at the single price is different.

→ MR is higher in the market having high elasticity and vice versa.

→ In the above example, since marginal revenue in market ‘B’ is more, it will be profitable for monopolist to transfer some units of the commodity from market ‘A’ to ‘B’.

→ When monopolist transfers the commodity from market A to B, he is practicing price discrimination.

→ As a result, the price of commodity will increase in market A and will decrease in market B.

→ Ultimately the marginal revenue in the two market will become equal.

→ When marginal revenue becomes equal in the two markets, it will no longer be profitable to transfer the units of commodity from market A to B.

Objectives of Price discrimination:
To earn maximum profit; to dispose off surplus stock; to enjoy economies of scale; to capture for¬eign markets etc.

Degrees of price discrimination:
Pigou classified price discrimination as follows:
(1) first degree price discrimination where the monopolist fix a price which take away the entire consumer’s surplus,

(2) second degree price discrimination where the monopolist take away only some part of consumer’s surplus. Here price changes according to the quantity sold.

Example – large quantity sold at a lower price, third degree price discrimination where the monopolist charges the price according to location customer segment, income level, time of purchase etc.

Price Determination in Different Markets – CA Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 4

Imperfect competition : monopolistic competition:

Introduction:

  • We have studied two models that represent the two extremes of market structures namely perfect competition and monopoly.
  • The two extremes of market structures are not seen in real world.
  • In reality we find only imperfect competition which fall between the two extremes of perfect competition and monopoly.
  • The two main forms of imperfect competition are –
    → Monopolistic Competition and
    → Oligopoly

Meaning and features of Monopolistic Competition:

  • As the name implies, monopolistic competition is a blend of competitive market and monopoly elements.
  • There is competition because of large number of firms with easy entry into the industry selling similar product.
  • The monopoly element is due to the fact that firms produce differentiated products. The products are similar but not identical.
  • This gives an individual firm some degree of monopoly of its own differentiated product.
  • Example – MIT and APTECH supply similar products, but not identical.

Similarly, bathing soaps, detergents, shoes, shampoos, tooth pastes, mineral water, fitness and health centers, ready made garments, etc. all Operate in a monopolistic competitive market.

The characteristics of monopolistic competitive market can be summed up as follows :
1. Large number of buyers and sellers
→ There are large number of firms.

  • So each individual firms can not influence the market.
  • Each individual firm share relatively small fraction of the total market.

→ The number of buyers is also very large and so single buyer cannot influence the market by demanding more or less.

2. Product Differentiation:

  • The product produced by various firms are not identical but are somewhat different from each other but are close substitutes of each other.
  • Therefore, the products are differentiated by brand names.
  • Example – Colgate, Close-Up, Pepsodent, etc.
  • Brand loyalty of customers gives rise to an element of monopoly to the firm.

3. Freedom of entry and exit:
New firms are free to enter into the market and existing firms are free to quit the market.

4. Non-Price Competition

  • Firms under monopolistic competitive market do not compete with each other on the basis of price of product.
  • They compete with each other through advertisements, better product development, better after sales services, etc.
  • Thus, firms incur heavy expenditure on publicity advertisement, etc.

Short Run Equilibrium of a Firm in Monopolistic Competition. (Price-Output Equilibrium):
→ Each firm in a monopolistic competitive market is a price maker and determines the price of its own product.

→ As many close substitutes for the product are available in the market, the demand curve (average revenue curve) for the product of individual firm is relatively more elastic.

→ The conditions of equilibrium of a firm are same as they are in perfect competition and mo-nopoly ie.

  • MR = MC, and
  • MC curve cuts the MR curve from below.

→ The following figures show the equilibrium conditions and price-output determination of a firm under monopolistic competition.

→ When a firm in a monopolistic competition is in the short run equilibrium, it may find itself in the following situations –

  • Firm will earn SUPER NORMAL PROFITS if its AR > AC;
  • Firm will earn NORMAL PROFITS if its AR = AC; and
  • Firm will suffer LOSSES if its AR < AC

1. Super Normal Profits (AR > AC):
Price Determination in Different Markets – CA Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 4 23
Figure : Firm’s Equilibrium under Monopolistic Competition Super Normal Profits.
Equilibrium point : E (where MR = MC)
Equilibrium output : OQ
Average Revenue : QL(= OP)
Average Cost : QM
∴ Profit per unit : Average Revenue – Average Cost
QL – QM = LM
Total Profits : Total Output x Profit per unit
= OQ X LM
= Area PLMR
The firm will earn Normal Profits if AC curve is tangent to AR curve i.e. when AR = AC

2. Losses (AR < AC):
Price Determination in Different Markets – CA Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 4 24
Figure : Firm’s Equilibrium under Monopolistic Competition : Losses
Equilibrium point : E (where MR = MC)
Equilibrium output : OQ
Average Revenue : QL
Average Cost : QM
∴ Loss Per unit : Average Cost – Average Revenue
= QM – QL = ML
Total Loss : Total Output x Loss per unit
= OQ x ML
= Area PLMR
The firm may continue to produce even if incurring losses if its AR ≥ AVC.

Price Determination in Different Markets – CA Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 4

Long Run Equilibrium of a Firm in Monopolistic Competition:
→ If the firms in a monopolistic competitive market earn super normal profits, it attracts new firms to enter the industry.

→ With the entry of new firms market will be shared by more firms.

→ As a result, profits per firm will go on falling.

→ This will go on till super normal profits are wiped out and all the firms earn only normal profits.
Price Determination in Different Markets – CA Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 4 25
Figure : Long Run Equilibrium of a firm in Monopolistic Competition
Equilibrium Point : E(where MR = MC)
Equilibrium output : OQ
Average Revenue : QR
Average Cost : QR
Therefore, AC=AR. Hence, Normal Profits.
→ In the long run firms in a monopolistic competitive market just earn Normal profits.

→ Firms operate at sub-optimal level as shown by point ‘R’ where the falling portion AC curve is tangent to AR curve.

→ In other words firms do not operate at the minimum point of LAC curve ‘L’.

→ Therefore, production capacity equal to QQ1, remains idle or unused called excess capacity.

→ This implies that in monopolistic competitive market –

Firms are not of optimum size and each firm has excess production capacity:

  • The firm can expand its output from Q to Q1, and reduce its average cost.
  • But it will not do so because to sell more it will have to reduce its average revenue even more than average costs.
  • Hence, firms will operate at sub-optimal level only in the long run.

Oligopoly

Introduction:

  • ‘Oligo’ means few and ‘Poly’ means seller. Thus, oligopoly refers to the market structure where there are few sellers or firms.
  • They produce and sell such goods which are either differentiated or homogeneous products.
  • Oligopoly is an important form of imperfect/competition.
  • Example – Cold drinks industry; automobile industry; Idea; Airtel. Hutch, BSNL mobile services in Nagpur; tea industry; etc.

Types of Oligopoly:

  • Pure or perfect oligopoly occurs when the product is homogeneous in nature, Example – Aluminum industry.
  • Differentiated or imperfect oligopoly where products are differentiated. Example – toilet products.
  • Open oligopoly where new firms can enter the market and compete with already existing firm.
  • Closed oligopoly where entry of new firm is restricted.
  • Collusive oligopoly when some firms come together with some common understanding and act in collusion with each other in fixing price and output.
  • Competitive oligopoly where there is no understanding or collusion among the firms.
  • Partial oligopoly where the industry is dominated by one large firm which is looked upon by other firms as the leader of the group. The dominating firm will be the price leader.
  • Full oligopoly where there is absence of price leadership.
  • Syndicated oligopoly where the firms sell their products through a centralized syndicate.
  • Organized oligopoly where the firms organize themselves into a central association for fixing prices, output, quotas, etc.

Characteristics of Oligopoly Market:
Following are the special features of oligopoly market:
1. Interdependence

  • In an oligopoly market, there is interdependence among firms.
  • A firm cannot take independent price and output decisions.
  • This is because each firm treats other firms as rivals.
  • Therefore, it has to consider the possible reaction to its rivals price-output decisions.

2. Importance of advertising and selling costs:

  • Due to interdependence, the various firms have to use aggressive and defensive marketing tools to achieve larger market share.
  • For this the firms spend heavily on advertisement, publicity, sales promotion, etc. to attract large number of customers.
  • Firms avoid price-wars but are engaged in non-price competition. Example – free set of tea mugs with a packet of Duncan’s Double Diamond Tea.

3. Indeterminate Demand Curve:

  • The nature and position of the demand curve of the oligopoly firm cannot be determined.
  • This is because it cannot predict its sales correctly due to indeterminate reaction patterns of rival firms.
  • Demand curve goes on shifting as rivals too change their prices in reaction to price changes by the firm.

4. Group behaviour:

  • The theory of oligopoly is a theory of group behaviour.
  • The members of the group may agree to pull together to promote their mutual interest or fight for individual interests or to follow the group leader or not.
  • Thus the behaviour of the members is very uncertain.

Price and output decisions in an Oligopolistic Market:
→ As seen earlier, an oligopolistic firm does not know how rival firms react to each other decisions. Therefore, it has to be very careful when it makes decision about its price. Rival firms retaliate to price change by an oligopolistic firm.

Hence, its demand curve indeterminate. Price and output cannot be fixed. Some of the important oligopoly models are:
1. Some economists assume that oligopolistic firms make their decisions independently. Therefore, the demand curve becomes definite and hence equilibrium level of output can be determined.

2. Some believe that oligopolistic can predict the reaction of rivals on the basis of which he makes decisions about price and quantity.

3. Cornet considers OUTPUT is the firm’s controlled variable and not price.

4. In a model given by Stackelberg, the leader firm commits to an output before all other firms. The rest of firms follow it and choose their own level of output.

5. Bertrand model states PRICE is the control variable for firms and therefore each firm sets the price independently.

6. In order to pursue common interests, oligopolistic enter into enter into agreement and jointly act as monopoly to fix quantity and price.

Price Determination in Different Markets – CA Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 4

Price Leadership:
→ A large or dominant firm may be surrounded by many small firms. The dominant firm takes the lead to set the price taking into account of the small firms. Dominant firm may adopt any one of the following strategies –
1. ‘Live and let live’ strategy where dominant firm accepts the presence of small firms and set the price. This is called price-leadership,

2. In another strategy, the price leader sets the price in such a way that it allows some profits to the follower firms.

3. Barometric price leadership where an old, experienced, respectful, largest acts as a leader and sets the price. It makes changes in price which are beneficial from all firm’s and industry’s view point. Price charged by leader is accepted by follower firms.

Kinked Demand Curve :
→ In many oligopolistic industries there is price rigidity or stability.

→ The prices remains sticky or inflexible for a long time.

→ Oligopolists do not change the price even if economic conditions change.

→ Out of many theories explaining price rigidity, the theory of kinked demand curve hypothesis given by American economist Paul M. Sweezy is most popular.

→ According to kinked demand curve 4 hypothesis, the demand curve faced by an oligopolist have a ‘Kink’ at the prevailing price level.

→ A kink is formed at the prevailing price because –

  • the portion of the demand curve above the prevailing price is elastic, and
  • the portion of the demand curve below the prevailing price is inelastic

→ Consider the following figure.
Price Determination in Different Markets – CA Foundation Economics Notes Chapter 4 26
→ In the fig., OP is the prevailing price at which the firm is producing and selling OQ output.

→ At prevailing price OP, the upper portion of demand curve dK is elastic and lower portion of demand curve KD is inelastic.

→ This difference in elasticities is due to the assumption of particular reactions by kinked demand curve theory.

→ The assumed reaction pattern are –
1. If the oligopolist raises the price above the prevailing price OP, he fears that none of his rivals will follow him.

  • Therefore, he will loose customers to them and there will be substantial fall in his sales.
  • Thus, the demand with respect to price rise above the prevailing price is highly elastic as indicated by the upper portion of demand curve dK.
  • The oligopolist will therefore, stick to the prevailing prices.

2. If the oligopolist reduces the price below the prevailing price OP to increase his sales, his rivals too will quickly reduce the price.

  • This is because the rivals fear that their customers will get diverted to price cutting oligopolist’s product.
  • Thus, the price cutting oligopolist will not be able to increase his sales very much.
  • Hence, the demand with respect to price reduction below the prevailing price is inelastic as indicated by the lower portion of demand curve KD.
  • The oligopolist will therefore, stick to the prevailing prices.
  • Each oligopolist will, thus, stick to the prevailing price realising no gain in changing the price.
  • A kink will, therefore, be formed at the prevailing price which remains rigid or sticky or stable at this level.

Other Important Market Forms:

  • Duopoly in which there are only TWO firms in the market. It is subset of oligopoly.
  • Monopoly is a market where there is a single buyer. It is generally in factor market.
  • Oligopsony market where there are small number of large buyers in factor market.
  • Bilateral monopoly market where there is a single buyer and a single seller.
  • It is mix of monopoly and monopsony markets.

CA Inter Taxation Income Tax Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) – CA Inter Tax Study Material

CA Inter Taxation Income Tax Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) – CA Inter Taxation Study Material is designed strictly as per the latest syllabus and exam pattern.

CA Inter Taxation Income Tax Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) – CA Inter Taxation Study Material

Question 1.
Mr. X earned income of ₹ 5,00,000 from long term capital gain and lost ₹ 2,00,000 as short term capital loss. His taxable income as long term capital gain would be:
(a) ₹ 5,00,000
(b) ₹ 3,00,000
(c) ₹ 2,00,000
(d) Nil
Answer:
(b) ₹ 3,00,000

Question 2.
Mr. Ajay Sahu, proprietor of M/s Blue Bird Enterprises having turnover of ₹ 65 lakhs and not subject to tax audit under the Income-tax Act, 1961 during P.Y. 2019-20, has received two bills for payment. The first bill is for ₹ 42,00,000 from Vijay Associates, an advocate and property dealer firm, for his daughter’s hearing and ₹ 21,00,000 from same Vijay Associates for brokerage service provided in relation to purchase of one property. Both bills were raised on 21-12-2020 but payment were made in instalments.

1st Instalment of ₹ 5,00,000 as advance was payment on 15-11-2020, 2nd Instalment of ₹ 45,00,000 on 25-03-2021 and balance amount ₹ 13,00,000 on 11-05-2021. Determine the TDS liability for Mr. Ajay Sahu, if any, for A. Y. 2021 -22?
(a) ₹ 2,50,000
(b) ₹ 3,15,000
(c) ₹ 65,000
(d) Nil [ICAI Mock Test Paper: October 2020, 2 Marks]
Answer:
(b) ₹ 3,15,000

CA Inter Taxation Income Tax Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 3.
Sham Singh spends ₹ 1,00,000 on cultivation and harvesting of his agricultural produce. 50% of the production is sold for ₹ 1,10,000 and rest is stored for self-consumption. What is the amount of the agricultural income?
(a) ₹ 60,000
(b) ₹ 1,10,000
(c) ₹ 1,20,000
(d) ₹ 1,00,000 [ICAI Mock Test Paper: October 2020, 2 Marks]
Answer:
(a) ₹ 60,000

Question 4.
Mr. Square, an Indian citizen, currently resides in Dubai. He came to India on a visit and his total stay in India during the F.Y. 2020-21 was 135 days. He has no source of Income in India. Following is his details of stay in India in the preceding previous years:

Financial Year Days of stay in India
2019-20 125
2018-19 106
2017-18 83
2016-17 78
2015-16 37
2014-15 40
2013-14 35

You are his tax consultant. Advise him on his residential status for the P. Y. 2020-21.
(a) Resident but Not Ordinary Resi-dent (RNOR)
(b) Resident and Ordinary Resident
(c) Non-Resident
(d) Resident but information incom-plete to know whether resident but not ordinarily resident or resident and ordinarily resident [ICAI Mock Test Paper: October 2020, 2 Marks]
Answer:
(c) Non-Resident

CA Inter Taxation Income Tax Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 5.
Ms. Dilar who is not required to furnish return u/s 139(1) as his gross total income itself is less than basic exemption limit, has incurred expenditure of X 2,00,000 for her daughter for travel to U.S.A. during P.Y. 2020-21. Is she required to file return for A.Y. 2021-22? If yes, what is the due date?
(a) Yes; 31st July, 2021
(b) Yes; 30th September, 2021
(c) Yes; 31 st August, 2021
(d) No, she is not required to file return of income for A.Y. 2021-22 [ICAI Mock Test Paper: October 2020, 2 Marks]
Answer:
(d) No, she is not required to file return of income for A.Y. 2021-22

Question 6.
A Ltd. is 100% holding company of B Ltd. A Ltd. transfers a capital asset (acquired in 2003 for ₹ 50,000) on 16.06.2020 for ₹ 3,70,000 to B Ltd. B Ltd. is an Indian company, while A Ltd. is a foreign company. The capital asset is transferred as stock-in-trade to B Ltd. Determine whether any capital gains shall be chargeable to tax in the instant case?
(a) Any transfer between a holding company and 100% subsidiary company is not treated as a transfer at all. Hence, no capital gains tax liability shall arise.
(b) Any transfer between a holding company and 100% subsidiary company is not treated as a transfer if the transferee company is an Indian company. Hence, no capital gains tax liability shall arise.
(c) A transfer between a holding company and 100% subsidiary company is treated as a “transfer” as there is no specific exclusion in this regard. Hence, capital gains tax liability shall arise.
(d) Any transfer between a holding company and 100% subsidiary company is not treated as a transfer if the transferee company is an Indian company. However, this rule is not applicable if the capital asset is transferred as stock-in-trade. Hence, capital gains tax liability shall arise.
Answer:
(d) Any transfer between a holding company and 100% subsidiary company is not treated as a transfer if the transferee company is an Indian company. However, this rule is not applicable if the capital asset is transferred as stock-in-trade. Hence, capital gains tax liability shall arise.

CA Inter Taxation Income Tax Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 7.
Mr. X, a businessman, whose total income (after allowing deduction under chapter VI-A except under section 80GG) for A.Y. 2021-22 is Rs.5,95,000. He does not own any house property and is staying in a rented accommodation in Lucknow for a monthly rent of ₹ 9,000. Deduction allowance under section 80GG for A.Y. 2021-22 is:
(a) ₹ 48,500
(b) ₹ 1,48,750
(c) ₹ 60,000
(d) ₹ 1,08,000
Answer:
(a) ₹ 48,500

Question 8.
Mr. X, a resident aged 45 years, has a total income of ₹ 4,95,000 for A.Y. 2021 – 22, his tax liability would be :
(a) ₹ 12,740
(b) ₹ 10,140
(c) ₹ 12,250
(d) Nil
Answer:
(d) Nil

Question 9.
Mr. X has agricultural income of Rs. 2,30,000 and business income of Rs. 2,45,000. Which of the following statements are correct?
(a) Agricultural income has to be ag-gregated with business income for tax rate purposes.
(b) No aggregation is required since agricultural income is less than basic exemption limit.
(c) No aggregation is required since business income is less than basic exemption limit.
(d) Agricultural income is exempt under section 10(1) but the same has to be aggregated with business income, since it exceeds Rs.5,000.
Answer:
(c) No aggregation is required since business income is less than basic exemption limit.

Question 10.
Mr. X, aged 40 years, earned total income of Rs.6,00,000 during P.Y. 2020-21 including interest from post office savings bank account, ₹ 5,000 his taxable income for A.Y. 2021-22 is:
(a) Rs.6,00,000
(b) Rs.5,95,000
(c) Rs.5,96,500
(d) Nil
Answer:
(c) Rs.5,96,500

Question 11.
In case of Revocable Transfer of asset its income will be taxable in the hands of:
(a) Transferee
(b) Transferor
(c) Transferor for 5 years
(d) Transferee for 5 years
Answer:
(b) Transferor

Question 12.
The benefit of payment of advance tax in one instalment on or before 15th March is available to assessee computing profits on presumptive basis:
(a) under section 44AD
(b) under section 44 AD A
(c) under section 44AE
(d) Above all sections
Answer:
(d) Above all sections

Question 13.
Provision of rent free accommodation by employer (Non-Govt.) to its employee during A.Y. 2021-22 is taxable at:
(a) Fair market rent
(b) Uniform rate at all plans
(c) Different percentages of salary on the basis of population
(d) Totally exempt
Answer:
(c) Different percentages of salary on the basis of population

CA Inter Taxation Income Tax Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 14.
Interest credited in Recognised Provident Fund is exempt upto rate:
(a) 9%
(b) 9.5%
(c) 10%
(d) 10.5%
Answer:
(b) 9.5%

Question 15.
Mr. X has invested in debt securities of a Pvt. Ltd., company deriving its main source of income from business of growing and processing organic vegetables and fruits. Thus, the company has 80% of income exempt as agricultural income and 20% is taxable as business income. During the P.Y. 2020-21, Jenny derived Rs.5,000 as interest income from the above investments. Which of the following statements are correct on taxability:
(a) 80% Interest is exempt from tax
(b) 20% Interest is exempt from tax
(c) Interest is fully taxable
(d) Interest is fully exempt
Answer:
(c) Interest is fully taxable

Question 16.
Mr. X’s total income (before allowing deduction under section 80GG) for AY. 2021-22 is ₹ 9,00,000, paid house rent ₹ 2,00,000 in respect of residential accommodation occupied by him. The deduction allowable to him under section 80GG for A.Y. 2021-22 is:
(a) ₹ 90,000
(b) ₹ 1,35,000
(c) ₹ 60,000
(d) ₹ 2,25,000
Answer:
(c) ₹ 60,000

Question 17.
Mr. X received gifts of ₹ 2,00,000 from his father, ₹ 1,00,000 from his friend and ₹ 1,00,000 on his marriage. Taxable amount for A.Y. 2021-22 is:
(a) ₹ 4,00,000
(b) ₹ 3,00,000
(c) ₹ 2,00,000
(d) ₹ 1,00,000
Answer:
(d) ₹ 1,00,000

Question 18.
When the following return of income can be revised under section 139(5)?
(a) Up to end of relevant A.Y.
(b) Up to date of assessment
(c) Up to date of assessment or at end of relevant A.Y. whichever is earlier
(d) Never
Answer:
(c) Up to date of assessment or at end of relevant A.Y. whichever is earlier

Question 19.
A firm pays salary and interest on capital to its resident partners. The salary and interest paid fall within the limits specified in section 40(b). Which of the following statements is true?
(a) The firm cannot claim these as expenditure
(b) These are exempt in hand of part-ners
(c) These are taxable in hands of part-ners
(d) No treatment
Answer:
(c) These are taxable in hands of part-ners

Question 20.
Mr. X donated ₹ 2,00,000 in National Defence Fund and ₹ 2,00,000 in Jawaharlal Memorial fund. Deduction u/s 80G A.Y. 2021-22 would be-
(a) ₹ 2,00,000
(b) ₹ 3,00,000
(c) ₹ 4,00,000
(d) Nothing
Answer:
(b) ₹ 3,00,000

Question 21.
In respect of loss from house property, which of the following statements are correct?
(a) While computing income from any house property, the maximum interest deduction allowable under section 24 is ₹ 3 lakhs.
(b) Loss from house property relating to a particular year can be set-off against income under any other head during that year only to the extent of Rs. 2 lakhs.
(c) The loss in excess of Rs. 2 lakh, which is not set-off during the year, cannot be carried forward for setoff.
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Loss from house property relating to a particular year can be set-off against income under any other head during that year only to the extent of Rs. 2 lakhs.

CA Inter Taxation Income Tax Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 22.
Loss from owning and maintaining race- horses can be set-off:
(a) From income of any head in same P.Y.
(b) From business income in same P.Y.
(c) Can be carried forward for set-off from income of any head
(d) Can be carried forward upto 4 years for set-off from same source of income
Answer:
(d) Can be carried forward upto 4 years for set-off from same source of income

Question 23.
Mr. X celebrated his 50th marriage anniversary. On this occasion, his wife received a diamond necklace worth ₹ 5,00,000 from Kishore’s brother. Kishore’s son gifted him a luxurious car worth ₹ 15,00,000, His grandchildren gifted them a new furniture set worth ₹ 3,00,000. Also, he received cash gifts from his friends amounting collectively to ₹ 80,000.
(a) Neither Mr. X nor Mrs. X will be liable for tax for any gifts since they have been received on occasion of marriage anniversary.
(b) Both are liable to Pay tax on gifts
(c) Mr. X will be liable to pay tax on cash gifts only.
(d) None is taxable.
Answer:
(c) Mr. X will be liable to pay tax on cash gifts only.

Question 24.
Mr. X, a foreign national, working with a USA company, came to India during the P.Y. 2020-21 for rendering services on behalf of the employer. He wishes to claim his salary income earned during his stay in India as exempt because he is a foreign national. Answer whether:
(a) His income is exempt as desired
(b) His income is taxable in India
(c) His income to be conveyed to his country
(d) Taxable after allowing deduction if claimed
Answer:
(b) His income is taxable in India

Question 25.
X, a student, aged 16 years, received scholarship of ₹ 50,000 during the previous year 2020-21. Which of the following statements are true regarding taxability of such income:
(a) Such income shall be assessed in hands of X
(b) Such income to be included with the income of parent whose income before such clubbing is higher
(c) Such income is completely exempt from tax
(d) Such income to be clubbed with father’s income.
Answer:
(c) Such income is completely exempt from tax

Question 26.
Mr. X, an Indian citizen and a Government employee, left India for the first time on 31.01.2020 on account of his transfer to High Commission in United Kingdom. During P.Y. 2020-21, he visited India only for a week on occasion of his brother marriage. During A.Y. 2021-22, his income composition includes salary, foreign allowances, rent from property in Singapore and interest earned from fixed deposits maintained with SBI. His taxable income for P.Y. 2020-21 will include:
(a) All of them, since Mr. X is a resident in India, hence his global income will be taxable
(b) Only interest earned from fixed deposits maintained in India
(c) No income shall be taxable since Mr. X is a non-resident in India for P.Y. 2020-21
(d) Salary and interest income of fixed deposits with SBI
Answer:
(d) Salary and interest income of fixed deposits with SBI

Question 27.
₹ 5 lakh is paid to Mr. Vallish, a resident individual on 15.1.2021 by the government on compulsory acquisition of his urban agricultural land.
(a) No tax is deductible at source
(b) Tax is deductible @1%
(c) Tax is deductible @ 5%
(d) Tax is deductible @ 10%
Answer:
(a) No tax is deductible at source

Question 28.
Which of the following statements is true with respect to the A.Y. 2021-22:
(a) No exemption under section 80TTA would be available to resident se-nior citizens
(b) Share of profit will be exempt in § the hands of partner
(c) Exemption will not be available in respect of long term capital gains
(d) Exemption under section 10(32) on income of minor child is allowed for ₹ 5,000
Answer:
(b) Share of profit will be exempt in § the hands of partner

Question 29.
Mr. X income of ₹ 22 lakhs from manufacture and sale of coffee grown, cured, roasted and grounded by him in India. The business income chargeable to tax in his hands would be:
(a) ₹ 8,80,000
(b) ₹ 5,50,000
(c) ₹ 13,20,000
(d) ₹ 16,50,000
Answer:
(a) ₹ 8,80,000

Question 30.
Mr. X took possession of property on 31st August 2020 booked by him three years back at ₹ 25 lakhs, The Stamp Duty Value (SDV) of the property as on 31st August 2020 was ₹ 31 lakh and on date of booking it was ₹ 29 lakh. He had paid ₹ 2 lakh by A/c payee cheque as down payment on date of booking. Which of the following will be considered as income, if any, and in which previous year?
(a) ₹ 4 lakhs in P.Y. 2020-21
(b) ₹ 4 lakhs in P.Y. 2017-18
(c) ₹ 6 lakhs in P.Y. 2020-21
(d) No income shall be taxable
Answer:
(a) ₹ 4 lakhs in P.Y. 2020-21

CA Inter Taxation Income Tax Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 31.
A company wants 400 customized backpacks which will be distributed by the company to its employees on the annual event. He hires a local vendor for this task and informs the local vendor about its specifications for the backpacks. The local vendor procures its own raw material and supplies the required backpacks to the Company. He charges ₹ 1,00,000 for the backpacks from the company. While making payment to the p vendor, at what rate company is required to deduct tax at source?
(a) 1%
(b) 2%
(c) 10%
(d) No tax is required to be deducted at source.
Answer:
(d) No tax is required to be deducted at source.

Question 32.
Mr. X incurred loss of ₹ 2 lakhs in the A.Y.2021-22 in business. Against which of the following incomes earned during the same year, can he set-off such loss?
(a) profit of ₹ 3 lakh from wholesale cloth business
(b) long-term capital gains of ₹ 1.50 lakhs on sale of land
(c) speculative business income of ₹ 40,000
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) profit of ₹ 3 lakh from wholesale cloth business

Question 33.
Which of the following benefits are NOT allowable to a non-resident, while computing his total income and tax liability for A.Y. 2021-22 under the Income-tax Act, 1961?
(a) Deduction of 30% of gross annual value while computing her income from house property in Bangalore
(b) Tax rebate of ₹ 9,500 from tax payable on her total income of ₹ 4,40,000
(c) Deduction for donation made by her to Prime Minister’s National Relief Fund
(d) Deduction for interest earned by her on NRO savings account.
Answer:
(b) Tax rebate of ₹ 9,500 from tax payable on her total income of ₹ 4,40,000

Question 34.
Unexhausted basic exemption limit, if any, of a non-resident for A.Y. 2021 -22 can be adjusted against:
(a) Long-term capital gain
(b) Short-term capital gain
(c) Income from other sources
(d) None
Answer:
(d) None

Question 35.
During the P.Y. 2020-21, Mr. X, a non-resident, received ₹ 75,00,000 on account of sale of agricultural land in Mauritius. The money was first received in Mauritius and then remitted to his Indian bank account. Is the sum taxable in India?
(a) No, as agricultural income is ex-empt u/s 10(1).
(b) No, as the income has accrued and arisen outside India
(c) Yes, since it is remitted to India in the same year.
(d) Yes, as agricultural income earned outside India is not exempted in India in the hands of a non-resident.
Answer:
(b) No, as the income has accrued and arisen outside India

Question 36.
X Ltd. credits a sum of ₹ 45,000 as commission to Y Ltd., an Indian company on 25.06.2020 without deducting tax at source. Y Ltd. paid its entire tax liability on its income by way of advance payment of tax during P.Y. 2020- 21 and filed its return of income for A.Y. 2021-22 on 15.07.2020. X Ltd. also has a certificate in Form No. 26A from a chartered accountant. Compute the amount of deduction that shall be allowed to X Ltd. in respect of the commission credited to Y Ltd. assuming that X Ltd. follows mercantile system of accounting:
(a) ₹ 45,000
(b) Nil
(c) ₹ 13,500
(d) ₹ 31,500
Answer:
(a) ₹ 45,000

CA Inter Taxation Income Tax Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 37.
Mr. X (a non-resident and aged 70 years) is a retired person, earning rental income of ₹ 40,000 per month from a property located in Delhi. He is residing in Canada. Apart from rental income, he does not have any other source of income. Is he liable to pay advance tax in India?
(a) Yes, he is liable to pay advance tax in India as he is a non-resident and his tax liability in India exceeds ₹ 10,000.
(b) No, he is not liable to pay advance tax in India as his tax liability in India is less than ₹ 10,000
(c) No, he is not liable to pay advance tax in India as he has no income chargeable under the head “Profits and gains of business or profession”
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(b) No, he is not liable to pay advance tax in India as his tax liability in India is less than ₹ 10,000

Question 38.
Mr. X sold his old residential house in April, 2020 for 7 28,00,000. Long-term capital gain arising on transfer of old house amounted to ₹ 8,40,000. In December, 2020, he purchased another residential house worth 7 5,00,000. The new house was however, sold in April, 2021 for ₹ 14,00,000 (stamp duty value of the new house was ₹ 12,00,000). What will be amount of taxable capital gains in the hands of Mr. X for the AY. 2021-22 and 2022-23?
(a) Long term capital gain of ₹ 3,40,000 in AY. 2021 -22 and short-term capital gain of ₹ 14,00,000 in AY. 2022-23
(b) Long term capital gain of ₹ 3,40,000 in A.Y. 2021 -22 and long term capital gain of ₹ 5,00,000 and short-term capital gain of ₹ 14,00,000 in AY. 2022-23
(c) Long term capital gain of ₹ 3,40,000 in AY. 2021-22 and long term capital gain of ₹ 5,00,000 and short-term capital gain of ₹ 9,00,000 in A.Y. 2022-23
(d) Long term capital gain of ₹ 3,40,000 in A.Y. 2021 -22 and long term capital gain of ₹ 5,00,000 and short-term capital gain of ₹ 7,00,000 in A.Y. 2022-23
Answer:
(a) Long term capital gain of ₹ 3,40,000 in AY. 2021 -22 and short-term capital gain of ₹ 14,00,000 in AY. 2022-23

Question 39.
Gross total income of Mr. X for P.Y. 2020-21 is ₹ 6,00,000. She had taken a loan of ₹ 7,20,000 in the financial year 2017-18 from a bank for her husband who is pursuing MBA course from IIM, Kolkata. On 02.04.2020, she paid the first instalment of loan of ₹ 45,000 and interest of ₹ 65,000. Compute her total income for A.Y. 2021-22
(a) ₹ 6,00,000
(b) ₹ 5,35,000
(c) ₹ 4,90,000
(d) ₹ 5,55,000
Answer:
(b) ₹ 5,35,000

Question 40.
X, aged 35 years, paid medical insurance premium of ₹ 35,000 to insure health of himself and his spouse. He also paid medical insurance premium of ₹ 43,000 to insure health of his father, aged 69 years, not dependant on him. He had also incurred ₹ 4,000 in cash on preventive health check up of his father. Total deduction admissible under section 80D is:
(a) ₹ 55,000
(b) ₹ 29,000
(c) ₹ 68,000
(d) ₹ 72,000
Answer:
(d) ₹ 72,000

Question 41.
Mr. X, a resident employee of Hindustan Company established in India, received a scholarship of ₹ 5,00,000 from his employer to meet the cost of education of his children. X actually spent an amount of ₹ 4,50,000 on education of his children. What will be the amount of income exempt in the hands of X?
(a) Nil
(b) ₹ 4,50,000
(c) ₹ 50,000
(d) ₹ 5,00,000
Answer:
(d) ₹ 5,00,000

Question 42.
Mr. X, aged 45 years, received interest on investment in following securities.-
5% Govt, securities for ₹ 70,000
7.5% Municipal bonds of ₹ 50,000
9% debentures of a company for ₹ 30,000
7% capital investment bonds for ₹ 20,000
Compute the amount of taxable income for A.Y. 2021-22.
(a) ₹ 9,000
(b) ₹ 10,500
(c) ₹ 9,950
(d) Nil
Answer:
(c) ₹ 9,950

Question 43.
A firm paid managerial remuneration to its partners. The same was in accordance permission. Partners are also entitled to interest on capital @ 11% as per partnership deed. Total interest paid during the year is ₹ 2,00,000. The book profit before interest on capital and remuneration is ₹ 25,00,000 allowable managerial remuneration is:
(a) ₹ 14,70,000
(b) ₹ 12,50,000
(c) ₹ 10,00,000
(d) ₹ 23,00,000
Answer:
(a) ₹ 14,70,000

Question 44.
Mr. X took a property on rent for his residential purpose on 1.4.2020. However, the property was not fully occupied by him. He let out the property to his friend at ₹ 15,000 p.m. from 01.04.2020 to 31.03.2021. Mr. X is of the view that income from subletting of property is taxable as Income from House Property. Find out whether his view is correct?
(a) Correct, as any income from a house property is taxable under the head Income from House Property.
(b) Incorrect, as Mr. X is not the owner of the property let out by him.
(c) Incorrect, as income from sublet-ting of a property is not taxable
(d) Incorrect, as income from sublet-ting shall be taxable under the head income from other sources.
Answer:
(d) Incorrect, as income from sublet-ting shall be taxable under the head income from other sources.

Question 45.
Mr. X, a US citizen, came to India during P.Y. 2016-17 to 2019-20 for 120 days every year and in P.Y. 2020-21 for 90 days. What is his residential status for A.Y. 2021-22
(a) Ordinary resident
(b) Not-ordinary resident
(c) Non-resident
(d) Not certain
Answer:
(a) Ordinary resident

Question 46.
A firm carrying on business, furnishes the following particulars for the P.Y. 2020-21

Particulars
Book profits (before setting of unabsorbed depreciation and brought forward business loss) 2,70,000
Unabsorbed depreciation of P.Y. 2013-14 1,20,000
Brought forward business loss of P.Y. 2019-20 2,00,000

Compute the amount of remuneration allowable under section 40(b) from the book profit.
(a) ₹ 2,43,000
(b) ₹ 1,80,000
(c) ₹ 1,50,000
(d) Nil
Answer:
(c) ₹ 1,50,000

Question 47.
A foreign company non-resident in India for A.Y. 2021-22, engaged in the business of trading of tube-lights outside India. The principal officer of the company has approached you to enlighten him regarding the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961 pertaining to the person who is required to verify the return of income.

I. The return of income in case of can be verified by the managing director.
II. The return of income in case can be verified by any director.
III. The return of income in case may be verified by a person who holds a valid power of attorney from such company to do so.
(a) I or II or III
(b) Only I
(c) I or II depending upon the avail-ability of the managing director
(d) Only III
Answer:
(d) Only III

CA Inter Taxation Income Tax Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 48.
Mr. X acquires 1000 equity shares on 01.01.2018 at ₹ 200. The Fair Market Value of the said shares on 31.01.2019 is ₹ 500. He sold the said shares on 30.04.2020 at ₹ 400. Calculate the amount of capital gain assuming that securities transaction tax has been paid by Mr. X on acquisition and transfer of the said equity shares.
(a) Nil
(b) (-) ₹ 1,00,000
(c) ₹ 2,00,000
(d) ₹ 3,00,000
Answer:
(a) Nil

Question 49.
Mr. X owns 9 goods vehicle and declares profit on presumptive basis under section 44AE for A.Y. 2021-22.
He is:
(a) liable to pay advance tax in four instalments in June, September, December and March
(b) liable to pay advance tax in three instalments in September, December and March
(c) liable to pay advance tax in one instalment in March
(d) not liable to pay advance tax since he is declaring profit on presumptive basis.
Answer:
(a) liable to pay advance tax in four instalments in June, September, December and March

Question 50.
During the A.Y. 2020-21, Mr. X has a loss of ₹ 5 lakhs under the head “Income from house property” which could not be set off from any other head of income as per the provisions of section 71. The due date for filing return of income u/s 139(1) has already expired and Mr. X forgot to file his return of income within the said due date. However, he filed his belated return of income for alongwith return of income for A.Y. 2021-22, (P.Y. j 2020-21). Determine whether Mr. X can claim the said set-off?
(a) No, Mr. X cannot claim set-off of loss of ₹ 5 lakhs during A.Y. 2021-22 as he failed to file his return of income u/s 139(1) for A.Y. 2020-21.
(b) Yes, Mr. X can claim set-off of loss of ₹ 2 lakhs, out of ₹ 5 lakhs, from its income from house property during A.Y. 2021 -22, if any, and the balance has to be carried forward.
(c) Yes, Mr. X can claim set off a loss of ₹ 5 lakhs during A.Y. 2021-22 from its income from house property, if any, and the balance has to be carried forward.
(d) Yes, Mr. X can claim set off of loss of ₹ 2 lakhs, out of ₹ 5 lakhs, from its income from any head during A. Y. 2021-22 and the balance, if any, has to be carried forward.
Answer:
(c) Yes, Mr. X can claim set off a loss of ₹ 5 lakhs during A.Y. 2021-22 from its income from house property, if any, and the balance has to be carried forward.

Question 51.
Mr. X aged 64 years has filed his return of income for A.Y 2021-22 showing total income of ₹ 9 lakhs. The tax payable by him. He did not opt for new tax regime.
(a) ₹ 96,200
(b) ₹ 93,600
(c) ₹ 83,200
(d) Nil
Answer:
(b) ₹ 93,600

CA Inter Taxation Income Tax Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 52.
Mr. X, aged 57 years, has a total income of ₹ 36 lakhs for A.Y 2021-22. His tax liability with concessional slab rates would be-
(a) ₹ 8,50,200
(b) ₹ 10,80,00
(c) ₹ 8,63,200
(d) ₹ 9,00,000
Answer:
(a) ₹ 8,50,200

Question 53.
Mr. X has a house property whose Municipal value is ₹ 1,50,000 and the Fair Rental Value is ₹ 1,80,000. The standard rent is fixed at ₹ 1,20,000. It was self-occupied from 01.04.2020 to 1.05.2020 and from 01.06.2020, it was let out at ₹ 15,000 per month. Compute taxable income of the house property for A.Y. 2021-22. Municipal taxes paid by him during P.Y. 2020-21 were 20% of municipal valuation. Interest on loan 30,000.
(a) ₹ 1,20,000
(b) ₹ 84,000
(c) ₹ 66,000
(d) ₹ 54,000
Answer:
(d) ₹ 54,000

Question 54.
Mr. X purchased furniture worth ₹ 80,000 on 05.09.2020 and makes the payment of ₹ 45,000 by account payee cheque and ₹ 20,000 in cash on the same date. The balance of ₹ 15,000 is paid by the assessee by bearer cheque
on 06.09.2020 when the furniture is delivered in his office. Compute the amount of actual cost of furniture to the assessee
(a) ₹ 45,000
(b) ₹ 80,000
(c) ₹ 60,000
(d) ₹ 65,000
Answer:
(a) ₹ 45,000

Question 55.
On 20.10.2020, Pihu (minor child) gets a gift of ₹ 20,00,000 from his father’s friend. On the same day, the amount is deposited in his bank account. On the said deposit, interest of ₹ 13,000 was earned during the P.Y. 2020-21. In whose hands the income of Pihu shall be taxable?
(a) Income of ₹ 20,11,500 shall be taxable in the hands of Pihu’s father.
(b) Income of ₹ 20,13,000 shall be taxable in the hands of Pihu’s father.
(c) Income of ₹ 20,11,500 shall be taxable in the hands of Pihu’s father or mother, whose income before this clubbing is higher.
(d) Income of ₹ 20,13,000 shall be taxable in the hands of Pihu’s father or mother, whose income before this clubbing is higher.
Answer:
(c) Income of ₹ 20,11,500 shall be taxable in the hands of Pihu’s father or mother, whose income before this clubbing is higher.

Question 56.
Mr. X had bought 3,000 STT paid listed shares of a company on 25.02.2020 at ₹ 300 per share. The company announces and allots bonus shares in the ratio of 3:1 on 01.07.2020. After the allotment of bonus shares, the shares were sold on 10.03.2021 at ₹ 400 per share and STT was paid on it. Compute the amount of capital gain/loss in her hands for AY. 2021-22.
CII- F.Y. 2019-20: =289; F.Y. 2020- 21=301
(a) Long term capital gain of ₹ 7,00,000.
(b) Long term capital gain on sale of original shares of ₹ 3,00,000. Short term capital gain on sale of bonus shares of ₹ 4,00,000
(c) Long term capital of ₹ 6,62,630
(d) Long term capital gain on sale of original shares ₹ 2,62,500. Short term capital gain on sale of bonus shares of ₹ 4,00,000.
Answer:
(d) Long term capital gain on sale of original shares ₹ 2,62,500. Short term capital gain on sale of bonus shares of ₹ 4,00,000.

Question 57.
A partnership firm, owns a house property which is utilized by the partners for their residence. On 31.10.2020, the firm sells the property at a long-term capital gain of ₹ 6,00,000. Can the firm or partners claim exemption under section 54?
(a) Yes, the firm can claim exemption u/s 54 as the firm has earned long term capital gains from the transfer of a residential house.
(b) Yes, the partners can claim ex-emption u/s 54 as the property was used by them for residential purpose and the said property has been indirectly transferred by the partners only in the capacity of a firm.
(c) Neither the firm nor the partners can claim deduction u/s 54 as the said deduction is allowed only in case of a commercial property
(d) The firm cannot claim deduction u/s 54 as deduction under the said section is allowed only to an individual or HUF. Further, the partners cannot claim deduction u/s 54 as the transferor in the instant case is the firm.
Answer:
(d) The firm cannot claim deduction u/s 54 as deduction under the said section is allowed only to an individual or HUF. Further, the partners cannot claim deduction u/s 54 as the transferor in the instant case is the firm.

CA Inter Taxation Income Tax Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 58.
Which of the following persons is/ are liable to pay advance tax as per the provisions of Income-tax Act, 1961?
I. A resident individual aged 62 years having only income from capital gains of ₹ 20,00,000 (estimated) during P.Y. 2020-21.
II. A resident individual aged 58 years having only income from other sources of ₹ 2,00,000 (estimated) during P.Y. 2020-21.
III. A private company having estimated total income of ₹ 1,00,000 during P.Y. 2020-21.
IV. A partnership firm which has es-timated its total income to be Nil for P.Y. 2020-21.
V. A HUF having estimated total income of ₹ 6,00,000 during P.Y. 2020-21
(a) I, III, V
(b) I, II, III, IV, V
(c) III, V
(d) III, IV, V
Answer:
(c) III, V

Question 59.
Mr. X and his brother jointly own a bungalow. They had taken a housing loan to purchase the bungalow. The loan is sanctioned in the name of Mr. X and his brother in the year 2015. Interest on housing loan for the P.Y. 2020-21 amounted to ₹ 5,00,000 which is paid by Mr. X (₹ 2,50,000) and his brother (₹ 2 ,50,000). The bungalow is used by them for their residence. In this case, what will be the amount of deduction available under section 24(b) to Mr. X and his brother
(a) ₹ 30,000 each
(b) ₹ 2,00,000 each
(c) ₹ 2,50,000 each
(d) ₹ 5,00,000 each
Answer:
(b) ₹ 2,00,000 each

Question 60.
Mr. X filled his belated return of income u/s 139(4) on 5.02.2022 showing total income of ₹ 9,00,000. What is fee payment u/s 234
(a) ₹ 10,000
(b) ₹ 8,000
(c) ₹ 1,000
(d) ₹ 2,000
Answer:
(a) ₹ 10,000

Question 61.
A proprietorship firm following j cash system of accounting incurred the following expenditure during the P.Y. 2020-21:

  • Customs duty of A.Y. 2021-22 : ₹ 75,000 paid on 15.5.2021
  • Income tax for A.Y. 2020-21: ₹ 84,000 paid on 16.6.2021

Calculate the amount of expenditure allowable while computing its business income for A.Y. 2021-22
(a) ₹ 1,59,000
(b) ₹ 75,000
(c) Nil
(d) ₹ 84,000
Answer:
(c) Nil

Question 62.
ABC a partnership firm was dissolved on 1-5-2020. A machine acquired on 1-5-2018 for ₹ 3,50,000 was distributed amongst the partners on dissolution for ₹ 3,00,000. The value of machinery as per books of account and Fair Market Value on 1-5-2020 was ₹ 2,50,000 and ₹ 4,00,000, respectively. What will be the full value of consideration of this machine?
(a) ₹ 3,00,000
(b) ₹ 4,00,000
(c) ₹ 3,50,000 0
d) ₹ 2,50,000
Answer:
(b) ₹ 4,00,000

Question 63.
Mr. X purchased a house property valued at ₹ 42 lakhs as on 1.4.2020. The house was let out at ₹ 25,000 per month throughout the P.Y. Compute income from house property for A.Y.2021 -22 if Mr. X paid Municipal taxes 18,000 and spent 6,000 on minor repairs.
(a) ₹ 2,82,000
(b) ₹ 2,76,000
(c) ₹ 3,00,000
(d) ₹ 1,97,400
Answer:
(d) ₹ 1,97,400

Question 64.
Mr. X, a resident Indian, has incurred ₹ 60,000 for medical treatment of his dependent brother aged 37 years, who is a person with 40% disability and has deposited ₹ 20,000 with LIC for his maintenance. For A.Y. 2021-22, Rajan would be eligible for deduction under section 80DD of an amount equal to:
(a) ₹ 60,000
(b) ₹ 80,000
(c) ₹ 75,000
(d) ₹ 1,25,000
Answer:
(c) ₹ 75,000

Question 65.
In which of the following transactions, quoting of PAN is mandatory by the person entering into the said transaction?
I. Opening a Basic savings bank deposit account with a bank.
II. Applying to a bank for issue of a credit card.
III. Payment of ₹ 40,000 to mutual fund for purchase of its units.
IV. Cash deposit with a post office of ₹ 1,00,000 during a day.
V. A fixed deposit of ₹ 30,000 with a NBFC registered with RBI.
VI. Sale of shares of an unlisted com-pany for an amount of ₹ 60,000.
(a) II, IV
(b) II, III, IV
(c) I, II, III, V, VI
(d) II, IV, VI
Answer:
(a) II, IV

Question 66.
Mr. X incurred loss of X 4 lakh in the P.Y. 2020-21 in leather business. Against which of the following incomes earned during the same year, can he set-off such loss?
(i) Profit of ₹ 1 lakh from apparel business
(ii) Long-term capital gains of ₹ 2 lakhs on sale of jewellery
(iii) Salary income of ₹ 1 lakh
Choose the correct answer.
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) Only (iii)
(d) Both (i) and (ii)
Answer:
(d) Both (i) and (ii)

Question 67.
Mr. X acquired a building of ₹ 15 lakh in June, 2018 in addition to the cost of ₹ 3 lakh in respect of the land on which the building is situated. It was used for personal purposes until he commenced business in June, 2020 and since then it was used for business purposes. The amount of depreciation eligible in his case for the A.Y. 2021-22 would be:
(a) ₹ 1,21,500
(b) ₹ 1,50,000
(c) ₹ 1,45,800
(d) ₹ 1,80,000
Answer:
(a) ₹ 1,21,500

The Companies Act, 2013 – CA Foundation Law Notes

The Companies Act, 2013 – CA Foundation Law Notes

Browsing through The Companies Act, 2013 – CA Foundation Law Notes help students to revise the complete subject quickly.

The Companies Act, 2013 – CA Foundation Business Law Notes

Introduction:
The Companies Act, 2013 was preceded by the Companies Act, 1956. A need was felt to replace the Companies Act, 1956 with a new legislation due to the changes in the economic environment in India as well as abroad. The Companies Act, 2013 was enacted to consolidate and amend the law relating to the companies.

The Companies Act, 2013 contains 470 sections and seven schedules which has been divided into 29 chapters. A substantial part of this Act is in the form of Companies Rules. The Companies Act, 2013 seeks to make our corporate regulations more contemporary. It aims to:

  • Consolidate and amend the law relating to the companies.
  • Meet the changed national and international economic environment.
  • Accelerate the expansion and growth of our economy.
  • Increase accountability in corporate governance.
  • Simplify law and regulations (Reduced Sections).
  • Strengthen the interests of minority investors.
  • Legislate the role of whistle-blowers.
  • Speedy settlement of company disputes (NCLT/NCLAT).
  • Impose stringent punishment for violations and mismanagement.

The Companies Act, 2013 – CA Foundation Law Notes

Applicability of the Companies Act, 2013:
→ As per Section 1(4), it applies to:

  • Companies incorporated under this Act or under any previous company law
  • Insurance companies, except if inconsistent with Insurance Act, 1938 or Insurance Regulatory & Development Authority Act, 1999
  • Banking companies, except if inconsistent with the provisions of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949
  • Companies engaged in generation or supply of electricity, except if inconsistent with Electricity Act, 2003
  • Other company governed by any special Act, except if inconsistent with provisions of such special Act
  • Such body corporate, incorporated by any Act, as CG may, by notification specify, subject to exceptions, modifications or adaptation.

→ It extends to the whole of India [Section 1(2)]

→ It does not apply to:

  • Trusts governed by the Indian Trust Act, 1882
  • Societies, club and professional associations governed by the Societies Registration Act, 1860
  • Co-operative societies.

Company: Meaning And Its Features:
Meaning:
As defined in the Companies Act, 2013, a “Company” means a company incorporated under this Act or under any previous company law. [Sec. 2(20)]
Lord Justice Lindley has defined a company as – “An association of many persons who contribute money or money’s worth to a common stock and employed it in some trade or business and who share the profit or loss arising there from. The common stock so contributed is denoted in money and is the capital of the company.

The persons who contributed it or to whom it belongs are members. The proportion of capital to which each member is entitled is his share. The shares are always transferable, although the right to transfer them may be restricted.”

According to Chief Justice Marshall, “a corporation is an artificial being, invisible, intangible, existing only in contemplation of law. Being a mere creation of law, it possesses only those properties which the charter of its creation confers upon it, either expressly or as accidental to its very existence.

In the words of professor Haney “A company is an incorporated association, which is an artificial person created by law, having a separate entity, with a perpetual succession and a common seal.” This definition sums up the meaning as well as the features of a company succinctly.

The Companies Act, 2013 – CA Foundation Law Notes

Features of a Company:
I. Separate Legal Entity:
When a company is registered, it becomes a separate legal personality. It comes to have almost | the same rights and powers as a human being. Its existence is distinct and separate from that of its members. A company can own property, have bank account, raise loans, incur liabilities and enter into contracts.

It is a different person altogether from the subscribers to the memorandum of association. Its personality is distinct and separate from the personality of those who compose it. Even members can contract with company, acquire right against it or incur liability to it. Only the creditors of a company can sue it for the debts, and not its members.

In Lee v. Lee Air Farming Limited (1960):
Lee, a qualified pilot held all but one of the shares in the company and by the articles was appointed director of the company and the chief pilot. The life of the employees of the company was insured by an insurer. Lee died while piloting the company’s aircraft and his widow claimed compensation for his death, in the course of his employment.

Insurers challenged the claim on the ground that no compensation was due to Lee, as Lee and Lee Air Farming Limited was one and the same person. Held, there was a valid contract of service between Lee and the company and Lee was therefore, an employee. Lee was a separate person from the company and so compensation was due to the widow. The magic of corporate personality enabled Lee to be the master and servant at the same time. Mrs. Lee’s contention was upheld.

II. Perpetual Succession:
A company has a continued existence and it can be wound up only as per law. A company being a separate legal entity is not affected by the death, insolvency, lunacy etc. of any or all of its members. In case of the death or insolvency of a member, the shares held by him shall be transmitted to his nominee/legal representative or official assignee/official receiver. Even if all the members of a company die, the company survives. Thus, “Members may come and go, but the company goes on forever.”

III. Limited Liability:
The liability of a member depends upon the kind of company of which he is a member. We know that company is a separate legal entity which is distinct from its members.
(i) Thus, in the case of a limited liability company, the liability of the members of the company is limited to the extent of the nominal value of shares held by them. In no case can the share holders be asked to pay anything more than the unpaid value of their shares.

(ii) In the case of a company limited by guarantee, the members are liable only to the extent of the amount guaranteed by them and that too only when the company goes into liquidation.

(iii) However, if it is an unlimited company, the liability of its members is unlimited as well.

IV. Artificial Legal Person:
A company is a legal or judicial person as created by law. It is an artificial person as it is created by a process other than natural birth. It is a person since it is clothed with all the rights of an individual. It can do everything which any natural person can do except be sent to jail, take an oath, marry or practice a learned profession. Hence, it is a legal person in its own sense.

As the company is an artificial person, it can act only through some human agency, viz., directors. The directors cannot control affairs of the company and act as its agency, but they are not the “agents” of the members of the company. The directors can either on their own or through the common seal (of the company) can authenticate its formal acts.
Thus, a company is called an artificial legal person.

V. Separate Property:
The company being a separate legal entity can own property, have banking account, raise loans, incur liabilities and enter into contracts. Even members can contract with company, acquire right against it or incur liability to it. A company is capable of owning, enjoying and disposing of property in its own name.

Although the capital and assets are contributed by the shareholders, the company becomes the owner of its capital and assets. The shareholders are not the private or joint owners of the company’s property. A member does not even have an insurable interest in the property of the company.

The leading case on this point is of Macaura v. Northern Assurance Co. Limited (1925):
Macaura (M) was the holder of nearly all (except one) shares of a timber company. He was also a major creditor of the company. M Insured the company’s timber in his own name. The timber was lost in a fire. M claimed insurance compensation. Held, the insurance company was not liable to him as no shareholder has any right to any item of property owned by the company, for he has no legal or equitable interest in them.

The Companies Act, 2013 – CA Foundation Law Notes

VI. Common Seal:
A company being an artificial person cannot sign a document as a natural person can do. The common seal is a seal used by a company as a substitute for a signature. In legal terms the common seal is the official signature of the company. As per Companies Amendment Act, 2015, the provision of a common seal has been made optional for a company. It is a metal seal on which the name of the company is engraved. [Section 12(3)(b)]

In case a company does not have a common seal, the authorization is made as per the articles. Table F of the articles states that “such authorization shall be by two directors or by a director and the Company Secretary, wherever the company has appointed a Company Secretary.”

The Companies (Amendment) Act, 2015 has made the common seal optional by omitting the words “and a common seal” from Section 9 so as to provide an alternative mode of authorization for companies who opt not to have a common seal.

Rational for this amendment is that common seal is seen as a relic of medieval times. Even in the U.K., common seal has been made optional since 2006. This amendment provides that the documents which need to be authenticated by a common seal will be required to be so done, only if the company opts to have a common seal.

VII. Separation of ownership from management:
The shareholders who are the owners of the share capital of the company and they bear risk but they do not actually manage the company. The management is vested in the board of directors who are elected by the shareholders.

VIII. Can Sue and be sued:
A company can sue others and it can be sued in its own name.

IX. Transferability of shares:
The capital of a company is divided into shares. Shares of a company are movable property, transferable subject to certain conditions which may be provided in the articles.

Is Company a Citizen?
→ A company has nationality and domicile and residence.

→ But it is not a citizen and therefore cannot be said to have the fundamental rights expressly conferred upon citizens only. (State Trading Corporation of India Ltd. v. CTO 1963, 33 Comp. Cas. 1057 (SC). However those fundamental rights which are available to all persons, whether citizens or not, like the right to equality, etc. are available to the company.

→ As per Citizenship Act, 1955, only natural persons can be citizens of India. So a company cannot be a citizen of India.

The Companies Act, 2013 – CA Foundation Law Notes

Is Company The Property Of Shareholders/Members?
The company is not the property of its shareholders. All the property in the name of the company is its separate property which is controlled, managed and disposed of by the company in its own name. Thus the company is the owner of its assets and capital. Moreover, the company being a separate legal person, it cannot be construed as property of the shareholders.

The decision of the Supreme Court in the case, National Textile Workers Union v. P.R. Ramkrishnan, AIR 1993 (SC), has set at rest at the debate which was going on this issue. According to the verdict given in this case, “a company, according to the new socio-economic thinking is a social institution having duties and responsibilities towards the community in which it functions.

Maximization of social welfare should be the legitimate goal of a company and shareholders should be regarded not as proprietors of the company, but merely as suppliers of capital entitled to no more than reasonable return and the company should be responsible not only to shareholders but also to workers, consumers and the other members of the community and should be guided by consideration of national economy and progress.”

The Companies Act, 2013 – CA Foundation Law Notes

Corporate Veil Theory:
Corporate Veil:
From the juristic point of view a company is a legal person distinct from its members (Salomon v. Salomon & Co. Ltd.). This principle may be referred to as the veil of incorporation. The effect of his principle is that there is a fictional veil between the company and its members.

Corporate Veil refers to a legal concept whereby the company is identified separately from the members of the company. Thus, the shareholders are protected from the acts of the company. The Salomon v. Salomon and Co Ltd. laid down the foundation of the concept of corporate veil or independent corporate personality.
(Veil is a piece of fine material worn by women to protect or conceal the face.)

In Salomon v. Salomon & Co. Ltd. the House of Lords laid down that a company is a person distinct and separate from its members. In this case, Salomon incorporated a company named “Salomon & Co. Ltd.”, with seven subscribers consisting of himself, his wife, four sons and one daughter. This company took over the personal business assets of Salomon for £ 38,782 and in turn, Salomon took 20,000 shares of £ 1 each, debentures worth £ 10,000 of the company with charge on the company’s assets and the balance in cash.

His wife, daughter and four sons took up one share each. Subsequently, the company went into liquidation due to general trade depression. The unsecured creditors to the tune of £ 7,000 contended that Salomon could not be treated as a secured creditor of the company, in respect of the debentures held by him, as he was the managing director of the company, and the company and Solomon were one and the same person.

It was held by Lord Mac Naughten:
“The Company is at law a different person altogether from the subscribers to the memorandum, and though it may be that after incorporation the business is precisely the same as it was before and the same persons are managers, and the same hands receive the profits, the company is not in law the agent of the subscribers or trustees for them. Nor are the subscribers, as members, liable, in any shape or form, except to the extent and in the manner provided by the Act.”

Thus, this case clearly established that company has its own existence and as a result, a shareholder cannot be held liable for the acts of the company even though he holds virtually the entire share capital. The whole law of corporation is in fact based on this theory of separate corporate entity.

Lifting of Corporate Veil:
‘Lifting the veil’ means looking behind the company as a legal person Le.; disregarding the corporate entity and paying regard instead to the realities behind the legal form. Where the courts ignore the corporate personality and concern themselves directly with the members or directors, the corporate veil may be said to have been lifted.

Where the Courts ignore the company and concern themselves directly with the members or managers, the corporate veil may be said to have been lifted. Only in appropriate circumstances, the Courts are willing to lift the corporate veil and that too, when questions of control are involved rather than merely a question of ownership.

The following are the cases where company law disregards the principle of corporate personality or the principle that the company is a legal entity distinct and separate from its shareholders or members:
1. To determine the character of the company i.e. to find out whether company is an enemy or a friend:
The leading case in this point is Daimler Company Ltd. v. Continental Tyre & Rubber Co. (Great Britain) Ltd. [1916]

2 AC 307. In this case the Daimler Company was incorporated in London. Its majority shareholders and directors were Germans. On declaration of war between England and Germany in 1914 it was held that the company was a German company. Accordingly, the suit filed by the company to recover a trade debt was dismissed on the ground that such payment would amount to trading with enemy.

If the public interest is not likely to be in jeopardy, the Court may not be willing to crack the corporate shell. But it may rend the veil for ascertaining whether a company is an enemy company. Of course, unlike a natural person, h company does not have mind or conscience; therefore, it cannot be a friend or foe. It may, however, be characterised as an enemy company, if its affairs are under the control of people of an enemy country. For this purpose, the Court may examine the character of the persons who are really at the helm of affairs of the company.

2. Company is formed to evade taxes:
Where corporate entity is used to evade or circumvent tax, the Court can disregard the corporate entity [Juggilal v. Commissioner of Income Tax AIR (SC)]. In certain matters concerning the law of taxes, duties and stamps particularly where question of the controlling interest is in issue. [S. Berendsen Ltd. v. Commissioner of Inland Revenue].

In Sir Dinshaw Maneckjee Petit, Re AIR 1927 Bom. 371, D formed four private companies and transferred his investments to them. D took pretended loans from the companies, which he never repaid. In a legal proceeding the corporate veils of all the companies were lifted and the incomes of the companies treated as if they were of D. The Court decided that the private companies were a sham and the corporate veil was lifted to decide the real owner of the income. Also, affirmed in CITv. Sri Meenakshi Mills Ltd. AIR 1967 SC 819.

3. Company is formed to avoid a legal obligation/welfare legislation:
If the sole purpose for the formation of the company was to use it as a device to reduce the amount to be paid by way of bonus to workmen, the Supreme Court upheld the piercing of the veil to look at the real transaction (The Workmen Employed in Associated Rubber Industries Limited, Bhavnagar v. The Associated Rubber Industries Ltd., Bhavnagar and another).

Workmen of Associated Rubber Industry Ltd., v. Associated Rubber Industry Ltd.:
The facts of the case are that “A Limited” purchased shares of “B Limited” by investing a sum of ₹ 4,50,000. The dividend in respect of these shares was shown in the profit and loss account of the company, year after year. It was taken into account for the purpose of calculating the bonus payable to workmen of the company.

Sometime in 1968, the company transferred the shares of B Limited, to C Limited a subsidiary, wholly owned by it. Thus, the dividend income did not find place in the Profit & Loss Account of A Ltd., with the result that the surplus available for the purpose for payment of bonus to the workmen got reduced.

Here a company created a subsidiary and transferred to it, its investment holdings in a bid to reduce its liability to pay bonus to its workers. Thus, the Supreme Court disregarded the separate existence of the subsidiary company. The new company so formed had no assets of its own except those transferred to it by the principal company, with no business or income of its own except receiving dividends from shares transferred to it by the principal company and serving no purpose except to reduce the gross profit of the principal company so as to reduce the amount paid as bonus to workmen.

4. Formation of subsidiaries to act as agents:
A company may sometimes be regarded as an agent or trustee of its members, or of another company, and may therefore be deemed to have lost its individuality in favour of its principal. Here the principal will be held liable for the acts of that company.

In the case of Merchandise Transport Limited v. British Transport Commission (1982), a transport company wanted to obtain licences for its vehicles, but could not do so if applied in its own name. It, therefore, formed a subsidiary company, and the application for licence was made in the name of the subsidiary. The vehicles were to be transferred to the subsidiary company. Held, the parent and the subsidiary were one commercial unit and the application for licences was rejected.

5. Company formed for fraud/improper conduct or to defeat law:
The corporate veil may be lifted if the company is formed to – (a) defeat the law; (b) defraud creditors; (c) avoid legal obligations (arising by way of a contract). Where the device of incorporation is adopted for some illegal or improper purpose, e.g., to defeat or circumvent law, to defraud creditors or to avoid legal obligations. [Gilford Motor Co. v. Horne]

In Jones v. Lipman [1962] 11 ALL ER 442, the defendant attempted to avoid completing the sale of his house to the plaintiff by transferring to a company formed for the purpose. The court ordered both the defendant and the company specifically to perform the contract with the plaintiff.

6. To determine the technical competence of the company:
In New Horizons Ltd. v. UOI (1997) 89 Comp. Case 849 (SC), a company was formed as joint venture by other companies for purpose of telecom tender. The company was new but its major shareholders had vast experience in the field. However, tender evaluation company rejected the tender on the ground that the company has no experience in the field. Supreme Court held that experience of major shareholders can be considered as experience of the company, for purpose of awarding a tender or contract.

Classes of Companies Under The Act:
The Companies Act, 2013 has broadly classified the companies into various classes.
→ On the basis of number of members: A company may be incorporated as a one-person company, private company or a public company, on the basis of the number of members joining it.

→ On the basis of Liability: Again, on the basis of liability, it may either be an unlimited company, or may be limited by shares or by guarantee or by both.

→ On the basis of control: Companies can be classified as associate company, holding company and subsidiary company on the basis of control.

→ On the basis of access to capital: A company may be classified as a Listed company or an Unlisted company.

→ Other Classifications: Some other forms of classification of companies are Foreign Company, Government Company, Small company, Dormant company, Nidhi Company and Company formed for Charitable Objects.

Companies may be classified into various classes on the following basis:
1. On the basis of liability:
a. Company limited by shares – “Company limited by shares” means a company having the liability of its members limited by x memorandum, to amount, If any, unpaid on the shares respectively held by them; [ i.e.; his personal property cannot be undertaken to meet company’s total debt]. [Sec. 2(22)]

The memorandum of association mentions whether the liability of the members is limited j or not. In these companies there is a share capital divided into shares of fixed amount. The liability of the shareholder is limited to the nominal amount of the shares held by him.

Thus, if a person buys 100 shares of ₹ 10 each, his maximum liability is to the extent of ₹ 1,000 only. He cannot be asked to pay more than this amount. If he has paid ₹ 6 on each share, his remaining liability will be only ₹ 4 per share (i.e. 4 x 100 = ₹ 400). A majority of the companies in India belong to this category.

b. Company limited by guarantee – “Company limited by guarantee” means a company having the liability of its members limited by the memorandum, to such amount as the members may respectively undertake to contribute to the assets of the company in the event of its being wound up. [Sec. 2(21)]

Such an amount is called the Guarantee. The memorandum of association lays down the j guarantee amount. No member is liable to pay more than the amount, which he has guaranteed to contribute.

These companies may or may not have a share capital In the case of a guarantee company with a share capital, the members are required to purchase shares of fixed amount and also give a guarantee for a further sum in the event of winding up.

Generally, guarantee companies are formed for non-trading purposes. Such as promotion of commerce, art, science, sports etc., and do not aim for profit. The Chambers of Commerce, charitable institutions, sport clubs, are generally organized as guarantee companies.

In Narendra Kumar Agarwal v. Saroj Maloo, the Supreme Court has laid down that the right of a guarantee company to refuse to accept the transfer by a member of his interest in the company is on a different footing than that of a company limited by shares. The membership of a guarantee company may carry privileges much different from those of ordinary shareholders.

The common features between a ‘guarantee company’ and ‘the company having share capital’ are legal personality and limited liability. In the latter case, the member’s liability is limited by the amount remaining unpaid on the share, which each member holds. Both of them have to state in their memorandum that the members’ liability is limited.

The point of distinction between these two types of companies is that in the former case the members may be called upon to discharge their liability only after commencement of the winding up and only subject to certain conditions; but in the latter case, they may be called upon to do so at any time, either during the company’s life-time or during its winding up.

It is clear from the definition of the guarantee company that it does not raise its initial working funds from its members. Therefore, such a company may be useful only where no working funds are needed or where these funds can be held from other sources like endowment, fees, charges, donations, etc.

Points of Distinction Company Limited By Shares Company Limited By Guarantee
Purpose: Profit/non-profit both. Generally not for profit.
Usefulness: When initial funds are required to be raised to commence business. Only where no working funds are needed or where these funds can be held from other sources like endowment, fees, charges, donations, etc.
Transfer of interest May not be restricted. Restricted & different than that of those limited by shares
Liability of members Limited to amount unpaid on shares. Limited to amount guaranteed.
Amount Called Unpaid amount on shares may be called even before winding up. Amount guaranteed can be called only on winding up. If company has a share capital, unpaid amount on shares can be called before winding up.
Share capital Must have share capital May have share capital
To start Raises initial funds from members Does not raise initial funds from members, unless it has a share capital.

c. Unlimited company:
An unlimited company is defined as a company not having any limit on the liability of its members. Thus the members of an unlimited company have unlimited liability, but he will be entitled to claim contribution from other members. In such a company liability of member ceases on cessation of membership. If company is running & is not wound up the liability on the shares is the only liability which can be enforced by the company. [Sec. 2(92)].

The liability of each member extends to the whole amount of the company’s debts and liabilities but he will be entitled to claim contribution from other members. In case the company has share capital, the articles of association must state the amount of share capital and the amount of each share. So long as the company is a going concern the liability on the shares is the only liability which can be enforced by the company.

The creditors can institute proceedings for winding up of the company for their claims. The official liquidator may call the members for their contribution towards the liabilities and debts of the company, which can be unlimited.

The Companies Act, 2013 – CA Foundation Law Notes

2. On the basis of number of members:
a. One person company:
Section 2(62) of the Companies Act, 2013 defines one person company (OPC) as a company which has only one person as a member. Companies Act, 2013 introduced a new class of companies which can be incorporated by a single person. One person company has been introduced to encourage entrepreneurship and corporatization of business.

OPC differs from sole proprietary concern in an aspect that OPC is a separate legal entity with a limited liability of the member whereas in the case of sole proprietary, the liability of owner is not restricted and it extends to the owner’s entire assets constituting of official and personal.

The procedural requirements of an OPC are simplified through exemptions provided under the Act in comparison to the other forms of companies. According to section 3(1 )(c) of the Companies Act, 2013, OPC is a private limited company with the minimum paid up share capital as may be prescribed and has only one member.

Important points relater to a OPC (One Person Company):
→ Only one person as member.

→ Minimum paid up capital – not yet prescribed.

→ The memorandum of OPC shall indicate the name of the other person, who shall, in the event of the subscriber’s death or his incapacity to contract, become the member of the company.

→ The other person whose name is given in the memorandum shall give his prior written consent in prescribed form and the same shall be filed with Registrar of companies at the time of incorporation.

→ Such other person may be given the right to withdraw his consent.

→ The member of OPC may at any time change the name of such other person by giving notice to the company and the company shall intimate the same to the Registrar.

→ Any such change in the name of the person shall not be deemed to be an alteration of the memorandum.

→ Only a natural person who is an Indian citizen and resident in India (person who has stayed in India for a period of not less than 182 days during the immediately preceding ‘ one calendar year) –

  • shall be eligible to incorporate a OPC.
  • shall be a nominee for the sole member of a OPC.

→ No person shall be eligible to incorporate more than one OPC or become nominee in more than one such company.

→ No minor shall become member or nominee of the OPC or can hold share with beneficial interest.

→ Such Company cannot be incorporated or converted into a company under section 8 of the Act. Though it may be converted to private or public companies in certain cases.

→ Such Company cannot carry out Non-Banking Financial Investment activities including investment in securities of any body corporate.

→ OPC cannot convert voluntarily into any kind of company unless two years have expired from the date of incorporation, except where the paid up share capital is increased beyond fifty lakh rupees or its average annual turnover during the relevant period exceeds two crore rupees.

→ If One Person Company or any officer of such company contravenes the provisions, they shall be punishable with fine which may extend to ten thousand rupees and with a further fine which may extend to one thousand rupees for every day after the first during which such contravention continues.

Here the member can be the sole member and director.

b. Private Company [Section 2(68)]:
“Private Company” means a company having a minimum paid-up share capital as may be prescribed, and which by its articles, –

  • restricts the right to transfer its shares;
  • except in case of One Person Company, limits the number of its members to two hundred:

Provided that where two or more persons hold one or more shares in a company jointly, they shall, for the purposes of this clause, be treated as a single member:
Provided further that –
(A) persons who are in the employment of the company.

(B) persons who, having been formerly in the employment of the company, were members of the company while in that employment and have continued to be members after the employment ceased, shall not be included in the number of members.

(iii) prohibits any invitation to the public to subscribe for any securities of the company.
Important points related to a Private company:

  • No minimum paid-up capital requirement.
  • Minimum number of members – 2 (except if private company is an OPC, where it will be 1).
  • Maximum number of members – 200, excluding present employee-cum-members and erstwhile employee-cum-members.
  • Right to transfer shares restricted.
  • Prohibition on invitation to subscribe to securities of the company.
  • Small company is a private company.
  • OPC can be formed only as a private company.

Small Company: Small company given under the section 2(85) of the Companies Act, 2013 which means a company, other than a public company –
→ Paid-up share capital of which does not exceed fifty lakh rupees or such higher amount as may be prescribed which shall not be more than five crore rupees; and

→ Turnover of which as per its last profit and loss account does not exceed two crore rupees or such higher amount as may be prescribed which shall not be more than twenty crore rupees:

Exceptions:
This section shall not apply to:

  • A holding company or a subsidiary company;
  • A company registered under section 8; or
  • A company or body corporate governed by any special Act.

c. Public company [Section 2(71)]:
“Public company” means a company which –
(a) is not a private company;
(b) has a minimum paid-up share capital, as may be prescribed:

Provided that a company which is a subsidiary of a company, not being a private company, shall be deemed to be public company for the purposes of this Act even where such subsidiary company continues to be a private company in its articles.

Important points related to a Public company:

  • Is not a private company (Articles do not have the restricting clauses).
  • Shares are freely transferable.
  • No minimum paid up capital requirement.
  • Minimum number of members – 7.
  • Maximum numbers of members – No limit.
  • Subsidiary of a public company is deemed to be a public company.

According to section 3(l)(a), a company may be formed for any lawful purpose by seven or more persons, where the company to be formed is to be a public company.

3. On the basis of control:
a. Holding and subsidiary companies:
‘Holding and subsidiary’ companies are relative terms.
A company is a holding company in relation to one or more other companies, means a company of which such companies are subsidiary companies. [Section 2(46)]

Whereas section 2(87) defines “subsidiary company” in relation to any other company (that is to say the holding company), means a company in which the holding company –

  • Controls the composition of the Board of Directors; or
  • Exercises or controls more than one-half of the total share capital either at its own or together with one or more of its subsidiary companies.

Provided that such class or classes of holding companies as may be prescribed shall not have layers of subsidiaries beyond such numbers as may be prescribed. [Layers are yet to be notified]

For the purposes of this section –
(I) a company shall be deemed to be a subsidiary company of the holding company even if the control referred to in sub-clause (i) or sub-clause (ii) is of another subsidiary company of the holding company.

(II) the composition of a company’s Board of Directors shall be deemed to be controlled by another company if that other company by exercise of some power exercisable by it at its discretion can appoint or remove all or a majority of the directors.

(III) the expression “company” includes anybody corporate.

(IV) “layer” in relation to a holding company means its subsidiary or subsidiaries.
The term “Total Share Capital”, means the aggregate of the –

  • Paid-up equity share capital.
  • Convertible preference share capital.

Example 1: A will be subsidiary of B, if B controls the composition of the Board of Directors of A, i.e., if B can, without the consent or approval of any other person, appoint or remove a majority of directors of A.

Example 2: A will be subsidiary of B, if B holds more than 50% of the share capital of A.

Example 3: B is a subsidiary of A and C is a subsidiary of B. In such a case, C will be the subsidiary of A. In the like manner, if D is a subsidiary of C, D will be subsidiary of B as well as of A and so on.

Status of private company, which is subsidiary to public company: In view of Section 2(71) of the Companies Act, 2013 a Private company, which is subsidiary of a public company shall be deemed to be public company for the purpose of this Act, even where such subsidiary company continues to be a private company in its articles.

The Ministry clarified that the shares held, or power exercisable by company in another company in a ‘fiduciary capacity’ shall not be counted for the purpose of determining the holding subsidiary.

Fiduciary capacity:
Holding only in the capacity of a trustee. For instance, when a company holds shares or exercise powers on behalf of any individual, wherein the company is just a trustee holding shares Le.; in good faith, trust and confidence for that individual.

The Companies Act, 2013 – CA Foundation Law Notes

b. Associate company [Section 2(6)]:
In relation to another company, means a company in which that other company has a significant influence, but which is not a subsidiary company of the company having such influence and includes a joint venture company.

The term “significant influence” means control of at least 20% of total share capital, or of business decisions under an agreement. [Section 2(6)]

The term “Total Share Capital”, means the aggregate of the –

  • Paid-up equity share capital; and
  • Convertible preference share capital.

This is a new definition inserted in the 2013 Act.
Vide General Circular No. 24/2014 dated 25th of June 2014, the Ministry of Corporate Affairs has clarified that the shares held by a company in another company in a ‘fiduciary capacity’ shall not be counted for the purpose of determining the relationship of ‘associate company’ under section 2(6) of the Companies Act, 2013.

4. On the basis of access to capital:
a. Listed company: As per the definition given in section 2(52) of the Companies Act, 2013, it is a company which has any of its securities listed on any recognised stock exchange.

b. Unlisted company: Whereas the word securities as per section 2(81) of the Companies Act, 2013 has been assigned the same meaning as defined in clause (h) of section 2 of the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956.
Unlisted company: means company other than listed company.

5. Other companies:
a. Government company [Section 2(45)]
Government Company means any company in which not less than 51% of the paid-up share capital is held by –

  • the Central Government, or
  • by any State Government or Governments, or
  • partly by the Central Government and partly by one or more State Governments, and the section includes a company which is a subsidiary company of such a Government company.

b. Foreign Company [Section 2(42)]:
It means any company or body corporate incorporated outside India which-

  • has a place of business in India whether by itself or through an agent, physically or through electronic mode
  • conducts any business activity in India in any other manner

c. Formation of companies with charitable objects etc. (Section 8 company):
Section 8 of the Companies Act, 2013 deals with the formation of companies which are formed to –

  • Promote the charitable objects of commerce, art, science, sports, education, research, social welfare, religion, charity, protection of environment etc.
  • Such company intends to apply its profit in promoting its objects and
  • Prohibiting the payment of any dividend to its members.

Examples of section 8 companies are FICCI, ASSOCHAM, National Sports Club of India, CII, etc.

Power of Central government to issue the license:

  • Section 8 allows the Central Government to register such person or association of persons as a company with limited liability without the addition of words ‘Limited’ or ‘Private limited’ to its name, by issuing licence on such conditions as it deems fit.
  • The registrar shall on application register such person or association of persons as a company under this section.
  • On registration the company shall enjoy same privileges and obligations as of a limited company.

Note:
Central Government has delegated the power to grant License to the ROC.

Revocation of license:
The Central Government may by order revoke the licence of the company where the company contravenes any of the requirements or the conditions of this sections subject to which a licence is issued or where the affairs of the company are conducted fraudulently, or violative of the objects of the company or prejudicial to public interest, and on revocation the Registrar shall put ‘Limited’ or ‘Private Limited’ against the company’s name in the register. But before such revocation, the Central Government must give it a written notice of its intention to revoke the licence and opportunity to be heard in the matter.

Note: Central Government has delegated the power to revoke license to the Regional Directors.

Order of the Central Government:
Where a licence is revoked there the Central Government may, in the public interest order that the company registered under this section should be amalgamated with another company registered under this section having similar objects, to form a single company with such constitution, properties, powers, rights, interest, authorities and privileges and with such liabilities, duties and obligations as may be specified in the order, or the company be wound up.

Penalty/punishment in contravention:
If a company makes any default in complying with any of the requirements laid down in this section, the company shall, be punishable with fine varying from ten lakh rupees to one crore rupees and the directors and every officer of the company who is in default shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to three years or with fine varying from twenty-five thousand rupees to twenty-five lakh rupees, or with both and where it is proved that the affairs of the company were conducted fraudulently, every officer in default shall be liable for action under section 447 which deals with Fraud.

Section 8 Company – Significant points:

  • Formed for the promotion of commerce, art, science, religion, charity, protection environment, sports, etc.
  • Requirement of minimum share capital does not apply.
  • Uses its profits for the promotion of the objective for which formed.
  • Does not declare dividend to members.
  • Operates under a special licence from Central Government.
  • Need not use the word Ltd. /Pvt. Ltd. in its name and adopt a more suitable name such as club, chambers of commerce etc.
  • Licence revoked if conditions contravened.
  • On revocation, Central Government may direct it to
    → Converts its status and change its name
    → Wind-up
    → Amalgamate with another company having similar object.
  • Can call its general meeting by giving a clear 14 days’ notice instead of 21 days.
  • Requirement of minimum number of directors, independent directors etc. does not apply.
  • Need not constitute Nomination and Remuneration Committee and Shareholders Relationship Committee.
  • A partnership firm can be a member of Section 8 company.

d. Dormant company (Section 455):
Where a company is formed and registered under this Act for a future project or to hold an asset or intellectual property and has no significant accounting transaction, such a company or an inactive company may make an application to the Registrar in such manner as may be prescribed for obtaining the status of a dormant company.

“Inactive company” means a company which has not been carrying on any business or op-eration, or has not made any significant accounting transaction during the last two financial years, or has not led financial statements and annual returns during the last two financial years.

“Significant accounting transaction” means any transaction other than –

  • Payment of fees by a company to the Registrar
  • Payments made by it to full the requirements of this Act or any other law
  • Allotment of shares to full the requirements of this Act; a
  • Payments for maintenance of its office and records.

e. Nidhi Companies:
Company which has been incorporated as a Nidhi with the object of cultivating the habit of thrift (cost cutting) and savings amongst its members, receiving deposits from, and lending to, its members only, for their mutual benefit and which complies with such rules as are prescribed by the Central Government for regulation of such class of companies. [Section 406 of the Companies Act, 2013]

f. Public Financial Institutions (PFI):
By virtue of Section 2(72) of the Companies Act, 2013, the following institutions are to be regarded as public financial institutions:

  • the Life Insurance Corporation of India, Established under the Life Insurance Corporation Act, 1956;
  • the Infrastructure Development Finance Company Limited;
  • specified company referred to in the Unit Trust of India (Transfer of Undertaking and Repeal) Act, 2002;
  • institutions notified by the Central Government under section 4 A(2) of the Companies Act, 1956 so repealed under section 465 of this Act.
  • such other institution as may be notified by the Central Government in consultation with the Reserve Bank of India.

Conditions for an institution to be notified as PFI :
No institution shall be so notified unless –
→ It has been established or constituted by or under any Central or State Act; or

→ Not less than fifty-one per cent of the paid-up share capital is held or controlled by the Central Government or by any State Government or Governments or partly by the Central Government and partly by one or more State Government.

The Companies Act, 2013 – CA Foundation Law Notes

Mode of Registration/Incorporation of Company Promoters:

Promoter [Sec. 2(69)]:
The Companies Act, 2013 defines the term “Promoter” under section 2(69) which means a person –

  • who has been named as such in a prospectus or is identified by the company in the annual return referred to in section 92; or
  • who has control over the affairs of the company, directly or indirectly whether as a shareholder, director or otherwise; or
  • in accordance with whose advice, directions or instructions the Board of Directors of the company is accustomed to act.

In simple terms we can say:

  • Persons who form the company are known as promoters.
  • It is they who conceive the idea of forming the company.
  • They take all necessary steps for its registration.
  • It should, however, be noted that persons acting only in a professions capacity example the solicitor, banker, accountant etc. are not regarded as promoters.

Formation of Company:
Section 3 of the Companies Act, 2013 deals with the basic requirement with respect to the constitution of the company. In the case of a public company, any 7 or more persons can form a company for any lawful purpose by subscribing their names to memorandum and complying with the requirements of this Act in respect of registration. In exactly the same way, 2 or more persons can form a private company and one person where company to be formed is one person company.

Procedure for reservation of name:
→ An application to the Registrar of Companies (ROC) concerned shall be made electronically in Form with fee.
(Availability of a name can be checked using the ‘Check Company Name’ Service under ‘company Services option under MCA services tab on homepage of MCA i.e. www.mca.gov.in) Name shall within the parameters prescribed under the Act.

→ 6 company names in order of priority should be submitted to afford flexibility to the Registrar. The ROC shall furnish the information regarding the approval of name/rejection of proposed name within 7 days of the receipt of the application.

→ The approved name shall remain available for adoption by the promoters for a period of 60 days from the date of application. This period may, however, be extended by the ROC.

→ 2 person in case of a private company and 7 in case of public company should be named as promoters/subscribers. Every person who intends to become a Director should obtain DIN. (Director Identification Number).

→ Applicant will get SRN (Service Request Number), which can be used to trace position about approval of name.

→ The Registrar shall give three opportunities for resubmission under one registration form (i.e.; INC 1) if the application is rejected.

Incorporation of Company:
Section 7 of the Companies Act, 2013 provides for the procedure to be followed for incorporation of a company.
1. Filing of the documents and information with the registrar:
For the registration of the company following documents and information are required to be filed with the registrar within whose jurisdiction the registered office of the company is proposed to be situated –
→ the memorandum and articles of the company duly signed by all the subscribers to the memorandum.

→ a declaration by person who is engaged in the formation of the company (an advocate, a chartered accountant, cost accountant or company secretary in practice), and by a person named in the articles (director, manager or secretary of the company), that all the requirements of this Act and the rules made thereunder in respect of registration and matters precedent or incidental thereto have been complied with.

→ an affidavit from each of the subscribers to the memorandum and from persons named as the first directors, if any, in the articles stating that –

  • he is not convicted of any offence in connection with the promotion, formation or management of any company, or
  • he has not been found guilty of any fraud or misfeasance or of any breach of duty to any company under this Act or any previous company law during the last five years,
  • and that all the documents filed with the Registrar for registration of the company contains information that is correct and complete and true to the best of his knowledge and belief;

→ the address for correspondence till its registered office is established;

→ the particulars (names, including surnames or family names, residential address, nationality) of every subscriber to the memorandum along with proof of identity, and in the case of a subscriber being a body corporate, such particulars as may be prescribed.

→ the particulars (names, including surnames or family names, the Director Identification Number, residential address, nationality) of the persons mentioned in the articles as the first directors and such other particulars including proof of identity as may be prescribed; and

→ the particulars of the interests of the persons mentioned in the articles as the first directors of the company in other firms ‘or bodies corporate along with their consent to act as directors of the company in such form and manner as may be prescribed.

Particulars provided in this provision shall be of the individual subscriber and not of the professional engaged in the incorporation of the company [The Companies (Incorporation) Rules, 2014]

2. Issue of certificate of incorporation on registration:
The Registrar on the basis of documents and information filed, shall register all the documents and information in the register and issue a certificate of incorporation in the prescribed form to the effect that the proposed company is incorporated under this Act.

3. Corporate Identity Number (CIN):
On and from the date mentioned in the certificate of incorporation, the Registrar shall allot to the company a corporate identity number, which shall be a distinct identity for the company and which shall also be included in the certificate.

4. Maintenance of copies of all documents and information:
The company shall maintain and preserve at its registered office copies of all documents and information as originally filed, till its dissolution under this Act.

5. Furnishing of false or incorrect information or suppression of material fact at the time of incorporation:
If any person furnishes any false or incorrect particulars of any information or suppresses any material information, of which he is aware in any of the documents filed with the Registrar in relation to the registration of a company, he shall be liable for action for fraud under section 447.

6. Company already incorporated by furnishing any false or incorrect information or representation or by suppressing any material fact (i.e. post Incorporation):
Where, at any time after the incorporation of a company, it is proved that the company has been got incorporated by furnishing any false or incorrect information or representation or by suppressing any material fact or information in any of the documents or declaration filed or made for incorporating such company, or by any fraudulent action, the promoters, the persons named as the first directors of the company and the persons making declaration under this section shall each be liable for action for fraud under section 447.

7. Order of the Tribunal:
Where a company has been got incorporated by furnishing false or incorrect information or representation or by suppressing any material fact or information in any of the documents or declaration filed or made for incorporating such company or by any fraudulent action, the Tribunal may, on an application made to it, on being satisfied that the situation so warrants

  • pass such orders, as it may think fit, for regulation of the management of the company including changes, if any, in its memorandum and articles, in public interest or in the interest of the company and its members and creditors; or
  • direct that liability of the members shall be unlimited; or
  • direct removal of the name of the company from the register of companies; or
  • pass an order for the winding up of the company; or
  • pass such other orders as it may deem fit.

Provided that before making any order –

  • the company shall be given a reasonable opportunity of being heard in the matter; and
  • the Tribunal shall take into consideration the transactions entered into by the company, including the obligations, if any, contracted or payment of any liability.

Simplified Proforma for Incorporating Company Electronically (SPICe):
The Ministry of Corporate Affairs has taken various initiatives for ease of business. In a step towards easy setting up of business, MCA has Simplified the process of filing of forms for incorporation of a company through Simplified Proforma for incorporating company electronically.

The Companies Act, 2013 – CA Foundation Law Notes

Effect of Registration:
Section 9 of the Companies Act, 2013 provides for the effect of registration of a company.
When a company is registered and a certificate of incorporation is issued by the Registrar, following important consequences follow:

  • The company becomes a distinct legal entity, Its life commences from the date mentioned in the certificate of incorporation.
  • It becomes a body corporate and it acquires a perpetual succession and a common seal.
  • It is capable of suing and be sued in its corporate name.
  • Its property is not the property of the shareholders. The shareholders have a right to share in the profits of the company when realized and divided. Likewise any liability of the company is not the liability of individual shareholders.

From the date of incorporation mentioned in the certificate, the company becomes a legal person separate from the incorporators; and there comes into existence a binding contract between the company and its members as evidenced by the Memorandum and Articles of Association [Hari Nagar Sugar Mills Ltd. v. S.S. JhunjhunwalaJ. It has perpetual existence until it is dissolved by liquidation or struck out of the register.

A shareholder who buys shares, does not buy any interest in the property of the company but in certain cases a writ petition will be maintainable by a company or its shareholders.

A legal personality emerges from the moment of registration of a company and from that moment the persons subscribing to the Memorandum of Association and other persons joining as members are regarded as a body corporate or a corporation in aggregate and the legal person begins to function as an entity. A company on registration acquires a separate existence and the law recognises it as a legal person separate and distinct from its members [State Trading Corporation of India v. Commercial Tax Officer]

It may be noted that under the provisions of the Act, a company may purchase shares of another company and thus become a controlling company. However, merely because a company purchases all shares of another company it will not serve as a means of putting an end to the corporate character of another company and each company is a separate juristic entity [Spencer & Co. Ltd. Madras v. CWT Madras].

As has been stated above, the law recognizes such a company as a juristic person separate and distinct from its members. The mere fact that the entire share capital has been contributed by the Central Government and all its shares are held by the President of India and other officers of the Central Government does not make any difference in the position of registered company and it does not make a company an agent either of the President or the Central Government [Heavy Electrical Union v. State of Bihar].

Effect of memorandum and articles:
As per section 10 of the Companies Act, 2013, –

  • The memorandum and articles, when registered, binds the company and its members to the same extent as if they have been signed by the company and by each member.
  • The company & each of its members are to observe & be bound by all provisions of memorandum & of the articles.
  • Thus, the company is bound to the member the members are bound to the company; and the members are bound to the other members by whatever is contained in these documents.
  • But, in relation to articles, neither a company not its members are bound to outsiders.
  • All monies payable by any member to the company under the memorandum or articles shall be a debt due from him to the company.

Classification of Capital:
The term Capital has a variety of meanings. It means one thing to economists; another to accountants and still another to businessmen and lawyers. In relation to a company limited by shares, the word capital means share capital, i.e., the capital or figure in terms of so many rupees divided into shares of fixed amount. In other words, the contributions of persons to the common stock of the company form the capital of the company.

The proportion of the capital to which each member is entitled, is his share. A share is not a sum of money; it is rather an interest measured by a sum of money and made up of various rights contained in the contract.

In the domain of Company Law, the term ‘capital’ is used in the following senses:
(a) Nominal or authorised or registered capital:
This form of capital has been defined in section 2(8) of the Companies Act, 2013. “Authorised capital” or “Nominal capital” means such capital as is authorised by the memorandum of a company to be the maximum amount of share capital of the company.

Thus, it is the sum stated in the memorandum as the capital of the company with which it is to be registered being the maximum amount which it is authorised to raise by issuing shares, and upon which it pays the stamp duty. It is usually fixed at the amount, which, it is estimated, the company will need, including the working capital and reserve capital, if any.

(b) Issued capital:
Section 2(50) of the Companies Act, 2013 defines “issued capital” which means such capital as the company issues from time to time for subscription. It is that part of authorised capital which is offered by the company for subscription and includes the shares allotted for consideration other than cash.
Schedule III to the Companies Act, 2013, makes it obligatory for a company to disclose its issued capital in the balance sheet.

For example – A company may have total authorised share capital of ₹ 10 lacs divided into 1 lac shares of ₹ 10 each. It may decide to issue 80,000 shares of ₹ 10 each. In that case the issued capital shall be ₹ 8,00,000.

(c) Subscribed capital:
Section 2(86) of the Companies Act, 2013 defines “subscribed capital” as such part of the capital which is for the time being subscribed by the members of a company.

It is the nominal amount of shares taken up by the public. Where any notice, advertisement or other social communication or any business letter, bill head or letter paper of a company states the authorised capital, the subscribed and paid-up capital must also be stated in equally conspicuous characters. A default in this regard will make the company and every officer who is in default liable to pay penalty extending ₹ 10,000 and ₹ 5,000 respectively. [Section 60],

In the above example out of 80,000 shares issued by the company, if applications are received for only 70,000 shares of ₹ 10 each, the subscribed capital will be ₹ 7,00,000.

(d) Called-up capital:
Section 2(15) of the Companies Act, 2013 defines “called-up capital” as such part of the capital, which has been called for payment. It is the total amount called up on the shares issued.
In the above example if the company has called up ₹ 5 per share, then it’s called up capital shall be 70,000 x 5 = ₹ 3.5 lacs.

(e) Paid-up capital:
Paid-up capital is the total amount paid or credited as paid up on shares issued. It is equal to called up capital less calls in arrears.
In the example given above, if only ₹ 3,00,000 is actually received by the company, then the paid up capital shall be to ₹ 3,00,000.

The Companies Act, 2013 – CA Foundation Law Notes

Shares:
(I) Nature of shares:
Section 2(84) of the Companies Act, 2013 defines the term ‘share’ which means a share in the share capital of a company and includes stock. A share thus represents such proportion of the interest of the shareholders as the amount paid up thereon bears to the total capital payable to the company. It is a measure of the interest in the company’s assets to which a person holding a share is entitled.

Shares are a movable property:
According to section 44 of the Companies Act, 2013, share or other interest of any member in a company shall be movable property, transferable in the manner provided by the Articles of the company.

Shares shall be numbered:
Section 45 provides, every share in a company having a share capital shall be distinguished by its distinctive number. [Not apply to a share held by a person whose name is entered as holder of beneficial interest in such share in the records of a depository.]

Share is an interest in the company:
Farwell Justice, in Borland Trustees v. Steel Bros. & Co. Ltd. observed that “a share is not a sum of money but is an interest measured by a sum of money and made up of various rights contained in the contract, including the right to a sum of money of a more or less amount”. The rights and obligations attaching to a share are those prescribed by the memorandum and the articles of a company.

It must, however, be remembered that a shareholder has not only contractual rights against the company, but also certain other rights which accrue to him according to the provisions of the Companies Act.
Thus, a share of a company in the hand so of a shareholder signifies a bundle of rights and obligations.

(II) Kinds of share capital:
Section 43 of the Companies Act, 2013 provides the kinds of share capital. According to the provision «jj the share capital of a company limited by shares shall be of two kinds, namely:
i. Equity share capital:

  • with voting rights; or
  • with differential rights as to dividend, voting or otherwise in accordance with prescribed rules;

Example:
It is to be noted that, Tata Motors in 2008 introduced equity shares with differential voting rights called ‘A’ equity shares in its rights issue. In the issue, every 10 ‘A’ equity shares carried only one voting right but would get 5 percentage points more dividend than that declared on each of the ordinary shares.

Since ‘A’ equity share did not carry the similar voting rights, it was being traded at discount to other common shares having full voting. Other companies which have issued equity shares with differential voting rights (popularly called DVRs) are Future Retail, Jain Irrigation among others.

ii. Preference share capital:
However, this Act shall not affect the rights of the preference shareholders who are entitled to participate in the proceeds of winding up before the commencement of this Act.

According to Explanation to section 43:
1. “Equity share capital”, with reference to any company limited by shares, means all share capital which is not preference share capital;

2. “Preference share capital”, with reference to any company limited by shares, means that part of the issued share capital of the company which carries or would carry a preferential right with respect to
→ Payment of dividend, either as a fixed amount or an amount calculated at a fixed rate, which may either be free of or subject to income-tax; and

→ Repayment, in the case of a winding up or repayment of capital, of the amount of the share capital paid-up or deemed to have been paid-up, whether or not, there is a preferential right to the payment of any fixed premium or premium on any fixed scale, specified in the memorandum or articles of the company.

Capital shall be deemed to be preference capital, despite that it is entitled to either or both of the following rights, namely:
(a) that in respect of dividends, in addition to the preferential rights to the amounts specified as above, it has a right to participate, whether fully or to a limited extent, with capital not entitled to the preferential right aforesaid.

(b) that in respect of capital, in addition to the preferential right to the repayment, on a winding up, of the amounts specified above, it has a right to participate, whether fully f or to a limited extent, with capital not entitled to that preferential right in any surplus which may remain after the entire capital has been repaid.

Exception:
In case of private company – Section 43 shall not apply where memorandum or articles of association of the private company so provides.

Memorandum of Association:

Meaning:
The Memorandum of Association is a document of great importance. It contains the basic conditions on the strength of which a company is incorporated, namely, the name of the company, the place of its registered office, the objects within which it can operate, the nature of liability of its members and capital structure.

Having regard to these basic conditions, it has also been described as the charter or constitution of the company. It defines as well as confines the powers of the company. It states what the company can do, what are its powers and at the same time sets out the limit outside which the company cannot function. It also regulates the affairs of the company in relation to the outsiders.

Definition:
According to sec. 2(56) of the Companies Act, 2013 memorandum of association means “the memorandum of association of a company as originally framed or as altered from time to time in pursuance of any previous company law or of this Act”.

This definition is not satisfactory, as it does not tell us what a memorandum of association is. We can define memorandum of association its the basic document of a company. It states positively the range of activities of the company and what the company can do and it also states negatively the limitation of the powers of a company i.e., what the company cannot do.

The memorandum must be printed, divided into paragraphs, numbered consecutively, and signed by at least seven persons (two in the case of a private company and one in the case of One Person Company) in the presence of at least one witness, who will attest the signatures. The particulars about the signatories to the memorandum as well as the witness, as to their address, description, occupation etc., must also be entered.

It is to be noted that a company being a legal person can through its agent, subscribe to the memorandum. However, a minor cannot be a signatory to the memorandum as he is not competent to contract. The guardian of a minor, who subscribes to the memorandum on his behalf, will be deemed to have subscribed in his personal capacity. The above clauses of the Memorandum are called compulsory clauses, or “Conditions”. In addition to these a memorandum may contain other provisions, for example rights attached to various classes of shares.

The Memorandum of Association of a company cannot contain anything contrary to the provisions of the Companies Act If it does, the same shall be devoid of any legal effect. Similarly, all other documents of the company must comply with the provisions of the Memorandum.

The Companies Act, 2013 – CA Foundation Law Notes

Object of registering a memorandum of association:
It contains the object for which the company is formed and therefore identifies the possible scope of its operations beyond which its actions cannot go.

The purpose of memorandum is two-fold:

  • To enable the prospective investors to know the purpose for which their money is going to be used and what risk they are taking in making the investment.
  • To inform outsiders dealing with company as to what is its permitted range of activities in which it may lawfully engage.

Public document:
The memorandum of association is a public document, which can be inspected by anybody at the Office of the Registrar of Companies. Every person dealing with company is presumed to have sufficient knowledge of its contents. Thus, memorandum helps in regulating external affairs of company in relation to outsiders. Outsiders after reading contents of memorandum can know whether contract, which they wish to make, is within object of company.

A company cannot depart from the provisions contained in the memorandum however imperative may be the necessity for the departure. It cannot enter into a contract or engage in any trade or business, which is beyond the power confessed on it by the memorandum. If it does so, it would be ultra vires the company and void.

As per Section 4, Memorandum of a company shall be drawn up in such form as is given in Tables A, B, C, D and E in Schedule I of the Companies Act, 2013. Section 4(6) of the Companies Act, 2013, provides that the memorandum of association should be in any one of the following model forms specified in Schedule I:
Table A for company limited by shares.
Table B for company limited by guarantee & not having share capital.
Table C for company limited by guarantee & having a share capital.
Table D for an unlimited company and not having share capital.
Table E for an unlimited company and having share capital.
The memorandum and articles of a company must be as closed to model forms, as possible, depending upon the circumstances.

Content of the memorandum:
A. Name Clause:
The memorandum of association shall state the name of the company (Name Clause) with the last word “Limited” in the case of a public limited company, or the last words “Private Limited” in the case of a private limited company. This clause is not applicable on the companies formed under section 8 of the Act.

The name including phrase ‘Electoral Trust’ may be allowed for Registration of companies to be formed under section 8 of the Act, in accordance with the Electoral Trusts Scheme, 2013 notified by the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT). For the Companies under section 8 of the Act, the name shall include the words foundation, Forum, Association, Federation, Chambers, Confederation, council, Electoral trust and the like etc. [The Companies (Incorporation) Rules, 2014].

As per MCA notification dated 5th June, 2015, a Government company’s name must end with the word “Limited”. In the case of One Person Company, the words “One Person Company” should be included below its name.

B. Registered Office clause:
The memorandum of association shall state the State in which the registered office of the company (Registered Office clause) is to be situated.

C. Object clause:
The memorandum of association shall contain objects for which the company is proposed to be incorporated and any matter considered necessary in furtherance thereof (Object clause).

If any company has changed its activities which are not reflected in its name, it shall change its name in line with its activities within a period of six months from the change of activities after complying with all the provisions as applicable to change of name.

D. Liability clause:
The memorandum shall also state the liability of members of the company (Liability clause), whether limited or unlimited, and also state, –
→ in the case of a company limited by shares, that the liability of its members is limited to the amount unpaid, if any, on the shares held by them.

→ in the case of a company limited by guarantee, the amount up to which each member undertakes to contribute

→ to the assets of the company in the event of its being wound-up while he is a member or within one year after he ceases to be a member, for payment of the debts and liabilities of the company or of such debts and liabilities as may have been contracted before he ceases to be a member, as the case may be.

→ to the costs, charges and expenses of winding-up and for adjustment of the rights of the contributories among themselves.

E. Capital Clause:
The memorandum shall state amount of authorized capital (Capital Clause) divided into share of fixed amounts and the number of shares with the subscribers to the memorandum have agreed to take, indicated opposite their names, which shall not be less than one share. A company not having share capital need not have this clause.

F. Association clause:
It contains the desire of the subscribers to be formed into a company. The Memorandum shall conclude with the association clause. Every subscriber to the Memorandum shall take atleast one share, and shall write against his name, the number of shares taken by him.

In the case of OPC, the name of the person who, in the event of death of the subscriber, shall become the member of the company.

Doctrine of Ultra vires:

Meaning:
The meaning of the term ultra vires is simply “beyond (their) powers”. The legal phrase “ultra vires ” is applicable only to acts done in excess of the legal powers of the doers. This presupposes that the powers in their nature are limited.

It is a fundamental rule of Company Law that the objects of a company as stated in its memorandum can be departed from only to the extent permitted by the Act, thus far and no further. In consequence, any act done or a contract made by the company which travels beyond the powers not only of the directors but also of the company is wholly void and inoperative in law and is therefore not binding on the company.

On this account, a company can be restrained from employing its fund for purposes other than those sanctioned by the memorandum. Likewise, it can be restrained from carrying on a trade different from the one it is authorised to carry on.

The impact of the doctrine of ultra vires is that a company can neither be sued on an ultra vires transaction, nor can it sue on it. Since the memorandum is a “public document”, it is open to public inspection. Therefore, when one deals with a company one is deemed to know about the powers of
the company. If in spite of this you enter into a transaction which is ultra vires the company, you cannot enforce it against the company.

The Companies Act, 2013 – CA Foundation Law Notes

Example:
If you have supplied goods or performed service on such a contract or lent money, you cannot obtain payment or recover the money lent. But if the money advanced to the company has not been expended, the lender may stop the company from parting with it by means of an injunction; this is because the company does not become the owner of the money, which is ultra vires the company.

As the lender remains the owner, he can take back the property in specie. If the ultra vires loan has been utilised in meeting lawful debt of the company then the lender steps into the shoes of the debtor paid off and consequently he would be entitled to recover his loan to that extent from the company.

An act which is ultra vires the company being void, cannot be ratified by the shareholders of the company. Sometimes, act which is ultra vires can be regularised by ratifying it subsequently. For instance, if the act is ultra vires the power of the directors, the shareholders can ratify it; if it is ultra vires the articles of the company, the company can alter the articles; if the act is within the power of the company but is done irregularly, shareholder can validate it.

The leading case through which this doctrine was enunciated is that of Ashbury Railway Carriage and Iron Company Limited v. Riche (1875).

The facts of the case are:
The main objects of a company were:

  • To make, sell or lend on hire, railway carriages and wagons.
  • To carry on the business of mechanical engineers and general contractors.
  • To purchase, lease, sell and work mines.
  • To purchase and sell as merchants or agents, coal, timber, metals etc.

The directors of the company entered into a contract with Riche, for financing the construction of a railway line in Belgium, and the company further ratified this act of the directors by passing a special resolution. The company however, repudiated the contract as being ultra vires. And Riche brought an action for damages for breach of contract. His contention was that the contract was well within the meaning of the word general contractors and hence within its powers. Moreover it had been ratified by a majority of shareholders.

However, it was held by the Court that the contract was null vand void. It said that the terms general contractors was associated with mechanical engineers, i.e. it had to be read in connection with the company’s main business. If, the term general contractor’s was not so interpreted, it would authorize the making of contracts of any kind and every description, for example, marine and re-insurance.

An ultra vires contract can never be made binding on the company. It cannot become “Intra vires” by reasons of estoppel, acquiescence, lapse of time, delay or ratification.

The whole position regarding the doctrine of ultra vires can be summed up as –
→ When an act is performed, which though legal in itself, is not authorized by the object clause of the memorandum, or by the statute, it is said to be ultra vires the company, and hence null and void.

→ An act which is ultra vires, the company cannot be ratified even by the unanimous consent of all the shareholders.

→ An act which is ultra vires the directors, but intra vires the company can be ratified by the members of the company through a resolution passed at a general meeting.

→ If an act is ultra vires the Articles, it can be ratified by altering the Articles by a Special Resolution at a general meeting.

However, the disadvantages of this doctrine outweigh its main advantage, namely to provide protection to the shareholders and creditors. Although it may be useful to members in restraining the activities of the directors, it is only a nuisance insofar as it prevents the company from changing its activities in a direction which is agreed by all. Again, the purpose of doctrine of ultra vires has been defeated as now the object clause can be easily altered, by passing just a special resolution of the shareholders.

Articles of Association:

Meaning:
The articles of association of a company are its rules and regulations, which are framed to manage its internal affairs. Just as the memorandum contains the fundamental conditions upon which the company is allowed to be incorporated, so also the articles are the internal regulations of the company (Guiness v. Land Corporation of Ireland). These general functions of the articles have been aptly summed up by Lord Cairns in Ashbury Carriage Co. v. Riche as follows: “The articles play a part subsidiary to memorandum of association.

They accept the memorandum as the charter of incorporation, and so accepting it the articles proceed to define the duties, the rights and powers of the governing body as between themselves and the company and the mode and form in which the business of the company is to be carried on, and the mode and form in which changes in the internal regulation of the company may from time to time be made.”

The document containing the articles of association of a company (the Magna Carta) is a business document; hence it has to be construed strictly. It regulates domestic management of a company and creates certain rights and obligations between the members and the company [S.S. Rajkumar v. Perfect Castings (P) Ltd.].

The articles of association are in fact the bye-laws of the company according to which directors and other officers are required to perform their functions as regards the management of the company, its accounts and audit. It is important therefore that the auditor should study them and, while doing so he should note the provisions therein in respect of relevant matters.

Section 5 of the Companies Act, 2013 seeks to provide the contents and model of articles of association. The section lays the following law –
(1) Contains regulations:
The articles of a company shall contain the regulations for management of the company.

(2) Inclusion of matters:
The articles shall also contain such matters, as are prescribed under the rules. However, a company may also include such additional matters in its articles as may be considered nec¬essary for its management.

(3) Contain provisions for entrenchment:
The articles may contain provisions for entrenchment (to protect something) to the effect that specified provisions of the articles may be altered only if conditions or procedures as that are more restrictive than those applicable in the case of a special resolution, are met or complied with.

(4) Manner of inclusion of the entrenchment provision:
The provisions for entrenchment shall only be made either on formation of a company, or by an amendment in the articles agreed to by all the members of the company in the case of a private company and by a special resolution in the case of a public company.

(5) Notice to the registrar of the entrenchment provision:
Where the articles contain provisions for entrenchment, whether made on formation or by amendment, the company shall give notice to the Registrar of such provisions in such form and manner as may be prescribed.

(6) Forms of articles:
The articles of a company shall be in respective forms specified in Tables F, G, H, I and J in Schedule I as may be applicable to such company.

(7) Model articles:
A company may adopt all or any of the regulations contained in the model articles applicable to such company.

(8) Company registered after the commencement of this Act:
In case of any company, which is registered after the commencement of this Act, insofar as the registered articles of such company do not exclude or modify the regulations contained in the model articles applicable to such company, those regulations shall, so far as applicable, be the regulations of that company in the same manner and to the extent as if they were contained in the duly registered articles of the company.

The Companies Act, 2013 – CA Foundation Law Notes

The Following Are The Key Differences Between The Memorandum of Association Vs. Articles of Association:

MOA AOA
Power It is the charter and constitution of the company. The articles are subordinate to memorandum. If there is conflict between the two, memorandum shall prevail.
Ultra vires Acts done by a company beyond the scope of the memorandum are absolutely void (ineffective). They cannot be ratified even by unanimous vote of all the shareholders. Articles of association govern the internal relationship between the company and its members. Acts done by the company beyond its Articles can be ratified by the shareholders.
Registration Every company must have its own memorandum. It must be compulsorily filed for registration. It must be in the following forms: Every company must have its own Articles. It must be compulsorily filed for registration. It must be in the following forms:
Alteration Model: A, B, C, D, E of Schedule I Model: F, G, H, I, J of Schedule I
Nature MOA cannot be altered easily. AOA can be altered if it is desired by 3/4th majority.
Scope Memorandum of association contains the basic conditions on which the company is incorporated. It provides for name, situation objects, capital and liability of the company. Articles of association are the rules governing the internal management of the company. It provides for rules and procedures for the conduct of its business.

Doctrine of Indoor Management:
Doctrine of Constructive Notice:
Section 399 of the Companies Act, 2013 provides that any person can inspect by electronic means any document kept by the Registrar, or make a record of the same, or get a copy or extracts of any document, including certificate of incorporation of any company, on payment of prescribed fees.

Section 399 provides that the memorandum and articles when registered with Registrar of Companies ‘become public documents’ and then they can be inspected by any one on payment of a nominal fee. Therefore, any person who contemplates entering into a contract with the company has the means of ascertaining the powers of the company and is thus, presumed to have read these documents and understood them in their true perspective. This is known as “doctrine of constructive notice”.

Even if the party dealing with the company does not have actual notice of the contents of these documents it is presumed that he has an implied (constructive) notice of them. Consequently, if a person enters into a contract which is beyond the powers of the company, as defined in the memorandum, or outside the limit set on the authority of the directors as per the memorandum or articles, he cannot, as a general rule, acquire any rights under the contract against the company.

By constructive notice is meant” –
→ Whether a person reads the documents or not, he is presumed to have knowledge of the contents of the documents. He is not only presumed to have read the documents but also understood them in their true perspective, and

→ Every person dealing with the company not only has the constructive notice of the memorandum and articles, but also of all the other related documents, such as Special Resolutions etc., which are required to be registered with the Registrar.

Thus, if a person enters into a contract which is beyond the powers of the company as defined in the memorandum, or outside the authority of directors as per memorandum or articles, he cannot acquire any rights under the contract against the company.

Doctrine of Indoor Management:
The Doctrine of Indoor Management is the exception to the doctrine of constructive notice. The aforesaid doctrine of constructive notice does in no sense mean that outsiders are deemed to have notice of the internal affairs of the company. For instance, if an act is authorised by the articles or memorandum, an outsider is entitled to assume that all the detailed formalities for doing that act have been observed. This can be explained with the help of a landmark case The Royal British Bank v. Turquand. This is the doctrine of indoor management popularly known as TurquandRule.

FACTS of The Royal British Bank v. Turquand:
Mr. Turquand was the social manager (liquidator) of the insolvent Cameron’s Coalbrook Steam, Coal and Swansea and Loughor Railway Company. It was incorporated under the Joint Stock Companies Act, 1844. The company had given a bond for ₹ 2,000 to the Royal British Bank, which secured the company’s drawings on its current account.

The bond was under the company’s seal, signed by two directors and the secretary. When the company was sued, it alleged that under its registered deed of settlement (the articles of association), directors only had power to borrow up to an amount authorized by a company resolution. A resolution had been passed but not specifying how much the directors could borrow.

Held, that the bond was valid, so the Royal British Bank could enforce the terms. He said the bank i was deemed to be aware that the directors could borrow only up to the amount resolutions allowed. Articles of association were registered with Companies House, so there was constructive notice.

But the bank could not be deemed to know which ordinary resolutions passed, because these were not registerable. The bond was valid because there was no requirement to look into the company’s internal workings. This is the indoor management rule, that the company’s indoor affairs are the company’s problem.

Exceptions to the doctrine of Indoor Management:
Thus, you will notice that the aforementioned rule of Indoor Management is important to persons dealing with a company through its directors or other persons. They are entitled to assume that the acts of the directors or other officers of the company are validly performed, if they are within the scope of their apparent authority. So long as an act is valid under the articles, if done in a particular manner, an outsider dealing with the company is entitled to assume that it has been done in the manner required.

The abovementioned doctrine of Indoor Management or Turquand Rule has limitations of its own. That is to say, it is inapplicable to the following cases, namely:
a. Actual or constructive knowledge of irregularity:
The rule does not protect any person when the person dealing with the company has notice, whether actual or constructive, of the irregularity.

In Howard v. Patent Ivory Mfg. Co. (1888)38 Ch. D. 156, the directors of a company could borrow upto £1,000 without the sanction of members in General Meeting. The consent of the shareholders was required to borrow in excess of £1,000. The directors themselves lent £3,500 to the company. It was held that the directors had the notice of the internal irregularity and therefore the company was liable to them only for £1,000.

In Morris v, Kansseen, a director could not defend an allotment of shares to him as he participated in the meeting, which made the allotment. His appointment as a director also fell through because none of the directors appointed him was validly in office.

b. Suspicion of Irregularity:
The doctrine is not applicable in case of negligent persons. If an officer of the company acts in a manner, which would not ordinarily be within his powers, the person dealing with him must make proper inquiries and satisfy himself as to the officer’s authority. If he fails to make enquiry, he cannot rely on the rule. Where the transaction is unusual or not in the ordinary course of business, it is the duty of the outsider to make the necessary enquiry.

The protection of the “Turquand Rule” is also not available where the circumstances surrounding the contract are suspicious and therefore invite inquiry. Suspicion should arise, 0 for example, from the fact that an officer is purporting to act in matter, which is apparently outside the scope of his authority.

Where, for example, as in the case of Anand Bihari Lai v. Dinshaw & Co., an accountant of a company transferred some property of the company in favour of Anand Bihari, who brought an action for the breach of contract against the company. The transfer was held by the Court to be void, since the power of transferring property could not be considered as within the apparent authority of an accountant.

Similarly, in the case of Haughton & Co. v. Nothard, Lowe & Wills Ltd. where a person holding directorship in two companies agreed to apply the money of one company in payment of the debt to other, the court said that it was something so unusual “that the plaintiff were v put upon inquiry to ascertain whether the persons making the contract had any authority in fact to make it.” Any other rule would “place limited companies without any sufficient reasons for so doing, at the mercy of any servant or agent who should purport to contract on their behalf.”

c. Forgery:
The doctrine of indoor management applies only to irregularities which might otherwise affect a transaction but it cannot apply to forgery which must be regarded as nullity. Forgery may in circumstances exclude the ‘Turquand Rule’. The only clear illustration is found in the Ruben v. Great Fingall Consolidated.

In this case, the Secretary of the company issued a share certificate in favour of Ruben, which apparently complied with company’s articles, as it was purported to be signed by 2 directors & secretary & it had company’s common seal affixed to it. In fact, the secretary had forged the signature of the directors and affixed the seal without any authority.

It was held that the certificate was not binding upon the company. Lord Loreburn held : “It is quite true that personal dealing with limited liability companies are not bound to inquire into their indoor management, but this doctrine which is well established, applied to irregularities which otherwise might affect genuine transaction. It cannot apply to a forgery”.

The plaintiff contended that whether the signature were genuine or forged was apart of the internal management, and therefore, the company should be estopped from denying genuineness of the document. But it was held, that the rule has never been extended to cover such a complete forgery.

CA Inter Taxation GST Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) – CA Inter Tax Study Material

CA Inter Taxation GST Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) – CA Inter Taxation Study Material is designed strictly as per the latest syllabus and exam pattern.

CA Inter Taxation GST Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) – CA Inter Taxation Study Material

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
GST Council has been established under ………. of the Constitution of India.
(a) Article 246
(b) Article 254
(c) Article 279
(d) Article 279A
Answer:
(d) Article 279A

Question 2.
At present, the ‘alcoholic liquor for human consumption’ is subjected to which of the following?
(a) GST
(b) State excise duty
(c) Central Sales Tax/Value Added Tax
(d) Article 279A
Answer:
(d) Article 279A

CA Inter Taxation GST Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 3.
Consequent to section 118 of the Finance Act, 2020, the section 2(114) of the CGST Act, 2017 has been amended. Which of the following Union Territories have been merged into a single Union Territory?
(i) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(ii) Lakshadweep
(iii) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
(iv) Daman and Diu
(v) Chandigarh
(vi) Ladakh
(a) (i)and(ii)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (v)and(vi)
(d) (i) and (iii)
Answer:
(b) (iii) and (iv)

Question 4.
The erstwhile state “Jammu and Kashmir” has been removed as state and framed into two Union Territories of Jammu and Kashmir and UT of Ladakh. Which of these two has its own legislative body?
(a) UT of Jammu and Kashmir
(b) UT of Ladakh
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) UT of Jammu and Kashmir

Question 5.
In accordance with Article 279A(9), the vote of the Central Government shall have a weightage of ………. of the total votes cast.
(a) One half
(b) One third
(c) One fourth
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) One third

Question 6.
The functions of GST Council include
(a) To decide policy matters
(b) To formulate principles for administration
(c) The implementation of GST
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 7.
As per section 2(52) of the CGST Act, 2017, the term “Goods” includes ………..
(a) Actionable claims
(b) Growing crops, Grass
(c) Every kind of movable property other than money and securities
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 8.
……….. Are consumption based taxes on goods and services
(a) Direct Taxes
(b) Indirect Taxes
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Indirect Taxes

Question 9.
Which of the following is an example of transaction in money under GST laws?
(a) Deposit of principal amount in bank
(b) Amount withdrawn from bank
(c) Exchange of ₹ 2,000 note for 10 notes of ₹ 200 (without consideration)
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

CA Inter Taxation GST Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 10.
The section 2(52) defines goods. Which of the following is not considered in this definition of ‘goods’?
(a) Sale of shares of unlisted company
(b) Sale of perishable items of goods
(c) Sale of lottery tickets
(d) Sale of old twenty five-paisa coin at ₹ 25
Answer:
(a) Sale of shares of unlisted company

Question 11.
Which of the following countries was the first to introduce GST?
(a) United States
(b) Britain
(c) Canada
(d) France
Answer:
(d) France

Question 12.
As per Schedule II of CGST Act, 2017, which of the following is a supply of services?
(a) Transfer of title in goods
(b) Title in goods to be passed in future, as per existing agreement
(c) Repairing of Mobile Phone
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Repairing of Mobile Phone

Question 13.
Which of the following has been omit-ted at the time of introduction of GST?
(a) Article 268(1)
(b) Article 268(2)
(c) Article 268A
(d) Article 269
Answer:
(c) Article 268A

Question 14.
Which of the following is not a supply of services?
(a) Renting of immovable property
(b) Payment of Non-Compete Fee by an ex-employee to his previous employer
(c) Repairing of Laptop
(d) Transfer of title in goods at a future date
Answer:
(d) Transfer of title in goods at a future date

Question 15.
………. was the first state to pass State GST Bill.
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Assam
(d) Telangana
Answer:
(d) Telangana

Question 16.
Which of the following transactions does not qualify as supply under GST law?
(a) Import of services by Suresh without consideration for the purposes of his business from his son “Mukesh” living outside India.
(b) Supplies made by the principal to his agent (registered) situated within the same State.
(c) Disposal of car without consideration (ITC has not been claimed)
(d) Supply of service by Head Office (Delhi) to its own branch situated in Mumbai
Answer:
(c) Disposal of car without consideration (ITC has not been claimed)

Question 17.
GST Council has its headquarters in
(a) Delhi
(b) Mumbai
(c) Madras
(d) Kolkata
Answer:
(a) Delhi

Question 18.
Considering the definition of exempt goods given under section 2(47) of CGST Act, 2017, which of the following is
treated as exempt supply?
(a) Supply of electricity
(b) Sale of liquor
(c) Supply of health care services
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 19.
Who amongst the following is the chairperson of GST Council?
(a) Union Finance Minister
(b) President
(c) State Finance Minister
(d) Prime Minister
Answer:
(a) Union Finance Minister

CA Inter Taxation GST Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 20.
Which of the following services received without consideration will not considered as supply under GST?
(a) Import of services by a person in India from his sister (wholly dependent on such person in India) in America
(b) Import of services by a person in India from his brother well-settled in Japan (Independent)
(c) Import of services by a person in India from his son (wholly dependent on such person in India) in China
(d) Import of services by a person in India from his son well-settled in Germany
Answer:
(b) Import of services by a person in India from his brother well-settled in Japan (Independent)

Question 21.
As per Article 279A, ……… Of the total number of members of GST Council shall constitute the quorum at its meetings?
(a) One third
(b) One half
(c) One fourth
(d) One tenth
Answer:
(b) One half

Question 22.
The Schedule III of CGST Act, 2017 specifies the transactions and activities which shall be neither treated as supply neither of goods nor as services. Which of the following will not be included in this category?
(a) Salary paid to director under em-ployment agreement
(b) Sitting fees to independent direc-tors for attending AGMs
(c) Payment to employee for providing broking services to the employer for purchase of commercial property. Such services do not form part of the employment contract entered into by the employer with the employee.
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Question 23.
The major reason for implementation of GST was:
(a) Plethora of taxes
(b) Plenty of taxable events
(c) Double taxation
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 24.
As per Government notification the services by way of transportation of passengers by a …….. shall be considered under section 9(5).
(a) Radio Taxi
(b) Motor Cab and maxi cab
(c) Motor Cycle
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 25.
Under GST, the final tax is borne by
(a) The end consumer
(b) The interim parties
(c) The supplier
(d) Partly by Government and balance by Supplier
Answer:
(a) The end consumer

Question 26.
Mr. Kamal is interested to opt for composition scheme. Which of the following goods can be supplied by Kamal under Composition scheme?
(a) Milk
(b) Aerated water
(c) Pan masala
(d) Tobacco
Answer:
(a) Milk

Question 27.
For intra-State sales, the GST is divided between Centre and the State in the ratio
(a) Equally
(b) 60:40
(c) 40:60
(d) 25:75
Answer:
(a) Equally

CA Inter Taxation GST Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 28.
Which of the following has been kept out of the GST levy?
(a) Generator
(b) Computer
(c) Jewellery
(d) Electricity
Answer:
(d) Electricity

Question 29.
Shiv Steels is a renowned furniture house. As a part of their business policy, the firm donated 5 office tables to charitable school. The ITC has been taken in respect of these goods. Under GST:
(a) It is supply of goods as per Schedule I
(b) It is supply of services as per Schedule I
(c) It is supply of goods as per Schedule II
(d) It is not supply as per Schedule III
Answer:
(a) It is supply of goods as per Schedule I

Question 30.
Mr. Vikas, a registered supplier of Himachal Pradesh, wants to opt for composition levy. The turnover limit for composition levy is
(a) ₹ 50 lakh
(b) ₹ 75 lakh
(c) ₹ 1.5 crore
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) ₹ 1.5 crore

Question 31.
In which of the following case, GST is payable by recipient of services?
(a) Services supplied by a recovering agent to ICICI Bank
(b) Insurance Agent services
(c) Services provided by way of sponsorship to Reliance Industries Ltd.
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 32.
When employer gifts goods to his employees, it will not be considered as taxable supply for the purpose of GST if the value of supply to an employee does not exceed:
(a) ₹ 5,000
(b) ₹ 20,000
(c) ₹ 50,000
(d) ₹ 1,00,000
Answer:
(c) ₹ 50,000

Question 33.
A hotel provides 5 days-4 nights pack-age wherein the facility of breakfast and dinner is provided along with the room accommodation. This supply is
(a) Composite Supply
(b) Mixed Supply
(c) Neither Composite nor Mixed Supply
(d) Both Composite and Mixed Supply
Answer:
(a) Composite Supply

Question 34.
A service would be called as “con-tinuous supply of service”, if the service under a contract is provided continuously or on recurrent basis exceeding:
(a) One year
(b) 6 months
(c) 3 months
(d) 1 month
Answer:
(c) 3 months

Question 35.
Mr. A of Delhi supplied goods to Mr. B of Chandigarh (Union-Territory). Which law will govern this transaction?
(a) CGST
(b) SGST
(c) UTGST
(d) IGST
Answer:
(d) IGST

Question 36.
The payment of tax by electronic operator who does not have physical presence in taxable territory in India be made by ………
(a) ECO himself
(b) His appointed representative in India
(c) The person who receives supply
(d) Either (a) or (b)
Answer:
(b) His appointed representative in India

Question 37.
A registered person of Delhi is buying and selling goods only in Puducherry. The applicable law for GST ¡n this case
will be:
(a) SGST & CGST
(b) UTGST&CGST
(c) SGST & UTGST
(d) IGST
Answer:
(a) SGST & CGST

Question 38.
Section 8 deals with taxability of Composite and Mixed Supplies. What would be the tax rate in case of Mixed Supply?
(a) Tax rate as applicable on supply attracting the lowest rate of tax
(b) Tax rate as applicable on supply attracting the highest rate of tax
(c) Flat rate@ 1896
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Tax rate as applicable on supply attracting the highest rate of tax

Question 39.
In case of Goods Transport Agency (GTA) services, tax Is to be paid under forward charge If:
(a) Services supplied to body corporate established under law (GST is payable @ 596)
(b) Services supplied to Casual Taxable Person located in taxable territory (GST is payable @ 5%)
(c) Services supplied to cooperative society established under law (GST is payable @ 5%)
(d) Services supplied to factory registered under Factories Act (GST is payable @ 12%)
Answer:
(d) Services supplied to factory registered under Factories Act (GST is payable @ 12%)

CA Inter Taxation GST Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 40.
Schedule I of CGST Act, 2017 deals with
(a) Supplies made with consideration
(b) Supplies made without consider-ation
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Supplies made with consideration

Question 41.
In which of the following cases, the RCM provision is optional subject to fulfilment of certain conditions?
(a) Services by director
(b) Recovery agent services
(c) Services by an author by way of transfer of copyright
(d) Services provided by business facilitator to a banking company
Answer:
(c) Services by an author by way of transfer of copyright

Question 42.
There are some products which have temporarily been kept out of GST and GST Council shall decide the date from which these shall be included in GST. These products are:
(a) Petroleum Crude
(b) High Speed Diesel & Motor Spirit
(c) Natural Gas and ATF
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 43.
Which of the following services does not fall under reverse charge provisions as contained under section 9(3) of the CGST Act?
(a) Services supplied by arbitral tribunal to business entity
(b) Sponsorship provided to any partnership firm
(c) Sponsorship provided to anybody corporate
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(d) None of the above

Question 44.
Which of the following activities are exempt from GST?
(a) Religious pilgrimage organised by Ajmer Charitable Trust.
(b) Milling of paddy into rice.
(c) Loading, packing and warehousing of jaggery and pulses.
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(d) None of the above

Question 45.
Sumit has opted for composition scheme in the financial year 2019-2020. His aggregate turnover in Financial Year 2018-2019 is ₹ 90 Lakh. In Financial Year 2019-2020, Mr. Sumit can supply services (other than restaurant services) up to a value
(a) ₹ 5,00,000
(b) ₹ 9,00,000
(c) ₹ 50,00,000
(d) Nil
Answer:
(b) ₹ 9,00,000

Question 46.
As per the amendment made in sec-tion 10 through CGST (Amendment) Act, 2017, a composition dealer can provide supply of services (other than restaurant services) not exceeding:

I. 10% of turnover in preceding finan-cial year
II. 10% of taxable supplies in preceding financial year
III. ₹ 5,00,000
IV. ₹ 10,00,000

(a) I or III, whichever is Lower
(b) I or III, whichever is Higher
(c) II or IV, whichever is Lower
(d) II or IV, whichever is Higher
Answer:
(a) I or III, whichever is Lower

CA Inter Taxation GST Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 47.
The following categories of registered persons are not being eligible for the Composition Scheme under the CGST Act, 2017:

(i) Supplier of the Restaurant Services
(ii) Manufacturer of notified goods
(iii) Non-resident taxable persons
(iv) Casual taxable person
(a) (iii) and (iv)
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv)
Answer:
(d) (i), (iii) and (iv)

Question 48.
As per Entry No. 17, service of transportation of passengers by ……….. is exempt from GST.
(a) Railway (Other than first class and AC)
(b) Metro, monorail and tramway
(c) Inland waterways
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 49.
A registered supplier under composi-tion levy can withdraw at any time and be required to file the Form for withdrawal from composition levy in :
(a) GST CMP-03
(b) GST CMP-04
(c) GST MIS-01
(d) GST PCT-02
Answer:
(b) GST CMP-04

Question 50.
Which of the following form of classical art or folk is included under exemption in Entry 78?
(a) Music
(b) Dance
(c) Theater
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 51.
Mr. Jethalal was registered taxpayer (in Delhi) under composition scheme during 2018-2019. His aggregate turnover in financial year 2018-2019 was ₹ 40,00,000. In view of Second Proviso inserted to section 10(1) w.e.f. 1 -4-2019, the taxpayer is willing to supply services in Financial Year 2019-2020. What is the maximum value of services (other than restaurant) which may be provided in such a manner so that he may continue to remain in composition scheme?
(a) ₹ 4,00,000
(b) ₹ 5,00,000
(c) ₹ 6,00,000
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) ₹ 5,00,000

Question 52.
For the purpose of eligibility for composition scheme, the following particulars are given:
(i) Intra-State supply of 46,00,000 NIL rated goods
(ii) Intra-state supplies 95,00,000 made under forward charge
(iii) Intra-state supplies of 9,00,000 exempted goods
(iv) Inward supplies of 4,00,000 goods on which tax is payable under RCM

The aggregate turnover is ……. And composition scheme is ………
(a) ₹ 1.5 Crore; available
(b) ₹ 1.5 Crore; Not available
(c) ₹ 1.54 Crore; Not available
(d) ₹ 1.54 Crore; Not available
Answer:
(a) ₹ 1.5 Crore; available

Question 53.
Mr. S, a manufacturer of medicines, whose turnover for financial year 2018-19 was of ₹ 1.2 Crore opted to pay under GST as per composition scheme from 1st April, 2019. His turnover crosses ₹ 1.5 Crore on 30th November, 2019. Will he be allowed to pay tax under composition scheme for the remainder of year i.e. from 1st December, 2019 to 31st March, 2020?
(a) Yes, he can avail the benefit till 31 st March, 2020
(b) No, the option availed shall lapse from the day on which his aggre-gate turnover during the financial year 2019-2020 exceeds ₹ 1.5 Crore
(c) Yes, the option can be availed up to completion of financial year i.e. till 30th September, 2019
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) No, the option availed shall lapse from the day on which his aggre-gate turnover during the financial year 2019-2020 exceeds ₹ 1.5 Crore

Question 54.
The supply of lottery is covered under reverse charge mechanism vide section 9(3), if the supplier of goods is …….
& recipient is ……….
I. State Government; Union Territory or any Local Authority
II. Lottery Distributor or selling agent
III. Registered person
IV. Manufacturer
(a) I; II
(b) I; III
(c) II; I
(d) I; IV
Answer:
(a) I; II

Question 55.
Which of the following services, subject to respective conditions, are covered under section 9(3) i.e. reverse charge mechanism?
I. Goods Transport Agency
II. Sponsorship Services
III. Services by Director
IV. Insurance Agent Services
V. Recovery Agent Services
VI. Services by business facilitator to a banking company
(a) I & II
(b) I, II & III
(c) I, II, III & IV
(d) All the six services
Answer:
(d) All the six services

Question 56.
What is the limit on consideration for exemption of services by way of right to admission to circus, dance or theater?
(a) ₹ 250 per person
(b) ₹ 500 per person
(c) ₹ 750 per person
(d) ₹ 1,000 per person
Answer:
(b) ₹ 500 per person

CA Inter Taxation GST Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 57.
Kapil and Jaithmalani are partners in a firm of advocates. The firm has provided legal professional services to the following:
I. An advocate of Delhi High Court
II. A firm of Five advocates
III. ABC Limited, a business entity whose turnover of the preceding year is more than ₹ 20 Lakhs
IV. Rakesh Kumar, an individual Out of above, which service(s) is/are not exempted and Reverse Charge Mechanism is applicable.
(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) IV
Answer:
(c) III

Question 58.
Kalyan Limited, a trader has aggre-gate turnover of outward supply up to 12th July, 2019 is ₹ 7,00,000. The company is under threshold limit, hence not registered under GST. Kalyan has taken sponsorship services from Mr. Rahul on 21 st July, 2019. Who is liable to pay GST on the amount of sponsorship services.
(a) Kalyan limited under reverse charge mechanism
(b) Mr. Rahul under forward charge mechanism
(c) Both Kalyan and Rahul
(d) It is exempt
Answer:
(a) Kalyan limited under reverse charge mechanism

Question 59.
Indusind bank located in Delhi, appointed Mr. Bahubali as a recovery agent for collecting outstanding balance amount of loan from a customer, Bal- labhdev. Bahubali provided service to the bank for which he charged ₹ 20,000 as fee. Who is liable to pay GST on ₹ 20,000?
(a) Bahubali
(b) Ballabhdev
(c) Indusind bank
(d) No one as it is exempt
Answer:
(c) Indusind bank

Question 60.
Which of the following service is not exempt under GST?
(a) Loading and unloading of tea bags
(b) Loading and unloading of sugar-cane
(c) Loading and unloading of paddy
(d) Loading and unloading of potato
Answer:
(a) Loading and unloading of tea bags

Question 61.
Tyagi Limited availed services of “Jaipur Golden”, (GTA) for transporta-tion of goods by road from warehouse (Delhi) to its factory (Delhi) and paid freight ₹ 2,40,000. Which of the following statement is true?
(a) If GTA pays tax @ 1296 with ITC, then GTA is liable to pay tax
(b) If GTA pays tax @ 1296 with ITC, then Tyagi Limited is liable to pay tax
(c) If GTA pays tax @ 596 without benefit of ITC, then GTA is liable to pay tax
(d) Irrespective of tax rate availed (z.e. with or without ITC)
Answer:
(a) If GTA pays tax @ 1296 with ITC, then GTA is liable to pay tax

Question 62.
The CGST (Amendment) Act, 2018 has amended section 9(4), which is ef-fective from 1-2-2019. As per amended provisions of section 9(4), the tax under reverse charge mechanism is payable:
I. By registered persons
II. By notified class of registered persons
III. By notified categories of intra-State supplies of goods and/or services
IV. On all intra-State supplies of goods and/or services
V. Received by such registered persons from any unregistered supplier
VI. Received by unregistered persons from registered supplier
(a) I, III and V
(b) I, IV and VI
(c) II, III and V
(d) II, IV and VI
Answer:
(a) I, III and V

Question 63.
On 4th September, 2019, A.R. Rehman, a famous music composer, received ₹ 4 Crore as consideration from T Series Limited for sale of copyright of his original music album “LARA”. Who is liable to pay GST?
(a) A.R. Rehman under forward charge mechanism
(b) A. R. Rehman under reverse charge mechanism
(c) T Series Limited under forward charge mechanism
(d) T Series Limited under forward charge mechanism
Answer:
(d) T Series Limited under forward charge mechanism

CA Inter Taxation GST Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 64.
Transportation of …….. by rail from Delhi to Haryana are exempt from GST.
(a) Defence equipments
(b) Organic manure
(c) Milk, salt and food grain
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 65.
Services by way of warehousing of …….. is exempt from
(a) processed coffee
(b) Processed tea
(c) Rice
(d) Jaggery
Answer:
(c) Rice

Question 66.
Services by way of admission to …….. are exempt from GST.
(a) Museum
(b) National park
(c) Tiger reserve
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 67.
Which of the following goods have been notified by the Government under reverse charge mechanism under section 9(3);
(a) Shelled cashew nuts
(b) Peeled cashew nuts
(c) Silk yarn
(d) Fabricated cotton
Answer:
(c) Silk yarn

Question 68.
G D Goenka school is an educational institution providing education up to higher secondary school. The school is covered under Entry No. 66. Identify which of the following services is not covered in exemption notification?
(a) Transportation of students, faculty and staff
(b) Catering services
(c) Cleaning services performed in such educational institution
(d) All of the above are exempt
Answer:
(d) All of the above are exempt

Question 69.
The time of supply in case of voucher is “time of issue of voucher”, if the supply is ……… against the voucher.
(a) Identifiable
(b) Not identifiable
(c) Variable
(d) Indecisive
Answer:
(a) Identifiable

CA Inter Taxation GST Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 70.
The Government has exempted the payment of tax by any taxable person on supply of footwear costing less than ₹ 100. It is
(a) Absolute Exemption
(b) Conditional Exemption
(c) Special Exemption
(d) Ancillary Exemption
Answer:
(b) Conditional Exemption

Question 71.
Mr. Kalakar is a famous painter registered under GST in UP. In an art exhibition organised by “Lalit Kala Academy” in Delhi, he sends his art work. The visitor is allowed to purchase any painting exhibited for cash immediately. Suppose, the painting of Mr. Kalakar is purchased by one visitor, then at what point of time, supply is considered to have been made under GST?
(a) When painting is completed by Mr. Kalakar
(b) When painting is sent from UP to Delhi for exhibition
(c) When painting is displayed at the exhibition by Lalit Kala Academy
(d) When painting is sold to one of the visitors in the exhibition
Answer:
(d) When painting is sold to one of the visitors in the exhibition

Question 72.
Mr. Krishna has received an advance of ₹ 1,00,000 from his client in respect of service to be provided. But, Mr. Krishna is not sure about the rate of tax and the nature of supply of this service, which will be determined at the time of provision of service only. What will be the rate of tax and nature of supply of a service?
(a) 10%, Inter-State supply
(b) 10%, Intra-State supply
(c) 18%, Inter-State supply
(d) 18%, Intra-State supply
Answer:
(c) 18%, Inter-State supply

Question 73.
Which of the following goods is not exempt from GST?
(a) Fish seed
(b) Ice Cream
(c) Pappad
(d) Plastic Bangles
Answer:
(b) Ice Cream

Question 74.
“GM Sales Ltd.” is a public limited company duly incorporated under the Companies Act, 2013 with its registered office in Delhi, where it ordinarily carries on its business of taxable goods. The company has a warehouse in NOID A for storage of such taxable goods. What will be the place of business of “GM Sales Ltd.” under GST laws?
(a) Delhi only
(b) NOIDA only
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Either (a) or (b)
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 75.
Transport of passengers by …….. Are exempt from GST.
(a) Railway in First Class
(b) Railway in an air conditioner coach
(c) Metro rail
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Metro rail

CA Inter Taxation GST Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 76.
Mr. Roshan Singh is employed as a full time teacher in a Government school in Ghaziabad, UP. He has to purchase a laptop for his son. He visited the computer market situated in Nehru Place, Delhi. At the time of purchase, the shopkeeper insisted on demand draft instead of cash. Mr. Roshan got the demand draft generated at State Bank of India, registered in Delhi against cash. Mr. Roshan does not have a bank account in State Bank of India. Determine the place of supply of service provided by State Bank of India, Delhi to Mr. Roshan.
(a) Ghaziabad
(b) Delhi
(c) Any of the above
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Delhi

Question 77.
What is the rate of interest as per Rule 37(3) applicable in case of reversal of ITC in case of non-payment of consideration within 180 days.
(a) 5% p.a.
(b) 10% p.a.
(c) 12% p.a.
(d) 18% p.a.
Answer:
(d) 18% p.a.

Question 78.
Which of the following services provided by Department of Posts are exempt from GST?
(a) Speed Post
(b) Life Insurance
(c) Express Parcel Posts
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(d) None of the above

Question 79.
The liability of taxable person, as reflected in the Electronic Liability Register can be paid through …………..
(a) Debit in Electronic Debit Ledger
(b) Credit in Electronic Debit Ledger
(c) Debit in Electronic Cash Ledger
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (c)

Question 80.
Select the goods not exempt from GST, out of the following:
(a) Puja Samagri
(b) Betel Leaves
(c) Precious Metal Bangles
(d) Hearing Aids
Answer:
(c) Precious Metal Bangles

CA Inter Taxation GST Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 81.
What is the threshold limit for registration under Notification No. 10/2019 dated 7-3-2019?
(a) ₹ 10 lakhs
(b) ₹ 20 lakhs
(c) ₹ 30 lakhs
(d) ₹ 40 lakhs
Answer:
(d) ₹ 40 lakhs

Question 82.
Mr. Amitabh Bachchan is the brand ambassador of GST in India. The con-sideration charged by him up to is
exempt vide entry No. 78.
(a) ₹ 75,000
(b) ₹ 1,50,000
(c) ₹ 2,50,000
(d) Nil (ie. 100% is taxable)
Answer:
(d) Nil (ie. 100% is taxable)

Question 83.
The section 30 of CGST Act, 2017 read with Rule 23 of CGST Rules, 2017 provide that an application for revocation of cancellation of registration can be made within …………….. days from the date of . ……………of the cancellation order
(a) 7, service
(b) 15, issue
(c) 30, service
(d) 45, issue
Answer:
(c) 30, service

Question 84.
The limit of nautical miles from base line of sea coast into the sea in order to determine the supply in territorial water as per section 9 of the IGST Act, 2017 is:
(a) Upto 7 nautical miles
(b) Upto 10 nautical miles
(c) Upto 12 nautical miles
(d) Upto 20 nautical miles
Answer:
(c) Upto 12 nautical miles

Question 85.
Which one of the following is inter-State supply?
(a) Supplier and Recipient are in same State
(b) Supplier and Recipient are in same Union Territory
(c) Supplier and Recipient are in different States/Union Territory
(d) All are intra-State supplies
Answer:
(c) Supplier and Recipient are in different States/Union Territory

CA Inter Taxation GST Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 86.
Mr. Ram supplied goods to Mr. Laxman. The invoice is dated 30-7-2018. Payment was received for the supply on 30-10-2018. The goods were dispatched on 5-8-2018. What is the time of supply under CGST Act?
(a) 5-8-2018
(b) 30-7-2018
(c) 30-10-2018
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) 30-7-2018

Question 87.
ABC Ltd. of Mumbai supplied goods to XYZ Ltd. of Delhi under a contract for the goods to be delivered at the factory of the buyers. Goods removed from the factory of ABC Ltd. on 09-08-2018 and were delivered in the factory of XYZ Ltd. of Delhi on 16-08-2018. Invoice for the supplies was raised by ABC Ltd. on 18-08-2018. Payment of the bill was received on 20-09-2018. The time of supply in this case under GST be taken as :
(a) 09-08-2018
(b) 16-08-2018
(c) 18-08-2018
(d) 20-09-2018
Answer:
(a) 09-08-2018

Question 88.
Section 12(6) prescribes that the time of supply to the extent it relates to an addition in the value of supply by way of interest, late fee or penalty for delayed payment of any consideration shall be the date on which ………
(a) the supplier receives such addition in value
(b) the supplier becomes entitled to such addition in value
(c) Earlier of (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) the supplier receives such addition in value

Question 89.
What is the time of supply of service if the invoice is not issued within 30 days from the date of provision of service?
(a) Date of issue of invoice
(b) Date on which the supplier receives payment
(c) Date of provision of service
(d) Earlier of (b) & (c)
Answer:
(d) Earlier of (b) & (c)

Question 90.
Allahabad Bank has provided the following detail in respect of a service provided by it.
1. Date of Supply of Ser- 6-12-2017 vices
2. Date of issue of Invoice 10-1-2018 (Within 45 days of provision of service)
3. Date of receipt of pay- 18-12-2017 ment
Determine the time of supply of service:
(a) 6-12-2017
(b) 10-1-2018
(c) 18-12-2017
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) 18-12-2017

Question 91.
Jindal Consultancy services, provides the following details:
CA Inter Taxation GST Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) – CA Inter Tax Study Material 1
CA Inter Taxation GST Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) – CA Inter Tax Study Material 2
Determine the time of supply of service:
(a) 16-12-2017
(b) 29-1-2018
(c) 1-2-2018
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) 16-12-2017

CA Inter Taxation GST Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 92.
Determine the time of supply from the following information:
CA Inter Taxation GST Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) – CA Inter Tax Study Material 3
(a) 4 May
(b) 4 June
(c) 12 June
(d) 3 July
Answer:
(b) 4 June

Question 93.
Discount given after the supply is deducted from the value of supply, if:
(a) Such discount is given as per the agreement entered into at/or be-fore the supply
(b) Such discount is linked to the relevant invoices
(c) Proportionate input tax credit is reversed by the recipient of supply
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 94.
Subsidy given by the Central Gov-ernment or a State Government while determining value of taxable supply under Goods and Services Tax (GST) as per section 15 of the CGST Act, 2017 :
(a) Included in the transaction value ie. (value of taxable supply)
(b) Just ignored no treatment
(c) Shall not be included in transaction value Le. (value of taxable supply)
(d) Deducted from the transaction value Le. (value of taxable supply)
Answer:
(c) Shall not be included in transaction value Le. (value of taxable supply)

Question 95.
Which of the following though shown in bill not be included in determining the value of supply for the purpose of GST?
(a) Packing
(b) Discount
(c) Interest for late payment
(d) Installation Charges
Answer:
(b) Discount

Question 96.
In respect of supplies notified by the Central Government, on the recommen-dation of GST Council, the valuation is done as per
(a) Section 15(5)
(b) Rule 32
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Both (a) & (b)

Question 97.
When supplier and recipient are related and price is NOT the sole con-sideration, the valuation is done as per:
(a) Section 15(1)/(2)/(3)
(b) Section 15(4) and Rules (27 to 31)
(c) Section 15(5) and Rule 32
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Section 15(4) and Rules (27 to 31)

CA Inter Taxation GST Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 98.
A film training Institute has subsi-dized its course on account of subsidies received. Which of the following shall be included in the value of supply?
(a) Subsidy from Cine Association, Mumbai
(b) Subsidy from US Government
(c) Subsidy from Warren Brothers of Hollywood
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 99.
Where a laptop is supplied for ₹ 40,000 along with the barter of a printer that is manufactured by the recipient and the value of the printer known at the time of supply is ₹ 4,000 but the open market value of the laptop is not known, the value of the supply of the laptop is ……….
(a) ₹ 44,000
(b) ₹ 40,000
(c) ₹ 6,000
(d) ₹ 4,000
Answer:
(a) ₹ 44,000

Question 100.
As per Notification No. 2/2017, the Supply of lottery is exempt from GST if:
(a) The Supplier of lottery is any person other than Government/Union territory/Local authority.
(b) The appropriate GST was paid when lottery was supplied by Government/Union territory/ Local authority to the authorized distributor.
(c) Both (a) and (b) conditions are satisfied
(d) No such condition is there
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b) conditions are satisfied

Question 101.
Shivani Enterprises has sold goods with list price ₹ 40,000 to a customer. A discount of 10% is given to the customer, which is reflected in invoice, to arrive at the final price of ₹ 36,000. The transaction value is ……….
(a) ₹ 40,000
(b) ₹ 36,000
(c) ₹ 44,000
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) ₹ 36,000

Question 102.
X Limited and Y Limited are related person as per explanation to section 15 of CGST Act, 2017. X Limited sold goods to Y Limited at ₹ 80,000. The similar goods are sold by X Limited in the open market at ₹ 1,25,000. Is the valuation possible as per section 15? Also find out the transaction value as per the applicable provisions:
(a) Yes, ₹ 1,25,000
(b) No, ₹ 1,25,000
(c) Yes, ₹ 80,000
(d) No, ₹ 80,000
Answer:
(b) No, ₹ 1,25,000

Question 103.
“Santosh Interiors” have charged ₹ 3,77,600 from their client in respect of services provided in the month of Febru-ary, 2018. The rate of GST is 18%. The amount ₹ 3,77,600 is inclusive of GST and Tax has not been shown separately in the invoice. Determine the amount of total Tax included in invoice:
(a) ₹ 3,77,600
(b) ₹ 2,15,000
(c) ₹ 65,000
(d) ₹ 57,600
Answer:
(d) ₹ 57,600

Question 104.
The selling price of a notebook is ₹ 50. For notebooks sold to students in Government schools, a company uses its CSR funds to pay the seller ₹ 30, so that the students pay only ₹ 20 per note book.
The value of the notebook will be ……….., as this is a non-government subsidy.
(a) ₹ 20
(b) ₹ 30
(c) ₹ 50
(d) ₹ 80
Answer:
(c) ₹ 50

CA Inter Taxation GST Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 105.
A supply priced at ₹ 10,000 is made, with a credit period of 1 month for payment. Thereafter interest of 12% is charged. The payment is received after the lapse of three months from the date of supply. The amount of 12% p.a. (i.e. 1 % per month) on ₹ 10,000 for two months after the free credit period is ₹ 300. Such interest will be to the value.
(a) Added
(b) Deducted
(c) Added at 50%
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Added

Question 106.
The amount of ITC shall be
(a) Credited to the Electronic Cash Ledger
(b) Credited to the Electronic Credit Ledger
(c) Debited to the Electronic Cash Ledger
(d) Debited to the Electronic Credit Ledger
Answer:
(b) Credited to the Electronic Credit Ledger

Question 107.
As per section 16(1) of CGST Act, 2017, ITC is available:
I. Only to registered person
II. Only to unregistered person
III. Both registered and unregistered person
IV. Supplies are used in the course or furtherance of business
V. Supplies are intended to be used in the course or furtherance of business
VI. No condition of use of supply in business
Which of the following combination is correct?
(a) I, IV & V
(b) II, V & V
(c) III, IV, V& VI
(d) I, IV & VI
Answer:
(a) I, IV & V

Question 108.
If the goods are received in lots/ instalment,………
(a) 50% of ITC can be taken on receipt of 1st instalment and balance 50% on receipt of last instalment
(b) ITC can be availed upon receipt of last instalment
(c) 100% ITC can be taken on receipt of 1st Instalment
(d) Proportionate ITC can be availed on receipt of each lot/instalment
Answer:
(b) ITC can be availed upon receipt of last instalment

Question 109.
As per section 16(2) of CGST Act, 2017, the registered person is entitled to the credit of any Input Tax Credit on fulfilment of conditions:
I. Possession of Tax Invoice or Debit Note
II. Receipt of goods and services
III. Payment of tax to the Government
IV. Filing of valid return under section 39
V. Filing of valid return under section
VI. Payment of invoice by recipient to supplier
(a) I & II
(b) I, II, III & IV
(c) I, II, III & V
(d) I, III, V&VI
Answer:
(b) I, II, III & IV

Question 110.
As per second Proviso to section 16(2) of CGST Act, 2017, the time limit to pay the value of supply with taxes to avail the ITC is:
(a) 3 months
(b) 6 months
(c) 180 days
(d) Till the date of filing of Annual Return
Answer:
(c) 180 days

Question 111.
Where the registered person has claimed depreciation on the ……. Of the Capital Goods, ITC shall not be allowed.
(a) Cost
(b) Tax component of cost
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Tax component of cost

CA Inter Taxation GST Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 112.
ABC Limited purchased a machine for ₹ 10,00,000 plus GST @ 18%. It has been capitalized in the books at ₹ 11,80,000 (i.e. inclusive of GST paid). Accordingly, the depreciation was claimed @ 15% on ₹ 11,80,000 under the Income Tax Act. What is the amount of ITC to be allowed?
(a) ₹ 1,80,000
(b) 15% of ₹ 1,80,000
(c) 85% of ₹ 1,80,000
(d) ITC will not be allowed
Answer:
(d) ITC will not be allowed

Question 113.
A manufacturer takes deduction of depreciation on the GST component of the cost of capital goods as per Income- tax Act, 1961. The manufacturer
(a) Can avail only 25% of the said tax component as ITC
(b) Can avail only 50% of the said tax component as ITC
(c) Can avail only 100% of the said tax component as ITC
(d) Cannot avail ITC on the said tax component
Answer:
(d) Cannot avail ITC on the said tax component

Question 114.
If debit note is issued in respect of an invoice subsequently, in the next financial year, ……. will be relevant in
determining the time limit.
(a) Date of invoice
(b) Date of debit note
(c) Date of debit note, if issued within 6 months
(d) Time limit is one year after the issue of debit note
Answer:
(a) Date of invoice

Question 115.
If the payment is not made by the re -cipient to the supplier within …….. from the date of invoice, then the taxpayer needs to reverse the credit already taken.
(a) 45 Days
(b) 90 Days
(c) 180 Days
(d) 200 Days
Answer:
(c) 180 Days

Question 116.
What is the time limit for reclaiming ITC reversed due to non-payment within 180 days?
(a) 3 months
(b) 1 financial year
(c) 2 financial years
(d) No time limit, as section 16(4) is not applicable in this case
Answer:
(d) No time limit, as section 16(4) is not applicable in this case

Question 117.
Mukesh purchased goods for the business, in respect of which ITC ad-missible is ₹ 36,000. 20% of such goods have been used for personal purposes, 60% sold and 20% goods are still lying in godown. Considering section 17(1) of CGST Act, ITC will be available for
(a) ₹ 36,000
(b) 20% of ₹ 36,000
(c) 60% of ₹ 36,000
(d) 8096 of ₹ 36,000
Answer:
(d) 8096 of ₹ 36,000

CA Inter Taxation GST Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 118.
The turnover of taxable and exempt-ed goods are ₹ 6,00,000 and ₹ 4,00,000 respectively. The common inputs on which GST paid is ₹ 1,08,000. The common inputs on which GST paid is ₹ 1,08,000. The eligible ITC on common input as per section 17(2) is:
(a) ₹ 1,08,000
(b) 6096 of ₹ 1,08,000
(c) 4096 of ₹ 1,08,000
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) 6096 of ₹ 1,08,000

Question 119.
What is the time limit for availing the ITC, as given in section 16(4)
(a) Due date of furnishing of return under section 39 for the month of September following the end of financial year to which such invoice or invoice relating to such debit note pertains
(b) Furnishing of the relevant Annual Return
(c) Earlier of (a) or (b)
(d) Later of (a) or (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Earlier of (a) or (b)

Question 120.
Determine the amount of ITC, available to ABC Bank as per section 17(4)
CA Inter Taxation GST Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) – CA Inter Tax Study Material 4
(a) ₹ 10,00,000
(b) ₹ 15,50,000
(c) ₹ 17,00,000
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) ₹ 10,00,000

Question 121.
ITC on aircraft purchased by an aviation school providing training on flying aircraft is ………
(a) Allowed
(b) Allowed but 8096 only
(c) Allowed but 5096 only
(d) Not allowed
Answer:
(a) Allowed

Question 122.
A company has paid for membership of a health club Centre for employees. The related ITC is
(a) Allowed, if provided by employer to its employees under statutory obligation
(b) Allowed, if it is provided by others working in the same industry
(c) Not allowed, in case it is provided under voluntary move
(d) Not Allowed, in any case
Answer:
(a) Allowed, if provided by employer to its employees under statutory obligation

Question 123.
Raj & Co., applied for voluntary registration under CGST Act, 2017 on 5th July, 2017 and the registration was granted on 15th July, 2017. Raj & Co., was having the stock available against the invoices for a period of 3 months old. Raj & Co., shall be eligible for input tax credit on such stock as held as on :
(a) 30th June, 2017
(b) 5th July, 2017
(c) 15th July, 2017
(d) 14th July, 2017
Answer:
(d) 14th July, 2017

CA Inter Taxation GST Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 124.
Capital goods were brought in the factory on 1-10-2017 worth 110,00,000 on which IGST of 18% was paid. These capital goods were sold at 17,80,000 on 2-2-2019. The ITC to be reversed is
(a) Nil
(b) ₹ 1,26,000
(c) ₹ 1,40,000
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) ₹ 1,40,000

Question 125.
Calculate the amount of ITC avail able from the following Information:
CA Inter Taxation GST Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) – CA Inter Tax Study Material 5
The above ITC includes ITC on input and input services used:
(a) Exclusively for Non-Business Purpose = ₹ 70,000
(b) Exclusively for Exempt Supplies = ₹ 30,000
(a) ₹ 3,00,000
(b) ₹ 4,80,000
(c) ₹ 4,10,000
(d) ₹ 3,80,000
Answer:
(d) ₹ 3,80,000

Question 126.
X Limited purchased goods on 20-2-20 18. A debit note was issued in respect of the same invoice on 7-4-2018. The last date for claiming ITC will be:

I. Due date of furnishing of return under section 39 for the month of September following financial year 2017-20 18
II. Due date of furnishing of return under section 39 for the month of September following financial year 2018-2019
III. Furnishing of the Annual return for financial year 2017-20 18
IV. Furnishing of the Annual return
for financial year 2018-2019
(a) Earlier of I & III
(b) Later of I & III
(c) Earlier of II & IV
(d) Later of II & IV
Answer:
(a) Earlier of I & III

Question 127.
Determine the amount of ITC admissible to XYZ Limited in respect of following:
CA Inter Taxation GST Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) – CA Inter Tax Study Material 6
CA Inter Taxation GST Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) – CA Inter Tax Study Material 7
(a) 36,900
(b) 35,900
(c) 33,500
(a) 30,500
Answer:
(c) 33,500

Question 128.
Mr Kamal becomes liable to registration on 25th October, 2018. Accordingly, he has applied for GST registration
on 7th November, 2018. As per section 18(1)(a), Kamal shall be eligible for ITC on Inputs held in stock as on:
(a) 24th October
(b) 25th October
(c) 26th October
(d) 7th November
Answer:
(a) 24th October

CA Inter Taxation GST Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 129.
CA Inter Taxation GST Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) – CA Inter Tax Study Material 8
What is the amount of ITC available as per section 18(1)(a)?
(a) ₹ 1,00,000
(b) ₹ 76,000
(c) ₹ 38,000
(D) ₹ 86,000
Answer:
(b) ₹ 76,000

Question 130.
KMB limited is a registered person engaged in supply of goods which are ex-empt from tax. On 22-6-2018, exemption notification was rescinded and the goods become liable for tax. Determine the eligible credit in respect of capital goods purchased on 4-12-2017 for ₹ 7,00,000 plus GST @ 12%. These capital goods have been exclusively used in supplying exempted goods. What is the amount of ITC available on capital goods?
(a) ₹ 84,000
(b) ₹ 71,400
(c) ₹ 12,600
(d) ₹ 7,00,000
Answer:
(b) ₹ 71,400

Question 131.
When a person under regular scheme changes to composition scheme, he shall pay an amount by way of debit in the Electronic Credit Ledger or Electronic cash ledger, equivalent to credit of input tax in respect of inputs held in stock and inputs contained in semi-finished stock and on capital goods on the:
(a) Day preceding the date of exercising such option
(b) Date of exercising such option
(c) Day after the date of exercising such option
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Day preceding the date of exercising such option

Question 132.
Mr. A bought a machinery for ₹ 1,00,000 on which IGST was paid @ 18% (i.e. ₹ 18,000). After use of machine for 3 years, 7 months and 15 days. Mr. A decided to convert from normal to composition scheme. The amount to be reversed in this case is :
(a) ₹ 18,000
(b) ₹ 4,800
(c) ₹ 9,000
(d) ₹ 4,000
Answer:
(b) ₹ 4,800

Question 133.
Mohan is registered under normal scheme in GST. He wants to shift from normal scheme to composition scheme. At the time of exercise of such option, the machine has already been used for 4 years, 8 months and 2 days. The ITC taken at the time of purchase of machine was ₹ 2,10,000. How much ITC needs to be reversed in respect of this machine (capital goods)?
(a) ₹ 2,10,000
(b) ₹ 1,05,000
(c) ₹ 21,000
(d) ₹ 10,500
Answer:
(d) ₹ 10,500

Question 134.
When a person under regular scheme changes to composition scheme, the ITC in respect of inputs held in stock, inputs contained in semi-finished and finished goods held in stock and capital goods (subject to deduction) is reversed. After reversing the ITC so calculated, the balance in the credit of Electronic Credit ledger will ………
(a) Be refunded
(b) Be adjusted for other business vertical
(c) Be lapsed
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Be lapsed

Question 135.
Dev Anand becomes liable to pay tax on 15-7-2019 and has applied for registration on 19-7-2019. He obtained registration on 24-7-2019. As per section 18(1 )(d), Dev is entitled to take credit of input tax paid in respect of inputs held in stock, inputs contained in finished and semi-finished goods held in stock on:
(a) 14-7-2019
(b) 15-7-2019
(c) 16-7-2019
(d) 24-7-2019
Answer:
(a) 14-7-2019

CA Inter Taxation GST Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 136.
Shashi acquired a capital asset on 1-11-2017, at a cost of ₹ 4,00,000 plus GST @ 18%. He used this machinery
for production of exempt supplies only. On 15-5-2019, his supplies becomes taxable. As per section 18(1)(d) ………. will be available as ITC on capital goods.
(a) ₹ 72,000
(b) ₹ 25,200
(c) ₹ 46,800
(d) ₹ 36,000
Answer:
(c) ₹ 46,800

Question 137.
Radhey & Company registered sup-plier paying GST under regular scheme had made inter-State Taxable Supply of ₹ 8,00,000 and intra-State Taxable Supply of ₹ 6,00,000 chargeable under CGST, SGST, and IGST at the rates of 9%, 9% and 18% respectively. He is having available amount of ITC under CGST of ₹ 30,000 and under SGST of ₹ 20,000. Supplies made are exclusive of taxes. Amount of the total tax payable as CGST, SGST and IGST after availing the amount of ITC by Radhey & Company on such supplies shall be of ₹ ………
(a) 2,30,000
(b) 2,00,000
(c) 2,02,000
(d) 2,26,000
Answer:
(c) 2,02,000

Question 138.
Consider the following:
CA Inter Taxation GST Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) – CA Inter Tax Study Material 9
What would be the balance in ITC to be carried forward after utilisation as per sections 49, 49A, 49B and Rule 88A
(a) ₹ 64,000 (IGST), ₹ 10,000 (CGST) and ₹ 08,000 (SGST)
(b) ₹ 04,000 (IGST), ₹ 40,000 (CGST) and ₹ 38,000 (SGST)
(c) ₹ 34,000 (IGST), ₹ 40,000 (CGST) and ₹ 08,000 (SGST)
(d) ₹ 34,000 (IGST), ₹ 10,000 (CGST) and ₹ 38,000 (SGST)
Answer:
(b) ₹ 04,000 (IGST), ₹ 40,000 (CGST) and ₹ 38,000 (SGST)

Question 139.
Mr. Pankaj of Delhi supplied goods to Mr. Krishna of Delhi for ₹ 1 lakh, on which total GST was charged @ 12%. Mr. Krishna, after purchase of goods, added 20% margin of profit (on cost) and sold the entire goods to Mr. Ravi of Delhi. The total amount of tax payable after claiming input tax on such transaction by Mr. Krishna is :
(a) ₹ 12,000
(b) ₹ 14,400
(c) ₹ 2,400
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) ₹ 12,000

Question 140.
Consider the following:
CA Inter Taxation GST Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) – CA Inter Tax Study Material 10
Considering the changes made vide the j Central GST (Amendment) Act, 2018, what would be the balance of IGST, CGST & SGST to be carried forward?
(a) ₹ 4,00,000 (IGST), ₹ Nil (CGST) and ₹ Nil (SGST)
(b) ₹ 2,36,000 (IGST), ₹ 65,000 (CGST) and ₹ Nil (SGST)
(c) ₹ 72,000 (IGST), ₹ 65,000 (CGST) and ₹ 48,000 (SGST)
(d) ₹ Nil (IGST), ₹ Nil (CGST) and ₹ Nil (SGST)
Answer:
(c) ₹ 72,000 (IGST), ₹ 65,000 (CGST) and ₹ 48,000 (SGST)

Question 141.
Consider the following:
CA Inter Taxation GST Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) – CA Inter Tax Study Material 11
Considering the changes made vide the Central GST (Amendment) Act, 2018, what would be the amounts of IGST, CGST & SGST payable through Cash Ledger?
(a) ₹ 6,90,000 (IGST), ₹ 3,10,000 (CGST) and ₹ 4,00,000 (SGST)
(b) ₹ Nil (IGST), ₹ 4,30,000 (CGST) and ₹ 4,00,000 (SGST)
(c) ₹ Nil (IGST), ₹ 3,10,000 (CGST) and ₹ 7,90,000 (SGST)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) ₹ 6,90,000 (IGST), ₹ 3,10,000 (CGST) and ₹ 4,00,000 (SGST)

CA Inter Taxation GST Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 142.
Section 2(6) of the CGST/SGST jg Act, 2017 defines aggregate turnover H which is being computed on all India basis excluding the taxes charged under CGST Act, SGST Act, UTGST Act and IGST Act. Aggregate turnover shall include all supplies made by a taxable person comprising of:
I. Taxable supply
II. Exempt supply
III. Export of goods
IV. All Inter-State supply of persons having same PAN
V. Inward supply on which tax is levied on reverse charge basis
VI. Value of all inward supply
(a) I, III, IV and V
(b) I, III, IV and VI
(c) I, II, III and IV
(d) All the above (I to VI)
Answer:
(d) All the above (I to VI)

Question 143.
Consider the following information:
CA Inter Taxation GST Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) – CA Inter Tax Study Material 12
Find out the value of aggregate turnover as per Explanation I of section 22 of CGST Act, 2017?
(a) ₹ 1,90,000
(b) ₹ 8,00,000
(c) ₹ 9,90,000
(d) ₹ 12,90,000
Answer:
(a) ₹ 1,90,000

Question 144.
Section 24 of the CGST Act, 2017 lists categories of persons who are re-quired to take registration even if they are not covered under section 22 of the Act. Find out from the following categories of persons who are being required to take registration as per section 24 of the CGST Act, 2017:
I. Casual Taxable Person
II. Non-resident Taxable Person
III. Recipient of service under Reverse Charge
IV. Inter-State supplier
V. Input service distributor
(a) I, III and V
(b) I, II, IV and V
(c) I, III and V
(d) All the persons in I to V
Answer:
(d) All the persons in I to V

Question 145.
State which shall be taken as the effective date of registration as per CGST Act, 2017 where the aggregate turnover of Madhur company engaged in supply of taxable services in the State of Rajasthan exceeded ₹ 20 Lakh during the year on 25th September, 2017, the application for registration under GST was filed on 19th October, 2017 and the registration certificate was granted on 29th October, 2017 by the authority:
(a) 25-9-20 17
(b) 19-10-2017
(c) 24-10-2017
(d) 29-10-2017
Answer:
(a) 25-9-20 17

Question 146.
For CTP & NRTP, registration is required compulsorily at least …….. Prior to commencement of business.
(a) 5 days
(b) 9 days
(c) 1 days
(d) 14 days
Answer:
(a) 5 days

Question 147.
The GST system is based on electronic networking. Under GST, invoices may be issued:
(a) Manually
(b) Electronically
(c) Any of (a) or (b)
(d) Electronic issue of invoice is mandatory
Answer:
(c) Any of (a) or (b)

CA Inter Taxation GST Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 148.
Debit Note is issued by the supplier of goods when:
(a) Tax charged in the invoice is excessive
(b) When the goods are returned by the recipient
(c) Tax charged is less than the tax payable
(d) When the goods supplied are deficient
Answer:
(c) Tax charged is less than the tax payable

Question 149.
Where at the time of receipt of advance, the rate of tax of supply is not determinable, then tax shall be paid at the rate of ………..
(a) 12%
(b) 18%
(c) 24%
(d) 28%
Answer:
(b) 18%

Depreciation – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material

Depreciation – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material

Depreciation – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material is designed strictly as per the latest syllabus and exam pattern.

Depreciation – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material

Question 1.
Meaning of depreciation.
Answer:
Meaning of depreciation:
An expenditure which results into enduring benefit (long-term benefit) are treated as capital expenditure/fixed assets. Fixed assets are those assets which are held for use in the business and not for sale or consumption in the course of production.

Fixed assets which have a limited useful life are known as depreciable assets like, building, plant and machinery, etc. land is a non-depreciable asset. Revenue expenses are charged to the years P&L a/c similarly depreciable fixed assets should be charged over (written off) over its useful life.

This process of systematically allocating depreciable amount (cost less estimated scrap value) to the P&L accounts over its useful life is known as depreciation accounting. Amortization of assets which has specific life like patents etc. is also included in it.
1. Depreciation is the reduction in the value of fixed assets due to:

  • its use,
  • passage of time and
  • obsolescence.

2. Depreciation is the apportionment of cost of asset net of estimated scrap value over its estimated useful life.

Question 2.
Sum of Years of Digits Method.
Answer:
Sum of Years of Digits Method:
In this method the depreciation is calculated in the ratio of the remaining life of the asset in the beginning of that year to the sum of digits of the life remaining for all the year.
Depreciation – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material 1

Question 3.
Depletion method
Answer:
Depletion method:

  • This method is followed in case of exhaustive (wasting) assets example mines.
  • For charging depreciation on such item the life of the Asset (lease period) is not very important because it can be used (i.e, Mineral can be extracted) only till it contains minerals.
  • As soon as the mineral is exhausted the mine becomes useless.
  • Therefore depreciation is calculated in proportion of the mineral extracted in a particular year to the total extractable mineral contained in it.
  • Depreciation – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material 2

Question 4.
On 1.1.03 machinery was purchased for ₹ 80,000. On 1.7.04 addition were made to the amount of ₹ 40,000. On 31.3.05 machine purchased on 1.7.04 costing ₹ 12,000 was sold for ₹ 11,000 & on 30.6.05 machinery purchased on 1.1.03 costing ₹ 32,000 was sold for ₹ 26,700. On 1.10.05 addition were made to the amount of ₹ 20,000. Show Machinery a/c & Depreciation a/c for 3 years 2003, 04, 05. Depreciate Machinery at 10% p.a. by W.D.V. method.
Solution:
Machinery A/c (W.D.V. 10%)
Depreciation – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material 3
Depreciation a/c
Depreciation – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material 4
Working notes
Depreciation – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material 5
Depreciation : Calculation by SLM and Accounting by credit to Asset a/c.

Question 5.
On 1.1.03 machinery was purchased for ₹ 80,000. On 1.7.04 addition were made to the amount of ₹ 40,000. On 31.3.05 machine purchased on 1.7.04 costing ₹ 12,000 was sold for ₹ 11,000 & on 30.6.05 machinery purchased on 1.1.03 costing ₹ 32,000 was sold for ₹ 26,700. On 1.10.05 addition were made to the amount of ₹ 20,000. Show Machinery a/c & Depreciation a/c for 3 years 2003, 04, 05. Depreciate Machinery at 10% p.a. by S.L.M.
Solution:
Machinery A/c (SLM 10%)
Depreciation – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material 6
Depreciation a/c
Depreciation – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material 7
Working notes
Depreciation – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material 8
Depreciation : Calculation by WDV and Accounting by credit to Depreciation Provision a/c.

Depreciation – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material

Question 6.
On 1.1.03 machinery was purchased for ₹ 80,000. On 1.7.04 addition were made to the amount of ₹ 40,000. On 31.3.05 machine purchased on 1.7.04 costing ₹ 12,000 was sold for t 11,000 & on 30.6.05 machinery purchased on 1.1.03 costing t 32,000 was sold for ₹ 26,700. On 1.10.05 addition were made to the amount of ₹ 20,000. Show Machinery a/c, Depreciation provision a/c and Asset disposal a/c for 3 years 2003, 04, 05. Depreciate Machinery at 1096 p.a. by W.D.V. method.
Solution:
Machinery Account
Depreciation – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material 9
Provision for Depreciation Account (WDV 10%)
Depreciation – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material 10
Depreciation a/c
Depreciation – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material 11
Asset Disposal Account
Depreciation – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material 12
Depreciation upto the date of disposal is directly credited to asset disposal a/c alternatively it can be routed through depreciation provision a/c.

Similarly asset sold can be accounted through asset Disposal account in earlier Question also.

Depreciation : Calculation by SLM and Accounting by credit to Depreciation Provision a/c.

Question 7.
On 1.1.96 machinery was purchased for ₹ 80,000. On 1.7.97 addition were made to the amount of ₹ 40,000. On 31.3.98 machine purchased on 1.7.97 costing ₹ 12,000 was sold for ₹ 11,000 & on 30.6.98 machinery purchased on 1.1.96 costing ₹ 32,000 was sold for ₹ 26,700. On 1.10.98 addition were made to the amount of ₹ 20,000.
Show Machinery a/c & Depreciation provision a/c for 3 years 96, 97, 98. Depreciate Machinery at 10% p.a. by S.L.M.
Solution:
Machinery Account
Depreciation – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material 13

Alternatively sale of asset can be routed through asset disposal a/c as done in earlier question.
Provision for Depreciation Account (SLM 10%)
Depreciation – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material 14
Depreciation a/c
Depreciation – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material 15

Question 8.
On 1st January, 2002 Hari Om purchased 6 machines for ₹ 15,000 each. His accounting year ends on 31st December. Depreciation at the rate of 10% on initial cost has been charged to profit and loss account and credited to a separate depreciation provision account.

On 1st January, 2003 one machine was sold for ₹ 12,500 and on 1st January, 2004 a second machine was sold for ₹ 12,500. An improved model which cost ₹ 28,000 was purchased on 1st July, 2003. The same rate of depreciation was decided for the new machine was well. You are required to show:
1. The asset account
2. The asset disposal account
3. The depreciation provision account.
Solution:
Ledger of Hari Om
Machinery Account
Depreciation – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material 16
Note: The balance in the asset account at any time represents the cost of assets retained by the firm.
Machinery Disposal Account
Depreciation – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material 17
Note: Machinery disposal account is not a continuous account like machinery account. It must be prepared separately for each year.

Provision for Depreciation Account (SLM 10%)
Depreciation – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material 18
Note : The balance in the provision account at any time shows the balance of accumulated depreciation in respect of retained assets.

Working of depreciation

(1) On ₹ 75,000 (₹ 90,000 – ₹ 15,000) @ 10% per annum

On ₹ 28,000 @ 10% p.a. for 6 months

Depreciation for the year 2003

(2) On ₹ 60,000 (₹ 75,000 – ₹ 15,000) @ 10% p.a.

On ₹ 28,000 @ 10% p.a. for one year

Depreciation for the year 2004

7,500

1,400

8,900
6,000
2,800
8,8000

Depreciation – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material

Question 9.
A purchased on 1st January, 2002 certain machinery for ₹ 1,94,000 and spent ₹ 6,000 on its erection. On 1st July, 2002 additional machinery costing ₹ 1,00,000 was purchased. On 1st July, 2004 the machinery purchased on 1st January, 2002 having become obsolete was auctioned for ₹ 1,00,000 and on the same date new machinery was purchased at a cost of ₹ 1,50,000.

Depreciation was provided for annually on 31st December at the rate of 10% per annum on the original cost of the machinery. No depreciation need be provided when a machinery is sold or auctioned, for that part of the year in which sale or auction took place. But for the above, depreciation shall be provided on time basis. In 2005, however, A changed this method of providing depreciation and adopted the method of writing off 15% p.a. on the written down value on the balance as appeared in machinery account on 1-1-2005.

Show the machinery account for the calendar years 2002 to 2005. (certain matter is underlined by the author for the attention of the student which indicates the prospective change)
Solution:
Machinery A/c
Depreciation – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material 19
New method to be applied on the balance appearing as on 1.1.2005 as given in the question in the last sentence, as prospective change.

Question 10.
Cost of Machine = ₹ 20,000
Scrap Value = ₹ 2,000
Estimated life = 5 years
Calculate depreciation of all the years on the basis of Sum of Years of Digits Method.
Solution:
Depreciation – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material 20

Question 11.
Mr. A purchased a Plant costing 160,000 on 1 st January, 2015. He purchased another Plant for ₹ 50,000 on 1st July in the same year. On 1st October 2016, he sold 1/3rd part of 1st Plant for ₹ 11,000 and purchased another Plant for ₹ 30,000 on the same date. Prepare Plant A/c for three years in the following cases:
Case I- If rate of depreciation is 10% p.a. on SLM
Case II- If rate of depreciation is 10% p.a. on WDV
Solution:
Case I:
Working Note:
Depreciation – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material 21
Plant Account:
Depreciation – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material 22

Case II:
Working Note:
Depreciation – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material 23

Plant Account:
Depreciation – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material 24

Question 12.
A Plant & Machinery costing ₹10,00,000 is depreciated on straight line assuming 10 year working life and zero residual value, for four years. At the end of the fourth year, the machinery was revalued upwards by ₹ 40,000. The remaining useful life was reassessed at 8 years. Calculate Depreciation for the fifth year.
Solution:
Depreciation per year = \(\frac{10,00,000}{10}\) = ₹ 1,00,000
Depreciation – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material 25

Question 13.
A Firm purchased an old Machinery for ₹ 37,000 on 1st January, 2015 and spent ₹ 3,000 on its overhauling. On 1st July 2016, another machine was purchased for ₹ 10,000. On 1st July 2017, the machinery which was purchased on 1st January 2015, was sold for ₹ 28,000 and the same day a new machinery costing ₹ 25,000 was purchased. On 1st July, 2018, the machine which was purchased on 1st July, 2016 was sold for ₹ 2,000.

Depreciation is charged @10% per annum on straight line method. The firm changed the method and adopted diminishing balance method with effect from 1st January, 2016 and the rate was increased to 15% per annum. The books are closed on 31st December every year.
Prepare Machinery account for four years from 1st January, 2015.
Solution:
Machinery Account
Depreciation – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material 26

Working Notes:
Depreciation – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material 27

True or False

Question 1.
Land is also a depreciable asset.
Answer:
False: Land is not a depreciable asset because it does not qualify for depreciation as per AS-10.

Question 2.
Depreciation is a cash expenditure like other normal expenses.
Answer:
False: Depreciation is a non-cash expenditure because it does not involve any cash outflow.

Question 3.
Depreciation is an amortised expenditure.
Answer:
True: Depreciation is charged on value of fixed asset over its useful life. So, by way of depreciation any capital expenditure is amortised over its useful life.

Depreciation – CA Foundation Accounts Study Material

Question 4.
Depreciation cannot be provided in case of loss, in a financial year.
Answer:
False: Depreciation is a charge against profit so it has to be provided for whether there is a profit or loss in a financial year of the business.

Question 5.
Depreciable amount refers to the difference between historical cost and the market value of an asset.
Answer:
False: Depreciable amount refers to historical cost less salvage value.

Question 6.
Depreciation is a non-cash expense and does not result in any cash outflow.
Answer:
True: Depreciation is a non cash expense and there is no outflow of cash in the business.

Janata Sahakari Bank Personal Loan | Characteristics, Documents Required, Benefits and Eligibility Criteria

Janata Sahakari Bank Personal Loan | Characteristics, Documents Required, Benefits and Eligibility Criteria

Janata Sahakari Bank Personal Loan: Janata Sahakari Bank offers all monetary benefits recurring deposit, net banking, personal loan, education loan. Car loan, etc.

The chief purpose of the bank is to assure that finance is given to the economically backward category of the community. Personal loans can be utilised for a lot of reasons! Whether one requires budgets for a wedding, for a medical crisis, or to renovate & glorify the house to a fantasy residence.

If you are looking for any bank to take a loan without getting anxious about holding any collateral, Janata Sahakari Bank is suitable for you.

This article has the details of Documents needed for Janata Sahakari Bank Personal Loan, loan eligibility for Janata Sahakari Bank Personal loan, Features, and purposes of Janata Sahakari Bank personal loan, etc.

Want to compare Janata Sahakari Bank Personal Loan with other bank personal loans for lowest interest rates and extra offerings? Just keep an eye on our Complete Guide on Personal Loan & choose the suitable bank to apply for the loan.

Janata Sahakari Bank

Janata Sahakari Bank Personal Loan Aim

Its main aim is to fulfill all kinds of monetary requirements like a vacation outing, home shifting, wedding credit card bill payment, reimbursement of a prevailing loan, medical crises, and several others.

Janata Sahakari Bank Personal Loan Eligibility

  • Age needs to be between twenty-one to fifty-eight years.
  • Needs to be Stable workers of State or Central Government or esteemed establishments.
  • Needs to have regular income whether the person is salaried or self-employed.
  • Working experience at the current job should be at least three years.

Janata Sahakari Bank Personal Loan Documents Required

  • Signed and filled up an application for a personal loan.
  • Passport size Photo
  • identity proof like Passport, Voter ID, driving approval license, Aadhar card, etc. is needed.
  • Income evidence, the recent earnings receipt showing all records or Form 16 with a recent income statement for salaried persons is needed.
  • Address proof- Bank statement declaration, electricity bill recent, mobile recent bill, etc. is needed.
  • Bank declaration having updates of recent 6 months.

Reimbursement of Personal Loan at Janata Sahakari Bank

60EMIs is the permitted limit for reimbursement of personal loans and it begins from 12EMIs. And this entire reimbursement produce relies on the credit value.

Characteristics and Benefits Janata Sahakari Bank Personal Loan

  • Supplies maximum loan payment
  • Offers many loan reimbursement choice
  • Generally, no assurance is needed for taking a personal loan
  • The quick and uncomplicated process of a personal loan petition is available
  • A guarantor is not asserted up by the bank
  • Impressive and active rate of interest
  • Gives unique policies and deals for workers of big firms
  • Term of the loan: 60months (about 5 years) is the maximum term

Reasons for Preferring Janata Sahakari Bank Personal loan

  • Reasonable interest rate
  • Processing expense is low
  • Security is not needed
  • No limitation on use
  • Can prepay the loan amount

Reasons for Personal Loan Rejection

The low credit value can be a reason for the rejection of a loan as credit value shows the credit reliability of the person. Thus, good credit value shows that the person can repay the loan without default while low credit value leads to the rejection of the loan application. A higher value of the prevailing loan reduces the chance of getting a new loan.

Individuals who can take Janata Sahakari Bank Personal Loan

  • Salaried workers
  • Self-employed people
  • Professionals with steady earning
  • Business people

Myths about Personal Loan from Janata Sahakari Bank

Some Myths about taking a Personal Loan from the Janata Sahakari Bank are:

The low-interest rate for a personal loan is best: It is not always correct as many other factors are also important while selecting a lender for a loan. Factors like tenure of the loan, processing expense, reimbursement term, eligibility of the amount of loan sanctioned, etc. play key a role in the loan selection process.

Pre-Payment of loan captivate penalty: It is not always correct as it relies upon the one lending to charge any prepayment liability as in some cases lender might not charge any prepayment liability.

The rise in the rate of interest increases monthly installments: This is not right as the loan was ta a taken at a fixed interest rate would not change and for a loan with a floating rate, if the person does not want monthly installment to increase, then he or she choose an increase in the term.

Loan application gets rejected if the individual does not have regular earning: This is not fully correct as a loan can be supplied if the applicant adds a joint holder.

There is a belief that a higher loan payment term is preferable as the person will have to pay lower monthly installments but it is not correct as longer-term loan payment brings rise to high rate of interest and interest needs to be paid for a longer-term.

Only people with salaried jobs can apply for personal loans: It is a popular notion that only individuals doing salaried jobs having a fixed income can apply for personal loans.

But somebody who is self-employed and an industry possessor can also take personal loans. Instead of the profession, the credit conclusion is led by the person’s borrowing ability and ability to pay the loan in time.

A person with low credit total cannot get a personal loan approved: Credit score Is just one of the several factors responsible for loan approval and several other components play a key role in the loan approval procedure, some of them are the age of the applicant, earning, income, job category, etc.

Conclusion

If one wishes to apply for a personal loan, knowing the interval and documentation is an essential factor in applying for any loan.

This specific article will help you in knowing more about Personal loans given by Janata Sahakari Bank, it’s the rate of interest, goals and as eligibility norms, documents needed, etc. The bank is incredibly glad to cater to the monetary needs of the public

It has several repayments options along with an impressive rate of interest which is a constructive factor in the case of a personal loan.

This article is meant to familiarize you with the features of a personal loan so that it can be simple for an individual to choose a purposeful loan suitable to meet their needs. No matter what the monetary purposes are Kalyan Janata Sahakari Bank’s loan gives you a right result.

FAQ’s on Janata Sahakari Bank Personal Loan

Question 1.
What is meant by Janata Sahakari Bank Personal loan?

Answer:
Janata Sahakari Bank Personal loan can be taken from Janata Sahakari Bank which is an unsecured loan, used to deal with any kind of monetary necessity.

Question 2.
What is the monthly installments in Janata Sahakari Bank Personal loan?

Answer:
EMI is the money amount that a person borrowing the money needs to reimburse every month to the bank to pay off the obligation within a particular term.

Axis Bank Personal Loan | Features, Advantages, Purpose, Eligibility, Documents Required

Axis Bank Personal Loan | Features, Advantages, Purpose, Eligibility, Documents Required

Axis Bank Personal Loan: With assets of 7475 crores, Axis Bank is the country’s largest private sector bank by market value. Mumbai is the company’s headquarters. In 1994, Axis Bank was established as a financial institution. 747512922 ATMs and 2589 branches across India are its total assets. A wide range of financial services is available to consumers, including savings deposits (fixed and recurring), a variety of home loans, personal loans (such as automobile and education loans), gold loans, PPF accounts, lockers, online banking, RTGS, NEFT, IMPS, E-Wallet, Atal Pension Yojana, Pradhan Mantri Jandhan Yojana, Pradhan Mantri Suraksha, etc. Bima Yojana, the Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana, and many more are included.

Curious to check other banks’ offered Personal loan features, eligibility, interest rates, tax benefits, and a repayment plan. Go with our one-stop Personal Loan Page & swipe out your doubts within no time.

Find out about the Axis Bank two-wheeler loan’s purpose, eligibility, margins, repayment of personal loan, security, and documentation requirements for a personal loan from the information provided below.

Axis Bank Personal Loan Features And Advantages

  • You can borrow the maximum amount of money.
  • Options for repaying debt in a variety of ways are available.
  • Personal loan applications are processed very quickly and easily.
  • Approval of a loan quickly.
  • The bank does not require a guarantor for a loan application.”
  • The most affordable rates in the market
  • Employees of large corporations are eligible for special programs and discounts.
  • Personal loans typically do not require security.

To apply online, you must visit the Bank website, fill out your personal and employment details, and attach any essential papers. Check your loan eligibility before applying. You can apply for a loan in person at any Bank branch with all necessary paperwork, fill out the form, and begin the loan approval procedure.

What is the Purpose of Axis Bank’s loan?

Loans can be used for everything from paying for a vacation to transferring your home to paying your credit card account, all without having to put up any collateral or assets.

Personal Loan Eligibility at Axis Bank

  • From the ages of 21 to 58.
  • Public sector, private sector, and reputable enterprises’ long-term employees; those who are employed permanently
  • Salaried/Self-Employed with a steady paycheck.
  • Up to three years of experience in the current job/business/profession

Required Documents for Axis Bank Personal Loan

  • The personal loan application form has been filled out and signed.
  • Photographs
  • If you don’t have a valid ID (such as a passport or driver’s license), you may be asked to provide one.
  • Proof of income – the most current pay stub that shows all deductions, or Form 16 together with the most recent salary certification (for salaried individuals)
  • Documents proving income, such as tax returns from the past two fiscal years (for other than salaried individuals)
  • A recent bank statement, an electricity bill, a cell phone bill, or a credit card statement might all serve as evidence of your current residence—existing leasing arrangement for a house.
  • Statement or Passbook with six months of entries in it

How Much Can I Borrow from Axis Bank?

As much as Rs.15,000,000

Axis Bank Repayment of Personal Loans

Personal loans can be repaid in as many as 60 installments. It starts with 12 EMIs. Additionally, your credit score influences how long it will take you to pay back what you owe. Equivalent Monthly Instalments for Axis Bank’s Repayment Plan (EMI)

The following repayment options are available:

  • You can set up payment with your bank.
  • Internet banking can be accessed
  • Payment via ECS is automated (Electronic Clearing Service)
  • You have access to a bank’s mobile banking app

When is a Personal Loan Application Rejected?

Negative credit history: Anyone’s credit score is used as an indicator of a person’s ability to repay a loan. A high credit score determines your ability to repay a loan without defaulting on it. For a lender, a good credit score is critical in assessing the likelihood of default. Lenders refuse many personal loan applications due to a bad credit score. People with credit scores lower than 750 may have difficulty getting a personal loan.

More Debt Currently Exists: If you have already borrowed a lot of money and your loan-to-income ratio is above 40%, lenders may decline your loan application.

Loan Requests Increase: As soon as you apply for a loan, the lender requests your credit report, which is referred to as an inquiry. Such inquiries are considered hard inquiries by the credit bureau and appear on your credit record. Even though the service is free, you shouldn’t bother asking too many questions.

Some of the Common Misconceptions Around Personal Loans

Defaulting on a Personal Loan entails a penalty of some kind

Prepayment of a Personal Loan does not always result in a penalty if it is done early. If a lender charges a prepayment penalty, it is on to the borrower to pay it. Several financial institutions waive Prepayment penalties.

The Lowest Interest Rate Personal Loan is the Best

Personal Loans with the lowest interest rates are not necessarily the best option. Aside from interest rates and fees, consider other factors when looking for the best personal loan provider. Components such as the processing charge and repayment terms are included in this list. In addition to the lowest interest rate, you need to take into account all of these factors.

Increases in the interest rate on Personal Loans lead to higher monthly payments

Even if rates rise, borrowers with fixed-rate loans won’t be impacted. To avoid rising EMIs on a floating-rate loan, you might lengthen the length of your repayment period.

If you do not have a steady source of income, your personal loan application will be rejected

A personal loan application can be granted, even if your regular source of income is not consistent enough for you to qualify for a personal loan. An additional income from a co-borrower or peer-to-peer lenders can get loan approval on your behalf.

Loans with longer repayment terms are preferable

Longer personal loan payback terms are generally thought to be preferable since borrowers are more likely to qualify for low-interest loans that they can afford, but this is not necessarily true, according to experts. Increased interest costs come with longer repayment terms. Because of this, you will have to pay interest for an extended length of time.

Prices for borrowing money can’t be altered

It’s possible to get a personal loan with a variable interest rate. Borrowers are willing to cut their interest rates for customers with good credit scores and a steady income.

Guarantees of a good credit score Approval for a Personal Loan

It is not enough to have a decent credit score to get a personal loan since there are additional variables that lenders take into account when deciding whether or not to grant the loan.

Conclusion on Axis Bank Personal Loan

A borrower’s credit score is only one of several factors taken into account when determining whether or not to approve a house loan. Despite having a strong credit score, you may still be denied a home loan if other indicators are lacking. It’s possible to receive a home loan with terrible credit, but the interest rate is likely higher. Other considerations, like the borrower’s age and income, play a role in approving a home loan. If you have a question about your Axis Bank account balance, you can check your account balance by texting a specific number. You can also use the Axis Bank internet banking app to make transactions.

Returns – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Returns – CA Inter Taxation Study Material is designed strictly as per the latest syllabus and exam pattern.

Returns – CA Inter Taxation Study Material

Question 1.
What kinds of invoice details of outward supplies are required to be furnished in GSTR-1 for outward supplies? [Nov. 2018 Old Course, 5 Marks]
Answer:
The invoice details of outward supplies required to be furnished in GSTR-1 are the following:

  • The name of Buyer
  • GSTN of buyer
  • Invoice no.
  • date tg
  • value
  • taxable value
  • rate of tax
  • amount of tax
  • HSN code in respect of supply of goods
  • accounting code in respect of supply of services and place of supply.

The following invoice details of outward supplies are required to be fur-nished invoice wise in GSTR-1:

  1. intra-State supplies made to the registered persons;
  2. inter-State supplies made to the registered persons;
  3. inter-State supplies made to unregistered persons with invoice value exceeding ₹ 2,50,000.

Note: The question may be answered either on the basis of invoice details of outward supplies required to be furnished in GSTR-1 or on the basis of invoice details of outward supplies required to be furnished invoice-wise in GSTR-1.

Question 2.
A taxpayer can file GSTR-1 under CGST Act, 2017, only after the end of the current tax period. State exceptions to this. [Nov. 2018, 2 Marks]
Answer:
A taxpayer can file GSTR-1 under CGST Act, 2017, only after the end of the current tax period. However, following are the exceptions to this rule:

  1. Casual taxpayers, after the closure of their business
  2. Cancellation of GSTIN of a normal taxpayer.

Returns – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 3.
Mr. Anand Kumar, a regular taxpayer, filed his return of outward supply (GSTR-1) for the month of August, 2019 before the due date. Later on, in February, 2020 he discovered error in the GSTR-1 return of August, 2019 already filed and wants to revise it. You are required to advise him as to the future course of action to be taken by him according to statutory provisions.
Answer:
Statutory Provisions:

  • The mechanism of filing revised return for any correction of errors/ omission is not available under GST. The rectification of errors/omis-sion is allowed in the subsequent returns.
  • However, as per section 37(3) of the CGST Act, 2017, no rectification of details furnished in GSTR-1 shall be allowed after:

(i) Filing of monthly return/GSTR-3 (Now: GSTR 3B) for the month of September following the end of the financial year to which such details pertain or
(ii) Filing of the relevant annual return, whichever is earlier.

In the given case:

  • Mr. Anand Kumar who discovered an error in GSTR-1 for August, 2019, cannot revise it.
  • However, he should rectify said error in the GSTR-1 filed for February, 2020 and should pay the tax and interest, if any, in case there is short payment, in the return to be furnished for February, 2020.
  • The error can be rectified by furnishing appropriate particulars in the “Amendment Tables” contained in GSTR-1.

Question 4.
Please answer the following individual independent cases with reference to Section 37 of the CGST Act, 2017 and Rule 59 of CGST Rules, 2017 :

(1) Mr. Kolly is registered supplier in the State of Gujarat. He is filling GSTR 1 every month. During the month of February, 2018 he was out of India and so did not do any transaction during the month. He believes that as there is no transaction there is no need to file GSTR 1 for the month of February, 2018. Is he correct?

(2) Mr. Kaji is a registered dealer in Kerala. He was registered as a nor-mal tax payer for FY 2017-18. But on 15-01-2018, he converted from normal taxpayer to composition taxpayer. Is he liable to file GSTR-1 for the month of February, 2018?

(3) Mrs. Zeel a registered dealer in Rajasthan did not file GSTR-1 for the month of June, 2018 but she wants to file GSTR-1 for the month of July, 2018. Is it possible? [May 2019 Old Course, 1+2+1 Marks]
Answer:

Statutory Provision In the given case
(1) GSTR-1 needs to be filed even if there is no business activity in the tax period. This type of return is called as Nil Return. Therefore, even though Mr. Kolly was out of India and thus had not done any transaction during February 2018, he is STILL REQUIRED TO FILE GSTR-1 for the said month. Thus, Mr. Kolly is not correct.
(2) A person paying tax under composition scheme is not liable to furnish the details of outward supplies in GSTR-1.
Further, in cases where a taxpayer has been converted from a normal taxpayer to composition taxpayer, GSTR-1 is to be filed only for the period during which the taxpayer was registered as normal taxpayer.
Therefore, Mr. Kaji is NOT LIABLE TO FILE GSTR-1 for February, 2018 since he had already shifted to composition scheme on 15.01.2018.
(3) There is no specific bar under the law on filing of GSTR-1 for current month when GSTR-1 for the previous month has not been filed. Therefore, Mrs. Zeel CAN FILE GSTR-1 for July, 2018 even though she has not filed GSTR-1 for the preceding month, i.e., June, 2018.

Note: The given question specifies that Mr. Kaji has converted from normal taxpayer to composition taxpayer on 15.01.2018. However, as per rule 4(1) of the CGST Rules, 2017, the option to pay tax under composition scheme shall be effective from the beginning of the financial year, where the intimation is filed by any registered person who opts to pay tax under section 10.

Further, as per rule 3(3A) of the CGST Rules, 2017, a person who has been granted certificate of registration under sub-rule (1) of rule 10 may opt to pay tax under composition scheme with effect from the first day of the month immediately succeeding the month in which he files an intimation on the common portal on or before the 31st day of March, 2018.

Returns – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 5.
State the Form Number and the due date for its filing under CGST Act, 2017 of the return by:
(i) a composition scheme taxable person
(ii) a registered person deducting tax at source
(iii) an input service distributor.
Answer:
Returns – CA Inter Tax Study Material 1

Question 6.
Mr. Alok, a registered supplier of taxable goods, filed GSTR 3B for the month of January 2019 on 15th April, 2019. The prescribed due date to file the said GSTR 3B was 20th February, 2019. The amount of net GST payable on supplies made by him for the said month worked out to ₹ 36,500 which was paid on the same date of filing the return.

Briefly explain the related provisions and compute the amount of interest payable under the CGST Act, 2017 by Mr. Alok. [Nov. 2019 Old Course, 4 Marks]

Answer:

Interest is payable in case of delayed payment of tax @ 18% per an-num from the date following the due date of payment to the actual date of payment of tax.

Thus, the amount of interest payable by Mr. Alok is as under:- Period of delay = From 21st February, 2019 to 15th April, 2019 = 54 days Amount of interest = ₹ 36,000 × 18% × 54/365 = ₹ 972

Question 7.
Explain First Return?
Answer:

  • When a person becomes liable to registration after his turnover cross-ing the threshold limit of registration (10 lakhs/20 lakhs/40 lakhs as the case may be), he may apply for registration within 30 days of so becoming liable.
  • Thus, there might be a time lag between a person becoming liable to registration and grant of registration certificate.
  • During the intervening period, such person might have made the . outward supplies, i.e. after becoming liable to registration but before grant of the certificate of registration.
  • Now, in order to enable such registered person to declare the taxable supplies made by him for the period between the date on which he became liable to registration till the date on which registration has been granted so that ITC can be availed by the recipient on such supplies:
  • Firstly, the registered person may issue Revised Tax Invoices against the invoices already issued during said period within 1 month from the date of issuance of certificate of registration.
  • Further, section 40 provides that registered person shall declare his outward supplies made during said period in the first return furnished by him after grant of registration. The format for this return is the same as that for regular return.

Returns – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 8.
Explain the provision relating to filing of Annual Return under section 44 of CGST Act, 2017 and Rules thereunder.
[May 2018 Old Course, 5 Marks]
Answer:

(1) Who is required to file
  • Every registered person, other than
  • an Input Service Distributor,
  • a person deducting/collecting tax at source,
  • a casual taxable person and
  • a non-resident taxable person,
  • shall furnish an annual return for every financial year
  • electronically in prescribed form
  • on or before 31 st December following the end of such financial year.
(2) Reconciliation Statement Every registered person who is required to get his accounts audited under section 35(5) of the CGST Act, 2017 shall furnish the annual return electronically along with a copy of the audited annual accounts and a reconciliation statement, reconciling the value of supplies declared in the return furnished for the financial year with the audited annual financial statement, and other prescribed particulars.

Question 9.
Who is required to furnish Final Return under CGST Act, 2017 and what is the time limit for the same?
Discuss [May 2018, 5 Marks]
Answer:
Every registered person who is required to furnish a return u/s 39(1) of the CGST Act, 2017 and whose registration has been surrendered or cancelled shall file a Final Return electronically in the prescribed form through the common portal.

Final Return has to be filed within 3 months of the:

  1. date of cancellation or
  2. date of order of cancellation whichever is later.

Question 10.
Discuss about the nature of default and the late fee levied for delay in filing :
(i) Final Return
(ii) Annual Return [Nov. 2019 Old Course Modified, 5 Marks]
Answer:
(1) Late fee for delay in filing return:

Nature of Default Quantum of Late Fee
Any registered person who fails to furnish following by the due date:

(A) Statement of Outward Supplies [Section 37]

(B) Statement of Inward Supplies [Section 38]

(C) Returns [Section 39]

(D) Final Return [Section 45], shall pay a late fee.

(a) 100 for every day during which such fail­ure continues

OR
(b)  5,000
Whichever is Lower

Returns – CA Inter Tax Study Material

(2) Late Fee for delay in filing ANNUAL RETURN

Nature of Default Quantum of Late Fees
Any registered person who fails to furnish the Annual Return by the due date shall be liable to pay a late fee. (c) 100 for every day during which such failure continues

OR

(d) 0.25°6 of the turnover of registered person in the state/UT.
Whichever is Lower

Question 11.
Explain the consequences, if the taxable person under GST law files the GST return under section 39(1) of the CGST Act, 2017, but does not make payment of self-assessment tax. [Nov. 2019, 2 Marks]
Answer:

  1. If the taxable person under GST law files the GST return under section 39(1) of the CGST Act, 2017, but does not pay the self-assessment tax, the return is not considered as a valid return.
  2. Since the input tax credit can be availed only on the basis of a valid return, the taxable person, in the given case, will not be able to claim any input tax credit.
  3. He shall pay interest, penalty, fees or any other amount payable under the CGST Act, 2017 for filing return without payment of tax.

Question 12.
Vishnu, a registered person under GST has filed GSTR-1, GSTR-2 and GSTR-3 for the concerned months in related with 2017-18. The turnover was ₹ 21,60,000. Calculate the amount of late fee, if for FY 2017-18, the annual return has been filed on:
CASE 1. 25th July 2018
CASE 2. 18th Nov. 2018
CASE 3. 10th Jan. 2019
CASE 4. 21st March, 2019
Answer:
Cases 1 & 2: Calculation of late fee under section 47(2)
In respect of financial year 2017-18, the due date for filing Annual Return is 31st December, 2018. Since, the return has been filed before 31st De-cember, no late fee is payable under section 47(2).

Cases 3 & 4: Calculation of late fee under section 47(2)
Returns – CA Inter Tax Study Material 2

Returns – CA Inter Tax Study Material

Question 13.
Discuss the provisions of section 39(9) of the COST Act, 2017, relating to rectification of errors/omissions in GST returns already filed and also gj state its exceptions. State the time limit for making such rectification. [Nov. 2019, 5 Marks]
Answer:
Provisions relating to rectification of errors/omissions in GST returns:

  1. Omission or incorrect particulars discovered in the returns filed under section 39 can be rectified in the return to be filed for the month/ quarter during which such omission or incorrect particulars are no-ticed.
  2. Any tax payable as a result of such error or omission will be required to be paid along with interest.

Exception:

Section 39(9) of the CGST Act does not permit rectification of error/omis-sion discovered on account of scrutiny, audit, inspection or enforcement activities by tax authorities.

Time Limit:

The time limit for making such rectification is earlier of the following dates:

  1. Due date for filing return for September month of next financial year or
  2. Actual date of filing annual return.

Sets, Functions and Relations – CA Foundation Maths Study Material

This Sets, Functions and Relations – CA Foundation Maths Study Material is designed strictly as per the latest syllabus and exam pattern.

Sets, Functions and Relations – CA Foundation Maths Study Material

Previous Year Exam Questions

Question 1.
Out of 20 members in a family, 11 like to take tea and 14 like coffee. Assume that each one likes atleast one of the two drinks. F ind how many like both coffee and tea: [1 Mark, Nov. 2006]
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
Answer:
(d) Given That n(T)= 11 ;n(C) = 14
and n(T ∪ C) =20
n(T ∩ C) = n(T) + n(c) – n(T ∪ C)
= 11 + 14 – 20 = 5
(d) is correct

Question 2.
In a group of 70 people, 45 speak Hindi, 33 speak English and 10 speak neither Hindi nor English. Find how many can speak both English as well as Hindi: [1 Mark, Feb. 2007]
(a) 13
(b) 19
(c) 18
(d) 28.
Answer:
(c) n(H) = 45 ; n(E) = 33
n(H ∪ E)’= 10 ⇒ n(H ∪ E) = 70 – 10 = 60
∴ (H ∪ E) = n(H) + n(E) – n(H ∪ E)
= 45 + 33 – 60= 18
(c) is correct

Question 3.
Let R is the set of real numbers, such that the function f: R → R and g : R → R are defined by f(x) = x2 + 3x + 1 and g(x) = 2x – 3. Find (fog) : [1 Mark, Feb. 2007]
(a) 4x2 + 6x + 1
(b) x2 + 6x + 1
(c) 4x2 – 6x +1
(d) x2 – 6x + 1.
Answer:
(c) f(x) = x2 + 3x + 1
g (x) = 2x – 3
fog = f{g(x)}
= f (2x – 3)
= (2x – 3)2 + 3(2x – 3) + 1
= 4x2 – 2.2x3 + 9 + 6x – 9 + 1
= 4x2 – 6x +1
(c) is correct

Sets, Functions and Relations – CA Foundation Maths Study Material

Question 4.
In a survey of 300 companies, the number of companies using different media – Newspapers (N), Radio (R) and Television (T) are as follows:
n(N) = 200, n(R) = 100, n(T) = 40, n(N ∩ R) = 50, n(R ∩ T) = 20, n(N ∩ T) = 25 and n(N ∩ R ∩ T) = 5.
Find the numbers of companies using none of these media: [1 Mark, May 2007]
(a) 20 companies
(b) 250 companies
(c) 30 companies
(d) 50 companies.
Answer:
(d) n(N ∪ R ∪ T) = n(N) + n(R) + n(T) – n(N ∩ R) – n(N ∩ T) – n(R ∩ T) + n(N ∩ R ∩ T)
= 200 + 100 + 40 – 50 – 20 – 25 + 5
= 250
No. of Companies using no media = 300 – n(N ∪ R ∪ T)
= 300 – 250 = 50
(d) is correct

Question 5.
If R is the set of real numbers such that the function f : R → R is defined by f(x) = (x + 1)2, then find (fof). [1 Mark, May 2007]
(a) (x + 1)2 + 1
(b) x2 + 1
(c) {(x + 1)2 + 1}2
(d) None
Answer:
(c) f(x) = (x + 1)2
fof = f {f(x)} = f{(x + 1)2}
= {(x + 1)2 + 1}2
(c) is correct

Question 6.
If f: R → R, f(x) = 2x + 7, then the inverse of f is : [1 Mark, Aug. 2007]
{a) f-1(x) = (x – 7)/2
(b) f-1(x) = (x + 7)/2
(c) f-1(x) = (x – 3)/2
(d) None.
Answer:
(a)
Let y = f(x) = 2x + 7
or 2x = y – 7
or x = \(\frac{y-7}{2}\)
f-1(x) = \(\frac{x-7}{2}\)

Question 7.
In a town of20,000 families it was found that 40% families buy newspaper A, 20% families buy newspaper B and 10% families buy newspaper C, 5% families buy A and B, 3% buy B and C and 4% buy A and C. If 2% families buy all the three newspapers, then the number of families which buy A only is : [1 Mark, Nov. 2007]
(a) 6600
(b) 6300
(c) 5600
(d) 600.
Answer:
(a) Given
n(A) = 40% ; n(B) = 20% ; n(C) = 10% n(A ∩ B) = 5%; n(B ∩ C) = 4% n(∩) = 4 %; n(A ∩ B ∩ C) = 2%
No. of families which buy only A
= n(A) – n(A ∩ B) – n(A ∩ C) + n(A ∩ B ∩ C)
= 40 – 5 – 4 + 2 = 33%
= 20,000 × 33% = 6600
∴ (a) is correct

Question 8.
Let f: R → R be such that f(x) = 2x, then f(x + y) equals: [1 Mark, Nov. 2007]
(a) f(x) + f(y)
(b) f(x). f(y)
(c) f(x) ÷ f(y)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) f(x) = 2x
f(x+y) = 2x+y = 2x.2y = f(x).f(y)
∴ (b) is correct

Question 9.
Out of total 150 students, 45 passed in Accounts, 30 in Economics and 50 in Maths, 30 in both Accounts and Maths, 32 in both Maths and Economics, 35 in both Accounts and Economics, 25 students passed in all the three subjects. Find the numbers who passed atleast in anyone of the subjects: [1 Mark, Feb. 2008]
(a) 63
(b) 53
(c) 73
(d) None.
Answer:
(b) Total students = 150
n(A) = 45 ; n(E) = 30 ; n(M) = 50;
n(A ∩ M) = 30;n(M ∩ E) = 32 n(A ∩ M) = 35; n(M ∩ E ∩ M) = 25
∴ n(A ∪ E ∪ M) = 45 + 30 + 50 – 30 – 32 – 35 + 25 = 53
∴ (b) is correct

Sets, Functions and Relations – CA Foundation Maths Study Material

Question 10.
If f(x) = \(\frac{2+x}{2-x}\), then f-1(x):
(a) \(\frac{2(x-1)}{x+1}\)
(b) \(\frac{2(x+1)}{x-1}\)
(c) \(\frac{x+1}{x-1}\)
(d) \(\frac{x-1}{x+1}\)
Answer:
(a)
∵ f(x) = \(\frac{2+x}{2-x}\) = y(let)
2 + x = 2y – xy
or x + xy = 2y – 2
or x(1 + y) = 2 (y – 1)
or x = \(\frac{2(y-1)}{1+y}\)
f-1(x) = \(=\frac{2(x-1)}{x+1}\); (a) is correct

Question 11.
If A = {1, 2, 3, 4,} ; B = {2, 4, 6, 8,} f(1) = 2, f(2) = 4, f(3) = 6 and f(4) = 8, And f: A → B then f-1 is : [1 Mark, Dec. 2008]
(a) {(2, 1), (4, 2), (6, 3), (8, 4)}
(b) {(1, 2), (2, 4), (3; 6), (4, 8)}
(c) {(1, 4), (2, 2), (3, 6), (4, 8)}
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a)
Sets, Functions and Relations – CA Foundation Maths Study Material 1
f-1 = {(2, 1) (4, 2), (6, 3) (8, 4)}
(a) is correct.

Question 12.
If f (x) = x2 + x – 1 and 4f(x) = f(2x) then find ‘x’. [1 Mark, Dec. 2008]
(a) 4/3
(b) 3/2
(c) -3/4
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) f(x) = x2 + x – 1
and 4f(x) = f (2x)
or 4(x2 + x – 1) = (2x)2 +2x – 1
or 4x2 + 4x – 4 = 4x2 + 2x – 1
or 4x – 2x = 4 – 1
or 2x = 3 x = 3/2
∴ (b) is correct

Question 13.
If A = {p, q, r, s}, B = {q, s, t}, C = {m, q, n} Find C – (A ∩ B). [1 Mark, Dec. 2008]
(a) {m, n}
(b) {p, q}
(c) {r, s}
(d) {p, r}
Answer:
(a)
C – (A ∩ B) = { m, q, n} – ({p, q, r, s} ∩ {q, s, t}
= {m, q, n} – {q, s}
= {m; n}
∴ (a) is correct.

Question 14.
X = {x, y, w, z} y = {l,2,3,4}; H = {(x, 1); (y, 2); (y, 3); (z, 4); (x, 4. [1 Mark, Dec. 2009]
(a) H is a function from x to y
(b) H is not a function from x to y
(c) H is a relation from y to x
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) H is not a function from x to y because x has 2 images 1 & 4
(b) is correct

Question 15.
Given the function f(x) = (2x + 3), then the value of f(2x) – 2f(x) +3 will be : [1 Mark, Dec. 2009]
(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 1
(d) 0
Answer:
(d) ∵ f(x) = 2x + 3
f(2x) – 2 f(x) + 3
= 2(2x) + 3 – 2(2x + 3) + 3
= 4x + 3 – 4x – 6 + 3 = 0
∴ (d) is correct

Question 16.
If f(x) = 2x + h then find f(x + h) – 2f(x). [1 Mark, Dec. 2009]
(a) h – 2x
(b) 2x – h
(c) 2x + h
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) f(x) = 2x + h
f(x + h) – 2f(x)
= 2(x + h) + h – 2(2x + h)
= 2x + 2h + h – 4x – 2h
= h – 2x
∴ (a) is correct

Question 17.
If A = {X :X2 – 3X + 2 = o]
B = {X :X2 – 4X + 12 = o),
Then B – A is equal to: [1 Mark, June 2010]
(a) {-6}
(b) {1}
(c) {1, 2}
(d) {2, -6}
Answer:
(a) ∵ x2 – 3x + 2 = 0
or x2 – 2x – x + 2 = 0
or x(x – 2) -1 (x – 2) = 0
or (x- 2) (x – 1) = 0
∵ x = 1 ;2
A = {1, 2}
And x2 + 4x – 12 = 0
or x2 + 6x – 2x – 12 = 0
or x(x +6) -2 (x + 6) = 0
or (x + 6) (x – 2) = 0
x = -6 ; 2
∵ B = {-6 ; 2}
B – A = {-6 ; 2} – {1 ; 2}
= {-6}
(a) is correct

Question 18.
If F: A → R is a real-valued function defined by f(x) = \(\frac{1}{x}\) then: [1 Mark, June 2010]
(a) R
(b) R-{1}
(c) R-{o}
(d) R-N
Answer:
(c)
f(x) = \(\frac{1}{x}\) is defined at all x ∈ R except x = 0
A = R – { 0}
∴ (c) is correct

Sets, Functions and Relations – CA Foundation Maths Study Material

Question 19.
In the set N of all natural numbers the relation R defined by a R b “if and only if, a divide b”, then the relation R is: [1 Mark, June 2010]
(a) Partial order relation
(b) Equivalence relation
(c) Symmetric relation
(d) None of these.
Answer:
(a) It is transitive relation, i.e. partial order relation

Question 20.
For any two sets A and B, A ∩ (A’ ∪ B) = _______, where A’ represent the compliment of the set A. [1 Mark, Dec. 2010]
(a) A ∩ B
(A) A ∪ B
(c) A ∪ B
(d) None of these
Answer:
Tricks : Take an example and then decide the answer
Let U = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
A = {0, 1, 2, 3}
B = {2, 3, 4, 5}
A’ = U – A
= (4; 5}
A‘ ∪ S = {4, 5} ∪ {2, 3, 4, 5}
= {2, 3, 4, 5}
∴ A ∩ (A’ ∪ B)
= {0, 1, 2, 3} ∩ {2, 3, 4, 5}
= {2, 3}
= A ∩ B
∴ (a) is correct
IInd method = (A ∩ A’) ∪ (A ∩ B) = { } ∪ (A ∩ B) = A ∩ B

Question 21.
If f : R → R, f(x) = x + 1, g :R → R g(x) = x2 + 1 then fog(-2) equals to : [1 Mark, Dec. 2010]
(a) 6
(b) 5
(c) -2
(d) None
Answer:
(a) f(x) = x + 1
g(x) = x2 + 1. ⇒ g(-2) = (-2)2 + 1 = 5
fog(-2) = f{g(-2)} = f(5)
= 5 + 1 = 6
∴ (a) is correct

Question 22.
If A ⊂ B, then following is true: [1 Mark, Dec. 2010]
(a) A ∩ B = B
(b) A ∪ B = B
(c) A ∩ B = A’
(d) A ∩ B
Answer:
(b)

Question 23.
If f(x – 1)= x2 – 4x + 8, then f(x + 1) = . [1 Mark, Dec. 2010]
(a) x2 + 8
(b) 2 + 7
(c) x2 + 4
(d) x2 – 4x
Answer:
(c); f(x – 1) = x2 – 4x + 8
= (x – 1 + 1)2 – 4 (x – 1+ 1) + 8
f(x + 1) = (1 + 1 + 1)2 – 4(x + 1 + 1) + 8
= (x + 2)2 – 4 (x + 2) + 8 = x2 + 4x + 4 – 4x – 8 + 8
= x2 +4
∴ (c) is correct.

Question 24.
There are 40 students, 30 of them passed in English, 25 of them passed in Maths and 15 of them passed in both. Assuming that every Student has passed atleast in one subject. How many student’s passed in English only but not in Maths. [1 Mark, June 2011]
(a) 15
(b) 20
(c) 10
(d) 25
Answer:
(a) Total students = 40
n(E) = 30 ;
n(M) = 25 (E ∩ M) = 15
No. of stds. passed in English only n(E) – n(E ∩ M)
= 30 – 15 = 15
∴ (a) is correct

Question 25.
If A = {±2,±3} B = -{1, 4, 9} AND F = {(2, 4) (-2, 4) (3, 9) (-3, 4)} then ‘F’ is defined as: [1 Mark, June 2011]
(a) One to one function from A into B
(b) One to one function from A onto B
(c) Many to one function from A onto B.
(d) Many to one function from A into B.
Answer:
(c)
Sets, Functions and Relations – CA Foundation Maths Study Material 2

Sets, Functions and Relations – CA Foundation Maths Study Material

Question 26.
If f(x) = \(\frac{x}{\sqrt{1+x^2}}\) and g(x) = \(\frac{x}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}\) Find fog ? [1 Mark, June 2011]
(a) x
(b) \(\frac{1}{x}\)
(c) \(\frac{x}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}\)
(d) x\(\sqrt{1-x^2}\)
Answer:
(a)
Sets, Functions and Relations – CA Foundation Maths Study Material 3
∴ (a) is correct

Question 27.
f(x) = 3 + x, for -3 < x < 0 and 3 – 2x for 0 < x < 3, then value of f(2) will be: [1 Mark, Dec. 2011]
(a) -1
(b) 1
(c) 3
(d) 5
Answer:
(a) is correct
f(x) = 3 + 2x ; when -3 < x < 0
= 3 – 2x ; when 0 < x < 3
f(x = 2) = 3 – 2 × 2 = -1
∴ 2 lies in 2nd condition

Question 28.
If A = (1, 2, 3, 4, 5), B = (2, 4) and C = (1, 3, 5) then (A – C) × B is: [1 Mark, Dec. 2011]
(a) {(2, 2)(2, 4)(4, 2)(4, 4)(5, 2) (5, 4)}
(b) {(1, 2) (1, 4) (3, 2) (3, 4) (5, 2) (5, 4)}
(c) {(2, 2) (4, 2) (4, 4) (4, 5)}
(d) {(2, 2) (2, 4) (4, 2) (4, 4)}
Answer:
(d) is correct
(A – C) × B = {2, 4} × {2, 4} = {(2, 2), (2, 4); (4 ;2) ; (4 ; 4)}

Question 29.
For any two sets A and B the set (A ∪ B’)’ is Equal to (where’ denotes compliment of the set): [1 Mark, Dec. 2011]
(a) B – A
(b) A – B
(c) A’ – B’
(d) B’ – A’
Answer:
(a) is correct
Tricks: Let U = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
A = {0, 1, 2} ; B = {1, 2, 3}
B’ = U – B = {0, 4, 5)
A ∪ B’ = (0, 1, 2, 4, 5)
(A ∪ B’)’ = ∪ – (A ∪ B’) = {3}
Then Go by choices
For (a) B – A = {1, 2, 3} – {0, 1, 2} = {3}
(A ∪ B’)’ = ∪ – (A ∪ B’) = {3}
II nd method (A ∪ B’)’
= A’ ∩ (B’)’
= A’ ∩ B = B – A ∩ B = B – A

Question 30.
The number of proper sub-set of the set {3, 4, 5, 6, 7} is: [1 Mark, June 2012]
(a) 32
(b) 31
(c) 30
(d) 25
Answer:
(b) No. of proper subsets = 2n – 1 = 25 – 1 = 31

Question 31.
On the set of lines, being perpendicular is a : [1 Mark, June 2012]
(a) Reflexive
(b) Symmetric
(c) Transitive
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) is correct
It is symmetric relation Because it x is perpendicular to y
Then y is also perpendicular to x

Question 32.
The range of the function f :N → N; f(x) = (-1)x-1, is: [1 Mark, June 2012]
(a) {0, -1}
(b) {1,-1}
(c) {1, 0}
(d) {1, 0, -1}
Answer:
(b) is correct
f(x) = (-1)x-1
If x = odd No. f(x) = 1
It x = 0; even No. f(x) = -1
∴ Range = {1 ; -1}
Domain = {any real No.}

Sets, Functions and Relations – CA Foundation Maths Study Material

Question 33.
For a group of 200 persons, 100 are interested in music, 70 in photography and 40 in swimming, Further more 40 are interested in both music and photography, 30 in both music and swimming, 20 in photography and swimming and 10 in all the three. How many are interested in photography but not in music and swimming ? [1 Mark, Dec. 2012]
(a) 30
(b) 15
(c) 25
(d) 20
Answer:
(d) is correct
Let A = No. of persons interested in Music
B = No. of persons interested in photography
C = No. of persons interested in Swimming
n(A) = 100; n(B) = 70 ; n(C) = 40; n( A ∩ B) = 40; n( A ∩ C) = 30; n(B ∩ C) = 20; n(A ∩ B ∩ C) = 10.
∴ n(B ∩ A’ ∩ C’) = n(B) – n(B ∩ A) – n(B ∩ C) + n(A ∩ B ∩ C)
= 70 – 40 – 20 + 10
= 20

Question 34.
If f : R → R is a function, defined by f(x) = 10x – 7, if g(x) = f-1(x), then the value of g(x) is equal to: [1 Mark, Dec. 2012]
(a) \(\frac{1}{10 x-7}\)
(b) \(\frac{1}{10 x+7}\)
(c) \(\frac{x+7}{10}\)
(d) \(\frac{x-7}{10}\)
Answer:
(c) is correct
Let y = f(x) = 10x – 7
or 10x = y + 7
∴ x = \(\frac{y+7}{10}\)
∴ f-1(x) = \(\frac{x+7}{10}\)
∴ g(x) = \(\frac{x+7}{10}\)

Question 35.
The No. of elements in range of constant function is: [1 Mark, Dec. 2012]
(a) One
(b) Zero
(c) Infinite
(d) None
Answer:
(a) is correct
Let f(x) = c (where c= constant)
Sets, Functions and Relations – CA Foundation Maths Study Material 4
Domain = {x/x ∈ R}
Range = {c}

Question 36.
If f(x) = x + 2, g(x) = 7x then go f(x) = _______. [1 Mark, June 2013]
(a) 7x.x + 2.7x
(b) 7x+2
(c) (7x) + 2
(d) none
Answer:
f(x) = x+2 ; g(x) =7x
gof (x) = g{f(x)} = g(x + 2) = 7x+2
∴ (b) is correct

Question 37.
If f(x) = log\(\left(\frac{1+x}{1-x}\right)\) then f\(\left(\frac{2 x}{1+x^2}\right)\). [1 Mark, June 2013]
(a) f(x)
(b) 2 f(x)
(c) 3 f(x)
(d) -f(x)
Answer:
Sets, Functions and Relations – CA Foundation Maths Study Material 5
(b) is correct

Sets, Functions and Relations – CA Foundation Maths Study Material

Question 38.
If A= {1,2,3} then the relation R={(1,1), (2,3), (2,2), (3,3), (1,2)} on A is: [1 Mark, June 2013]
(a) Reflexive
(b) Symmetric
(c) Transitive
(d) Equivalence
Answer:
(a) is correct.
Reflexive Relation.
xRx ; (x ; x) ∈ R
Here (1,1), (2, 2), (3, 3) ∈ R
So; It is Reflexive

Question 39.
Of the 200 candidates who were interviewed for a position at call center, 100 had a two wheeler, 70 had a credit card and 140 had a mobile phone 40 of them had both a two wheeler and a credit card, 30 had both a credit card and mobile phone, 60 had both a two wheeler and a mobile phone and 10 had all the three. How many candidates had none of them ? [1 Mark, Dec. 2013]
(a) 0
(b) 20
(c) 10
(d) 18
Answer:
(c) is correct
Let n(A) = No. of Candidates having two wheeler
n(B) = No. of candidates having credit cards
n(C) = No. of candidates having mobile phone.
Given
n(A) = 100 ; n(B) = 70 ; n(c) = 140
n(A ∩ B) = 40; n(B ∩ C) = 30; n(C ∩ A) = 60 n(A ∩ B ∩ C) = 10.
∴ n(A ∪ B ∪ C) = 100 + 70 + 140 – 40 – 30 – 60 + 10 = 190
No. of candidates having none = 200 – 190 = 10

Question 40.
If f(x) = \(\frac{x^2-25}{x-5}\) then f(5). [1 Mark, Dec. 2013]
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 10
(d) Undefined
Answer:
(d) is correct
f(5) = \(\frac{x^2-25}{x-5}=\frac{5^2-25}{5-5}=\frac{0}{0}\)
∴ Undefined

Question 41.
f(x) = (a – xn)1/n, a > 0 and n is positive integer then f'[f(x)]. [1 Mark, Dec. 2013]
(a) x
(b) a
(c) x1/n
(d) a1/n
Answer:
(a) is correct
f{f(x)} = f{a-nn)1/n]
Sets, Functions and Relations – CA Foundation Maths Study Material 6

Question 42.
In a class of 50 students 35 opted for Maths, 37 opted for commerce. The number of such student who opted for both maths and commerce is: [1 Mark, June 2014]
(a) 13
(b) 15
(c) 22
(d) 28
Answer:
(c) is correct
n(M) = No. of students opted for Maths = 35
n(C) = No. of Student opted for Commerce = 37
So;(M ∪ C) = 50
n(M ∩ C) = 35 + 37 – 50 = 22

Sets, Functions and Relations – CA Foundation Maths Study Material

Question 43.
The range of the relation {(1,0) (2, 0) (3, 0) (4, 0) (0, 0)} is: [1 Mark, June 2014]
(a) (1,2, 3, 4,0}
(b) {0}
(c) {1,2, 3, 4}
(d) None
Answer:
(b) is correct
Range = {0}

Question 44.
If A = {1, 2, 3} and B = {4, 6, 7} then the relation R = {(2, 4) (3, 6)} is: [1 Mark, June 2014]
(a) A function
(b) A function from A to B
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Not a function
Answer:
(d) is correct.
Note:- 1 has no image

Question 45.
A = (2, 3), B = (4, 5), C = (5, 6) then A × (B ∩ C). [1 Mark, Dec. 2014]
(a) [(5, 2), (5, 3)]
(b) [(2, 5), (3, 5)]
(c) [(2, 4), (5, 3)
(d) [(3, 5), (2, 6)]
Answer:
(b) is correct
B ∩ C = {4, 5} ∩{5, 6} = {5}
∴ A × (B∩ C) – {2, 3} × {5}
= {(2,5); (3, 5)}

Question 46.
If a relation S = ((1,1), (2,2), (1,2), (2,1)) is symmetric and .[1 Mark, Dec. 2014]
(a) Reflexive but not transitive
(b) Reflexive as well as transitive
(c) Transitive but not reflexive
(d) Neither transitive nor reflexive
Answer:
If S = {1, 2, 3} then
Then relation {(1,1); (2,2); (1,2); (2,1)} is symmetric and transitive but not Reflexive.

Question 47.
If f(x) = \(\frac{x}{x-1}\), then \(\frac{f(x / y)}{f(y / x)}\) = _______. [1 Mark, Dec. 2014]
(a) x/y
(b) y/x
(c) -x/y
(d) -y/x
Answer:
f(x) = \(\frac{x}{x-1}\)
Sets, Functions and Relations – CA Foundation Maths Study Material 7

Question 48.
Let N be the set of all Natural number; E be the set of all even natural numbers then the function f: N → E defined as f(x) =2x ; ∀ x ∈ N is : [1 Mark, Dec. 2014]
(a) One-one into
(b) One-one onto
(c) Many-one into
(d) Many-one onto
Answer:
(b) is correct
N = {1, 2, 3, …………. ;n}
E = {2, 4, 6, …………. ;2n}
Sets, Functions and Relations – CA Foundation Maths Study Material 8
Clearly it is one-one onto mapping

Question 49.
Which of these is a function from A → B; A= {x, y, z}; B = {a, b, c, d}. [1 Mark, Dec. 2015]
(a) {(x, a) (x, b) (y, c)}
(b) {(x, a) (x, b) (y, c) (z, d)}
(c) {(x, a) (y, b) (z, d)}
(d) {(a, x) (b, z) (c, y)}
Answer:
(c) is correct.
Sets, Functions and Relations – CA Foundation Maths Study Material 9

Question 50.
f(x) = 2x + 2, g(x) = x2, fog(4) = ? [1 Mark, Dec. 2015]
(a) 100
(b) 10
(c) 34
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) is correct
fog(x) = f{g(x)}
= f(x2) = 2.x2 + 2
fog (4) = 2 × 42 + 2 = 34

Question 51.
In a class of 80 students, 35% play only cricket, 45% only Tennis, How many play Cricket? [1 Mark, Dec. 2015]
(a) 86
(b) 54
(c) 36
(d) 44
Answer:
(d) is correct
Given n(C-T) = n(C) – n(C ∩ T) = 35%
n(T – C) = n(T) – n(C ∩ T) = 45%
n(CUT) = n(C) + n(T) – n(C ∩ T) = 100
or; 35 + n(C ∩ T) + 45 + n(C ∩ T) – n(C ∩ T) = 100
or 80 + n(C ∩ T) = 100 n(C ∩ T) = 20%
n(C) = 35 + n(C ∩ T) = 35 + 20 = 55%
= 80 × 55% = 44

Sets, Functions and Relations – CA Foundation Maths Study Material

Question 52.
If Set A = {x: \(\frac{x}{2}\) ∈ Z, 0 ≤ x ≤ 10}
B = {x : x is one digit prime number} and
C = {x : \(\frac{x}{3}\) ∈ N, x ≤ 12} then A ∩ (B ∩ C) = .[1 Mark, June 2016]
(a) Φ
(b) Set A
(c) Set B
(d) Set C
Answer:
(a)
A = {2, 4, 6, 8, 10}
B = {2, 3, 5, 7}
C = {3, 6, 9, 12}
A ∩(B ∩ C)
= A ∩ (B ∩ C) = Φ
No Common element in all 3 sets.

Question 53.
The domain (D) and range (R) of the function: [1 Mark, June 2016]
f (x) = 2 – |x + 1| is
(a) D = Real numbers, R = (2, ∞)
(b) D = Integers, R = (0, 2)
(c) D = Integers, R = (- ∞, ∞)
(d) D = Real numbers, R = (- ∞, 2)
Answer:
(d) is correct, let y = f(x) = 2 – |x + 1l
For any real values of x; f (x) is defined.
∴ Domain = D Real numbers
Minimum value of |x + 1| is Zero
Maximum value of Range = 2 – 0 = 2
∴ Range = – ∞ < y < 2
= (- ∞; 2]

Question 54.
Let A be the set of the squares of natural numbers and x ∈ A, y ∈ A . Then [1 Mark, June 2016]
(a) x + y ∈ A
(b) x – y ∈ A
(c) \(\frac{x}{y}\) ∈ A
(d) xy ∈ A
Answer:
(d) is correct.
A = {x / x is the squares of natural Nos.}= {1, 4, 9, 16, 25, …………..}
Tricks: then Go by Choices let x = 1; y = 4 ∈ A.
x + y = 1 + 4 = 5 ∉ A.
x – y = 1 – 4 = -3 ∉ A.
\(\frac{x}{y}=\frac{1}{4}\) = ∉ A.
But xy = 1 × 4 = 4 ∈ A.
∴ (d) is correct.

Question 55.
The number of sub-sets formed from the letters of the word “ALLAHABAD”. [1 Mark, June 2016]
(a) 128
(b) 16
(c) 32
(d) None
Answer:
(C) is correct.
Let X = {Letters of word ALLAHABAD}
= {A, L, H, B, D }
No. of sub-sets = 25 = 32

Question 56.
If f(x)=100 A then f-1(x) = .[1 Mark, June 2016]
(a) \(\frac{x}{100}\)
(b) \(\frac{1}{100 x}\)
(c) \(\frac{1}{100}\)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) is correct
Let y = f(x) = 100x
x = \(\frac{y}{100}\); So, f-1(x) = \(\frac{x}{100}\)

Question 57.
f : R → R is defined by f (x) = 2x then f is [1 Mark, June 2016]
(a) One – one and onto
(b) One – one and into
(c) Many to one
(d) One to many
Answer:
(B) is correct.

Question 58.
In a class, 80 students speak Hindi, 60 students speak English and 40 students speak both Hindi and English then the number of students in the class is _______. [1 Mark, June 2017]
(a) 100
(b) 120
(c) 140
(d) 180
Answer:
Let H = Students speak Hindi
E = Students speak English
Given
n(H) = 80 ; n (E) = 60
and n (H ∩ E) = 40
n(H ∪ E) = n(H) + n(E) – n(H ∩ E)
= 80 + 60 – 40 = 100.
Option (a) is correct

Question 59.
If f(x) = \(\frac{x-1}{x}\) and g(x) = \(\frac{1}{1-x}\) then fog(x) = ∪
(a) x – 1
(b) x
(c) 1 – x
(d) – x
Answer:
Sets, Functions and Relations – CA Foundation Maths Study Material 10
Option (b) is correct

Sets, Functions and Relations – CA Foundation Maths Study Material

Question 60.
The Range of the function f is defined by f(x) = \(\frac{x}{x^2+2}\) is _______.[1 Mark, June 2017]
Sets, Functions and Relations – CA Foundation Maths Study Material 11
Answer:
Let y = \(\frac{x}{x^2+2}\) = f(x)
or ; yx2 + 2y = x
or yx2 – x + 2y = 0
It is a quadratic equation in terms of x.
Discriminant = D = b2 – 4ac
= (-1)2 – 4. y ,2y = 1 – 8y2
To be Real solutions ;
D ≥ 0 ⇒ 1 – 8y2 ≥ 0
or 1 ≥ 8y2 ⇒ 8y2 ≤ 1
Sets, Functions and Relations – CA Foundation Maths Study Material 12
(c) is correct.

Question 61.
In a class of 35 students, 16 students play football and 24 students play cricket. Assume that each one play atleast one game, then number of students who play both the games is :
(a) 5
(b) 11
(c) 12
(d) 17
Answer:
n(F ∩ C) = n(F) + n(C) – n(F ∪ C)
= 16 + 24 – 35 = 5
option (a) is correct.

Question 62.
If f(x) = \(\frac{x+1}{x+2}\) = then f[f\(\left(\frac{1}{x}\right)\)] = _______. [1 Mark, Dec. 2017]
(a) \(\frac{2 x+3}{3 x+5}\)
(b) \(\frac{2 x+5}{3 x+2}\)
(c) \(\frac{3 x+2}{5 x+3}\)
(d) \(\frac{5 x+2}{2 x+3}\)
Answer:
(c)
Sets, Functions and Relations – CA Foundation Maths Study Material 13

Question 63.
If A = {Φ, {Φ}} then the Power Set of A is: [1 Mark, June 2018]
(a) {Φ},{0}
(b) {Φ, {Φ}, {{Φ}}, A}
(c) A
(d) {A}, {Φ}
Answer:
(b)
A= {Φ;{Φ}}
p(A)={{}}; {Φ};{{Φ}}; {Φ; {Φ}}
= {Φ; {Φ};{{Φ}}; A}}

Question 64.
If A = {x / x =3n – 2n – 1, where n ∈ N}, B = {x/x = 4(n – 1), where n ∈ N}. Then
(A) A ⊂ B
(b) B ⊂ A
(c) A = B
(d) None
Answer:
(a)
Putting n = 1, 2, 3, ……….. ; we get
A = {x / x = 3n – 2n -1}
= {0 ; 4 ; 20 ; ……………..}
B = {A / x = 4 (n – 1)}
= {0 ; 4 ; 8 ; 12 ; 16 ; 20 ; …………}
Clearly; A ⊂ B

Question 65.
The range of the function \(\frac{x^6}{x^{12}+1}\) is: [1 Mark, June 2018]
(a) (0, ∞)
(b) [0,
(c) (-∞, 0) ∪ [2, ∞)
(d) (0, \(\frac{1}{2}\))
Answer:
(b)
Let y = \(\frac{x^6}{x^{12}+1}\)
or yx12 + y = x6
let z = x6
yz2 + y = z ⇒ yz2 – z + y = 0
It is a Quadratic Eqn. in terms of Z. for real solns.
D = b2 – 4ac = (-1)2 – 4.y.y
= 1 – 4 y2
D > 0
or; 1 – 4y2 ≥ 0 ⇒ 1 ≥ 4y2
or ; 4y2 ≤ 1
or y2 ≤ \(\frac{1}{4}\) If y2 = \(\frac{1}{4}\) ⇒ y ± \(\frac{1}{2}\)
–\(\frac{1}{2}\) ≤ y ≤ \(\frac{1}{2}\)
FromQts. 0, [∵ y is always positive.]

Question 66.
Let N be the set of all natural numbers; E be the set of all even natural numbers then the function; [1 Mark, May 2018]
(a) One – one – into
(b) Many – one – into
(c) One – one – one
(d) Many – one – onto
Answer:
(c)
∵ N = set of Natural Numbers
= {1, 2, 3, ………….}
f{x} = 2x ; ∀ X ∈ N
So; f(1) = 2 × 1 = 2
f(2) = 2 × 2 = 4
f(3) = 2 × 3 = 6
So;
Sets, Functions and Relations – CA Foundation Maths Study Material 14
Clearly ; It is one-one and onto mapping.

Sets, Functions and Relations – CA Foundation Maths Study Material

Question 67.
In a town of 20,000 families it was found that 40% families buy newspaper. A, 20% families buy newspaper B and 10% families buy newspaper C. 5% families buy A and B, 3% buy B and C and 4% buy A and C if 2% families buy all the three newspapers, then the number of families which buy A only is : [1 Mark, May 2018 ]
(a) 6600
(b) 6300
(c) 5600
(d) 600
Answer:
(a)
Sets, Functions and Relations – CA Foundation Maths Study Material 15
n(A) = 40% ; n(B) = 20% n(c) = 10% ;
n(A ∩ B) = 5% n(B ∩ C) = 3% ;
n(C ∩ A)=4% n(A ∩ B ∩ C) = 2%
n(A ∩ B̄ ∩ C̄) = Only A
= n(A) – n(A ∩ B) – n(A ∩ C)+ n(A ∩ B ∩ C)
= 20000 × 33%
= 6600.

Question 68.
The numbers of proper sub-sets of the set {3, 4, 5, 6, 7} is : [1 Mark, May 2018]
(a) 32
(b) 31
(c) 30
(d) 25
Answer:
(b)
Formula
No. of proper sub-sets = 2n – 1 = 25 – 1 = 31.

Question 69.
A is {1, 2, 3, 4} and B is {1, 4, 9, 16, 25} if a function f is defined from set A to B where f(x) = x2 then the range of f is: [1 Mark, Nov. 2018]
(a) {1, 2, 3, 4}
(b) {1, 4, 9, 16}
(c) {1, 4, 9, 16, 25}
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b)
∵ f(x) = x2
Sets, Functions and Relations – CA Foundation Maths Study Material 16
Range = {1, 4, 9, 16}

Question 70.
If A = {1, 2} and B = {3, 4}. Determine the number of relations from A and B: [1 Mark, Nov. 2018]
(a) 3
(b) 16
(c) 5
(d) 6
Answer:
(b)
No. of Relations = 2n(A×B)
= 2(2×2)
= 16.

Question 71.
If A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7} and B = {2, 4, 6, 8}. Cardinal number of A – B is: [1 Mark, Nov. 2018]
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 9
(d) 7
Answer:
A ∩ B = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7} ∩ {2,4, 6, 8}
= {2, 4, 6} ⇒n(A ∩ B) = 3
n(A – B) = n(A) – n(A ∩ B)
= 7 – 3 = 4

Question 72.
Identify the function from the following: [1 Mark, Nov. 2018]
(a) {(1,1), (1,2), (1,3)}
(b) {(1,1), (2,1), (2,3)}
(c) {(1,2), (2,2), (3,2), (4,2)}
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c)
Go by choices
Sets, Functions and Relations – CA Foundation Maths Study Material 17

Sets, Functions and Relations – CA Foundation Maths Study Material

Question 73.
If A= {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9}; B = {1, 3, 4, 5, 7, 8}; C = {2, 6, 8}. [1 Mark, June 2019]
Then find (A – B) ∪ C
(a) {2, 6}
(b) {2, 6, 8}
(c) {2, 6, 8, 9}
(d) None
Answer:
(c)
A – B = A – (A ∩ B)
= {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9}
= {1, 3, 4, 5, 7, 8}
= {2, 6, 9}
(A – B) ∪ C = {2; 6; 9} ∪{2; 6; 8}
= {2 ; 6 ; 8 ; 9}
(c) is correct.

Question 74.
A= {1, 2, 3, 4 ………….. 10} a relation on A, R= {(x,y)/x + y= 10, x ∈ A, Y ∈ A, x ≥ Y} then domain of R-1 is: [1 Mark, June 2019]
(a) {1,2, 3, 4, 5}
(b) {0,3, 5, 7, 9}
(c) {1, 2, 4, 5, 6, 7}
(d) None
Answer:
(a)
Given; A = {1, 2, 3, ………………10}
R={x; y)/x + y = 10; X ∈ A; Y ∈ A; x > y}
⇒ R = (5 ; 5) ; (6 ; 4) ; (7 ; 3); (8 ; 2); (9 ; 1)
⇒ R-1 = (5; 5);(4; 6) ; (3 ; 7); (2 ; 8); (1 ; 9)
Domain of R-1 = (5 ; 4 ; 3 ; 2 ; 1)

Question 75.
The no. of sub-sets of the set {3, 4, 5} is :
(a) 4
(b) 8
(c) 16
(d) 32
Answer:
(b)
No. of sub-sets = 2n = 23 = 8.

Question 76.
If f(x) = x2 and g(x) = √x then
(a) go f(3) = 3
(b) go f(-3) = 9
(c) go f(9) = 3
(d) go f(-9) = 3
Answer:
(a)
∵ f(x) = x2; g(x)= √x
go f(x) = g {f(x)}
\(\sqrt{f(x)}=\sqrt{x^2}\)
= x
gof{ 3) = 3
(a) is correct.

Sets, Functions and Relations – CA Foundation Maths Study Material

Question 77.
If A = {a, b, c, d}; B = {p, q, r, s} which of the following relation is a function from A to B: [1 Mark, June 2019]
(a) R1 = {(a, p), (b, q), (c, s)}
(b) R2 = {(p, a), (b, r), (d, s)}
(c) R3 = {(b, p), (c, s), (b, r)}
(d) R4 = {(a, p), (b, r), (c, q), (d, s)}
Answer:
(d)
GBC
(a) All have one and only one solution of A in B except d i.e. d has no solution in B
⇒ Clearly R, is not Function.
Similarly (b) & (c) are not functions or mappings.
Sets, Functions and Relations – CA Foundation Maths Study Material 18
∴ R4 is a function or mapping from A to B.

Nasik Merchants Cooperative Bank Personal Loan | How To Apply? Eligibility, Documents Required and Myths

Nasik Merchants Cooperative Bank Personal Loan | How To Apply? Eligibility, Documents Required and Myths

Nasik Merchants Cooperative Bank Personal Loan: To provide banking and financial services for everyone, the Nasik Merchants Co-operative Bank Ltd was created in 1959 and has grown stronger with each year. While it began with a few branches in Maharashtra and Gujarat, it has grown to include 81 locations. It was granted Scheduled Bank status in 1996 and offered a wide range of services to its clients, including loans, deposits, insurance, Aadhaar card connection, and franking and cash transfer services. It is headquartered in New Delhi.

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Nasik Merchants Cooperative Bank

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Nasik Merchants Cooperative Bank Personal Loan Eligibility

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Nasik Merchants Cooperative Bank Personal Loan Documents Required

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Nasik Merchant Personal Loan Repayment

The maximum number of equal monthly payments for personal loans is 60. (EMIs). Initially, there are twelve monthly payments. Your credit score also influences how long it takes you to pay off your debt.

Personal Loan Rejection: The Reasons for Denial of the Application

  • Having a Bad Credit Score: A person’s credit score is seen as a measure of their ability to get credit. A good credit score influences your ability to repay a loan without defaulting on the agreement. For a lender to determine the risk of default, a credit score is required. Many personal loan applications are turned down by lenders because of a low credit score or no credit history. A person with a credit score of less than 750 may have difficulty getting a personal loan because of their poor credit history.
  • Increase in the amount of existing debt: If you have previously taken out a large amount of debt and your loan-to-net-income ratio is more than 40%, lenders may reject your application for a loan.
  • An increase in loan inquiries: When you apply for a loan, the lender will request a copy of your credit report from the credit bureaus, referred to as a credit inquiry. Such inquiries are regarded as “hard inquiries” by the credit bureau, and they are recorded in your credit report. Even if the service is provided free of charge, you should refrain from making an excessive number of inquiries. The number of inquiries on your credit report might negatively influence your credit score.

Myths About Personal Loans

  • Pre-payment of a Personal Loan is always subject to a penalty charge: It is not always the case that pre-payment of a Personal Loan will result in a penalty. It is up to the lenders to choose whether or not to apply a pre-payment penalty. Several lenders have been identified that do not impose any penalties for early repayment of a loan.
  • The most advantageous loan is a personal loan with the lowest interest rate: It is not fair to say that the best Personal Loan has the lowest interest rate. While choosing the best lender for a personal loan, there are several other significant factors to consider. These components include the processing charge, the qualifying amount, the loan payback period, service difficulties, and other loan conditions, among others. In addition to looking for the lowest interest rate, you should consider all of these factors.
  • It is preferable to have a more extended repayment period for personal loans: It is often believed that extending the repayment term of a personal loan is preferable since the borrower would be required to pay lesser EMIs, which they can afford, but this is not the case. A more extended repayment period also results in a more significant interest outlay. You will be required to pay interest for a longer length of time.

Conclusion on Nasik Merchants Cooperative Bank Personal Loan

When determining whether or not to approve a house loan application, several factors are considered, including the applicant’s credit score. Even if you have a good credit score, your loan application may be rejected if the other criteria aren’t met. If you have bad credit, you may be able to secure a home loan, but the interest rate is likely to be higher.

Borrowers’ age and income are also considered when approving a home loan. To receive an answer to a question you may have concerning your Nasik Merchant Cooperative balance, text a particular phone number to the account statement number.