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CS Executive Tax Laws MCQ

CS Executive Tax Laws MCQ Questions with Answers | CS Executive Tax MCQ Book PDF

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Tax Laws MCQ for CS Executive New Syllabus | Tax Laws CS Executive MCQs

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Tax Laws CS Executive MCQs | CS Executive Tax MCQ Book Pdf for June 2021

CA Foundation Study Material

Tax Laws Chapter Wise Weightage

Chapter 2014 2015 2016 2017 2018 2019 2020
J D J D J D J D J D J D D
1 7 6 3 6 4 2 6 4 6 3 1 2
2 6 2 4 3 4 4 4 5 2 4 3 4
3 8 5 5 7 5 9 9 2 2 4 4 3
4 4 2 3 3 2 3 3 3 4 4 4
5 6 10 8 6 4 10 8 10 9 11 10 8
6 4 9 4 5 4 3 4 7 1 6 3 4
7 5 4 4 5 4 9 6 5 3 2
8 2 1 2 2 2 4 2 2 2
9 3 2 4 5 5 4 2 5 4 1
10 6 6 3 7 4 4 9 6 7 4 3 3
11 4 2 1 4 5 6 2 2 4 3
12 4 1 2 2 3 3 2 1
13 3 4 4 2 4 3 3 1 3 1
14 3 3 3 3 4 3 3 5 5 3 3
15 1 2 1 1 1 2
16 6 1 7 8 4 2 5 4 1
17 6 6 6 4 7 1 3 3 5 4 6 2
18 2 2 4 5 2 2
19 2 1 5 1 3 2 1 6 4 3 1
20 3 3 2 2 3 2 3 6 2
21 30 30 30 30 30 30 30 30 30 30 46 43
22 4 7
Total 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 100 100

Final Words

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Preliminary – CA Inter Law Study Material

Preliminary – CA Inter Law Study Material is designed strictly as per the latest syllabus and exam pattern.

Preliminary – CA Inter Law Study Material

Definitions

Question 1.
X Industries Ltd. is a company in which 25% of shareholding is held by Central Government; 10% shareholding is held by Government of Maharashtra and 15% shareholding is held by Central Government and Government of Rajasthan jointly. Examine whether, X Industries Ltd. Is a government company.
Answer:
Government Company:

  • As per Sec. 2(45) of Companies Act, 2013, government company means any company in which not less than 51% of the paid-up share capital is held by the Central Government, or by any State Government or Governments, or partly by the Central Government and partly by one or more State Governments, and includes a company which is a subsidiary company of such a government company.
  • In the given case, X Industries Ltd. is a company in which 25% of shareholding is held by Central Government; 10% shareholding is held by Government of Maharashtra and 15% shareholding is held by Central Government and Government of Rajasthan jointly.
  • Total shareholding of X Industries Ltd. held by various governments is 50%.

Conclusion: X Industries Ltd. is not a government company as the shares held by various
governments in aggregate is less than 51%.

Question 2.
The statutory auditors of a company were required to issue a certificate on the net worth of the company as per the requirement of the management as of 30 September 2022 computed as per the provision of section 2(57) of the Companies Act, 2013.

The company had fair valued its property, plant and equipment in the current year which was mistakenly taken into retained earnings of the company in its books of account. Please advise whether this fair valuation would be covered in the net worth of the company as per the legal requirements.
Answer:
Computation of Net Worth:

As per Sec. 2(57) of Companies Act, 2013, net worth means the aggregate value of the paid-up share capital and all reserves created out of the profits, securities premium account and debit or credit balance of profit and loss account, after deducting the aggregate value of the accumulated losses, deferred expenditure and miscellaneous expenditure not written off, as per the audited balance sheet, but does not include reserves created out of revaluation of assets, write-back of depreciation and amalgamation.

In the given case, company had fair valued its property, plant and equipment in the current year which was mistakenly taken into retained earnings of the company in its books of account.

Conclusion: Even if the company has taken the fair valuation to the retained earnings in its books of account, the resultant credit in reserves would be in the category of ‘reserves created out of revaluation of assets’ which is specifically excluded in the definition of ‘net worth’ in Sec. 2(57) and hence should be excluded by the company.

Preliminary – CA Inter Law Study Material

Question 3.
In a company, a default was committed with respect to the allotment of shares by the officers. In company there were no managing director, whole time director, a manager, secretary, a person charged by the Board with the responsibility of complying with the provisions of the Act, and neither any director/directors specified by the board. Examine, the persons who can be treated as Officer in Default.
OR
Johnson Limited goes for public issue of its shares. The issue was oversubscribed. A default was committed with respect to allotment of shares by the officers of the company. There were no Managing Director, Whole time Director or any other officer/person designated by the Board with the responsibility of complying with the provisions of the Act.

State, who are the persons considered as officers in default under the Companies Act, 2013. Examine who will be considered in default in the instant case.7 [July 21 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Officer in Default:
As per Sec. 2(60) of Companies Act, 2013, officer who is in default, for the purpose of any provision in this Act which enacts that an officer of the company who is in default shall be liable to any penalty or punishment by way of imprisonment, fine or otherwise, means any of the following officers of a company, namely:

  1. whole-time director;
  2. key managerial personnel (KMP);
  3. where there is no KMP, such director or directors as specified by the Board in this behalf and who has or have given his or their consent in writing to the Board to such specification, or all the directors, if no director is so specified;
  4. any person who, under the immediate authority of the Board or any KMP, is charged with any responsibility including maintenance, filing or distribution of accounts or records, authorises, actively participates in, knowingly permits, or knowingly fails to take active steps to prevent, any default;
  5. any person in accordance with whose advice, directions or instructions the Board of Directors of the company is accustomed to act, other than a person who gives advice to the Board in a professional capacity;
  6. every director, in respect of a contravention of any of the provisions of this Act, who is aware of such contravention by virtue of the receipt by him of any proceedings of the Board or participation in such proceedings without objecting to the same, or where such contravention had taken place with his consent or connivance; and
  7. in respect of the issue or transfer of any shares of a company, the share transfer agents, registrars and merchant bankers to the issue or transfer.

Conclusion; In the given case, there were no managing director, whole time director, a manager, secretary, a person charged by the Board with the responsibility of complying with the provisions of the Act, and neither any director/directors specified by the board. Therefore, in such situation, all the directors of the company may be treated as officers in default.

Question 4.
Flora Fauna Limited was registered as a Public Company. There are 230 members in the company as noted below:

(a) Directors and their relatives 50
(b) Employees 15
(c) EX’Employees (Shares were allotted when they were employees) 10 ‘
(d) 5 couples holding shares jointly in the name of husband and wife (5*2) 10
(e) Others 145

The board of directors of the company propose to convert it into a private company. Also, advice whether reduction in the number of members is necessary.
Answer:
Conversion from public company to private company:

As per Sec. 2(68) of the Companies Act, 2013, “Private Company” means a company having a minimum paid-up share capital as may be prescribed, and which by its articles, except in case of OPC, limits the number of its members to 200.

However, where two or more persons hold one or more shares in a company jointly, they shall, for the purposes of this clause, be treated as a single member.

It is further provided that –
(A) persons who are in the employment of the company; and
(B) persons who, having been formerly in the employment of the company, were members of the company while in that employment and have continued to be members after the employment ceased, shall not be included in the number of members.

In the instant case, Flora Fauna Limited may be converted into a private company only if the total members of the company are limited to 200. Total Number of members, for this purpose are computed as below:

(i) Directors and their relatives 50
(ii) 5 couples (5*1) 5
(iii) Others 145
Total 200

Conclusion: There is no need for reduction in the number of members since existing number of members does not exceed maximum limit of 200.

Question 5.
A Pvt. Ltd. is wholly owned subsidiary of AB Ltd., a public company incorporated under the Companies Act, 2013. A Pvt Ltd. wanted to avail exemptions as provided to private companies. Examine whether A Pvt Ltd. can do so.
Answer:
Status of wholly owned private subsidiary company:

  • As per Sec. 2(71) of Companies Act, 2013, Public company means a company which:
    (a) is not a private company; and
    (b) has a minimum paid-up share capital as may be prescribed.
  • It is also provided that a company which is a subsidiary of a company, not being a private company, shall be deemed to be public company for the purposes of this Act even where such subsidiary company continues to be a private company in its articles.

Conclusion: Since A Pvt. Ltd. is subsidiary of AB Ltd., which is a public company, therefore A Pvt. Ltd. will be deemed to be a public company and will be not allowed to avail exemptions provided to a private company.

Preliminary – CA Inter Law Study Material

Question 6.
Examine the below mentioned situation and answer whether the entities are related parties for the purpose of Sec. 188:
(i) XYZ Pvt Ltd. has two subsidiary companies, Y Pvt Ltd. and Z Pvt Ltd.
(ii) XYZ Ltd. a public company, has two subsidiary companies, Y Pvt. Ltd and Z Pvt. Ltd.
Answer:
Related Parties:

As per the section 2(76)(viii), related party with reference to a company, means any body corporate which is:

(A) a holding, subsidiary or an associate company of such company;
(B) a subsidiary of a holding company to which it is also a subsidiary; or
(C) an investing company or the venturer of the company.

  • However, clause (viii) shall not apply with respect to Sec. 188 to a private company.
  • As per Sec. 2(71), a private company which is a subsidiary of a public company will be deemed to be a public company.

Conclusion: Applying the provisions as stated above, following conclusions may be drawn:

  1. Y Pvt. Ltd and Z Pvt. Ltd are not related parties for the purpose of Sec. 188. However, if Y Pvt. Ltd and Z Pvt. Ltd. have common directors, then they will be deemed to be related parties because of section 2(76)(iv).
  2. As a private company which is a subsidiary of a public company will be deemed to be a public company, so the exemption that provisions of Sec. 188 not applicable to private companies, will not be available to Y Pvt. Ltd and Z Pvt. Ltd. Hence, Y Pvt. Ltd and Z Pvt. Ltd are related parties. In addition, XYZ Ltd. will also be related Party to Y Pvt. Ltd and Z Pvt. Ltd.

Question 7.
The paid-up share capital of Saras Private Limited ₹ 1 crore, consisting of 8 lacs Equity Shares of ₹ 10 each, fully paid-up and 2 lacs Cumulative Preference Shares of ₹ 10 each, fully paid-up. Jeevan (JVN) Private Limited and Sudhir Private Limited are holding 3 lacs Equity Shares and 50,000 Equity Shares respectively in Saras Private Limited. Jeevan Private Limited and Sudhir Private Limited are the subsidiaries of Piyush Private Limited. With reference to the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013 examine whether Saras Private Limited is a subsidiary of Piyush Private Limited? Would your answer be different if Piyush Private Limited has 8 out of 9 Directors on the Board of Saras Private Limited? [RTP-May 18, May 19]
Answer:
Status of Subsidiary company:

As per Sec. 2(87] of the Companies Act 2013 “subsidiary company” or “subsidiary”, in relation to any other company (that is to say the holding company], means a company in which the holding company:

    1. controls the composition of the Board of Directors; or
    2. exercises or controls more than one-half of the total voting power either at its own or together with one or more of its subsidiary companies:

For the purposes of this clause:

(a) a company shall be deemed to be a subsidiary company of the holding company even if the control referred to in sub-clause

    1. or sub-clause
    2. is of another subsidiary company of the holding company;

(b) the composition of a company’s Board of Directors shall be deemed to be controlled by another company if that other company by exercise of some power exercisable by it at its discretion can appoint or remove all or a majority of the directors.

In the present case, Jeevan Private Limited and Sudhir Private Limited together hold less than one half of the total share capital.

Conclusion: Applying the provisions as stated above, it can be concluded that Piyush Private Limited (holding of Jeevan Private Limited and Sudhir Private Limited] will not be a holding company of Saras Private Limited.

However, if Piyush Private Limited has 8 out of 9 Directors on the Board of Saras Private Limited i.e. controls the composition of the Board of Directors; it (Piyush Private Limited] will be treated as the holding company of Saras Private Limited.

Question 8.
MNP Private Ltd. is a company registered under the Companies Act, 2013 with a, Paid Up Share Capital of ₹ 1.80 crores and turnover of ₹ 22 crores. Explain the meaning of the “Small Company” and examine the following in accordance with the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013:

  1. Whether the MNP Private Ltd. can avail the status of small company?
  2. What will be your answer if the turnover of the company is ₹ 18 crore? [May 18 (6 Marks), MTP-Oct. 20]

Answer:
Determination of Status of Small Company:

As per Sec. 2(85) of the Companies Act, 2013, Small Company means a company, other than a public company,

    1. paid-up share capital of which does not exceed ₹ 50 lakh or such higher amount as may be prescribed which shall not be more than ₹ 10 crore; and
    2. turnover of which as per its last profit and loss account does not exceed ₹ 2 crore or such higher amount as may be prescribed which shall not be more than ₹ 100 crore.

As per Rule 2(1)(t) of the Companies (Specification of Definitions Details) Rules, 2014, the paid-up capital and turnover of the small company shall not exceed ₹ 2 crores and ₹ 20 crores respectively.

Nothing in this clause shall apply to:

(A) a holding company or a subsidiary company;
(B) a company registered under section 8; or
(C) a company or body corporate governed by any special Act.

Conclusion: Based on the provisions as stated above, following conclusions may be drawn:

    1. MNP Ltd. cannot avail the status of small company as turnover of the company is more than ₹ 20 Crores.
    2. MNP Ltd. can avail the status of small company as it fulfils both criteria of paid-up capital (being less than ₹ 2 crores) and turnover (being less than ₹ 20 crores).

Question 9.
What does the term Financial Statements include in relation to a company under the Companies Act, 2013? Which companies need not prepare a cash flow statement? [Nov. 18 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Financial Statements:
As per Sec. 2(40) of Companies Act, 2013, Financial statement in relation to a company, includes:

  1. a balance sheet as at the end of the financial year;
  2. a profit and loss account, or in the case of a company carrying on any activity not for profit, an income and expenditure account for the financial year;
  3. cash flow statement for the financial year;
  4. a statement of changes in equity, if applicable; and
  5. any explanatory note annexed to, or forming part of, any document referred above.

Companies Not requiring to prepare cash flow statement:

The financial statement, with respect to OPC, small company, dormant company and private company (if such private company is a start up and has not committed a default in filing its financial statements u/s 137 of the said Act or annual return u/s 92 of the said Act with the Registrar), may not include the cash flow statement.

Question 10.
Teresa Ltd. is a company registered in New York (U.S.A.). The company has no place of business established in India, but it is doing online business through data interchange in India. Explain with reference to relevant provisions of the Companies Act, 2013 whether Teresa Ltd. will be treated as Foreign Company. [Nov. 18 (6 Marks)]
Answer:
Foreign company:

As per Sec. 2(42) of the Companies Act, 2013, foreign company means any company or body corporate incorporated outside India which:

(a) has a place of business in India whether by itself or through an agent, physically or through electronic mode; and
(b) conducts any business activity in India in any other manner.

As per the Companies (Specification of Definitions Details) Rules, 2014, the term “electronic mode”, means carrying out electronically based, whether main server is installed in India or not, including, but not limited to:

  1. Business to business and business to consumer transactions, data interchange and other digital supply transactions;
  2. Offering to accept deposits or inviting deposits or accepting deposits or subscriptions in securities, in India or from citizens of India;
  3. Financial settlements, web based marketing, advisory and transactional services, database services and products, supply chain management;
  4. Online services such as telemarketing, telecommuting, telemedicine, education and information research; and
  5. All related data communication services, whether conducted by e-mail, mobile devices, social media, cloud computing, document management, voice or data transmission or otherwise;

In the given question, Teresa Ltd. is a company registered in New York (U.S.A.). The company has no place of business established in India, but it is doing online business through data interchange in India.

Conclusion: Teresa Ltd. will be treated as a foreign company since it is doing online business through
data interchange in India even though the company has no place of business established in India.

Note: Sec. 2(42) is not covered in Study Material of ICAI (Sep. 2021 Edition).

Preliminary – CA Inter Law Study Material

Question 11.
Herry Limited is a company registered in Thailand. It has no place of business established in India, yet it is doing online business through telemarketing in India having its main server for online business outside India. State the status of the company under the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013. (Nov. 19 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Foreign Company:

As per Sec. 2(42) of the Companies Act, 2013, “foreign company” means any company or body corporate incorporated outside India which –

(a) has a place of business in India whether by itself or through an agent, physically or through electronic mode; and
(b) conducts any business activity in India in any other manner.

As per the Companies (Registration of Foreign Companies) Rules, 2014, “electronic mode” means carrying out electronically based, whether main server is installed in India or not, including, but not limited to online services such as telemarketing, telecommuting, telemedicine, education and information research.

Conclusion: Based on the legal provisions as stated above, it can be concluded that being involved in telemarketing in India having its main server for online business outside India, Herry Limited will be treated as foreign company.

Note: Sec. 2(42) is not covered in Study Material of ICAI (Sep. 2021 Edition).

Question 12.
SKP Limited (Registered in India), a wholly owned subsidiary company of Herry Limited decided to follow different financial year for consolidation of its accounts outside India. State the procedure to be followed in this regard assuming that Herry Limited is a foreign company. [Nov. 19 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Financial year in case of a foreign company:

As per proviso to Sec. 2(41) of Companies Act, 2013, where a company or body corporate, which is a holding company or a subsidiary or associate company of a company incorporated outside India and is required to follow a different financial year for consolidation of its accounts outside India, the Central Government may, on an application made by that company or body corporate in such form and manner as may be prescribed, allow any period as its financial year, whether or not that period is a year.

Hence, SKP Limited is required to make an application to the Central Government to follow a different financial year for consolidation of its accounts outside India in prescribed form and manner.

Question 13.
The information extracted from the audited Financial Statement of Smart Solutions Private Limited as at 31st March, 2022 is as below:

(1) Paid-up equity share capital ₹ 50,00,000 divided into 5,00,000 equity shares (carrying voting rights) of ₹ 10 each. There is no change in the paid-up share capital thereafter.
(2) The turnover is ₹ 2,00,00,000.

It is further understood that Nice Software Limited, which is a public limited company, is holding 2,00,000 equity shares, fully paid-up, of Smart Solutions Private Limited. Smart Solutions Private Limited has filed its Financial Statement for the said year with the Registrar of Companies (ROC) excluding the Cash Flow Statement within the prescribed time line during the financial year 2022-23. The ROC has issued a notice to Smart Solutions Private Limited as it has failed to file the cash flow statement along with the Balance Sheet and Profit and Loss Account.

You are to advise on the following points explaining the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013:

(i) Whether Smart Solutions Private Limited shall be deemed to be a small company whose significant equity shares are held by a public company?
(ii) Whether Smart Solutions Private Limited has defaulted in filing its financial statement? (July 21 (6 Marks)]

Answer:

Determination of Status of Small Company:

  • As per Sec. 2(85) of the Companies Act, 2013, Small Company means a company, other than a public company,
    1. paid-up share capital of which does not exceed ₹ 50 lakh or such higher amount as may be prescribed which shall not be more than ₹ 10 crores; and
    2. turnover of which as per its last profit and loss account does not exceed ₹ 2 crores or such higher amount as may be prescribed which shall not be more than 1100 crore.
  • Nothing in this clause shall apply to:
    (A) a holding company or a subsidiary company;
    (B) a company registered under section 8; or
    (C) a company or body corporate governed by any special Act.
  • As per Rule 2(l)(t) of the Companies (Specification of Definitions Details) Rules, 2014, the paid-up capital and turnover of the small company shall not exceed ₹ 2 crores and ₹ 20 crores respectively.
  • As per Sec. 2(87), subsidiary company, in relation to any other company (that is to say the holding company), means a company in which the holding company exercises or controls more than 1/2 of the total voting power either at its own or together with one or more of its subsidiary companies.
  • In the given question, Nice Software Limited (a public company) holds 2,00,000 equity shares of Smart Solutions Private Limited (having paid up share capital of 5,00,000 equity shares @ ₹ 10 totaling ₹ 50 lakhs).

Hence, Smart Solutions Private Limited is not a subsidiary of Nice Software Limited and hence it is a private company and not a deemed public company.

Conclusion: As the paid-up share capital (₹ 50 lakhs) and turnover (₹ 2 crores) of the Smart Solutions Private Limited is within the limit as prescribed u/s 2(85), hence, this company will be categorised as a small company.
Default in filing the financial statements:

As per Sec. 2(40) of the Companies Act, 2013, Financial statement in relation to a company, includes:

(a) a balance sheet as at the end of the financial year;
(b) a profit and loss account, or in the case of a company carrying on any activity not for profit, an income and expenditure account for the financial year;
(c) cash flow statement for the financial year;
(d) a statement of changes in equity, if applicable; and
(e) any explanatory note annexed to, or forming part of, any document referred to in points (a) to (d):
Provided that the financial statement, with respect to OPC, small company and dormant company, may not include the cash flow statement.

Conclusion: Smart Solutions Private Limited being a small company is exempted from filing a cash flow statement as a part of its financial statements. Thus, Smart Solutions Private Limited has not defaulted in filing its financial statements with ROC.

Preliminary – CA Inter Law Study Material

Question 14.
New Private Ltd. is a company registered under the Companies Act, 2013 with a paid-up share capital of ₹ 70 lakh and turnover of ₹ 30 crores. Explain the meaning of the “Small Company” and examine the following in accordance with the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013:
(i) Whether the New Private Ltd. can avail the status of small company?
(ii) What will be your answer if the turnover of the company is 115 crore and the capital is same as ₹ 70 lakh? [MTP-Oct. 21]
Answer:
Determination of Status of Small Company:

  • As per Sec. 2(85) of the Companies Act, 2013, Small Company means a company, other than a public company,
    1. paid-up share capital of which does not exceed ₹ 50 lakh or such higher amount as may be prescribed which shall not be more than ₹ 10 crore; and
    2. turnover of which as per its last profit and loss account does not exceed ₹ 2 crore or such higher amount as may be prescribed which shall not be more than ₹ 100 crore.
  • As per Rule 2(1)(t) of the Companies (Specification of Definitions Details) Rules, 2014, the paid-up capital and turnover of the small company shall not exceed ₹ 2 crores and ₹ 20 crores respectively.
  • Nothing in this clause shall apply to:
    (A) a holding company or a subsidiary company;
    (B) a company registered under section 8; or
    (C) a company or body corporate governed by any special Act.

Conclusion: Based on the provisions as stated above, following conclusions may be drawn:

  1. New Private Ltd. cannot avail the status of small company as turnover of the company is more than ₹ 20 Crores.
  2. New Private Ltd. can avail the status of small company as it fulfils both criteria of paid-up capital (being less than ₹ 2 crores) and turnover (being less than ₹ 20 crores).

Question 15.
Define “Small Company”. [Dec. 21 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Small Company:
As Per Sec. 2(85) of the Companies Act, 2013, ‘Small company’ means a company, other than a public
company-

  1. paid-up share capital of which does not exceed ₹ 50 lakh or such higher amount as may be prescribed which shall not be more than ₹ 10 crore; and
  2. turnover of which as per profit and loss account for the immediately preceding financial year does not exceed ₹ 2 crore or such higher amount as may be prescribed which shall not be more than ₹ 100 crore:

Provided that nothing in this clause shall apply to-

(A) a holding company or a subsidiary company;
(B) a company registered under section 8; or
(C) a company or body corporate governed by any special Act.

As per the Companies (Specification of Definitions Details) Rules, 2014, for the purposes of sub-clause

  1. and sub-clause
  2. of Sec. 2(85) of the Act, paid up capital and turnover of the small company shall not exceed ₹ 2 crores and ₹ 20 crores respectively.

Question 16.
Kapila Limited issued equity shares of ₹ 1,00,000 (10,000 shares of ₹ 10 each) on 01.04.2022 which have been fully subscribed, whereby Kusha Limited holds 4000 shares and Prem Limited holds 2000 shares in Kapila Limited. Kapila Limited is also holding 20% equity shares of Red Limited before the date of issue of equity shares stated above. Red Limited controls the composition of Board of Directors of Kusha Limited and Prem Limited from 01.08.2022.

Examine with relevant provisions of the Companies Act, 2013:

  1. Whether Kapila Limited is a subsidiary of Red Limited?
  2. Whether Kapila Limited can hold shares of Red Limited? [MTP-March 22]

Answer:
Status of Subsidiary company:

As per Sec. 2(87) of the Companies Act, 2013 “subsidiary company” or “subsidiary”, in relation to
any other company (i.e., the holding company), means a company in which the holding company-

    1. controls the composition of the Board of Directors; or
    2. exercises or controls more than 50% of the total voting power either at its own or together with one or more of its subsidiary companies.

For the purposes of this clause:

    1. a company shall be deemed to be a subsidiary company of the holding company even if the control referred to in sub-clause
      1. or sub-clause
      2. is of another subsidiary company of the holding company;
    2. the composition of a company’s Board of Directors shall be deemed to be controlled by another company if that other company by exercise of some power exercisable by it at its discretion can appoint or remove all or a majority of the directors.

As per Sec. 19 of the Companies Act, 2013, no company shall, hold any shares in its holding company and no holding company shall allot or transfer its shares to any of its subsidiary companies and any such allotment or transfer of shares of a company to its subsidiary company shall be void:
Provided that nothing in this sub-section shall apply to a case where the subsidiary company is a shareholder even before it became a subsidiary company of the holding company.

In the instant case, Kapila Limited issued 10,000 equity shares on 1.4.2022 whereby Kusha Limited & Prem Limited holds 4000 & 2000 shares respectively in Kapila Ltd., Considering 1 share = 1 vote, Kusha Limited and Prem Limited together holds more than one-half (50%) of the total voting power. Therefore, Kapila Limited will be subsidiary to Kusha Limited & Prem Limited from 1.4.2022.

Kapila Limited is already holding 20% equity shares of Red Limited before the date of issue of equity shares i.e. 1.4.2022. Further, Red Limited controls the composition of Board of Directors of Kusha Limited and Prem Limited from 01.08.2022. In the light of sub-clause (87) of Clause 2, Red Limited is a holding company of Kusha Limited and Prem Limited (Subsidiary companies).

Conclusion: Based on the above discussion, following conclusions may be drawn:

  1. Kapila Limited shall be deemed to be a subsidiary company of the holding company (Red Limited) as Red Limited controls the composition of subsidiary companies Kusha Limited & Prem Limited as per explanation to clause (87) of Sec. 2.
  2. Kapila Limited can hold shares of Red Limited as Kapila Limited was holding shares even before it became a subsidiary company of the Red Limited.

Question 17.
AJD Pvt. Ltd. is having paid up share capital of ₹ 45 Lakhs and annual turnover of ₹ 185 Lacs, it is a wholly owned subsidiary of K Ltd., a listed company. Can AJD Pvt. Ltd. be called a small company as per the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013. [MTP-April 22]
Answer:
Determination of Status of Small Company:

  • As per Sec. 2(85) of the Companies Act, 2013, Small Company means a company, other than a public company,
    1. paid-up share capital of which does not exceed ₹ 50 lakh or such higher amount as may be prescribed which shall not be more than ₹ 10 crore; and
    2. turnover of which as per its last profit and loss account does not exceed ₹ 2 crore or such higher amount as may be prescribed which shall not be more than ₹ 100 crore.
  • As per Rule 2(1)(t) of the Companies (Specification of Definitions Details) Rules, 2014, the paid-up capital and turnover of the small company shall not exceed ₹ 2 crores and ₹ 20 crores respectively.
  • Nothing in this clause shall apply to:
    (A) a holding company or a subsidiary company;
    (B) a company registered under section 8; or
    (C) a company or body corporate governed by any special Act.

Conclusion: In the given case, AJD Pvt. Ltd. satisfies the turnover and paid-up share capital criteria to be small company, but being a subsidiary of K Ltd (a listed), it falls under the exclusions to the definition and hence is not a small Company.

Preliminary – CA Inter Law Study Material

Question 18.
Following are some of the securities, issued by different companies related with each other, as follows:

Company Securities Issued Remarks
Kleshrahit Ltd. Listed non-convertible redeemable preference shares issued on private placement basis in terms of relevant SEBI Regulations. Has the power to appoint 2/3rd directors in Indriyadaman Ltd.
Indriyadaman Ltd. Listed non-convertible debt securities issued on private placement basis in terms of relevant SEBI Regulations. Holding 60% voting power in Sajagta (P) Ltd.
Sajagta (P) Ltd. Listed non-convertible debt securities issued on private placement basis in terms of relevant SEBI Regulations. The company holds 52% equity shares in Pratibodh Ltd. as an investment on behalf of another company in a capacity of a trustee.

Equity shares issued by the Kleshrahit Ltd. and Indriyadaman Ltd. are not listed in any of the recognized stock exchanges.
In the context of aforesaid facts, answer the following question(s):
(a) Whether the aforesaid companies can be considered as listed company(ies)?
(b) Explain the relationship between the aforesaid companies? [RTP-May 22]
Answer:
(a) Listed Company:

  • As per Sec. 2(52) of the Companies Act, 2013, listed company means a company which has any of its securities listed on any recognised stock exchange:
    Provided that such class of companies, which have listed or intend to list such class of securities, as may be prescribed in consultation with the SEBI, shall not be considered as listed companies.
  • As per Rule 2A of the Companies (Specification of Definitions Details] Rules, 2014, the following classes of companies shall not be considered as listed companies, namely:

(a) Public companies which have not listed their equity shares on a recognized stock exchange but have listed their-

  1. non-convertible debt securities issued on private placement basis in terms of SEBI (Issue and Listing of Debt Securities] Regulations, 2008; or
  2. non-convertible redeemable preference shares issued on private placement basis in terms of SEBI (Issue and Listing of Non-Convertible Redeemable Preference Shares) Regulations, 2013; or
  3. both categories of (i) and (ii) above.

(b) Private companies which have listed their non-convertible debt securities on private placement basis on a recognized stock exchange in terms of SEBI (Issue and Listing of Debt Securities] Regulations, 2008;
(c) Public companies which have not listed their equity shares on a recognized stock exchange but whose equity shares are listed on a stock exchange in a jurisdiction as specified in Sec. 23(3] of the Act.

Conclusion: Based on the above stated provisions, following conclusions may be drawn:

(a) Kleshrahit Ltd.: Equity shares issued by the company are not listed. However, the company has issued listed non-convertible redeemable preference shares issued on private placement
basis in terms of relevant SEBI Regulations which falls in the exceptions to the listed company, given as per clause (a)(ii) to Rule 2A, as aforesaid, and accordingly, Kleshrahit Ltd. shall not be considered as a listed company.

(b) Indriyadaman Ltd.: Equity shares issued by the company are not listed. However, the company has issued listed non-convertible debt securities issued on private placement basis in terms of relevant SEBI Regulations which falls in the exceptions to the listed company, given as per clause (a)(i) to Rule 2A, as aforesaid, and accordingly, Indriyadaman Ltd. shall not be considered as a listed company.

(c) Sajagta (P) Ltd.: The company has issued listed non-convertible debt securities issued on private placement basis on a recognised Stock Exchange in terms of relevant SEBI Regulations which falls in the exceptions to the listed company given as per clause (b) to Rule 2A, as aforesaid, and accordingly, Sajagta (P) Ltd. shall not be considered as a listed company.

(b) Relationship between the aforesaid companies:

As per Sec. 2(46) of the Companies Act, 2013, holding company in relation to one or more other companies, means a company of which such companies are subsidiary companies. According to section 2(87) of the Companies Act, 2013, subsidiary company or subsidiary, in relation to any other company (that is to say the holding company), means a company in which the holding company:

    1. controls the composition of the Board of Directors; or
    2. exercises or controls more than 50% of the total voting power either at its own or together with one or more of its subsidiary companies:
      Provided that such class or classes of holding companies as may be prescribed shall not have layers of subsidiaries beyond such numbers as may be prescribed.
    3. For the purposes of this clause:

(a) a company shall be deemed to be a subsidiary company of the holding company even if the control referred to in sub-clause

      1. or sub-clause
      2. is of another subsidiary company of the holding company;

(b) the composition of a company’s Board of Directors shall be deemed to be controlled by another company if that other company by exercise of some power exercisable by it at its discretion can appoint or remove all or a majority of the directors;
(c) the expression “company” includes any body corporate;
(d) “layer” in relation to a holding company means its subsidiary or subsidiaries;

Shares held by a company or power exercisable by it in another company in a fiduciary capacity shall not be counted for the purpose of determining the holding – subsidiary relationship in terms of the provision of Sec. 2(87) of the Companies Act, 2013.

Conclusion: Based on the above stated provisions, relationship among companies may be concluded as below:

(i) Relationship between Kleshrahit Ltd. & Indriyadaman Ltd.: It is given that Kleshrahit Ltd. has the power to appoint 2/3rd directors in Indriyadaman Ltd. i.e. majority of the directors can be appointed by Kleshrahit Ltd. Accordingly, as per sub-clause (i) to section 2(87) read with the Explanation given in point (b), it can be understood that Indriyadaman Ltd. is the subsidiary company of Kleshrahit Ltd. while the latter is the holding company of Indriyadaman Ltd.

(ii) Relationship between Indriyadaman Ltd. & Sajagta (P) Ltd.: It is given that Indriyadaman Ltd. is holding 60% voting power in Sajagta (P) Ltd. Accordingly, as per sub clause (ii) to section 2(87), it can be understood that Sajagta (P) Ltd. is the subsidiary company of Indriyadaman Ltd. while the latter is the holding company of Sajagta (P) Ltd. as Indriyadaman Ltd. controls more than one-half of the total voting power of Sajagta (P) Ltd.

(iii) Relationship between Kleshrahit Ltd. & Sajagta (P) Ltd.: It is given that Indriyadaman Ltd. is holding 60% voting power in Sajagta (P) Ltd. and it has been derived that Indriyadaman Ltd. is the subsidiary company of Kleshrahit Ltd. and Sajagta (P) Ltd. is the subsidiary company of Indriyadaman Ltd., respectively.

Accordingly, as per sub-clause (ii) to section 2(87) read with the Explanation given in point (a), that a company shall be deemed to be a subsidiary company of the holding company even if the control is of another subsidiary company of the holding company i.e. subsidiary of subsidiary company will be deemed to be a subsidiary of the holding company. Hence, it can be understood that Sajagta (P) Ltd. is deemed to be subsidiary company of Kleshrahit Ltd. while the latter would be considered as the holding company of Sajagta (P) Ltd.

(iv) Relationship between Sajagta (P) Ltd. & Pratibodh Ltd.: It is given that Sajagta (P) Ltd. holds 52% equity shares in Pratibodh Ltd. as an investment on behalf of another company in a capacity of a trustee i.e. in a fiduciary capacity.

As per the notification dated 27th December 2013, Ministry (MCA) clarified that the shares held by a company or power exercisable by it in another company in a fiduciary capacity shall not be counted for the purpose of determining the holding-subsidiary relationship in terms of the provision of section 2(87) of the Companies Act, 2013. Accordingly, Sajagta (P) Ltd. & Pratibodh Ltd. do not share any holding- subsidiary relationship as the former holds shares in latter just in a fiduciary capacity on behalf of another company.

Preliminary – CA Inter Law Study Material

Question 19.
Mr. Abhi is a Chartered Accountant and MBA by profession, has been appointed as an Executive Director on the Board of XYZ Limited. His job profile includes advising the Board of Directors of the company on various compliance matters, strategies, business plans, and risk matters relating to the company. Keeping in view of above position whether Mr. Abhi can be classified as the Promoter of XYZ Limited? Please examine the same under the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013. [RTP-May 22]
Answer:
Promoter:

  • As per Sec. 2(69) of the Companies Act, 2013, Promoter means a person:

(a) Who has been named as such in a prospectus or is identified by the company in the annual return; or
(b) Who has control over the affairs of the company, directly or indirectly whether as a shareholder, director or otherwise; or
(c) In accordance with whose advice, directions or instructions the Board of Directors of the company is accustomed to act:
Provided that nothing in sub-clause (c) shall apply to a person who is acting merely in a professional capacity.

As the job profile of Mr. Abhi is only limited to advise the Board of Directors on various compliance matters, strategies, business plans and risk matters relating to business of the company and that too only in a professional capacity, he will not be classified as a Promoter of XYZ Limited.

Question 20.
MNP Limited is a registered public company having the following members:

i. Directors and their Relatives “18
ii. Employees 26
iii. Ex – Employees (Shares were allotted during employment) 15
iv. Members holding shares jointly (7 x 2) 14
v Other Members 137

The Board of Directors of MNP Limited proposes to convert the company into a private limited company. Referring the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013, advise:
(i) Whether the company can be converted into a private company?
(ii) Whether existing number of members need to be reduced for the proposed private company? [May 22 (6 Marks)]
Answer:
Conversion from public company to private company:

  • As per Sec. 2(68) of the Companies Act, 2013, “Private Company” means a company having a minimum paid-up share capital as may be prescribed, and which by its articles, except in case of OPC, limits the number of its members to 200.
  • However, where two or more persons hold one or more shares in a company jointly, they shall, for the purposes of this clause, be treated as a single member.
  • It is further provided that –
    (A) persons who are in the employment of the company; and
    (B) persons who, having been formerly in the employment of the company, were members of the company while in that employment and have continued to be members after the employment ceased, shall not be included in the number of members.
  • In the instant case, MNP Limited may be converted into a private company only if the total members of the company are limited to 200. Total Number of members, for this purpose are computed as below:
    (i) Directors and their relatives 50
    (ii) Joint Shareholders (7*1) 5
    (iii) Others 137
    Total 192

Conclusion: Based on the above stated provisions, following conclusions may be drawn:

  1. Company can be converted into a private company.
  2. There is no need for reduction in the number of members since existing number of members does not exceed maximum limit of 200.

Question 21.
ABC Private Ltd. has two wholly owned subsidiary companies, D Private Limited and Private Limited. Examine, whether, D Private Limited and E Private Limited will be treated as related party as per the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013? [May 22 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Related Parties:

As per the section 2(76)(viii), related party with reference to a company, means any body corporate which is:
(A) a holding, subsidiary or an associate company of such company;
(B) a subsidiary of a holding company to which it is also a subsidiary; or
(C) an investing company or the venturer of the company.

However, clause (viii) shall not apply with respect to Sec. 188 to a private company.
Conclusion: D Pvt. Ltd and E Pvt. Ltd are not related parties for the purpose of Sec. 188. However, if D Pvt. Ltd and E Pvt. Ltd. have common directors, then they will be deemed to be related parties because of section 2(76 )(iv).

CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019

CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 – CA Inter Accounts Study Material is designed strictly as per the latest syllabus and exam pattern.

CA Inter May 2019 Accounts Question Paper

Question 1.
(a) M/s First Ltd. began construction of a new factory building on 1st April, 2017. It obtained ₹ 2,00,000 as a special loan to finance the construction of the factory building on 1st April, 2017 at an interest rate of 8% per annum. Further, expenditure on construction of the factory building was financed through other non-specific loans. Details of other outstanding non-specific loans were:

Amount (₹) Rate of Interest per annum
4,00,000 9%
5,00,000 12%
3,00,000 14%

The expenditures that were made on the factory building construction were as follows:

Date Amount (₹)
1st April, 2017 3,00,000
31st May, 2017 2,40,000
1st August, 2017 4,00,000
31st December, 2017 3,60,000

The construction of factory building was completed by 31st March, 2018. As per the provisions of AS-16, you are required to:
(1) Calculate the amount of interest to be capitalized.
(2) Pass Journal entry for capitalizing the cost and borrowing cost in respect of the factory building. (5 Marks)
Answer:
(i) Computation of average accumulated expenses:

Particulars
₹ 3,00,000 × 12/12 3,00,000
₹ 2,40,000 × 10/12 2,00,000
₹ 4,00,000 × 8/12 2,66,667
₹ 3,60,000 × 3/12 90,000
8,56,667

CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019

(ii) Computation of average interest rate:
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 1

(iii) Interest to be capitalized:

Particulars
Interest on average accumulated expenses: Specific borrowings (₹ 2,00,000 x 8%) Non-specific borrowings (₹ 6,56,667 × ₹ 11.5%) Amount of interest to be capitalized 16,000

75,517

91,517

#(₹ 8,56,667 – ₹ 2,00,000)

(iv) Amount to be capitalized for building:

Particulars
Cost of building ₹ (3,00,000 + 2,40,000 + 4,00,000 + 3,60,000) 13,00,000
Add: Amount of interest to be capitalized 91,517
13,91,517

(v) Journal Entry:
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 2

(b) On 15th June, 2018, Y limited wants to re-classify its investments in accordance with AS 13 (revised). Decide and state the amount of transfer, based on the following information:

(1) A portion of long-term investments purchased on 1st March, 2017 are to be re-classified as current investments. The original cost of these investments was ₹ 14 lakhs but had been written down by ₹ 2 lakhs (to recognize ‘other than temporary’ decline in value). The market value of these investments on 15th June, 2018 was ₹ 11 lakhs.

(2) Another portion of long-term investments purchased on 15th January, 2017 are to be re-classified as current investments. The original cost of these investments was ₹ 7 lakhs but had been written down to ₹ 5 lakhs (to recognize ‘other than temporary’ decline in value). The fair value of these investments on 15th June, 2018 was ₹ 4.5 lakhs.

(3) A portion of current investments purchased on 15th March, 2018 for 17 lakhs are to be re-classified as long-term investments, as the company has decided to retain them. The market value of these investments on 31st March, 2018 was ₹ 6 lakhs and fair value on 15th June, 2018 was ₹ 8.5 lakhs.

(4) Another portion of current investments purchased on 7th December, 2017 for ₹ 4 lakhs are to be re-classified as long term investments. The market value of these investments was:
on 31st March, 2018 on 15th June, 2018
Answer:
Where long-term investments are reclassified as current investments, transfers
are made at the lower of cost and carrying amount at the date of transfer; and where investments are reclassified from current to long term, transfers are made at lower of cost and fair value on the date of transfer.
Accordingly, the re-classification will be done on the following basis:

Case Analysis Remarks
(i) Carrying amount of investment on the date of transfer is less than the cost. It will be re-classified as current invest­ment and should be carried at ₹ 12 lakhs in the books.
(ii) Carrying amount of investment on the date of transfer is less than the cost. It will be re-classified as current invest­ment and should be carried at ₹ 5 lakhs in the books.
(iii) Cost is less than its fair value of ₹ 8.5 lakhs on the date of transfer. Reclassification of current investment into long-term investments will be made at ₹ 7 lakhs.
(iv) Market value (considered as fair value) is ₹ 3.8 lakhs on the date of transfer which is lower than the cost of 14 lakhs. Reclassification of current investment into long-term investments will be made at ₹ 3.8 lakhs.

CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019

(c) State whether the following statements are ‘True’ or ‘False’. Also give reason for your answer:

  1. As per the provisions of AS-5, extraordinary items should not be disclosed in the statement of profit and loss as a part of net profit or loss for the period.
  2. As per the provisions of AS-12, government grants in the nature of promoters’ contribution which become refundable should be reduced from the capital reserve.
  3. As per the provisions of AS-2, inventories should be valued at the lower of cost and selling price.
  4. As per the provisions of AS-13, a current investments is an investment that is by its nature is readily realizable and is intended to be held for not more than six months from the date on which such investment is made.
  5. As per the provisions of AS-4, a contingency is a condition or situation, the ultimate outcome of which (gain or loss) will be known or determined only on the occurrence of one or more uncertain future events. (5 Marks)

Answer:

Sl. No. True or False Reason
1. False The nature and the amount of each extraordinary item should be separately disclosed in the statement of profit and loss in a manner that its impact on current profit or loss can be perceived.
2. True When grants in the nature of promoters’ contribution becomes refundable, in part or in full to the government on non-fulfilment of some specified conditions, the relevant amount refundable to the government is reduced from the capital reserve.
3. False Inventories should be valued at the lower of cost and net realizable value (not selling price) as per AS 2.
4. False A current investment is an investment that is by its nature readily realizable and is intended to be held for not more than one year from the date on which such investment is made.
5. False A contingency is a condition or situation, the ultimate outcome of which, gain or loss, will be known or determined only on the occur­rence, or non-occurrence, of one or more uncertain future events.

(d) The financial statements of PQ Ltd. for the year 2017-18 approved by the Board of Directors on 15th July, 2018. The following information was provided:

  1. A suit against the company’s advertisement was filed by a party on 20th April, 2018, claiming damages of ₹ 25 lakhs.
  2. The terms and conditions for acquisition of business of another company have been decided by March, 2018. But the financial resources were arranged in April, 2018 and amount invested was ₹ 50 lakhs.
  3. Theft of cash of ₹ 5 lakhs by the cashier on 31st March, 2018 but was detected on 16th July, 2018.
  4. Company sends proposal to sell an immovable property for ₹ 40 lakhs in March, 2018. The book value of the property is ₹ 30 lakhs on 31 st March, 2018. However, the deed was registered on 15th April, 2018.
  5. A major fire has damaged the assets in a factory on 5th April, 2018. However, the assets are fully insured.

With reference to AS-4 “Contingencies and events occurring after the balance sheet date”, state whether the abovementioned events will be treated as contingencies, adjusting events or non-adjusting events occurring after the balance sheet date. (5 Marks)
Answer:

Point No. Analysis Conclusion
(i) Suit filed against the company is a contingent liability but it was not existing as on balance sheet date as the suit was filed on 20th April after the balance Sheet date. As per AS 4, ‘Contingencies’ used in the Standard is restricted to conditions or situations at the balance sheet date, the financial effect of which is to be determined by future events which may or may not occur. It will have no effect on financial statements and will be a non-adjusting event.
(ii) Terms and conditions for acquisition of business were finalized and carried out before the closure of the books of account but transaction for pay­ment of financial resources was affected in April, 2018. This is clearly an event occurring after the balance sheet date. Necessary adjustment to assets and liabilities for acquisition of business is necessary in the financial statements for the year ended 31st March 2018.
(iii) Only those significant events which occur between the balance sheet date and the date on which the financial statements are approved, may indicate the need for adjustment to assets and liabilities existing on the balance sheet date or may require disclosure. In the given case, theft of cash was de­tected on 16th July, 2018 after approval of financial statements by the Board of Directors. No treatment is required.
(iv) Adjustments to assets and liabilities are not appro­priate for events occurring after the balance sheet date, if such events do not relate to conditions ex­isting at the balance sheet date. In the given case, sale of immovable property was under proposal stage (negotiations also not started) on the balance sheet date. No adjustment to assets for sale of immovable property is required in the financial statements for the year ended 31st March, 2018.
(v) The condition of fire occurrence was not existing on the balance sheet date. Only the disclosure re­garding event of fire and loss being completely insured may be given in the report of approving authority.

Question 2.
(a). M/s Amar bought six scooters from M/s Bhanu on 1st April, 2015 on the following terms:
Down payment ₹ 3,00,000
1st instalment payable at the end of 1st year ₹ 1,59,000
2nd instalment payable at the end of 2nd year ₹ 1,47,000
3rd instalment payable at the end of 3rd year ₹ 1,65,000
Interest is charged at the rate of 10% per annum.
M/s Amar provides depreciation @ 20% per annum on the diminishing balance method.

On 31 st March, 2018 M/s Amar failed to pay the 3rd instalment upon which M/s Bhanu repossessed two Scooters. M/s Bhanu agreed to leave the other four Scooters with M/s Amar and adjusted the value of the repossessed Scooters against the amount due. The Scooters taken over were valued on the basis of 30% depreciation per annum on written down value. The balance amount remaining in the vendor’s account after the above adjustment was paid by M/s Amar after 5 months with interest @15% per annum.

M/s Bhanu incurred repairing expenses of ₹ 15,000 on repossessed scooters and sold scooters for ₹ 1,05,000 on 25th April, 2018.

You are required to:

(1) Calculate the cash price of the Scooters and the interest paid with each instalment.
(2) Prepare Scooters Account and M/s Bhanu Account in the books of M/s Amar.
(3) Prepare Goods Repossessed Account in the books of M/s Bhanu. (10 Marks)

Answer:
(i) Calculation of Interest and Cash Price
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 3

(ii) Books of M/s Amar
Scooters A/c
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 4

Working Note:

Value of Scooters taken over:
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 5

(iii) M/s Bhanu A/c
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 6
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 7

(iv) In the Books of M/s Bhanu

Goods Repossessed A/c
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 8

CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019

(b) A fire occurred in the premises of M/s Bright on 25th May, 2017. As a result of fire, sales adversely affected up to 30th September, 2017. The firm had taken Loss of profit policy (with and average clause) for ₹ 3,50,000 having indemnity period of 5 months.
There is an upward trend of 10% in sales.
The firm incurred an additional expenditure of ₹ 30,000 to maintain the sales. There was a saving of ₹ 5,000 in the insured standing charges.

Actual turnover from 25th May, 2017 to 30th September, 2017 ₹ 1,75,000
Turnover from 25th May, 2016 to 30th September, 2016 ₹ 6,00,000
Net profit for last financial year ₹ 2,00,000
Insured standing charges for the last financial year ₹ 1,75,000
Total standing charges for the last financial year ₹ 3,00,000
Turnover for the last financial year ₹ 15,00,000
Turnover for one year from 25th May, 2016 to 24th May, 2017 ₹ 14,00,000

You are required to calculate the loss of profit claim amount, assuming that entire sales during the interrupted period was due to additional expenses. (10 Marks)
Answer:
Computation of the amount of claim for loss of profit:
1.
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 9

2. Calculation of loss of Profit
Gross Profit on reduction in turnover @ 25% on ₹ 4,85,000 1,21,250
(see working note 1)
Add: Additional Expenses
Lower of:
(i) Actual = ₹ 30,000
(ii)
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 10
30,000 × [3,85,000/(3,85,000 + 1,25,000)] = ₹ 22,647

(iii) G.P. on sales generated bv additional expenses
175000 × 25% = ₹ 43,750
It is given that entire sales during the interrupted period was due to additional expenses.
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 11

3. Application of Average Clause:
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 12
(3,50,000/3,85,000) × 1,38,897 = ₹ 1,26,270
Amount of claim under the policy = ₹ 1,26,270

Working Notes:

1.
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 13
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 14

2. Annual Turnover (adjusted):
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 15

Question 3.
(a) The following balances appeared in the books of M/s Sunshine Traders:
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 16

Other information was as follows:
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 17

  • Depreciation to be provided as follows:
    Land and Machinery 5% per annum
    Plant and Machinery 10% per annum
    Office Equipment 15% per annum
  • On 01.10.2018 the firm sold machine having Book Value ₹ 20,000 (as on 31.03.2018) at a loss of ₹ 7,500. Now machine was purchases on 01.01.2019.
    • Office equipment was sold at its book value on 01.04.2018.
    • Loan was partly repaid on 31.03.2019 together with interest for the year.

You are required to prepare:

  1. Trading and Profit & Loss account for the year ended 31st March, 2019.
  2. Balance Sheet as on 31st March, 2019. (12 Marks)

Answer:
Trading and Profit and Loss A/c for the year ended 31.3.2019
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 18

Balance Sheet as on 31-3-2019
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 19

Working Notes:

1. Computation of Sales and Purchases:
Total sales = ₹ 6,25,000
Cash sales = 20% of total sales (6,25,000) = ₹ 1,25,000
Credit sales = 80% of total sales = (6,25,000) = ₹ 5,00,000
Gross Profit 25% on cost = 6,25,000 × \(\frac{25}{125}\) = ₹ 1,25,000
Credit purchases = ₹ 2,70,000
Credit purchases = 60% of total purchases
Cash purchases = 40% of total purchases
Total purchases = \(\frac{2,70,000}{60}\) × 100 = ₹ 4,50,000
Cash purchases = 4,50,000 – 2,70,000 = ₹ 1,80,000

2. Plant & Machinery A/c

Particulars Particulars
To Balance b/d 1,10,000 By Sale of Machinery A/c 20,000
To Cash-purchase (Bal. Fig.) 75,000 By Balance c/d 1,65,000
1,85,000 1,85,000

Depreciation on Plant & Machinery:

@ 10% p.a. on ₹ 20,000 for 6 months                                   = 1,000
@ 10% p.a. on ₹ 90,000 (i.e. ₹ 1,10,000 – ₹ 20,000)              = 9,000
@ 10% p.a. on ₹ 75,000 for 3 months (i.e. during the year)   = 1,875
11,875

Sale of Machinery A/c

Particulars   Particulars
To Plant and Machinery 20,000 By Depreciation (20,000 X 10% X 1/2) 1000
By P&L A/c 7,500
By Bank (Balancing figure) 11,500
20,000 20,000

CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019

3. Creditors Account
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 20

Debtors A/c
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 21

Provision for Office Expenses A/c
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 22

4. Bank A/c
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 23

5. Office Equipment A/c
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 24

(b) M/s Rani & Co. has head office at Singapore and branch at Delhi (India). Delhi branch is an integral foreign operation of M/s Rani & Co., Delhi branch furnishes you with its Trial Balance as on 31st March, 2019 and the additional information thereafter.
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 25

Additional information:

(a) Computers were acquired from a remittance of Singapore dollar 12,000 received from Singapore Head Office and paid to the suppliers. Depreciate Computers at the rate of 40% for the year.
(b) Closing Stock of Delhi branch was ₹ 15,60,000 on 31st March, 2019.
(c) The Rates of Exchange may be taken as follows:

  1. on 1.4.2018 @ ₹ 50 per Singapore Dollar
  2. on 31.3.2019 @ ₹ 52 per Singapore Dollar
  3. average Exchange Rate for the year @ ₹ 51 per Singapore Dollar
  4. conversion in Singapore Dollar shall be made upto two decimal accuracy.

(d) Delhi Branch Account showed a debit balance of Singapore Dollar 59,897.43 on 31.3.2019 in the Head Office books and there were no items pending for reconciliation.
In the books of Head office, you are required to prepare:

  1. Revenue statement for the year ended 31st March, 2019. (in Singapore Dollar)
  2. Balance Sheet as on that date, (in Singapore Dollar) (8 Marks)

Answer:
Revenue Statement for the year ended 31st March, 2019
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 26

Balance Sheet of Delhi Branch as on 31st March, 2019
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 27

Working Note:
Delhi Branch Trial Balance in (Singapore $) as on 31st March, 2019
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 28
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 29

CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019

Question 4.
The following is the Balance Sheet of M/s Red and Black as on 31st March, 2018:
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 30

It was agreed that Mr. White is to be admitted for a fifth share in the future profits from 1st April, 2018. He is required to contribute cash towards goodwill and ₹ 20,000 towards capital.

(a) The following further information is furnished:

(i) The partners Red and Black shared the profits in the ratio of 3:2.
(ii) Mr. Red was receiving a salary of ₹ 1000 p.m. from the very inception of the firm in addition to the share of profit.
(iii) The future profit ratio between Red, Black and White will be 3:1:1. Mr. Red will not get any salary after the admission of Mr. White.
(iv) The goodwill of the firm should be determined on the basis of 2 years’ purchase of the average profits from business of the last 5 years. The particulars of profits/losses are as under:

Year Ended (₹) Profit/Loss
31.3.2014 40,000 Profit
31.3.2015 20,000 Loss
31.3.2016 40,000 Profit
31.3.2017 50,000 Profit
31.3.2018 60,000 Profit

The above profits and losses are after charging the salary of Mr. Red. The profit of the year ended 31st March, 2014included an extraneous profit of ₹ 60,000 and the loss of the year ended 31st March, 2015 was on account of loss by strike to the extent of ₹ 40,000.
(v) It was agreed that the value of the goodwill should not appear in the book of the firm.
(b) Trading profit for the year ended 31st March, 2019 was ₹ 80,000 (Before charging depreciation).
(c) Each partner had drawn ₹ 2,000 per month as drawing during the year 2018-19.
(d) On 31st March, 2019 the following balances appeared in the books:
Building (Before Depreciation) ₹ 1,20,000
Closing Stock ₹ 80,000
Sundry Debtors NIL
Sundry Creditors NIL
Investment ₹ 40,000
(e) Interest @ 6% per annum on Red’s loan was not paid during the year.
(f) Interest on Debenture received during the year.
(g) Depreciation is to be provided @ 5% on Closing Balance of Building.
(h) Partners applied for conversion of the firm into a private Limited Company, i.e. RBW Private Limited. Certificate received on 1.4.2019.
They decided to convert Capital accounts of the partners into share capital, in the ratio of 3:1:1 (on the basis of total Capital as on 31.3.2019). If necessary, partners have to subscribe to fresh capital or withdraw.

You are required to prepare:

  1. Profit & Loss Account for the year ended 31st March, 2019 in the books of M/s Red and Black.
  2. Balance Sheet as on 1st April, 2019 in the books of RBW Private Limited. (20 Marks)

Answer:
Statement of Profit & Loss for the year ended on 31st March, 2019
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 31

Balance Sheet of the RBW Pvt. Ltd. as on 1-4-2019
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 32

Notes to Accounts:
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 33

Working Notes:

1. Computation of goodwill:
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 34
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 35

2. Partners’ Capital Accounts
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 36

3. Balance Sheet as on 31st March, 2019
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 37

CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019

4. Conversion into Company
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 38

Red should subscribe shares of ₹ 30,304 (₹ 1,43,424 – ₹ 1,13,120) and White should subscribe shares of ₹ 36,768 (₹ 47,808 less 11,040). Black withdraws ₹ 67,072 (₹ 47,808 – ₹ 1,14,880).

5. Adjustment for Goodwill:
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 53

Question 5.
(a) The Summarized Balance Sheet of Clean Ltd. as on 2019 is as follows: 31st March,
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 39
The Share Capital of the company consists of ₹ 50 each Equity shares of ₹ 4,50,000 and ₹ 100 each 8% Redeemable Preference Shares of ₹ 1,30,000 (issued on 1.4.2017)
Reserves and Surplus comprises statement of profit and loss only.
In order to facilitate the redemption of preference shares at a premium of 10%, the Company decided:
(a) to sell all the investments for ₹ 30,000.
(b) to finance part of redemption from company funds, subject to, leaving a Bank balance of ₹ 24,000.
(c) to issue minimum equity share of ₹ 50 each at a premium of ₹ 10 per share to raise the balance of funds required.

You are required to

  1. Pass Journal Entries to record the above transactions.
  2. Prepare Balance Sheet as on completion of the above transactions. (10 Marks)

Answer:
Journal Entries
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 40
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 41

Balance Sheet of Clean Ltd. (after redemption)
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 42
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 43

Notes to accounts:

CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 44

Working Note:
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 45

(b) The following information was provided by M/s PQR Ltd. for the year ended 31st March, 2019:

  1. Gross Profit Ratio was 25% for the year, it amounts to ₹ 3,75,000.
  2. Company sold goods for cash only.
  3. Opening inventory was lesser than closing inventory by ₹ 25,000.
  4. Wages paid during the year ₹ 5,55,000.
  5. Office expenses paid during the year ₹ 35,000.
  6. Selling expenses paid during the year ₹ 15,000.
  7. Dividend paid during the year ₹ 40,000 (including dividend distribution tax).
  8. Bank Loan repaid during the year ₹ 2,05,000 (included interest ₹ 5,000)
  9. Trade payable on 31st March, 2018, were ₹ 50,000 and on 31st March, 2019 were ₹ 35,000.
  10. Amount paid to Trade payables during the year ₹ 6,10,000
  11. Income Tax paid during the year amounts to ₹ 55,000 (Provision for taxation as on 31st March, 2019, ₹ 30,000)
  12. Investments of ₹ 8,20,000 sold during the year at a profit of ₹ 20,000.
  13. Depreciation on furniture amounts to ₹ 40,000.
  14. Depreciation on other tangible assets amounts to ₹ 20,000.
  15. Plant and Machinery purchased on 15th November, 2018 for 13,50,000.
  16. On 31st March, 2019 ₹ 2,00,000, 1% Debentures issued at face value in an exchange for a plant.
  17. Cash and Cash equivalents on 31st March, 2018, ₹ 2,25,000.

(A) Prepare cash flow statement for the year ended 31 st March, 2019, using direct method.
(B) Calculate cash flow from operating activities, using indirect method. (10 Marks)
Answer:
(i)
Cash Flow Statement for the year ended 31st March, 2019
(Using direct method)
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 46
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 47

CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019

(ii) ‘Cash Flow from Operating Activities’ by indirect method:

Particulars
Net Profit for the year before tax and extraordinary items 2,80,000
Add. Non-Cash and Non-Operating Expenses:
Depreciation 60,000
Interest Paid 5,000
Less: Non-Cash and Non-Operating Incomes:
Profit on Sale of Investments (20,000)
Net Profit after Adjustment for Non-Cash Items 15,000 3,25,000
Less: Decrease in trade payables 25,000
Increase in inventory (40,000)
Cash generated from operations before taxes 2,85,000

Working Note:

Computation of net profit earned during the year:

CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 48

Question 6.
Answer any four of the following : (5 Marks)

(a) Write short note on Timing difference and permanent Difference as per AS 22. “
Answer:
Matching of taxes against revenue for a period poses special problems arising from the fact that in number of cases, taxable income maybe different from the accounting income.

The divergence between taxable income may be different from the accounting income arises due to two main reasons:

  1. There are differences between items of revenue and expenses as appearing in the statement of profit and loss and the items which are considered as revenue, expenses or deductions for tax purposes, known as Permanent Difference.
  2. There are differences between the amount in respect of a particular item of revenue or expense as recognized in the statement of profit and loss and the corresponding amount which is recognized for the computation of taxable income, known as Timing Difference.

Permanent differences are the differences between taxable income and accounting income which arise in one accounting period and do not reverse subsequently.

For example, an income, exempt from tax or an expense that is not allowable as a deduction for tax purposes.

Timing differences are those differences between taxable income and accounting income which arise in one accounting period and are capable of reversal in one or more subsequent periods.
For e.g., Depreciation, Bonus, etc.

(b) Summarized Balance Sheet of Cloth Trader as on 31.03.2017 is given below:

Liabilities Amount (₹) Assets Amount (₹)
Proprietor’s Capital 3,00,000 Fixed Assets 3,60,000
Profit & Loss Account 1,25,000 Closing Stock 1,50,000
10% Loan Account 2,10,000 Sundry Debtors 1,00,000
Sundry Creditors 50,000 Deferred Expenses 50,000
Cash & Bank 25,000
6,85,000 6,85,000

Additional Information is as follows:

  1. The remaining life of fixed assets is 8 years. The pattern of use of the asset is even. The net realizable value of fixed assets on 31.03.2018 was ₹ 3,215,000.
  2. Purchases and Sales in 2017-18 amounted to ₹ 22,50,000 and ₹ 27,50,000 respectively.
  3. The cost and net realizable value of stock on 31.03.2018 were ₹ 2,00,000 and ₹ 2,50,000 respectively.
  4. Expenses for the year amounted to ₹ 78,000.
  5. Deferred Expenses are amortized equally over 5 years.
  6. Sundry Debtors on 31.03.2018 are ₹ 1,50,000 of which ₹ 5,000 is doubtful. Collection of another ₹ 25,000 depends on successfully re-installation of certain product supplied to the customer.
  7. Closing Sundry Creditors are ₹ 75,000, likely to be settled at 10% discount.
  8. Cash balance as on 31.03.2018 is ₹ 4,22,000.
  9. There is an early repayment penalty for the loan of ₹ 25,000.

You are required to prepare:
(Not assuming going concern)

  1. Profit & Loss Account for the year 2017-18.
  2. Balance Sheet as on 31st March, 2018. (5 Marks)

Answer:
Profit and Loss Account for the year ended 2017-18
(Not assuming going concern)
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 49

Balance Sheet as at 31st March, 2018 (Not assuming going concern)

CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 50

(c) Tarun Ltd. was incorporated on 1 st July, 2018 to acquire a running business of Vinav Sons with effect from 1st April, 2018. During the year 2019-18, the total sales were ₹ 12,00,000 of which ₹ 2,40,000 were for the first six months. The Gross Profit for the year is ₹ 4,15,000. The expenses debited to the Profit and Loss account included:

  1. Director’s fees ₹ 25,000
  2. Bad Debts ₹ 6,500
  3. Advertising ₹ 18,000
    (under a contract amounting to ₹ 1,500 per month)
  4. Company Audit Fees ₹ 15,000
  5. Tax Audit Fees ₹ 10,000

(1) Prepare a statement showing pre-incorporation and post-incor-poration profit for the year ended 31st March, 2019.
(2) Explain how profit are to be treated. (5 Marks)
Answer:
Statement showing the computation of Profits for the pre-incorporation and post- incorporation periods for the year ended 31st March, 2019
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 51
Pre-incorporation profits to be transferred to capital reserve and post-incor-poration profit to be transferred to profit & Loss A/c.

Working Notes:

(i) Computation of Sales ratio:

Particulars
Sales for period up to 30.06.2018 (2,40,000 × 3/6)

Sales for period from 01.07.2018 to 31.03.2019 (12,00,000 – 1,20,000)

1,20,000

10,80,000

Thus, Sales Ratio = 1:9 (1,20,000: 10,80,000)

(ii) Computation of Time ratio:
1st April, 2018 to 30th June, 2018: 1st July, 2018 to 31st March, 2019
= 3 months : 9 months = 1 : 3
Thus, Time Ratio is 1 : 3

(d) State the circumstances when Garner vs. Murray rule is not applicable. (5 Marks)
Answer:
Garner vs. Murray rule is non-applicable in the following cases:

  1. When the solvent partner has a debit balance in the capital account. Only solvent partners will bear the loss of capital deficiency of insolvent partner in their capital ratio. If incidentally a solvent partner has a debit balance in his capital account, he will escape the liability to bear the loss due to insolvency of another partner.
  2. When the firm has only two partners.
  3. When there is an agreement between the partners to share the deficiency in capital account of insolvent partner.
  4. When all the partners of the firm are insolvent.

(e) Wooden Plywood Limited has a normal wastage of 5% in the production process. During the year 2017-18, the Company used 16,000 MT of Raw material costing ₹ 190 per MT. At the end of the year, 950 MT of wastage was in stock. The accountant wants to know how this wastage is to be treated in the books.

You are required to:

  1. Calculate the amount of abnormal loss.
  2. Explain the treatment of normal loss and abnormal loss.
    [In the context of AS-2- (Revised)] (5 Marks)

Answer:
(i) As per AS 2 (Revised) ‘Valuation of Inventories’, abnormal amounts of wasted materials, labour and other production costs are excluded from cost of inventories and such costs are recognized as expenses in the period in which they are incurred.
The normal loss will be included in determining the cost of inventories (finished goods) at the year end.
Amount of Abnormal Loss:

(ii)
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper May 2019 52
[150 units @ ₹ 200 (₹ 30,40,000/15,200)]
Amount of ₹ 30,000 (Abnormal loss) will be charged to the Profit and Loss statement.

CA Inter Accounts Question Paper Nov 2019

CA Inter Accounts Question Paper Nov 2019 – CA Inter Accounts Study Material is designed strictly as per the latest syllabus and exam pattern.

CA Inter Nov 2019 Accounts Question Paper

Question 1.
Answer the following questions: (5 × 4 = 20)

(a) Prepare cash flow from investing activities as per AS 3 of M/s Subham Creative Limited for year ended 31.3.2019.

Particulars Amount (₹)
Machinery acquired by issue of shares at face value 2,00,000
Claim received for loss of machinery in earthquake 55,000
Unsecured loans given to associates 5,00,000
Interest on loan received from associate company 70,000
Pre-acquisition dividend received on investment made 52,600
Debenture interest paid 1,45,200
Term loan repaid 4,50,000
Interest received on investment (TDS of ₹ 8,200 was deducted on the above interest) 73,800
Purchased debentures of X Ltd., on 1st December, 2018 which are redeemable within 3 months 3,00,000
Book value of plant & machinery sold (loss incurred ₹ 9,600) 90,000

Answer:
Cash Flows Investing Activities
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper Nov 2019 1

CA Inter Accounts Question Paper Nov 2019

(b) Karan Enterprises having its Head Office in Mangalore, Karnataka has a branch in Greenville, USA. Following is the trial balance of Branch as at 31-3-2019:

Particulars Amount ($) Dr. Amount ($) Cr.
Fixed assets 8,000
Opening inventory 800
Cash 700
Goods received from Head Office 2,800
Sales 24,050
Purchases 11,800
Expenses 1,800
Remittance to head office 2,450
Head office account 4,300
28,350 28,350
  1. Fixed assets were purchased on 1st April, 2015.
  2. Depreciation at 10% p.a. is to be charged on fixed assets on straight line method.
  3. Closing inventory at branch is $ 700 as on 31-3-2019.
  4. Goods received from Head Office (HO) were recorded at ₹ 1,85,500 in HO books.
  5. Remittances to HO were recorded at ₹ 1,62,000 in HO books.
  6. HO account is recorded in HO books at ₹ 2,84,500.
  7. Exchange rates of US Dollar at different dates can be taken as:
    1-4-2015 – ₹ 63;
    1-4-2018 – ₹ 65 and
    31-3-2019 – ₹ 67.

Prepare the trial balance after been converted into Indian rupees in accordance with AS-11.
Answer:

Particulars $ Rate
Fixed assets 8000 63 5,04,000
Opening Inventory 800 65 52,000
Cash 70 67 46,900
Goods received from HO 2800 HO Books 1,85,500
Sales (24050) 66 (15,87,300)
Purchases 11,800 66 7,78,800
Expenses 1800 66 1,18,800
Remittances to HO 2450 HO Books 1,62,000
HO Ac (4300) HO Books (2,84,500)
Exchange Gain (23,800)

CA Inter Accounts Question Paper Nov 2019

(c) Mr. Rakshit gives the following information relating to items forming part of inventory as on 31st March, 2019. His factory produces product X using raw material A.

  1. 800 units of raw material A (purchased @ ₹ 140 per unit). Replacement cost of raw material A as on 31st March, 2019 is ₹ 190 per unit.
  2. 650 units of partly finished goods in the process of producing X and cost incurred till date ₹ 310 per unit. These units can be finished next year by incurring additional cost of ₹ 50 per unit.
  3. 1,800 units of finished product X and total cost incurred ₹ 360 per unit. Expected selling price of product X is ₹ 350 per unit.

In the context of AS-2, determine how each item of inventory will be valued as on 31st March, 2019. Also, calculate the value of total inventory as on 31st March, 2019.
Answer:
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper Nov 2019 2

(d) Sheetal Ltd. has provided the following information for the year ended 31st March, 2019:

Particulars Amount (₹)
Accounting profit 9,00,000
Book profit as per MAT 5,25,000
Profit as per Income-tax Act 95,000
Tax rate 30%
MAT rate 7.5%

You are required to calculate the deferred tax asset/liability as per AS-22 and amount of tax to be debited to the profit and loss account for the year.
Answer:
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper Nov 2019 3

CA Inter Accounts Question Paper Nov 2019

Question 2.
(a) G, S & J were partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 4:3:2, no partnership salary or interest on capital being allowed. Their Balance Sheet as on 31.3.2019 is as follows:
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper Nov 2019 4
On 1st April, 2019, the partnership was dissolved. Motor car was taken over by G at a value of 600, but no cash passed specifically in respect of this trans action. Sale of other assets realized the following amounts:

Particulars
Goodwill Nil
Land 8,400
Plant & machinery 6,000
Stock 3,600
Trade debtors 1,920

Trade creditors were paid ₹ 14,040 in full settlement of their debts. The cost of dissolution amounted to ₹ 1,800. The loan from G was repaid; G and S were both fully solvent and able to bring in any cash required but J was forced into bankruptcy and was only able to bring 1/2 of the amount due.
You are required to prepare:

  1. Cash & Bank account
  2. Realization account, and
  3. Partner’s Fixed Capital Accounts (after transferring current accounts balances) Apply Garner vs. Murray rule. (15 Marks)

Answer:
Realisation Account
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper Nov 2019 6

Capital including current account
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper Nov 2019 7

Cash at bank
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper Nov 2019 8

CA Inter Accounts Question Paper Nov 2019

(b) AD, BD & SD are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5:3:2. There capitals were ₹ 13,440, ₹ 8,400, ₹ 11,760 respectively. Liabilities and assets of the firm are as under:
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper Nov 2019 5
The assets realized in full in the order in which they are listed above. BD is insolvent.

You are required to prepare a statement showing the distribution of cash as and when available, applying maximum possible loss procedure. (5 Marks)
Answer:
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper Nov 2019 9

AD BD SD
Outstanding Balances 13,440 8,400 10,080
Stock
5600
Max loss = 31,920 – 5,600
→ 26,320
(5 : 3 : 2) (13,160) (7,896) (5,264)
Paid to 280 504 4,816
Outstanding claims 13,160 7,896 5,264

CA Inter Accounts Question Paper Nov 2019

Question 3.
(a) Mr. Harsh provides the following details relating to his holding in 10% debentures (face value of ₹ 100 each) of Exe Ltd., held as current assets:

1.4.2018 opening balance – 12,500 debentures, cost ₹ 12,25,000
1.6.2018 purchased 9,000 debentures @ ₹ 98 each ex-interest
1.11.2018 purchased 12,000 debentures @ ₹ 115 each cum-interest
31.1.2019 sole 13,500 debentures @ ₹ 110 each cum-interest
31.3.2019 Market value of debentures @ ₹ 115 each

Due dates of interest are 30th June and 31 st December.

Brokerage at 1 % is to be paid for each transaction. Mr. Harsh closes his books on 31.3.2019. Show investment account as it would appear in his books assuming FIFO method is followed. (10 Marks)
Answer:
Investment Account
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper Nov 2019 11

Working Note 1
Profit / loss on sale
= 14,58,900 – [1225000 + \(\frac{890820}{900000}\) × 100000]
= 1,34,920

Working Note 2
23,00,000 or 21,45,640 whichever is less

(b) A fire occurred in the premises of M/s Kirti & Co. on 15th December, 2018. The working remained disturbed upto 15th March, 2019 as a result of which sales adversely affected. The firm had taken out an Insurance policy with an average clause against consequential losses for ₹ 2,50,000.
Following details are available from the quarterly sales tax return filed/GST return filed:

Sales 2015-16
(₹)
2016-17
(₹)
2017-18
(₹)
2018-19
(₹)
From 1st April to 30th June 3,80,000 3,15,000 4,11,900 3,24,000
From 1st July to 30th September 1,86,000 3,92,000 3,86,000 4,42,000
From 1st October to 31st December 3,86,000 4,00,000 4,62,000 3,50,000
From 1st January to 31st March 2,88,000 3,19,000 3,80,000 2,96,000
Total 12,40,000 14,26,000 16,39,900 14,12,000

A period of 3 months (i.e. from 16-12-2018 to 15-3-2019) has been agreed upon as indemnity period.

Sales from 16-12-2017 to 31-12-2017 68,000
Sales from 16-12-2018 to 31-12-2018 Nil
Sales from 16-03-2018 to 31-03-2018 1,20,000
Sales from 16-03-2019 to 31-03-2019 40,000

Net profit was ₹ 2,50,000 and standing charges (all insured) amounted to ₹ 77,980 for the year ending 31st March, 2018.
You are required to calculate the loss of profit claim amount. (10 Marks)

CA Inter Accounts Question Paper Nov 2019

Question 4.
(a) ABC Ltd. has several departments. Goods supplied to each department are debited to a Memorandum Departmental Stock Account at cost plus a fixed percentage (mark-up) to give the normal selling price. The amount of mark-up is credited to a Memorandum Departmental Mark-up account. If the selling price of goods is reduced below its normal selling prices, the reduction (mark-down) will require adjustment both in the stock account and the markup account. The mark-up for department X for the last three years has been 20%. Figures relevant to department X for the year ended 31st March, 2019 were as follows:
Stock as on 1st April, 2018, at cost – ₹ 1,50,000
Purchases at cost – ₹ 4,30,000
Sales – ₹ 6,50,000
It is further ascertained that:

  1. Shortage of stock found in the year ending 31.3.2019, costing ₹ 4,000 were written off.
  2. Opening stock on 1.4.2015 including goods costing ₹ 12,000 had been sold during the year and had been marked-down in the selling price by ₹ 1,600. The remaining stock had been sold during the year.
  3. Goods purchased during the year were marked down by ₹ 3,600 from a cost of ₹ 30,000. Marked down stock costing ₹ 10,000 remained unsold on 31.3.2019.
  4. The departmental closing stock is to be valued at cost subject to adjustment for mark-up and mark-down.

You are required to prepare for the year ended 31st March, 2019:

  1. Departmental Trading Account for department X for the year ended 31st March, 2019 in the books of Head Office.
  2. Memorandum Stock Account for the year ended 31st March, 2019.
  3. Memorandum Mark-Up account for the year ended 31st March, 2019. (10 Marks)

Answer:
\(\frac{1}{5}\) on sales / \(\frac{1}{4}\) on cost
Memorandum Cost
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper Nov 2019 12

Memorandum mark-up
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper Nov 2019 13

Stock Reserve
Purchases marked down:
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper Nov 2019 14
Stock reserve = (64800 + 1200) × \(\frac{1}{5}\)
= 1,200
= 12,000

CA Inter Accounts Question Paper Nov 2019

Trading Account
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper Nov 2019 15

(b) Archana Enterprises maintain their books of account under single entry system. The Balance Sheet as on 31st March, 2018 was as follows:

Liabilities Amount (₹) Assets Amount (₹)
Capital A/c 6,75,000 Furniture & fixtures 1,50,000
Trade creditors 7,57,500 Stock 9,15,000
Outstanding exp. 67,500 Trade debtors 3,12,000
Prepaid insurance 3,000
Cash in hand & at bank 1,20,000
15,00,000 15,00,000

The following was the summary of cash and bank book for the year ended 31st March, 2019:

Receipts Amount (₹) Payments Amount (₹)
Cash in hand & at Bank on 1st April, 2018 1,20,000 Payment to trade creditors 1,24,83,000
Cash sales 1,10,70,000 Sundry expenses paid 9,31,050
Receipts from trade debtors 27,75,000 Drawings 3,60,000
Cash in hand & at Bank on 31st March, 2019 1,90,950
1,39,65,000 1,39,65,000

Additional Information:

  1. Discount allowed to trade debtors and received from trade creditors amounted to ₹ 54,000 and ₹ 42,500 respectively (for the year ended 31st March, 2019)
  2. Annual fire insurance premium of ₹ 9,000 was paid every year on 1st August for the renewal of the policy.
  3. Furniture & fixtures were subject to depreciation @ 15% p.a. on diminishing balance method.
  4. The following are the balances as on 31st March, 2019:
    Stock – ₹ 19,75,000
    Trade debtors – ₹ 3,43,000
    Outstanding expenses – ₹ 55,200
  5. Gross profit ratio of 10% on sales is maintained throughout the year. You are required to prepare Trading and Profit & Loss account for the year ended 31st March, 2019, and Balance Sheet as on that date. (10 Marks)

Answer:
Trading and Profit and Loss Account
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper Nov 2019 16

Balance Sheet
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper Nov 2019 17

CA Inter Accounts Question Paper Nov 2019

Question 5.
(a) From the following particulars furnished by the Prashant Ltd., prepare the Balance Sheet as at 31st March, 2019 as required by Schedule III of the Companies Act, 2013:
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper Nov 2019 18
The following additional information is also provided:

  1. 10,000 equity shares were issued for consideration other than cash.
  2. Trade receivables of ₹ 55,000 are due for more than six months.
  3. The cost of building and plant & machinery is ₹ 5,50,000 and ₹ 6,25,000 respectively.
  4. The loan from State Financial Corporation is secured by hypothecation of plant & machinery. The balance of ₹ 2,10,000 in this account is inclusive of ₹ 10,000 for interest accrued but not due.
  5. Balance at Bank included ₹ 15,000 with Aakash Bank Ltd., which is not a scheduled bank.  (10 Marks)

Answer:
Hint: Appropriate disclosures with be made as per schedule III

Balance Sheet
Equity and liabilities
Equity
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper Nov 2019 20

Current assets
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper Nov 2019 21

CA Inter Accounts Question Paper Nov 2019

(b) The partners of C&G decided to convert their existing partnership business into a private limited called CG trading Pvt. Ltd. with effect from 1.7.2018.

The same books of account were continued by the company which closed its accounts for the first term on 31.3.2019.

The summarized profit A loss account for the year ended 31.3.2019 is below:
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper Nov 2019 19

The following additional information was provided:

  1. The average monthly sales doubled from 1.7.2018, GP ratio was constant.
  2. All investments were sold on 31.5.2018.
  3. Average monthly salaries doubled from 1.10.2018.
  4. The company occupied additional space from 1.7.2018 for which rent of ₹ 20,000 per month was incurred.
  5. Bad debts recovered amounting to ₹ 60,000 for a sale made in 2016-17 has been deducted from bad debts mentioned above.
  6. Audit fees pertains to the company.

Prepare a statement apportioning the expenses between pre and post Incorporation periods and calculate the profit/loss for such periods. (10 Marks)
Answer:
Hint
(a) Time ratio = 3 : 9

(b) Sales ratio = 3 : 18 i.e. 1 : 6
Let monthly sales = x
Sales (April to June) = 3x
Sales (July to March) = 2x × 9
= 18x

(c) Salaries ratio = Pre : Post
= x × 3 : x × 3 + 2x × 6
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper Nov 2019 22

CA Inter Accounts Question Paper Nov 2019

Question 6.
Answer any four of the following: (4 × 5 = 20)
(a) The following extract of Balance Sheet of Prabhat Ltd. (Non-Investment Company) was obtained:
Balance Sheet (Extract) as on 31st March, 2019

Liabilities
Issued and subscribed capital:
30,000, 12% preference shares of ₹ 100 each (fully paid) 30,00,000
24,00,000 equity shares of ₹ 10 each, ₹ 8 paid up 1,92,00,000
Share suspense account 40,00,000
Reserves and Surplus:
Securities premium 1,00,000
Capital reserves (₹ 3,00,000 is revaluation reserve) 3,90,000
Secured loans:
12% debentures 1,30,00,000
Unsecured loans:
Public deposits 7,40,000
Current liabilities:
Trade payables 6,90,000
Cash credit from SBI (short term) 9,30,000
Assets
Investments in shares, debentures etc. 1,50,00,000
Profit & loss account (Dr. balance) 30,50,000

Share suspense account represents application money received on shares, the allotment of which is not yet made.
You are required to compute effective capital as per the provisions of Schedule V. Would your answer differ if Prabhat Ltd. is an investment company?

(b) Following is the extract of Balance Sheet of Prem Ltd. as at 31 st March, 2018:

Authorized capital
3,00,000 equity shares of ₹ 10 each 30,00,000
25,000, 10% preference shares of ₹ 10 each 2,50,000
32,50,000
Issued and subscribed capital:
2,70,000 equity shares of ₹ 10 each fully paid up 27,00,000
24,000, 10% preference shares of ₹ 10 each fully paid up 2,40,000
29,40,000
Reserves and surplus:
General reserve 3,60,000
Capital redemption reserve 1,20,000
Securities premium (in cash) 75,000
Profit and loss account 6,00,000
11,55,000

On 1st April, 2018, the company decided to capitalize its reserves by way of bonus at the rate of two shares for every Five shares held. Show necessary journal entries in the books of the company and prepare the extract of the balance sheet after bonus issue.
Answer:
Hint
Bonus issue
= 2,70,000 × \(\frac{2}{5}\)
= 1,08,000 shares @10% each

Journal Entry
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper Nov 2019 23

 

(c) Mac Ltd. gives the following data regarding to its six segments:
(₹ in lakhs)

Particulars A B C D E F Total
Segment assets 80 160 60 40 40 20 400
Segment results 100 (380) 20 20 (20) 60 (200)
Segment revenue 600 1,240 160 120 160 120 2,400

The accountant contends that segments ‘A’ and ‘B’ alone are reportable segments. Is he justified in his view? Discuss in the context of AS-17 ‘Segment Reporting’,
Answer:
Hint
CA Inter Accounts Question Paper Nov 2019 24
Accountant view is incorrect.

(d) Give an analytical statement of distinction between an ordinary partnership firm and a limited liability partnership.

CA Inter Accounts Question Paper Nov 2019

(e) A company had issued 40,000, 12% debentures of ₹ 100 each on 1st April, 2015. The debentures are due for redemption on 1st March, 2019. The terms of issue of debentures provided that they were redeemable at a premium of 5% and also conferred option to the debenture holders to convert 20% of their holding into equity shares (nominal value ₹ 10) at a predetermined price of ₹ 15 per share and the payment in cash 50 debentures holders holding totally 5,000 debentures did not exercise the option. Calculate the number of equity shares to be allotted to the debenture holders and the amount to be paid in cash on redemption.
Answer:
No. or equity shares = \(\frac{(40000 \times 100 \times 20 \%) \times 1.05}{15}\) = 49,000 shares
Cash = (40,000 – 7,000) × 100 × 1.05 = 34,65,000

CA Inter Taxation Question Paper Nov 2019

CA Inter Taxation Question Paper Nov 2019 – CA Inter Tax Study Material is designed strictly as per the latest syllabus and exam pattern.

CA Inter Tax Question Paper Nov 2019

Section A

Question 1.
From the following particulars furnished by Mr. Ganesh, aged 58 years, a resident Indian for the previous year ended 31.03.2020, you are requested to compute his total income and tax liability under normal as well as special provisions (AMT), if any, applicable to him for the Assessment Year 2020-21:

  1. He occupies ground floor of his residential building and has let out first floor for residential use at an annual rent of ₹ 2,28,000. He has paid municipal taxes of ₹ 60,000 for the current financial year.
  2. He owns an industrial undertaking established in a SEZ and which had commenced operation during the financial year 2017-18. Total turnover of the undertaking was ₹ 200 lakhs, which includes ₹ 140 lakhs from export turnover. This industrial undertaking fulfils all the conditions of section 10AA of the Income-tax Act, 1961. Profit from this industry is ₹ 25 lakhs.
  3. He received royalty of ₹ 2,88,000 from abroad for a book authored by him on the nature of artistic. The rate of royalty as 18% of value of books and expenditure made for earning this royalty was ₹ 40,000. The amount remitted to India till 30th September, 2020 is ₹ 2,30,000.
  4. Received ₹ 40,000 as interest on saving bank deposits.
  5. Received ₹ 47,000 as share of profit from an AOP where all the members are individual and which had paid the tax by normal rates of income tax.
  6. He also sold his vacant land on 10.11.2019 for ₹ 10 lakhs. The stamp duty value of land at the time of transfer was ₹ 14 lakhs. The FMV of the land as on 1st April, 2001 was ₹ 4 lakhs. This land was acquired by him on 5.08.1995 for ₹ 1.80 lakhs. He had incurred registration expenses of ₹ 10,000 at that time. The cost of inflation index for the years 2019-20 and 2001-02 are 289 and 100 respectively.
  7. He paid the following amounts, out of his taxable income:

(a) Insurance premium of ₹ 39,000 paid on life insurance policy of son, who is not dependent on him.

(b) Insurance premium of ₹ 48,000 on policy of his dependent father.

* Part I consists of multiple choice questions are not available in Public domain.

(c) Tuition fees of ₹ 42,000 for his three children to a school. The fees being ₹ 14,000 p.a. per child. [14 Marks]
Answer:
Computation of Total Income and Tax Liability of Mr. Ganesh for Previous Year ending on 31.03.2021 (Assessment Year 2021-22)
CA Inter Accounts Paper Nov 2019 – CA Inter Tax Study Material 1
CA Inter Accounts Paper Nov 2019 – CA Inter Tax Study Material 2
CA Inter Accounts Paper Nov 2019 – CA Inter Tax Study Material 3

CA Inter Accounts Question Paper Nov 2019

Computation of Tax Liability

Income Rate of Tax Tax Amount
First 2,50,000 NIL NIL
Next 2,50,000 5% 12,500
Next 4,09,600 20% 81,920
Total Tax on Normal Income 94,420
Add: Tax on Long Term Capital Gain @20% on Rs. 2,53,333 50,667
Gross Tax 1,45,087
Add: HEC @4% of Rs.1,45,087 5,803
Tax Liability (A) 1,50,890
Tax Liability as per Section 115JC:
Adjusted Total Income = 11,62,930+17,50,000+58,000 (2,48,000-1,90,000) = 29,70,930
Tax on Adjusted Total Income = 18.5% of Rs. 29,70,930 = 5,49,622 5,49,622
Add SHEC @4% of 5,49,622 = 21,985 21,985
Tax Liability as per section 115JC 5,71,607
Hence Tax Liability which is higher 1,48,290 or 5,71,607 5,71,607

Notes:

1. When income of one or more members of AOP has personal income of more than exemption limit, the AOP is taxable at maximum marginal rate or at a higher rate. As a result of which share of profit will not be taxable in the hands of its members. Hence in the instant case, share of profit from AOP is not included in taxable income of Mr. Ganesh.

2. AMT provisions are not applicable to an individual whose adjusted total income does not exceed Rupees Twenty Lacs. Hence AMT is applicable in the instant case as total income exceeds Rs. 20 Lakhs.

Question 2.
(a) Mr. Mukesh born on 1.4.1960 furnished his original return for Assessment Year 2020-21 on 30.07.2020. He has shown salary income of ₹ 7.30 lakhs (computed) and interest from his savings bank of ₹ 12,700 and from his fixed deposits of ₹ 43,000. He also claimed deduction under section 80C ₹ 1.50 lakhs. He had claimed deduction u/s 80D of ₹ 25,000. He also claimed deduction u/s 80TTA of ₹ 10,000. His employer had deducted TDS of ₹ 33,950 from his salary, which he adjusted fully against tax payable.

He paid health insurance premium of ₹ 38,000 by account payee cheque for self and wife. He paid ₹ 1,500 in cash for his health checkup and ₹ 4,000 by cheque for preventive health check-up of his parents. He also paid medical insurance premium of ₹ 33,000 during the year to insure the health of his mother, aged 80 years, staying with his younger brother. He further incurred medical expenditure of ₹ 25,000 on his father, aged 81 years, who is staying with him. His father is not covered under any mediclaim policy.

He seeks your advice about possibility of revising his return and if possible file his revised return. Analyse the above narrated facts as per applicable provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961. Does he need to revise his return and for what reasons? Please advise him suitably and if needed, re-compute his income and tax payable or refund due for the Assessment Year 2020-21. [9 Marks]
Answer:
Computation of Total Income and Tax Liability of Mr. Mukesh for the Previous Year 2020-21

Particulars Amount Amount
Income from Salary 7,30,000
Income from Other Sources:
Interest on Saving Bank Account 12,700
Interest on Fixed Deposit 43,000 55,700
Gross Total Income 7,85,700
Less: Deductions:
Section 80C: 1,50,000
Section 80TTA 10,000
Section 80D 25,000 1,85,000
Total Income 6,00,700

Computation of Tax Liability

Income Rate of Tax Tax Amount
First 3,00,000 NIL NIL
Next 2,00,000 5% 10,000
Next 1,00,700 20% 20,140
Gross Tax on Normal 30,140
Add: SHEC @4% of Rs.32,640 1,206
Total Tax 31,346
TDS 33,950

CA Inter Accounts Question Paper Nov 2019

Computation of Total Income and Tax Liability of Mr. Mukesh for the Previous Year 2020-21

(Assessment year 2021-22) [REVISED RETURN]

Particulars Amount Amount
Income from Salary 7,30,000
Income from Other Sources:
Interest on Saving Bank Account 12,700
Interest on Fixed Deposit 43,000 55,700
Gross Total Income 7,85,700
Less: Deductions:
Section 80C: 1,50,000
Section 80TTA 10,000
Section 80D 75,000 2,35,000
Total Income 5,50,700

Computation of Tax Liability

Income Rate of Tax Tax Amount
First 3,00,000 NIL NIL
Next 2,00,000 5% 10,000
Next 50,700 20% 10,140
Gross Tax on Normal 20,140
Add: SHEC @4% of Rs.22,640 806
Total Tax 20,946
TDS 33,950
Refund 13,005

Notes:

1. Section 80D:
Self: 38,000 — 25,000 Maximum
Senior Citizen: 5,000 + 33,000 + 25,000 = 50,000
Maximum Total Deduction = 75,000

2. Yes, He can file revise return due to section 80D deduction claim under section 139(5), which can be filed by 31.03.2022.

(b) State in brief the applicability of tax deduction at source provisions, the rate and amount of tax deduction in the following cases for the financial year 2019-2020 under the Income-tax Act, 1961. Assume that all payments are made to residents:

(i) Sanjay, a resident Indian individual, not deriving any income from business or profession makes payments of ₹ 12 lakh in January, 2020, ₹ 20 lakh in February, 2020 and ₹ 20 lakh in March, 2020 to Mohan, a contractor for reconstruction of his residential house.
(ii) ABC Ltd. makes the payment of ₹ 1,50,000 to Ramlal, an individual transporter who owned 6 goods carriages throughout the previous year. He does not furnish his PAN.
(iii) Smt. Sarita paid ₹ 5,000 on 17th April, 2019 to Smt. Deepa from the deposits in National Savings Scheme account. [5 Marks]
Answer:

(i) As per section 194M if any payment is made to contractor in excess of Rs.50 lakhs in any financial year then @5% TDS applicable.

In this case no TDS is made in Jan. 2021, Feb. 2021 but when making payment of Rs.20 Lakhs in March 2021 then amount exceeded 50 Lakhs. Hence TDS applicable and 5% of total amount Rs.52 Lakhs = Rs.2,60,000 is amount of TDS.

(ii) As per sections 194C and 206AA TDS @20% is applicable if assessee having less than 10 goods carriages throughout the year and not providing PAN. If providing PAN then no TDS.

In this Ram Lai is not providing the PAN hence TDS applicable. Rs.30,000 is TDS amount.

(iii) In National Savings Scheme Account TDS is not applicable. Here No TDS.

CA Inter Accounts Question Paper Nov 2019

Question 3.
(a) Ms. Pooja a resident individual provides the following information of her income/losses for the year ended on 31st March, 2020:

S.No. Particulars (₹)
1 Income from salary (Computed) 2,20,000
2 Income from House Property (let out) (Net Annual Value) 1,50,000
3 Share of loss from firm in which she is partner 10,000
4 Loss from specified business covered under section 35AD 20,000
5 Income from textile business before adjusting the following items : 3,00,000
(a) Current year depreciation 60,000
(b) Unabsorbed depreciation of earlier year 2,25,000
(c) Brought forward loss of textile business of the A.Y. 2018-19 90,000
6 Long-term capital gain on sale of debentures 75,000
7 Long-term capital loss on sale of equity shares (STT not paid) 1,00,000
8 Long-term capital gain on sale of equity shares listed in recognized stock exchange (STT paid at the time of acquisition and sale) 1,50,000
9 Dividend from units of UTI 5,000

During the previous year 2019-20, Ms. Poojahas repaid ₹ 5,25,000 towards housing loan from a scheduled bank Out of this ₹ 3,16,000 was towards payment of interest and rest towards principal.

Compute the gross total income of Ms. Pooja and ascertain the amount of loss that can be carried forward. Ms. Pooja has always filed her return within the due date specified under section 139(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961. [8 Marks]
Answer:
Computation of Total Income and Tax Liability of Ms. Pooja for Previous Year ending on 31.03.2021 (Assessment Year 2021-22)

Particulars Amount Amount Amount
Income From Salary: 2,20,000
Income From House Property:
Net Annual Value (Let Out) 1,50,000
Less-. Statutory Deduction @30% 45,000
1,05,000
Less-. Interest on Loan 3,16,000
Loss From House Property

Subject to maximum Rs. 2 lakhs can be set off with salary and Rs.l 1,000 c/f to next year

(2,11,000) (2,00,000)
20,000
Less: Unabsorbed Depreciation [Section 32(2)] (20,000) NIL
Profit and Gains from Business and Pro­fession:
Income 3,20,000
Less: Current year depreciation (60,000)
2,60,000
Less: b/f textile business loss AY 2019-20 (90,000)
1,70,000
Less: [Section 32(2)] Unabsorbed Depreci­ation (1,70,000) NIL
Particulars Amount Amount Amount
Capital Gain:
Long Term Capital Gain on Debentures 75,000
Long Term Capital Gain on Shares 1,50,000
2,25,000
Less: Loss on Shares Long Term (1,00,000)
1,25,000
Less: Unabsorbed Depreciation [Section 32(2)]                                                                  ‘ (35,000) 90,000
Gross Total Income 90,000
Less: Deduction under sections 80C to 80U NIL
Total Income 90,000

Notes:

  1. In this question GTI = Long Term Capital Gain
  2. Hence section 80C is not allowed on LTCG and Casual income.
  3. In section 35AD loss can be set off with section 35AD income only.
  4. Unabsorbed depreciation 2,25,000 – 1,70,000 = 55,000 can be set off with salary
    (Rs.20,000) and Rs.3 5,000 from Capital Gain.
  5. Section 35AD Loss Rs.20,000 c/f to next years.
  6. House Property Loss of Rs.l 1,000 can be c/f to next years.

(b) Determine the Gross total income of Shri Ram Kumar and Smt. Ram Kumar
for the assessment year 2020-21 from the following:

  1. Salary received by Shri Ram Kumar from a company ₹ 1,80,000 per annum and Smt. Ram Kumar also doing job in a company and getting salary of ₹ 2,40,000 per annum.
  2. Shri Ram Kumar transferred a flat to his wife Smt. Ram Kumar on 1st September, 2019 for adequate consideration. The rent received from this let-out flat is ₹ 9,000 per month.
  3. Shri Ram Kumar and his wife Smt. Ram Kumar both are partners in a firm. Shri Ram Kumar received ₹ 3 6,000 and Smt. Ram Kumar received ₹ 64,000 as interest from the firm and also had a share of profit of ₹ 12,000 and ₹ 26,000 respectively.
  4. Smt. Ram Kumar transferred 10% debentures worth ₹ 3,00,000 to Shri Ram Kumar. The whole amount of ₹ 3,30,000 invested by Shri Ram Kumar in the similar investments and earned income of ₹ 39,000.
  5. Mother of Shri Ram Kumar transferred a property to Master Rohit (son of Shri Ram Kumar) in the year 2018. Master Rohit (Aged 13 years) received of ₹ 15,000 as income from this Property on 20th February, 2020. [6 Marks]

Answer:
Computation of Total Income of Shri Ram Kumar for the Previous Year 2020-21
(Assessment Year 2021-22)

Particulars Amount Amount
Income from Salary: 1,80,000
Income from House Property: Rent Received 45,000
Less: Statutory Deduction @30% 13,500 31,500
Income from Firm 36,000
Gross Total Income 2,47,500

Computation of Total Income of Shrimati Ram Kumar for the Previous Year 2020-21
(Assessment Year 2021-22)

Particulars Amount Amount
Income from Salary: 2,40,000
Income from House Property: Rent Received 63,000
Less: Statutory Deduction @30% 18,900 44,100
Income from Firm 64,000
Interest on Debentures 35,454
Master Rohit Income 15,000
Less: Deduction 1,500 13,500
Gross Total Income 3,97,054

Notes:

  1. Share of Profit from Firm is Exempt.
  2. Proportionate Income on Interest on Debentures 39.000 × 30/33 = 35,454
  3. Section 64(1A) applicable and section 27 not applicable. Hence income of minor child is clubbed with Mrs. Ram Kumar being higher income.

CA Inter Accounts Question Paper Nov 2019

Question 4.
(a) Mr. Thomas, a non-resident and citizen of Japan entered into following transactions during the previous year ended 31.03.2020. Examine the tax implications in the hands of Mr. Thomas for the Assessment Year 2020-21 as per Income-tax Act, 1961. (Give brief reasoning)

  1. Interest received from Mr. Marshal, a non-resident outside India (The borrowed fund is used by Mr. Marshal for investing in Indian company’s debt fund for earning interest).
  2. Received ₹ 10 lakhs in Japan from a business enterprise in India for granting license for computer software (not hardware specific).
  3. He is also engaged in the business of running news agency and earned income of ₹ 10 lakhs from collection of news and views in India for transmission outside India.
  4. He entered into an agreement with SKK & Co., a partnership firm for transfer of technical documents and design and for providing services relating thereto, to set up a Denim Jeans manufacturing plant, in Surat (India). He charged ₹ 10 lakhs for these services from SICK & Co. [5 Marks]

Answer:

S.No. Section Taxability Reason
1 9(1)(v) Interest received by Mr. Thomas a non-resident is taxable. Income is deemed to be accrued in India. Borrowed funds are used in Indian company’s debt fund.
2 Proviso to Section 9 Amount is not taxable. Income not accrued in India. Business enterprises is computer software generating.
3 Explana­tion to section 9 Amount is not taxable. Income not accrued in India.
4 9(1)(vii) Income is taxable Income is accrued in India.

(b) Mr. Govind purchased 600 shares of “Y” limited at ₹ 130 per share on 26.02.1979. “Y” limited issued him, 1,200 bonus shares on 20.02.1984. The fair market value of these share at Mumbai Stock Exchange as on 1.04.2001 was ₹ 900 per share and ₹ 2,000 per share as on 31.01.2018. On 31.01.2019 he converted 1000 shares as his stock in trade. The shares was traded at Mumbai Stock Exchange on that date at a high of ₹ 2,200 per share and closed for the day at ₹ 2,100 per share.

On 07.07.2019 Mr. Govind sold all 1800 shares @ ₹ 2,400 per share at Mumbai Stock
Exchange and securities transaction tax was paid.
Compute total income of Mr. Govind for the assessment year 2020-21. [5 Marks]
Answer:
Computation of Total Income of Mr. Govind for the Previous Year 2020-21
(Assessment Year 2021-22)

Particulars Amount Amount
Business Income: Section 45(2)
Gross Sale Proceed 1,000 X 2,400 24,00,000
Less: Conversion Date Value 1,000 X 2,150 21,50,000 2,50,000
Capital Gain:
Gross Sale Proceed 800 X 2,400 19,20,000
Less: Indexed Cost of Acquisition 800X900X301 /100 = 21,67,200 21,67,200
Loss is c/f to next years and can be set off only against LTCG. (2,47,200)
It cannot be set off with business income
Gross Total Income 2,50,000
Less: Deductions under sections 80C to 80U NIL
Total Income 2,50,000

(c) Briefly explain the provisions relating to tax deduction at source on cash with drawal under section 194N of the Income-tax Act, 1961. [4 Marks]

OR
Ms Julie received following amounts during the previous year 2020-21:

(1) Received loan of ₹ 5,00,000 year from the ABC Private Limited, a closely held company engaged in textile business. She is holding 10% of the equity share j capital in the said company. The accumulated profit of the company was ₹ 2,00,000 on the date of the loan.

(2) Received Interest on enhanced compensation of ₹ 5,00,000. Out of this interest, ₹ 1,50,000 relates to the previous year 2017-18, ₹ 1,90,000 relates to previous year 2018-19 and ₹ 1,60,000 relates to previous year 2019-20. She paid ₹ 1 lakh to her advocate for his efforts in the matter. [2+2 Marks]
Discuss the tax implications, if any, arising from these transactions in her hand with reference to Assessment Year 2020-21.

(c) The following are the provisions relating to tax deduction at source on cash withdrawal under section 194N of Income-tax Act, 1961 :

Deductor Bank, Co-operative bank or a post office, who is responsible for paying any sum in cash to an accountholder.
Threshold Limit It is Rs. 1 Crore. However, w.e.f. July 1, 2020, in case of a defaulter, who has not submitted return in past, threshold limit is Rs. 20 lakh.
When Deductible Tax is deductible at the time of payment in Cash.
Rate of TDS Tax is deductible at the rate of 2 per cent of payment (or aggregate payment) in cash exceeding Rs. 1 Crore.

Alternative

(c) Taxability in the hands of Ms. Julie

  1. As per section 2(22)(e), the loan is treated as dividend in the hands of shareholder, to the extent of accumulated profits.
  2. Interest received on enhanced compensation is taxable as income from other sources as per section 57(iv) read with section 56(2)(viii).

Section B

Question 5.
KNK Ltd., a registered supplier of Mumbai is a manufacturer of heavy machines. Its outward supplies (exclusive of GST) for the month of January, 2020 are as follows :

S. No. Particulars Amount (₹)
(i) Inter-state 85,00,000
(ii) Intra-state 15,00,000

Applicable rate of CGST, SGST and IGST on outward supply are 9%, 9% and 18% respectively. Details of GST paid on inward supplies during the month of January, 2020 are as follows:

S. No. Particulars CGST paid (₹) SGST paid
(₹)
(i) Raw materials A
(of which 70% of inputs procured were used and 30% were in stock at the end of the January, 2020)
60,000 60,000
(ii) Raw Materials B
(of which 90% material received in factory and remaining material completely damaged due to a road accident on the way to factory. There was no negligence on the part of the KNK Ltd.)
50,000 50,000
(iii) Construction of pipelines laid outside the factory premises 30,000 30,000
(iv) Insurance Charges paid for trucks used for transportation of goods 55,000 55,000

Additional Information:

(i) There is no opening balance of any Input Tax Credit and all the conditions necessary for availing the Input Tax Credit (ITC) have been fulfilled.
(ii) Details of GST paid on inward supplies are available in GSTR-2A except for item (i) i.e. Raw Material A, for which supplier has not filed its GSTR-1 for the month of January 2020, hence corresponding Input Tax Credit (ITC) is not reflecting in GSTR-2A of KNK Ltd. in January, 2020.

Compute the following:

(i) Amount of eligible Input Tax Credit (ITC) available for the month of January, 2020.
(ii) Net minimum GST payable in Cash, for the month of January, 2020 after using available Input Tax Credit.
Working notes should form part of your answer. [8 Marks]

Answer:

(i) Computation of ITC available for the month of January, 2020
Step-1: Computation of Eligible ITC as per BOOKS of KNK Ltd.

Particulars CGST
(Rs.)
SGST
(Rs.)
(i) Raw Material ‘A’
[For claiming ITC, there is no need to wait till 100% input s arc actually used in production /actually sold]
60,000 60,000
(ii) Raw Material ‘B’
[As per section 17(5)(fe), ITC shall not be available in respect of goods lost or destroyed]
45,000 45,000
(iii) Construction of pipe line outside the factory [It is a blocked credit as per section 17(5)(c)] Nil Nil
(iv) Insurance charges paid for trucks used for trans­portation of goods

[Since ITC is available on trucks, it will be available on amount paid for insurance on trucks also]

55,000 55,000
ITC as per BOOKS 1,60,000 1,60,000

Step-2: Segregation of ITC on the basis of uploading of corresponding GSTR 1 by supplier.

Eligible ITC regarding invoices by supplier CGST
(Rs.)
SGST
(Rs.)
(a) Uploaded [Raw material ‘B’ and insurance charges] 1,00,000 1,00,000
(b) Not uploaded [Raw material ‘A’] 60,000 60,000

Step-3: ITC available for the month
As per Rule 36(4), the ITC in respect of which details have not been uploaded by suppliers in GSTR-1 cannot exceed 10% of eligible credit available in respect of which details have been uploaded.

Particulars CGST
(Rs.)
SGST
(Rs.)
(d) Eligible ITC regarding uploaded invoices 1,00,000 1,00,000
(b) Eligible ITC regarding NOT uploaded invoices

[10% of eligible ITC in respect of which details have been uploaded or such eligible ITC as per books, whichever is less]

6,000 6,000
Eligible ITC available for the month of January 2020

[After application of Rule 36(4)]

1,06,000 1,06,000

(ii) Computation of GST payable in Cash for the month of January, 2020

Particulars IGST (Rs.) CGST (Rs.) SGST (Rs.)
(i) Inter-state Outward supply 85,00,000 @ 18% 15,30,000 Nil Nil
(it) Intra-state Outward supply 15,00,000 @ 9% each for CGST & SGST Nil 1,35,000 1,35,000
GST payable on Outward supplies 15,30,000 1,35,000 1,35,000
Less: ITC available [as per Part (i)] Nil (1,06,000) (1,06,000)
Net GST payable in cash 15,30,000 29,000 29,000

CA Inter Accounts Question Paper Nov 2019

Question 6.
(a) Following are the particulars, relating to one of the machine sold by M/S SQM Ltd. to M/s. ACD Ltd. in the month of February 2020 at List price of ₹ 9,50,000. (Exclusive of taxes and discount) Further, following additional amounts have been charged from M/s ACD Ltd.:

S.No. Particulars Amount (₹)
(i) Municipal taxes chargeable on the machine 45,000
(ii) Outward freight charges (Contract was to deliver machine at ACD Ltd.’s factory- ie. F.O.R. contract) 65,000

Additional information:

(i) M/s SQM Ltd. normally given an interest free credit period of 30 days for payment, after that it charges interest @1% P.M. or part thereof on list price.
ACD Ltd. paid for the supply after 45 days but, M/s SQM Ltd. waived the interest payable.
(ii) M/s SQM Ltd. received ₹ 50,000 as subsidy, from one non-government organi­zation (NGO) on sale of such machine. This subsidy was not linked to the price of machine and also not considered in list price of ₹ 9,50,000.
(iii) M/s ACD Ltd. deducted discount of ₹ 15,000 at the time of final payment, which was not as per agreement.
(iv) M/s SQM Ltd. collected ₹ 9,500 as TCS (Tax Collected at Source) under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

Compute the Taxable Value of supply as per provision of GST laws, considering that the price is the sole consideration for the supply and both parties are unrelated to each other.
Note: Correct legal provision should form part of your answer. [6 Marks]
Answer:
Determination of Taxable Value of Supply

Particulars Amount
List price of machine (as given in the question) 9,50,000
Add:    Municipal taxes
[As per section 15(2)(a), such taxes are included]
45,000
Add. Outward freight charges
[As per section 15(2)(c), incidental charges are included]
65,000
Add. Interest charges
[It will not be included, as the supplier has waived]
Nil
Add: Subsidy
[As per section 15(2)(e), any subsidy directly linked to price (ex­cluding subsidies provided by Government) is included. But, in the given case, the subsidy is not linked. So, it will not be included]
Nil
Add: Discount amount
[As per section 15(3), the discount after the time of supply is deductible, if it is in terms of agreement entered before supply. In the given case, it is not as per agreement, so not deductible.
(Nil)
Add: TCS collected by the supplier [TCS under section 206C of
Income-tax Act, 1961 is not includible as it is an interim levy not having the character of tax.]
Nil
Taxable value of supply 10,60,000

(b) In the following independent cases, decide, which person is liable to pay GST, if any.
You may assume that recipient is located in the taxable territory. Ignore the Ag- gregate Turnover and Exemption available.

(i) ‘Veer Transport’, a registered Goods Transport Agency (GTA) paying IGST @12%, transported goods by road of Dilip & Company, a sole proprietary firm (other than specified person) which is not registered under GST or any other Law.

(ii) Mr. Kamal Jain, an unregistered famous author, received ₹ 20 lakhs of consid-eration from PQR Publications Ltd. for supply of services by way of temporary transfer of a copyright covered under section 13(1)(a) of the Copyright Act, 1957 relating to original literary works of his new book. [2+2 Marks]
Answer:

Particulars Person liable to pay Tax
(i) Supply of services by GTA:
Since the GTA is registered and is paying GST @ 12%, it is not covered under Entry 1. Thus, RCM is not applicable.
Supplier (Veer Transport)
(ii) Supply of services by author:
Since author is not registered, it is not covered under Entry 9A. Thus, RCM is applicable.
Recipient

(PQR Publica­tions)

CA Inter Accounts Question Paper Nov 2019

Question 7.
(a) BBD Pvt. Ltd. of Gujarat exclusively manufactures and sells product ‘Z’ which is exempt from GST vide notifications issued under relevant GST legis-lations. The company sells Z’ only within Gujarat and is not registered under GST laws. The turnover of the company in the previous year 2018-19 was ₹ 50 lakh. The company expects the sales to grow by 10 % in the current year 2019-20.

However, effective from 01.01.2020 exemption available on Z’ was withdrawn by the Central Government and GST @ 5% was imposed thereon. The turnover of the company for the nine months ended on 31.12.2019 was ₹ 42 lakh.

BBD Pvt. Ltd. is of opinion that it does not require to get registered under GST for current financial year 2019-20.
Examine the above scenario and advise BBD Pvt. Ltd. whether it needs to get registered under GST or not? [4 Marks]
Answer:
Before 1-1-2020:
BBD Pvt. Ltd. is engaged exclusively in the business of supplying goods which are not 1 liable to GST. It is exempted from registration under section 23 of CGST Act, 2017.

W.e.f. 1-1-2020:
The turnover of the company is Rs. 42 Lakhs since the aggregate turnover exceeds Rs. 40 lakhs, the company is liable to take registration as per section 22(1). Moreover, as per section 25(1), the company should apply for registration within 30 days from the date on which it becomes liable to registration, (i.e. within 30 days from 1-1-2020).

(b) “It is mandatory to furnish the details of conveyance in Part B of E- way Bill.”
Comment on the validity of the above statement with reference to provisions of | E-Way Bill under CGST Rules, 2017. [3 Marks]
Answer:
Given statement is Not valid:
The Explanation 2 to Rule 138(3) stipulates that the e-way bill is valid for movement of goods by road only when the information is Part B is furnished. But, it is not : required, where the goods are transported for a distance of up to 50 Km. within the State/Union territory:

  1. From the place of business of the consignor to the place of business of the transporter for further transportation, or
  2. From the place of business of the transporter finally to the place of business | of the consignee.

(c) “In form GSTR-1, submission of Invoice-wise details of outward supplies is mandatory for all kind of invoices issued during the tax period.”
Comment on the validity of the above statement with reference to GST laws. [3 Marks]
Answer:
Given statement is Not Valid:
The invoice-wise details is required for following:
(a) Inter-state and intra-state supplies made to the registered persons, and
(b) Inter-state supplies made to the registered persons where the invoice value more than Rs. 2.5 lakhs.

CA Inter Accounts Question Paper Nov 2019

Question 8.
(a) Who can impose restrictions on utilization of input tax credit (ITC) avail-able in the electronic credit ledger and under what circumstances can restrictions be imposed under the CGST Rules 2017 ? [5 Marks]
Answer:
Who can impose restrictions on utilization of ITC
As per rule 86A, the following can impose restrictions on utilization of ITC:
(a) Commissioner
(b) An officer authorized by Commissioner in this behalf, not below the rank of an Assistant Commissioner.
Circumstances in which restrictions may be imposed:
As per rule 86A, in the following cases, the restrictions may be imposed:

(i) The credit of ITC has been availed on the basis of tax invoices/debit notes:

(a) issued by registered person who has been found non-existent or not conducting business.
(b) without receipt of goods or services.
(c) in respect of which tax has not been paid to the government.
(d) the registered person is not in possession of tax invoice.

(ii) The registered person availing ITC has been found non-existent or not to be conducting any business from the registered place.

OR

(b) Explain the order of discharge of tax and other dues as per provisions of Section 49(8) of the CGST Act, 2017. [5 Marks]
Answer:
Order of discharge of tax/other dues
As per section 49(8), every taxable person shall discharge his tax and tax dues in following order:
(a) Self-assessed tax and other dues relating to returns of previous tax period.
(b) Self-assessed tax and other dues relating to returns of current tax period.
(c) Any other amount payable under the Act including demand determined under
section 73 or section 74.

(c) With reference to provisions of CGST Act, 2017 discuss in brief, when “Importation of services” to be considered as supply and when it is not to be considered as supply. [5 Marks]
Answer:
The “importation of services” is considered as supply in the following cases:

  1. When services are imported for consideration whether or not in the course or furtherance of business, [section 7(1)(b)]
  2. When services are imported without consideration from a related person or related establishment in the course or furtherance of business.

The “importation of services” is NOT considered as supply if the import of service is without consideration from:

(a) Related person or related establish­ment But not in course or furtherance of business
(b) Unrelated person or related estab­lishment Whether or not in the course or further­ance of business.

Preliminary (Definitions, Features & Types of Company) – CA Inter Law Notes

Preliminary (Definitions, Features & Types of Company) – CA Inter Law Notes is designed strictly as per the latest syllabus and exam pattern.

Preliminary (Definitions, Features & Types of Company) – CA Inter Law Notes

Company And Applicability Of Act:

Meaning:

  • Company is an Association of Persons formed for the purpose to achieve some common objects.
  • The word ‘Company’ is derived from the Latin word (Com=with or together; panis=bread), and it originally referred to an association of persons who took their meals together.

Definition of Company – Section 2(20)
Company means company formed and registered under this Act (2013) or any other previous Companies Act.

Applicability of Companies Act

  • Companies Act, 2013 is applicable to whole of India.
  • Companies Act, 2013 is applicable to all companies including companies belonging to other sectors such as Banking Companies, Insurance Companies, Electricity Companies etc.

Special Act Prevail

  • Provisions of Companies Act, 2013 is applicable to:
  • Insurance Companies so far as it is not inconsistence with provisions of the Insurance Act, 1938 & IRDA, 1999
  • Banking Companies so far as it is not inconsistence with provisions of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949
  • Electricity Companies so far as it is not inconsistence with provisions of the Electricity Act, 2003
  • Any other Company governed bv Special Act so far as it is not inconsistence with provisions of the Special Act

Preliminary (Definitions, Features & Types of Company) – CA Inter Law Notes

Nature And Characteristics Of Company:
Company has following characteristics:

Incorporated Association

  • A company must be incorporated or registered under the Companies Act.
  • Minimum number required for the purpose is 7 in case of a public company and 2 in case of a private company.

Artificial Person

  • A company is created with the sanction of law and is not a human being.
  • Therefore, it is called artificial; since it is clothed with certain rights and obligations, it is called a person.

Separate Legal Entity

  • Unlike partnership, company is distinct from the persons who constitute it.
  • On registration, the association of persons becomes body corporate by the name contained in the Memorandum.
  • In the famous case of Salomon vs. Salomon & Co. Ltd., it was held that a company is at law a different person from its promoters, directors and members.

Salomon vs. Salomon & Co. Ltd.

  • Salomon carried on business as a leather merchant.
  • He sold his business; for a sum of £30,000 to a company formed by him along with his wife, daughter and four sons.
  • The purchase consideration was satisfied by allotment of 20,000 shares of £1 each and issue of debentures worth £ 10,000 secured by floating charge on the company’s assets in favour of Mr. Salomon.
  • All the other shareholders subscribed for one share of £1 each. Mr. Salomon was also the Managing Director of the company.
  • The company almost immediately ran into difficulties and eventually became insolvent and winding up commenced.
  • At the time of winding up, the total assets of the company amounted to £6,050; its liabilities were £10,000 secured by the debentures issued to Mr. Salomon and £8,000 owing to unsecured trade creditors.
  • The unsecured sundry creditors claimed the whole of the company’s assets, viz., £6,050 on the ground that the company was a mere alias or agent for Salomon.
  • It was held that contention of the trade creditors could not be maintained, because the company being in law a person quite distinct from its members could not be regarded as an agent or trustee for Salomon.
  • In addition, the company’s assets must be applied in payment of the debentures as a secured creditor is entitled to payment out of the assets on which his debt is secured in priority to unsecured creditors.

Lee v$. Lee Air Farming Limited

  • In Lee vs. Lee Air Farming Limited, a company was formed for manufacturing of aerial top-dressing.
  • Lee, a qualified pilot, held all but one of the shares in the company and by the Articles was appointed director of the company and chief pilot.
  • Lee was killed while piloting the company’s aircraft and his widow claimed compensation for his death under the Workmen Compensation Act.
  • The insurance company opposed the claim on the ground that Lee was not a ‘worker’ as the same person could not be employer and the employee.
  • It was held that there was a valid contract of service between Lee and the company, and Lee was, therefore, a worker. Mrs. Lee is entitled to get compensation.

Limited Liability

  • The company being a separate person, its members are not as such liable for its debts.
  • In the case of a company limited by shares, the liability of member is limited to the unpaid value of shares held by them. Thus, if the shares are fully paid up, their liability will be nil
  • However, a company may be formed with unlimited liability of members. In case of unlimited liability, companies’ members shall continue to be liable until each paise has been paid off.
  • In case of company limited by guarantee, the liability of each member shall be determined by the guarantee amount, ie., he shall be liable to contribute up to the amount guaranteed by him.
  • However, in case of a guarantee company having share capital, the liability shall be limited to the aggregate of the amount remaining unpaid on the shares held by a member and the amount guaranteed by him.
  • If any time number of members of company is reduced below than 7 in case of public company or 2 in case of private company and company carries on business for more than 6 months without increase in number to minimum, every member who is cognisant of fact will be severally liable for payment of whole debt incurred by company after period of 6 months.

Transferability of Shares

  • Since business is separate from its members in a company form of organization, it facilitates the transfer of members’ interest.
  • The shares of a company are transferable in the manner provided in the Articles of the company.
  • However, in a private company, certain restrictions have to be placed on such transfer of shares but the right to transfer is not taken away absolutely.

Perpetual Exis-tence

  • A company being an artificial person cannot be incapacitated by illness and it does not have an allotted span of life.
  • The death, insolvency or retirement of its members leaves the company unaffected.
  • Members may come and go but the company can go on forever.

Separate Property

  • Company is legal person.
  • It holds and owns property in its own name.
  • The property of company is not the property of shareholders.
  • It was held in case of Macaure vs. Northern Assurance Co. Ltd., that even where a shareholder held almost entire share capital he did not even have an insurable interest in the property of the company.

Macaure vs. Northern Assurance Co. Ltd.

  • Macaure was the shareholder of a timber company. He was also a substantial creditor.
  • He insured the company’s timber considering his interest as shareholder and creditor in his own name.
  • Timber of company was destroyed in fire and he claimed compensation.
  • The insurance company contented that the company was not property of an individual and refused to compensate.
  • The Court has held that the property of company is not property of individual and insurance company was not liable.

Common Seal
What is common seal?

  • A company is an artificial person. Therefore, it has to work through its directors, officers and other employees.
  • However, it can be held bound by only those documents, which bear its signature.
  • Common seal is the official signature of a company.

Documents re-quiring common seal

  • Now, common seal has been made optional.
  • Following documents require common seal, if company has common seal:
    • Power of attorney
    • Share certificate
    • Share warrant.
  • Generally, documents which require authentication by a company and contract entered into by company should be signed by any Key Managerial Personnel (KMP) or any officer authorized by Board in this behalf.- Section 21

Provisions for use of common seal

  • Authority to use common seal can be given only by Board Meeting. The person affixing common seal must sign the instrument.
  • The common seal should be kept in custody of authorized person.

Importance of common seal

  • If any deed or contract is signed by director or authorized person on behalf of the company under seal, it binds the company.
  • The other party can rely on document and consider the document as authentic.

Can Sue and be Sued by Other
Company may sue or be sued in its own name.

Preliminary (Definitions, Features & Types of Company) – CA Inter Law Notes

Comparison Of Company And Other Forms Of Business
Company vs. HUF
Company:

  • Any person can become member of company.
  • Company is managed by its Board of Directors.
  • A person cannot become member of company by birth.
  • Registration of company is compulsory.

HUF

  • HUF consists family members only.
  • Karta manages business of HUF.
  • A person becomes member of HUF by birth.
  • Registration of HUF is not compulsory.

Company vs. Partnership
Company:

  • Company is an artificial legal person.
  • Company has perpetual succession.
  • Registration of company is compulsory. Company is registered as per provisions of the Companies Act, 2013.
  • Liability of members of company is limited by shares or by guarantee.
  • A member is not an agent of company or of other members.
  • Member cannot bind company by his act.
  • Ordinary members cannot take part in management of a company. Only director can take part in management.
  • Shares of a private limited company can be transferred easily.
  • Company is separate legal entity.
  • A single member cannot wind up a company.

Partnership Firm:

  • Partnership is not a legal person.
  • Partnership firm does not have perpetual succession.
  • Registration of firm is optional. It is guided by Indian Contract Act, 1872 and Partnership Act, 1932.
  • Liability of members is unlimited in a partnership firm.
  • Partner is an agent of firm and other partners.
  • Partner can bind firm by his act.
  • Partners can take part in management of a firm.
  • Partner can transfer his share but the assignee does not become a partner. He is only entitled to share of profits.
  • Partnership is not separate legal entity.
  • A partnership may be dissolved by any partner at any time.

Company vs. LLP
Company:

  • Compulsory registration of company is required with the ROC.
  • Name of a public company to end with the word ‘limited’ and a private company with the words ‘private limited’.
  • Liability of shareholder is limited to the extent of the unpaid capital.
  • Quarterly Board Meeting and Annual General Meeting are mandatory.
  • Audit of accounts is compulsory, irrespective of share capital and turnover.

LLP:

  • Compulsory registration of LLP is required.
  • Name to end with ‘LLP’ in case of Limited Liability Partnership.
  • Liability of partner is limited to the extent of contribution.
  • No such meeting is required.
  • Audit of accounts required, if the contribution is above ₹ 25 lakhs or if annual turnover is above ₹ 40 lakhs.

Company vs. Corporation
Company:

  • A company which is created and registered under the Companies Act, 2013 or previous Companies Act is known as a Company.
  • Company is defined under section 20 of Companies Act, 2013.
  • Company is registered in India.
  • Every company is included within meaning of corporation.

Corporation:

  • The company which is formed and registered in or outside India is known as a Corporation.
  • Corporation does not include co-operative society registered under Cooperative societies Act.
  • Corporation is defined under section 2(11) of Companies Act, 2013.
  • Corporation may be registered in or outside India.
  • Every corporation may or may not be company.

Citizenship And Nationality Of Company
Concept of Citizenship

  • Citizenship is available to natural person as per the provisions of Citizenship Act, 1955.
  • Company is not a citizen either under Citizenship Act, 1955 or under Constitution of India.
  • All fundamental rights which are available to natural person are not available to company. Company cannot be granted visa. It does not have voting right in election.

Nationality

  • Company is not citizen but it has nationality, domicile and residential status.
  • Domicile of company is the place of its registration.

Lifting Of Corporate Veil
What is Corpo-rate Veil?

  • Company is separate legal entity from its shareholders and directors.
  • As a result, shareholders or directors cannot be held responsible for any default or offence committed by company. This is popularly known as corporate veil.

When can the Corporate Veil be Lifted?

  • Corporate veil can be lifted in following two situation:
  • As per Companies Act
  • As per judicial precedent (ie., judgment of Court)

Lifting of Corporate Veil as per Companies Act
In the following cases, the Court can order to lift corporate veil as per provisions of Companies Act, 2013, if concept of separate legal entity is misused:

Wrong or false in-formation – Section 7
Promoter can be held liable for providing any false or wrong information in relation to incorporation of company.

Mis-representa- tionin Prospectus – Sections 34-35
In case of misrepresentation in prospectus, every director, promoter and every other person, who authorizes such issue of prospectus, incurs liability towards those who subscribed for shares on the faith of untrue statement.

Failure to return application money

  • In case of issue of shares by a company to the public, if minimum subscription as stated in the prospectus has not been received within 30 days from the first issue of the prospectus the company must return the application money within 15 days from closure of issue.
  • If money is not paid, all directors shall be jointly liable to return the money with interest @ 15% per annum.

Ultra vires Act

  • Directors and other officers of a company will be personally liable for ultra vires act.
  • Ultra vires means beyond the authority.

Lifting of Corporate Veil as per Judicial Interpretation
In the following veil based on cases, the Court can order to lift corporate ast judgments delivered:

Protection of Revenue
The Court may ignore the corporate entity of a company where it is used for tax evasion or to reduce tax liability.

Sir Dinshaw Maneckjee Petit

  • An assessee was earning huge income by way of dividend and interest.
  • He formed four private companies and transferred his investments to each of these companies in exchange of their shares.
  • The dividend and interest income received by the company was given back to Sir Dinshaw as a pretended loan.
  • It was held that the company was formed by the assessee purely and simply a means of avoiding tax. It did no business, but was created simply as a legal entity to ostensibly receive the dividends and interest and to hand them over to the assessees as pretended loans.
  • Where the medium of a company has been used for committing fraud or improper conduct, Court has lifted the veil and looked at the realities of the situation.

Protection of Faund or Improper Conduct:
Jones vs. Lipman

  • L agreed to sell a certain land to I for $ 5250. He subsequently changed his mind and to avoid the specific performance of the contract, he sold it to company which was formed especially for the purpose.
  • The company had L and a clerk of his solicitors as the only members.
  • J brought an action for the specific per-formance against L and the company.
  • The Court looked to the reality of the situation, ignored the transfer, and ordered that the company should transfer the land to J.

Determine enemy character of company:
Company being an artificial person cannot be an enemy or friend. However, during war it may become necessary to lift the corporate veil and see the persons behind as to whether they are enemies or friends. It is because, though a company enjoys a distinct entity, its affairs are essentially run by individuals.

Daimler Co. Ltd. vs. Continental Tyre & Rubber Co. Ltd.

  • A company was incorporated in England for the purpose of selling tyres made in German by German Company.
  • All directors of company were German residents. Except one shareholders, all shareholders of company were German Residents.
  • During the First World War the English company filed suit to recover trade debt. At that time, war was going on between Germany and England.
  • It was held that company was an alien enemy and therefore contract of selling tyres made in Germany would be void. Company cannot recover trade debt.

Subsidiary to act as an agent

  • In Merchandise Transport Limited vs. British Transport Commission, a transport company wanted to obtain licenses for its vehicles but it could not do so if it made the application in its own name.
  • It, therefore, formed a subsidiary company and the application for licenses was made in the name of the subsidiary.
  • The vehicles were transferred to the subsidiary.
  • Held, the parent and the subsidiary company were one commercial unit and the application for licenses was rejected.

To avoid welfare legislation
Where it was found that the sole purpose for the formation of the new company was to use device to reduce the amount to be paid by way of bonus to workmen, the Supreme Court upheld the piercing of the veil to look at the real transaction. – Workmen of Associated Rubber Industry Ltd. vs. Associated Rubber Industry Ltd.

Preliminary (Definitions, Features & Types of Company) – CA Inter Law Notes

Advantages And Disadvantages Of Company
Advantages:
As compared to other forms of business organisation, company has advantages of corporate personality, limited liability, perpetual succession, transferability of shares, separate property, capacity to sue and autonomy.

Disadvantages
Company or corporate form of business has following disadvantages:

Formalities

  • To incorporate company, detailed legal formalities and procedures are required to be followed.
  • After incorporation, working of company must be as per provisions of the Companies Act.
  • Audit and maintenance of books and registers are mandatory.

Disclosure of Information

  • Company is required to disclose certain information to its members.
  • Members have restricted access to internal management of company.

Separation of Control
Members cannot act in their individual capacity for or on behalf of company

Greater Social Responsibility
Company has to show greater responsibility in their working.

Tax burden
Company has to pay more tax as compared to other form of business.

Detailed Winding up
Winding up procedure is lengthy, expensive and time consuming for company.

Illegal Association – Section 464
What is Illegal Association?

  • Section 464 of the Companies Act, 2013 provides that no company, association or partnership consisting of more than
  • 100 persons for carrying on the business can be formed unless it is registered under the Companies Act or is formed under some other Law. However, Rule 10 of Companies (Miscellaneous) Rules, 2014 prescribed 50 maximum number of members for this purpose.
  • Thus, if such an association is formed and not registered under the Companies Act or any other Law, it will be regarded as an ‘illegal association’ although none of the objects for which it may have been formed is illegal.

Exemptions
Non-Profit Earning Association
All charitable, religious, scientific, literary, social and other association including clubs not having their objects as the acquisition of gain are excluded from the section 464.

HUF

  • Section 464 is not applicable to Hindu Undivided Family carrying on any business without registration with any number of family members.
  • However, where two HUF join hands to carry or business, the provision of section 464 become applicable.
  • However, for calculating the number of members of such as association, the minor members shall be excluded.
  • As regards to adult members, both male and female members shall be taken into account.

Association of Professionals
An association or partnership formed by professionals who are governed by Special Acts are exempted.

Consequences of Illegal Association
Personal Liability
Every member is personally liable for all liabilities incurred in the business.

Punishment
Members are punishable with fine, which may extend up to ₹ 1,00,000.

Limitations

  • Such an association cannot enter into any contract.
  • Such an association cannot sue any of its members or any outsider, not even if the association is subsequently registered as a company.
  • It cannot be sued by a member or an outsider for any debts due to it because it cannot contract for any debt.

No winding up

  • It cannot be wound up even under the provisions relating to winding up of unregistered companies.
  • The profits made by an illegal association are, however, liable to assessment to income tax. – Gopaji Co. vs. C.I.T.A.

Always illegal:
The illegality of an illegal association cannot be cured by subsequent reduction in the number of its members.-Kumar Swami Chettiar vs. M.S.M. Chinnath- ambi Chettiar

Classification Of Companies
Broadly, company can be classified in following manner:

  • On the basis of incorporation
  • On the basis of liability
  • On the basis of control
  • On other criteria

Companies on the Basis of Incorporation

  • Charter Company
  • Statutory Company
  • Registered Company

Companies on the Basis of Liability

  • Company limited by shares
  • Company limited by guarantee
  • Unlimited Company

Companies on the Basis of Control

  • Government Company
  • Holding and Subsidiary Company
  • Foreign Company
  • Associate Company

Companies on the Basis of Other Criteria

  • Private Company
  • Public Company
  • One Person Company (OPC)
  • Small Company
  • Association not for Profit (le. section 8 company)
  • Producer Company
  • Investment Company
  • Dormant Company
  • Public Financial Institution (PFI)
  • Nidhi Company

Preliminary (Definitions, Features & Types of Company) – CA Inter Law Notes

Companies On The Basis Of Incorporation
Charter Company
A company created by the grant of a charter by the king or queen is called a Chartered Company.

Statutory Company

  • Company which is created by Special Act of Parliament is known as statutory company.
  • The provisions of the Companies Act, 2013 do not apply to it.

Examples
Reserve Bank of India, Life Insurance Corporation of India, etc.

Registered Company
Company for which promoters have taken steps to incorporate it and obtained certificate of incorporation is known as registered company.

Companies On The Basis Of Liability
Company Limited by Shares – Section 2(22)

  • In case of company limited by shares, liability of members is limited by the Memorandum of company.
  • Here, liability of members is limited to the extent of unpaid value of shares held by them.

Example:
If person is holding equity share of ₹ 10 on which he has paid ₹ 8. His liability will be ₹ 2. Company cannot demand more than ₹ 2 when share was issued at par.

  • If shareholder has paid full value of his share, he is not liable to pay any further amount.
  • Here, the liability of the member is limited but liability of company is never limited.
  • The liability of members can be enforced at any time during the existence and also during the winding-up of the company.

Company Limited by Guarantee – Section 2(21)

  • In this kind of company, member is liable to pay amount of guarantee he has given at the time of becoming member of company.
  • Company limited by Guarantee can be further classified as under:
    • Company limited by Guarantee and having share capital
    • Company limited by Guarantee and not having share capital

Guarantee Company having share capital

  • The liability of a member of a guarantee company having share capital is dual:
    • amount guaranteed by him; and
    • amount unpaid on shares held by him
  • Member can be demanded to pay call money at any time but he can be asked to pay guaranteed amount during winding

Guarantee Com-pany not having share capital

  • In this kind of company, liability of member is limited to amount of guarantee given by him.
  • This liability can be enforced only at the time of winding up of company.

Unlimited Company Definition – Section 2(92)
A company which has no limit on the liability of its members is an unlimited company.

Provisions

  • In the case of an unlimited liability company, the liability of each member extends to the whole amount of the company’s debt and liabilities.
  • Liability of members of an unlimited company is similar to that of the partners but unlike the liability of partners, the members of the company cannot be directly proceeded against.
  • Company being a separate legal entity, the claims can be enforced only against the company.
  • An unlimited company may or may not have share capital.

Articles of Company
The Articles of Association of an unlimited company must state the number of members with which the company is to be registered and, if the company has share capital, the amount of share capital with which the company is to be registered.

Conversion of limited company into unlimited company
A company registered as limited company cannot be converted into unlimited company.

Conversion of unlimited company into limited company – Section 18

  • A company registered as an unlimited company can be converted into a limited liability company.
  • Any debt, liabilities, applications or contracts entered or incurred by unlimited company before such conversion are not affected by such conversion.
  • Company needs to alter its Articles and Memorandum in accordance of provisions of Act at the time of conversion.

Companies On The Basis Of Control
Government Company Definition – Section 2(45)

  • Government Company means any company in which not less than 51% of the paid-up share capital is held by:
  • The Central Government; or a Any State Government(s); or
  • Partly by the Central Government and partly by one or more State Governments.
  • A subsidiary of a Government Company is also treated as a Government Company.

Legal status of Government Company

  • Government Company is neither a Government department nor a Government establishment.
  • Employees of a Government Company are not the employees of the Central or State Government.
  • A Government Company can be woundup like any other company registered under the Act.

Holding and Subsidiary Company
Subsidiary company – Definition – Section 2(87)

  • ‘Holding’ and ‘Subsidiary’ companies are relative terms.
  • A company is holding company of another, if the other is its subsidiary.
  • According to section 2(87) of the Companies Act, 2013, a company shall be deemed to be a subsidiary of another, in any of the following case:
    • The other company controls the composition of its Board of Directors
    • The other company holds more than half in nominal value of its share capital
    • It is a subsidiary of a third company which itself is a subsidiary of the controlling company
  • Here, total share capital includes; equity shares and convertible preference shares.

Control of Composition of Board of Directors
The composition of the Board of directors of a company shall be deemed to be controlled by the other, if the latter has the power, without the consent or concurrence of the other persons to appoint or remove all or majority of the directors.

Meaning of word ‘Control’ – Section 2(27)
Control shall include the right to appoint majority of the directors or to control the management or policy decisions exercisable by a person or persons acting individually or in concert, directly or indirectly, including by virtue of their shareholding or management rights or shareholders agreements or voting agreements or in any other manner.

Important Note:
A private company which is subsidiary of public company is treated as public company.

Subsidiary com-pany’s holding in Holding company – Section 19

  • As per section 19 of Companies Act, 2013, subsidiary company cannot hold any shares into its holding company either by itself or through its nominee.
  • Holding company should not allot or transfer any of its shares to its subsidiary. If transfer is made, it is void.
  • However, subsidiary company can hold shares in holding company in following situation:
    • It can hold shares as legal representative of deceased member of holding company.
    • It can hold shares as trustee.
  • It has become shareholder before it became a subsidiary company of holding company.

Holding Company – Definition – Section 2(46)

  • Holding company means a company which controls another company.
  • Company shall not have more than two layers of subsidiaries. However, this provision is not applicable to Banking Company, Registered NBFC, Government Company and Insurance Company.

Preliminary (Definitions, Features & Types of Company) – CA Inter Law Notes

Foreign Company
Definition – Section 2(42)

  • A foreign company means a company or body corporate incorporated outside India which—
    • Has a place of business in India by itself or through an agent, physically or through electronic mode.
    • Conduct any business activity in India in other manner.
  • Place of business includes a share transfer office or share registration office.

Explanation of Electronic mode

  • Electronic mode means carrying out following activities electronically:
  • Business to Business (B2B) and Business to Consumer transactions, data interchange and other digital supph transactions,
  • Offer to accept deposit or accepted deposit or subscription of securities, in India or from citizen of India,
    Financial settlements,

    • Web based marketing,
    • Advisory and transactional services,
    • Data base services and products,
    • Supply chain management,
    • Online services such as telemarketing, telecommuting, telemedicine, education and information research and
    • All related to data communication services, Whether conducted by email, mobile devices, social media, cloud computing, document management, voice or data transmission or otherwise.

Example
Online B2C platforms, online travel companies with joint ventures with several airlines etc., selling tickets of these airlines on their online portals or Indian airline companies with joint ventures with foreign entities selling tickets through agents in India would also be covered under definition of Foreign Company.

Activities held as not constituting ‘Carrying on of business’
Following activities by foreign company in India has been held as not constituting ‘carrying on of business’:

  • carrying small transactions
  • conducting meetings of directors
  • operating bank accounts a procuring orders
  • creating or financing of debts, charges, etc. on property

Associate Company – Section 2(6)

  • ‘Associate Company’, in relation to another company, means a company in which that other company has a significant influence.
  • Subsidiary Company of the company and Joint Venture Company are not included within meaning of Associate Company.
  • ‘Significant influence’ means control of at least 20% of total share capital, or of business decisions under an agreement.
  • Total share capital means paid up equity shares and convertible preference shares.

Companies On The Basis Of Other Criteria
Private Company – Section 2(68)

  • ‘Private company’ means a company which by its Articles:
  • restricts the right to transfer its shares except in case of One Person Company, limits the number of its members to two hundred prohibits any invitation to the public to subscribe for any securities of the company
  • Where two or more persons hold shares in a company jointly, they shall be treated as a single member to count total number of members for private company.
  • Employee or ex-employee who are members of company are not included while counting limit of 200 members.

Public Company – Section 2(71)
Public Company means a company which is not a private company.

One Person Company (OPC)
Definition – Section 2(62)
One person company’ means a company which has only one person as a member.

Provisions

  • One Person Company shall have minimum one director. It means, it may have more than one director.
  • It is kind of private company.
  • OPC can be formed either as:
    • Company limited bv shares; or
    • Company limited by guarantee; or
    • Unlimited company.

Who can incorporate OPC?

  • Natural person who is an Indian citizen can:
    • Incorporate OPC;
    • Be a nominee of an OPC.
  • Minor cannot become member or nominee of OPC.

Prohibition for OPC

  • OPC cannot be converted in to section 8 Company.
  • OPC cannot carry out Non-Banking Financial Management activities (NBFC)
  • OPC cannot be converted voluntary into any other kind of company (ie. private or public) within period of 2 years from the date of incorporation.

Privileges or benefits to OPC
Following benefits are available to OPC:

  • Financial statement does not include cash flow statement
  • Need not to hold AGM
  • Need not to prepare report on AGM
  • Financial statement and Board’s report can be signed by one director
  • Need not to appoint Independent Director
  • A proportion of directors need not to retire by rotation every year
  • Limit of managerial remuneration under section 197(1) is not applicable

Small Company
Definition – Section 2(85)

  • It means company other than public company which has:
  • Paid up share capital not exceed than ₹ 50 Lacs or such higher amount as may be prescribed which shall not be more than ₹ 10 crore; and
  • Turnover not more than ₹ 2 Crore or such higher amount not exceeding ₹ 100 Crore as per profit and loss account of its immediately preceding financial year
  • Following cannot be considered as small company:
  • Holding company or subsidiary company a Section 8 company
  • Company or body corporate governed by Special Act

Exemption or benefits available
Following exemptions are available to small company:

  • Financial statement does not include cash flow statement
  • Need not to prepare report on AGM a Need not to appoint Independent Director
  • A proportion of directors need not to retire by rotation every year
  • Directorship in small company is not counted for maximum number of direc¬torship under Act.
  • At least one board meeting in half calendar year
  • Limit of managerial remuneration under section 197(1) is not applicable

Association not for Profit – Section 8
What is Association not for profit?
‘Association not for profit’ is an association which is formed not for making profits but for promotion of commerce, art, science, religion, charity or any other useful social purpose.

Procedure
Procedure for incorporation of section 8 Company is explained in Chapter No. 2.

Exemption or privileges available

  • Section 8 has been granted following benefits:
  • No requirement to use word ‘Pvt. Ltd.’ or ‘Limited’ in the name of company
  • No stamp duty is payable at the time of registration of company
  • Firm can be member of section 8 Company

Restriction

  • Section 8 company cannot:
  • Alter its AOA or MOA without consent of Central Government
  • Pay dividend or distribute its profit among members

Producer Company
‘Producer Company’ means a body corporate having objects or activities specified in section 58IB and registered as Producer Company under Companies Act, 1956.

Investment Company
‘Investment Company’ means company whose principle business is the acquisition of shares, debenture or other securities. – Explanation to section 186

Dormant Company

  • Company which has no significant accounting transaction or inactive company may get status of dormant company by application to Registrar.
  • ‘Inactive Company’ means a company which has not been carrying on any business or operation, or has not made any significant accounting transaction during the last two financial years, or has not filed financial statements and annual returns during the last two financial years.
  • ‘Significant Accounting Transaction’ means any transaction other than:
    • Payment of fees by a company to the Registrar
    • Payments made by it to fulfil the requirements of this Act or any other law
    • Allotment of shares to fulfil the requirements of this Act
    • Payments for maintenance of its office and records.

Public Financial Institution (PFI) – Section 2(72)

  • Public Financial Institution means:
  • LIC, IDFC (Infrastructure Development Finance Company Limited)
  • Institutions notified by Central Government under Previous Act (1956)
  • Other institution as notified by Central Government in consultation with RBI.
  • However, institution should not be notified as public financial institution unless:
  • It shall be established by Central or State Act other than companies Act.
  • Not less than 51 % is held by State or Central Government

Nidhi Company – Section 406

  • Company which is incorporated as nidhi company with the object of cultivating the habit of cost cutting and savings amongst its members, receiving deposits from, and lending to, its members only, for their mutual benefits.
  • Nidhi Company is required to comply with such rules as prescribed by Central Government.

Some Definitions
Body Corporate – Section 2(11)

  • Body corporate includes a company incorporated outside India, but does not include:
  • a co-operative society registered under any law relating to co-operative societies; and
  • any other body corporate, which the Central Government may, by notification, specify in this behalf
  • Body corporate is also known as corporation.

Key Managerial Personnel – Section 2(51)
Key Managerial Personnel means:

  • the Chief Executive Officer or Managing Director or Manager
  • the company secretary
  • the Whole-time Director
  • the Chief Financial Officer;
  • such other officer, not more than one level below the directors who is in whole-time employment, designated as key managerial personnel by the Board; and
  • such other officer as may be prescribed

Manager – Section 2(53)
‘Manager’ means an individual who, subject to the superintendence, control and directions of the Board of directors, has the management of the whole or substantially the whole of the affairs of the company, and includes a director or any other person occupying the position of a manager, by whatever name called and whether under a contract of service or not.

Managing Director – Section 2(54)
Section 2(54) defines ‘Managing Director’ as a director who, by virtue of an agreement with the Company or of a resolution passed by the company in General Meeting or by its Board of directors, or by virtue of its Memorandum or Articles of Association, is entrusted with substantial powers of management which would not otherwise be exercisable by him.

Net Worth – Section 2(57)
As per section 2(57) net worth means an aggregate value of:

  • The paid up share capital,
  • All reserves created out of profits, and
  • Securities premium account and debit or credit balance in profit and loss account,

After deducting the aggregate value of:

  • Accumulated losses,
  • Deferred expenditure, and
  • Miscellaneous expenditure not written off.

Officer – Section 2(59)
‘Officer’ includes any director, manager or key managerial personnel or any person in accordance with whose directions or instructions the Board of Directors are accustomed to act.

Officer in Default – Section 2(60)

  • Any of the following officer shall be regarded as officer in default for any offence committed or contravention committed by company:
  • Whole-time Director
  • Key Managerial Personnel
  • where there is no KMP, director(s) as specified by the Board in this behalf and who has given his consent in writing to the Board to such specification, or all the directors, if no director is so specified
  • any person who, under the immediate authority of the Board or any KMP, is charged with any responsibility including maintenance, filing or distribution of accounts or records, authorises, actively participates in, knowingly permits, or knowingly fails to take active steps to prevent, any default
  • any person in accordance with whose advice, directions or instructions the Board of Directors of the company is accustomed to act, other than a person who gives advice to the Board in a professional capacity
  • every director, in respect of a contravention of any of the provisions of this Act, who is aware of such contravention by virtue of the receipt by him of any proceedings of the Board or participation in such proceedings without objecting to the same, or where such contravention had taken place with his consent or connivance
  • in respect of the issue or transfer of any shares of a company, the share transfer agents, registrars and merchant bankers to the issue or transfer

Preliminary (Definitions, Features & Types of Company) – CA Inter Law Notes

Related Party – Section 2(76)

  • ‘Related party’, with reference to a company, means:
  • a director or his relative;
  • a Key Managerial Personnel or his relative;
  • a firm, in which a director, manager or his relative is a partner;
  • a private company in which a director or manager or his relative is a member or director;
  • a public company in which a director or manager is a director and holds along with his relatives, more than 2% of its paid-up share capital;
  • any body corporate whose Board of Directors, managing director or manager is accustomed to act in accordance with the advice, directions or instructions of a director or manager;
  • any person on whose advice, directions or instructions a director or manager is accustomed to act;
  • any body corporate which is’1 :
    • a holding, subsidiary or an associate company of such company; or
    • a subsidiary of a holding company to which it is also a subsidiary; or
  • an investing company or the venturer of the company ’W.e.f. 5th June 2015, a holding subsidiary/associate/fellow subsidiary company of Private Company shall not be its related party.
  • a director other than independent director or key m anagerial personnel of the holding company or his relative

Relative – Section 2(77):
Relative, with reference to any person, means anyone who is related to another, if:

  • they are members of a Hindu Undivided Family;
  • they are husband and wife; or
  • one person is related to the other in such manner as may be prescribed;

As per Rule 4 of Companies (Specification of Definitions Details) Rules, 2014, a person shall be deemed to be the relative of another, if he or she is related to another in the following manner, namely:

  • Father (includes step-father)
  • Mother (includes the step-mother)
  • Son (includes the step-son)
  • Son’s wife
  • Daughter
  • Daughter’s husband
  • Brother (includes the step-brother)
  • Sister (includes the step-sister)

Whole time Di-rector – Section 2(94)
Section 2(94) of the Companies Act, 2013 defines ‘Wholetime Director’ as a director in the whole-time employment of the company.

Comparison Of Company And Other Forms Of Business
Proprietorship and OPC

Matter Proprietorship OPC
Legal entity It is not legal entity. It is separate legal entity.
Liability Unlimited liability of owner or promoter. Limited liability of member and promoter.
Registration Registration of proprietorship is not required. Registration of OPC is man­datory.
Perpetual succes­sion Principle of perpetual succes­sion is not observed. Principle of perpetual succes­sion is observed.

OPC and Private Company

Matter OPC Private Company
Incorporation It requires one person for incorporation. It requires at least two persons for incorporation.
Person OPC can be incorporated by natural person. Private company can be in­corporated either by natural or artificial person.
Number of Members OPC has only one member. Private company should have minimum two members and maximum number of mem­bers should not be more than 200.
No. of Company by one person One natural person can incor­porate only one OPC. One natural person can incor­porate any number of private company.
Exemption OPC has been granted many exemptions as compared to private company and public company. Private company has been granted many exemptions as compared to public company.

Public Company and Private Company

Matter Public Company Private Company
Minimum Num­ber of members It should have at least 7 mem­bers. It should have at least 2 mem­bers.
Maximum Members No limit. Maximum number of mem­bers should not be more than 200 excluding past and present employees of company.
Transfer of shares Shares are freely transferable. Transfer of shares is restricted.
Public offer of shares It can invite public to subscribe shares of company. It cannot invite public to sub­scribe shares of company.
No. of directors It should have at least 3 di­rectors. It should have at least 2 di­rectors.
Privileges It does not enjoy privileges. It enjoys various privileges under Companies Act, 2013 as compared to public company.

Company limited by Shares and Company limited by Guarantee

Matter Company limited by Shares Company limited by Guar­antee
Share capital It must have share capital. It may have share capital.
Liability of mem­bers Limited to amount unpaid on shares. Limited to the amount of guarantee. If such company has share capital also, the liability on unpaid amount of shares shall be in addition to the amount of guaranteed.
Demand of lia­bility Unpaid amount on shares can be demanded at any time before winding up or during winding up. Guarantee amount can be de­manded only when company- goes in liquidation.
Raising funds It can raise initial funds from members. It cannot raise initial funds from members, unless it has a share capital too.

Practice Questions

Question 1.
Explain a company as a partner.
Answer:
Any natural person capable to enter in to contract or artificial person can
be partner. A company being legal person can enter into contract in its own name. Therefore, company can become partner, if its object clause authorises it to enter in to partnership. Company cannot enter into any business which is not supported by its object clause of MOA.

Question 2.
Company form of business organization is not a popular form of business organization. Is it correct?
Answer:
Statement is false. Company form of organisation is popular form of business organisation due to its advantages like; separate personality, limited liability, perpetual succession, flexibility and autonomy.

Question 3.
Two companies are incorporated with the same set of shareholders. Are they same or distinct under the Companies Act, 2013? Discuss.
Answer:
No. Company is separate legal entity. If all shareholders of both companies are same, they cannot be treated as same company.

Question 4.
The entire assets of a company are acquired by another company. Will it constitute taking over the management of the company? Why?
Answer:
No. It will not be treated as takeover of management of company under Companies Act, 2013. Company is separate legal entity and capable to hold property in its name.

Preliminary (Definitions, Features & Types of Company) – CA Inter Law Notes

Question 5.
Common seal of a company will have to be affixed on all the letters and documents of the company. Comment
Answer:
It is incorrect to say that common seal of company is required to be affixed on all letters and documents of company. Provision of common seal has now become optional. It means, if the company has common seal, it has to be affixed. If company has no common seal, there is no point of affixing it on letters and documents.

Question 6.
An association of 105 members (not being HUF) started banking business without being registered. After one year, six members retired. Thereafter, three members instituted a suit for partition of the association. Discuss the fate of suit.
Answer:
As per section 464, an association consisting more than 100 members is an illegal association if it is not registered either under Companies Act or any other Act. Any reduction in number of illegal association will not convert it in to legal association.
In view of above provision, it can be said that retirement of 6 members from illegal association will not affect its status. Any member of illegal association cannot file suit against association.

Question 7.
Rani is a wealthy lady enjoying large dividend and interested income. She has formed three private companies and agreed with each of them to hold a block of investment as an agent for it, income received was credited in the accounts of the company but the company handed back the amount to reduce her tax liability. Discuss the legality of the purpose for which the three companies were formed.
Answer:
The Court may ignore corporate entity of a company where it is used for tax evasion. In the given case, Rani has formed three companies for tax evasion and therefore principle of separate legal entity shall not be applicable. Based on principle of lifting of corporate veil, Rani will be held liable.

Question 8.
Comment the following: A shareholder who holds 99% of the share capital of a company can be held liable for the acts of the company.
Answer:
Shareholder cannot be held liable for act of company even though he is holding majority or all shares of company.

Question 9.
In an Annual General Meeting of Amar Pvt. Ltd., all the shareholders were killed in a bomb blast. State, whether the company is still in existence. If so, how?
Answer:
Company is still in existence. Death or incapacity of members of company do not affect the existence of company. Company has perpetual succession.

Question 10.
Vayu Ltd. holds more than 50% of nominal value of the equity capital of Stream Ltd. In these circumstances, Stream Ltd. wants to become a member of Vayu Ltd. Can Stream Ltd. Do so? Discuss the rights of the said subsidiary in such a case.
Answer:
As per section 19, subsidiary company cannot be member of the holding company.

Question 11.
A government company is neither a government department nor a government establishment. Comment.
Answer:
Statement is correct. Company is separate legal entity from its shareholders. Therefore, government company is neither a government department nor a government establishment.

Question 12.
Masons (Pvt.) Ltd. is a private limited company as per the Articles of association of the company. However, a public company acquired shares in Masons (Pvt.) Ltd. thereby making the company, Masons (Pvt.) Ltd., a ‘ subsidiary of that public company. State the impact of such acquisition of shares by a public company on Masons (Pvt.) Ltd.
Answer:
When private company becomes subsidiary company of public company, such private company is treated as public company.

Question 13.
Mahesh is a creditor of an unlimited company. The company was wound-up. Mahesh, therefore, wants to sue the members of the company to recover the dues. Advise Mahesh regarding the remedy available to him.
Answer:
Creditor of unlimited company cannot sue its member to recover due amount.

Question 14.
ABC Ltd. is a company incorporated under the Companies Act, 2013. The paid-up share capital of the company is held as under :

  • Government of India – 20%
  • Government of Andhra Pradesh – 20%
  • Government of Tamil Nadu – 10%
  • Government of Maharashtra – 10%

Explaining the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013, state whether the said company be called a ‘Government company’ and also state whether the employees of a Government company can claim their salaries from the Government of India.
Answer:
Yes it is Government Company. Central and State Governments together holding more than 50% of its paid up capital. Employees of Government Company are not government employees and therefore, they cannot claim their salaries from Government of India.

Question 15.
Reliable Ltd. holds 75% of the paid-up share capital in Trust Ltd. Board of directors of Trust Ltd. decides and resolves to hold 10% of the paid-up share capital in Reliable Ltd. The Board’s proposal was also approved by Trust Ltd. in its General Meeting. However, certain members of Trust Ltd. objected to the decision on the ground that both the Board’s proposal and the resolution of the General Meeting are in violation of the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013. Examine.
Answer:
Reliable Ltd. holds 75% of paid up share capital in Trust Ltd. It means, Trust Ltd. is subsidiary company of Reliable Ltd. As per section 19, subsidiary company cannot hold or subscribe any shares of holding company. Therefore, resolution passed by Board and General Meeting of Trust Ltd. is in contravention of section 19. Objection by certain shareholders is valid.

Question 16.
The Karta of joint Hindu family ‘A’, consisting of 31 adult members and the karta of another joint Hindu family ‘B’, consisting of 21 adult members enter into partnership without getting registered under the Companies ‘ Act, on behalf of their families. After two years, some dispute arose and they sought the help of the Court. Can the Court interfere?
Answer:
It is illegal association. Court cannot interfere in matter of illegal association.

Question 17.
S & Co. was formed with S, his wife, daughter and four sons as its subscribers and the only members. The company took over the shoe business of S for ₹ 30,000 giving him, as consideration 20,000 shares of ₹ 1 each and debentures worth ₹ 10,000 with a charge on the company’s assets. All members, except S purchased one share each. S and his two sons constituted the Board of directors of the company. Due to general trade depression, the company went into liquidation. The assets of the company amounted to ₹ 6.000 whereas its creditors amounted to ₹ 17,000. ₹ 10,000 due to S (secured by the charge on company’s assets) and ₹ 7,000 due to unsecured creditors. S claims the assets of the company as his debt is secured by the charge over them. On the other hand, the unsecured creditors are contending that they should be paid in priority over S as the company and S is one and the same person. Who is entitled to assets?
Answer:
Company is separate legal entity from its directors and members. Secured creditor is entitled to money first. Refer case of Salomon vs. Salomon in paragraph No. 2

Preliminary (Definitions, Features & Types of Company) – CA Inter Law Notes

Question 18.
A company was promoted to carry on the business of crop-spraying from the air. X, one of its promoters, held bulk of its shares and was its Managing Director. Subsequently, the company entered into a service agreement with him and engaged him, as its chief pilot also. While flying one of the aircrafts of the company, in the course of business, he died in air-crash. His wife has claimed compensation under the provisions of the Workmen’s Compensation Act. The claim is being resisted by the solicitor of the company who contends that X and the company were one and the same person and a person cannot employ himself, no compensation is payable. Decide.
Answer:
Company and X are not one and same person. Company is separate legal entity. Refer case of Lee vs. Lee Air Farming Limited Compensation is payable.

Question 79.
M holds all the shares (except one) in a timber concern and is also its substantial creditor. He gets company’s timber insured in his own name. Unfortunately the timber is destroyed by fire and M claims the reimbursement of loss from the insurance company. Is the insurance company liable to M?
Answer:
Insurance company is not liable. Refer case of Macaure vs. Northern Assurance Co. Ltd., in paragraph No. 2.

Question 20.
L agreed to sell his land to J but decides afterwards not to carry out the agreement. To avoid the possibility of an order of specific performance to enforce the sale, he works out a plan on the basis of the principle of separate legal entity of a company. As per the plan he forms a company with himself and a clerk of his solicitor as its only shareholders and directors. He transfers the land to the company and offers nominal damages to J who refused to accept it and seeks your advice in the matter. Advise him.
Answer:
Refer case of Jones vs. Lipman, in paragraph No. 5. J may be advised to apply to the Court under lifting of corporate veil.

Question 21.
The State Trading Corporation of India is incorporated as a private company under the Companies Act, 2013. All the shares are held by the President of India and two secretaries in their official capacities. Is the Corporation a citizen of India?
Answer:

Question 22.
Explain the consequence and remedy, if any, in respect of the following situation:
A private company has contravened the provisions of section 2(68) of the Companies Act, 2013.
Answer:
If any private company contravene provision of section 2(68), it lost status of private company. All provisions of Companies Act, 2013 as applicable to public company shall be applicable to such private company.
Private company may apply to Tribunal for relief if failure was not intentional. Tribunal may grant relief on just and equitable grounds.

Question 23.
The paid up share capital of XYZ (P.) Ltd. is ₹ 20 lakhs consisting of 2,00,000 equity shares of ₹ 10 each fully paid up. ABC (P.) Ltd. and its subsidiary DEF (P.) Ltd. are holding 60,000 and 50,000 shares respectively in XYZ (P.) Limited.
Examine with reference to the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013 whether XYZ (P.) Ltd. is a subsidiary of ABC (P.) Ltd. Would your answer be different if DEF (P.) Ltd. is holding 1,10,000 shares in XYZ (P.) Ltd. and no shares are held by ABC (P.) Ltd. in XYZ (P.) Ltd.?
Answer:
Please refer the definition of Holding and subsidiary company.
ABC (P.) Ltd. is a holding company of XYZ (P.) Ltd. ABC (P.) Ltd. holds total 1,10,000 equity shares (Le. 60,000 equity shares by itself and 50,000 equity shares through its subsidiary). Answer will remain same in the second case.

Question 24.
Whether a private company having paid-up share capital of ₹ 40 lakhs and turnover of ₹ 20 crores as per last audited balance sheet will be treated as small company?
Answer:
No. It is not small company. Turnover is more than ₹ 2 cr.

Question 25.
A company X, its Managing Director and another director hold respectively 1 / 3rd number of shares in another company Y, and thus together they hold all the shares of company Y. Is Y a subsidiary of company X?
Answer:
No. Company X is holding 1 /3rd of share capital of Y Ltd. Shares held by Managing Director and another director are in their personal capacity and not on behalf of company.

Question 26.
40% of the paid-up share capital of A Ltd. is held by the Central Government and 11% by public institutions like the Life Insurance Corporation of India and the Unit Trust of India. Is A Ltd. Government Company?
Answer:

Question 27.
Can a company form a One Person Company (OPC) as its subsidiary?
Answer:
In terms of Rule 3 of the Companies (Incorporation) Rules, 2014, only a natural person who is an Indian citizen and resident in India is eligible to incorporate OPC. Therefore, the question of any ‘body corporate’ or other form of organizations being the single member does not arise.

Preliminary (Definitions, Features & Types of Company) – CA Inter Law Notes

Past Examination Questions

Question 1.
State the circumstances under which a company becomes the subsidiary of another company under the provisions of the Company Law. (CA May 1995)
Answer:

Question 2.
Explain clearly the meaning of a ‘private ‘and ‘public’ company as per Companies Act, 2013. (CA November 2002)
Answer:

Question 3.
State the conditions of restriction with which a private company is incorporated under the Companies Act, 2013. (CA November 2003)
Or
The Articles of Association of a private limited company contain provisions restricting the right to transfer shares and limiting the number of members to 200. What restrictions are generally incorporated in the Articles in restricting the right to transfer shares? (CA May 2005)
Answer:

Question 4.
Some of the creditors of M/s Get Rich Quick Ltd. have complained that the company was formed by the promoters only to defraud the creditors and circumvent the compliance of legal provisions of the Companies Act, 2013. In this context they seek your advice as to the meaning of corporate veil and when the promoters can be made personally liable for the debts of the company. (CA November 2004)
Answer:

Question 5.
What is meant by a Guarantee Company? State the similarities and dissimilarities between a Guarantee Company and a Company having share capital. (CA November 2004)
Answer:

Matter Guarantee Company Company having share capital
Share capital It may or may not have share capital. It must have share capital.
Liability of members Liability of members will be limited upto amount of guarantee given by them. Liability of member will be limited upto unpaid value of shares.
Demand of Amount Guaranteed amount can be demanded only at the time when company goes in winding up. Unpaid amount can be called any time.
Raising of funds Initial amount of fund is raised from members. Initial amount is not raised from members unless it is guarantee company having share capital.

Question 6.
ABC Pvt. Ltd., Company is a Private Company having five members only. All the members of the company were going by car to Mumbai in relation to some business. An accident took place and all of them died. Answer with reasons, under the Companies Act, 2013 whether existence of the company has also come to the end? (CA May 2008)
Answer:
Death of all members will not result into end of company. Company has perpetual succession. Legal heirs of deceased members will be members of company.

Question 7.
What will be the consequence in case if a private company incorporated under the provision of Companies Act, 2013 defaults in complying with conditions constitution a private company. (CA November 2008)
Answer:
If private company contravenes provisions of section 2(68), it shall lose all privileges and exemptions available to it under Companies Act, 2013. Provisions of Companies Act are applicable to it as if it were not a private company. However, private company may apply to Tribunal to get relief. The Tribunal may grant relief to such private company on being satisfied that contravention was not intentional.

Question 8.
XYZ company private limited desirous of raising funds through acceptance of deposits from the public seeks your advise on the matter. You being the financial advisor of the company, advise the company whether acceptance of deposits from the public in the given case be valid under the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013. (CA June 2009)
Answer:
Private company cannot accept deposits from public. Private company can accept deposits from its members and directors subject to provisions of deposits.

Question 9.
The paid up share capital of ABC Pvt. Ltd. is ₹ 1 crore consisting of 8,00,000 equity shares of ₹ 10 each fully paid-up and 2,00,000 cumulative preference shares of ₹ 10 each fully paid-up. PQR Pvt. Ltd. and MNO Pvt. Ltd. are holding 3,00,000 equity shares and 1,50,000 equity shares respectively in ABC Pvt. Ltd. PQR Pvt. Ltd. and MNO Pvt. Ltd. are the subsidiaries of UMC Pvt. Ltd. Examine with reference to the provisions of the Companies Act, whether ABC Pvt. Ltd. is a subsidiary of UMC Pvt. Ltd. Will your answer different if UMC Pvt. Ltd. controls the composition of Board of Directors of ABC Pvt. Ltd.? (CA June 2009)
Answer:
ABC Pvt. Ltd. is a subsidiary of UMC Pvt. Ltd. UMC Pvt. Ltd. holds more than one half of share capital of ABC Pvt. Ltd. In second case, answer would remain same.

Preliminary (Definitions, Features & Types of Company) – CA Inter Law Notes

Question 10.
F, an assessee, was a wealthy man earning huge income by way of dividend and interest. He formed three Private Companies and agreed with each to hold a block of investment as an agent for it. The dividend and interest income received by the company was handed back to F as a pretended loan. This way F divided his income into three parts in a bid to reduce his tax liability.
Decide, for what purpose three companies were established? Whether the legal personality of all the three companies may be disregarded? (CA June 2009)
Answer:
Where company is incorporated by person only for the purpose of evading tax, the Court has discretion to disregard the corporate entity. The facts given in the question is similar to the leading case of Dinshaw Manekji.

Question 11.
In a private limited company it is discovered that there are in fact, 205 members. On an enquiry, it is ascertained that 7 of such members had been employees of the company in the recent past and that they acquired their shares while they were still employees of the company. Is it necessary to convert the company into public limited company? (CA November 2009)
Answer:
Ex-employees, who are members of company are not counted for calculating 200 members limit. In the given case, 7 members of company are ex-employees and hence not counted in total maximum number of members for determining status of private company. As the number is within 200 (Le. here, 198) company is not required to be converted into public company.

Question 12.
The XYZ Traders Association was constituted by four Joint Hindu Families consisting of 101 major and 2 minor members. The Association was carrying on the business of trading as retailers with the object for acquisition of gains. The Association was not registered as a company ‘ under the Companies Act, 2013 or any other law.
State whether the XYZ Traders Association is having any legal status? Will there be any change in the status of this Association if the members of the XYZ Traders Association subsequently were reduced to 98? (CA November 2009, 2014)
Answer:
Association consisting more than 100 members and formed for carrying business but not registered either under Companies Act or any other Indian Laws is illegal association. Provision of illegal association is not applicable when members of HUF is carrying business. But, when two or more HUFs carry on business together, provision of illegal association is applicable.
Accordingly, XYZ Traders Association constituted by four HUFs is illegal association as it is not registered and consisting more than 100 members. Illegal association will not be regarded as legal on reduction in number of its members.

Question 13.
The concept of legal personality of a company is absolute nature. Comment (CAMay 2014)
Answer:
Statement is incorrect. In certain cases, the separate legal entity of company is ignored, which is termed as lifting of corporate veil.

Preliminary (Definitions, Features & Types of Company) – CA Inter Law Notes

Question 14.
Anson Limited held equity shares in Booban Limited. Later on, Anson Limited became subsidiary company of Booban Limited. Decide under the Companies Act, 2013, whether it is necessary for Anson Limited to surrender the equity shares of Booban Limited? (CA November 2014)
Or
State, giving reason, whether the following statement is correct or incorrect: A subsidiary company cannot hold shares of its holding company. (CA May 2016)
Answer:
Shares were acquired by Anson Ltd. before it become subsidiary company of Booban Ltd. Therefore, it is not necessary to surrender shares. – Section 19

EIS SM CA Inter Question Paper Nov 2020

EIS SM CA Inter Question Paper Nov 2020 – CA Inter EIS SM Notes is designed strictly as per the latest syllabus and exam pattern.

CA Inter EIS SM Question Paper Nov 2020

Section A:
Enterprise Information Systems

Question 1.
(a) Data Analytics is the process of examining data sets to draw conclusions about the information they contain, increasingly with the aid of specialized systems and software. List out any three application areas of Data Analytics in today’s world. (3 Marks)
Answer:
(Author Note: Write any three Application areas only. The answer given below is given in detail)

1. At a high level,
Data Analytics methodologies include:
Exploratory Data Analysis (EDA), which aims to find patterns and rela-tionships in data, and

Confirmatory Data Analysis (CDA), which applies statistical techniques to determine whether hypotheses about a data set are True or False.
EDA is often compared to detective work, while CDA is akin to the work of a judge or jury during a court trial.

2. Data Analytics can also be separated into Quantitative Data Analysis and Qualitative Data Analysis.
Quantitative Data Analysis: This involves analysis of numerical data with quantifiable variables that can be compared or measured statistically.

Qualitative Data Analysis: The qualitative approach is more interpretive – it focuses on understanding the content of non-numerical data like text, images, audio and video, including common phrases, themes and points of view.

* Part I consists of Multiple Choice Questions are not available in public domain.

3. At the application level,
Business Intelligence and reporting provides business executives and other corporate workers with actionable information about key performance indicators, business operations, customers and more. Now, organizations increasingly use self-service BI tools that let executives, business analysts and operational workers run their own ad hoc queries and build reports themselves. More advanced types of Data Analytics include-

  • Data Mining, which involves sorting through large data sets to identify trends, patterns and relationships;
  • Predictive Analytics, which seeks to predict customer behaviour, equipment failures and other future events; and
  • Machine Learning, an artificial intelligence technique that uses automated algorithms to churn through data sets more quickly than data scientists can do via conventional analytical modelling.

Big Data Analytics applies data mining, predictive analytics and machine learning tools to sets of big data that often contain unstructured and semi-structured data. Text mining provides a means of analysing documents, emails and other text-based content.

4. Some other Application areas of Data Analytics are as follows:

  • Data Analytics initiatives support a wide variety of business uses. For example, banks and credit card companies analyse withdrawal and spending patterns to prevent fraud and identity theft.
  • E-commerce companies and marketing services providers do clickstream analysis to identify website visitors who are more likely to buy a product or service based on navigation and page-viewing patterns.
  • Mobile network operators examine customer data to forecast so they can take steps to prevent defections to business rivals; to boost customer relationship management efforts. Other companies also engage in CRM analytics to segment customers for marketing campaigns and equip call centre workers with up-to-date information about callers.
  • Healthcare organizations mine patient data to evaluate the effectiveness of treatments for cancer and other diseases.

(b) Briefly explain any two types of Mortgage loan in a Banking system. (2 Marks)
Answer:
A Mortgage loan is a secured loan which is secured on the borrower’s property by marking a lien on the property as collateral for the loan. If the borrower stops paying, then the lender has the first charge on the property. Mortgages are used by individuals and businesses to make large real estate purchases without paying the entire value of the purchase upfront. Over the period of many years, the borrowers repay the loan amount along with interest until there is no outstanding.

Types of Mortgage Loan

  1. Home Loan: This is a traditional mortgage where customer has an option of selecting fixed or variable rate of interest and is provided for the purchase of property.
  2. Top Up Loan here the customer already has an existing loan and is applying for additional amount either for refurbishment or renovation of the house.
  3. Loans for Under Construction Property: In case of under construction properties the loan is disbursed in tranches/parts as per construction plan.

Question 2.
(a) Protecting the integrity of a database when application software acts as an interface to interact between the user and the database are called j update controls and report controls. Discuss any three update controls and three report controls. (6 Marks)
Answer:
Protecting the integrity of a database when application software acts as an interface to interact between the user and the database, are called update controls and report controls.

Major Update Controls Are Given As Follows:

  • Ensure All Records on Files are processed: While processing, the transaction file records mapped to the respective master file, and the end-of-file of the transaction file with respect to the end-of-file of the master file is to be ensured.
  • Process multiple transactions for a single record in the correct order: Multiple transactions can occur based on a single master record (e.g. dispatch of a product to different distribution centers). Here, the order in which transactions are processed against the product master record must be done based on a sorted transaction codes.
  • Sequence Check between Transaction and Master Files: Synchroniza-tion and the correct sequence of processing between the master file and transaction file is critical to maintain the integrity of updating, insertion or deletion of records in the master file with respect to the transaction records. If errors, in this stage are overlooked, it leads to corruption of the critical data.
  • Maintain a suspense account: When mapping between the master record to transaction record results in a mismatch due to failure in the corresponding record entry in the master record; then these trans-actions are maintained in a suspense account. A non-zero balance of the suspenses accounts reflects the errors to be corrected.

Major Report Controls Are Given As Follows:

  • Print Suspense Account Entries: Similar to the update controls, the suspense account entries are to be periodically monitors with the respective error file and action taken on time.
  • Print-Run-to Run control Totals: Run-to-Run control totals help in identifying errors or irregularities like record dropped erroneously from a transaction file, wrong sequence of updating or the application software processing errors.
  • Standing Data: Application programs use many internal tables to perform various functions like gross pay calculation, billing calculation based on a price table, bank interest calculation etc. Maintaining integrity of the pay rate table, price table and interest table is critical within an organization.

Existence / Recovery Controls: The back-up and recovery strategies together encompass the controls required to restore failure in a database. Backup strategies are implemented using prior version and logs of transactions or changes to the database. Recovery strategies involve roll-forward (current state database from a previous version) or the roll-back (previous state database from the current version) methods.

(b) After defining risk appetite, strategies are set to manage risks. Explain any four risk management strategies. (4 Marks)
[Author Note: Same Question could be asked as:
Explain in brief Risk Management Strategies.
OR
In an organization, effective risk management involves identification of high-level risk exposures and their analysis. Discuss all the risk manage-ment strategies out of which Senior Management of an organization may choose to adopt any of the risk management strategy based on the analysis of risks. [RTP MAY-20]
Answer:
When risks are identified, and analyzed, it is not always appropriate to implement controls to counter them. Some risks may be minor, and it may not be cost effective to implement expensive control processes for them. Risk management strategy is explained and illustrated below:

1. Tolerate/Accept the risk. One of the primary functions of management is managing risk. Some risks may be considered minor because their impact and probability of occurrence is low. In this case, consciously accepting the risk as a cost of doing business is appropriate, as well as periodically reviewing the risk to ensure its impact remains low.

2. Terminate/Eliminate the risk. It is possible for a risk to be associated with the use of a technology, supplier, or vendor. The risk can be eliminated by replacing the technology with more robust products and by seeking more capable suppliers and vendors.

3. Transfer/Share the risk. Risk mitigation approaches can be shared with trading partners and suppliers. A good example is outsourcing infrastructure management. In such a case, the supplier mitigates the risks associated with managing the IT infrastructure by being more capable and having access to more highly skilled staff than the primary organization. Risk also may be mitigated by transferring the cost of realized risk to an insurance provider.

4. Treat/mitigate the risk. Where other options have been eliminated, suitable controls must be devised and implemented to prevent the risk from manifesting itself or to minimize its effects.

5. Turn back. Where the probability or impact of the risk is very low, then management may decide to ignore the risk.

Question 3.
(a) Many organization are implementing Enterprise Resource Planning [ERP] software, where it integrates all of the processes needed to run Js their business with a single system. As a System analyst briefly explain the benefits to ERP system. (6 Marks)
Answer:
1. Information integration
2. Use of Latest Technology
3. On-time Shipment
4. Reduction of lead-time
5. Reduction in Cycle Time
6. Reduced Quality Costs
7. Improved Resource utilization
8. Better Customer Satisfaction
9. Improved Supplier Performance
10. Increased Flexibility
11. Improved information accuracy and decision-making capability
12. Better Analysis and Planning Capabilities

1. Information integration: The reason ERP systems are called integrated is because they possess the ability to automatically update data between related business functions and components. For example – one needs to only update the status of an order at one place in the order-processing system; and all the other components will automatically get updated.

2. Use of Latest Technology: ERP packages are adapted to utilize the latest developments in Information Technology such as open systems, client/ server technology, Cloud Computing, Mobile computing etc. It is this adaptation of ERP packages to the latest changes in IT that makes the flexible adaptation to changes in future development environments possible.

3. On-time Shipment: Since the different functions involved in the timely delivery of the finished goods to the customers- purchasing, material man-agement production, production planning, plant maintenance, sales and distribution – are integrated and the procedures automated; the chances of errors are minimal and the production efficiency is high. Thus, by integrating the various business functions and automating the procedures and tasks the ERP system ensures on-time delivery of goods to the customers.

4. Reduction of lead-time: The elapsed time between placing an order and receiving it is known as the Lead-time. The ERP Systems by virtue of their integrated nature with many modules like Finance, Manufacturing, Material Management Module etc.; the use of the latest technologies like EFT (Electronic Fund Transfer), EDI (Electronic Data Interchange) reduce the lead times and make it possible for the organizations to have the items at the time they are required.

5. Reduction in Cycle Time: Cycle time is the time between placement of the order and delivery of the product. In an ERP System; all the data, updated to the minute, is available in the centralized database and all the procedures are automated, almost all these activities are done without human intervention. This efficiency of the ERP systems helps in reducing the cycle time.

6. Reduced Quality Costs: Quality is defined in many different ways- excellence, conformance to specifications, fitness for use, value for the price and so on. The ERP System’s central database eliminates redundant specifications and ensures that a single change to standard procedures takes effect immediately throughout the organization. The ERP systems also provide tools for implementing total quality management programs within an organization.

7. Improved Resource utilization: The efficient functioning of the different modules in the ERP system like manufacturing, material management, plant maintenance, sales and distribution ensures that the inventory is kept to a minimum level, the machine down time is minimum and the goods are produced only as per the demand and the finished goods are delivered to the customer in the most efficient way. Thus, the ERP systems help the organization in drastically improving the capacity and resource utilization.

8. Better Customer Satisfaction: Customer satisfaction means meeting or exceeding customers ‘requirements for a product or service. With the help of web-enabled ERP systems, customers can place the order, track the status of the order and make the payment sitting at home. Since all the details of the product and the customer are available to the person at the technical support department also, the company will be able to better support the customer.

9. Improved Supplier Performance: ERP systems provide vendor manage-ment and procurement support tools designed to coordinate all aspects of the procurement process. They support the organization in its efforts to effectively negotiate, monitor and control procurement costs and schedules while assuring superior product quality. The supplier management and control processes are comprised of features that will help the organization in managing supplier relations, monitoring vendor activities and managing supplier quality.

10. Increased Flexibility: ERP Systems help the companies to remain flex-ible by making the company information available across the departmental barriers and automating most of the processes and procedures, thus enabling the company to react quickly to the changing market conditions.

11. Improved information accuracy and decision-making capability: The three fundamental characteristics of information are accuracy, relevancy and timeliness. The information needs to be accurate, relevant for the decision-maker and available to the decision-makers when he requires it. The strength of ERP Systems- integration and automation – help in improving the information accuracy and help in better decision-making.

12. Better Analysis and Planning Capabilities: Another advantage provided by ERP Systems is the boost to the planning functions. By enabling the comprehensive and unified management of related business functions such as production, finance, inventory management etc. and their data, it becomes possible to utilize fully many types of Decision Support Systems (DSS) and simulation functions, what-if analysis and so on; thus, enabling the decision-makers to make better and informed decisions.

(b) Define any four constraints which are usually taken from the characteristics of grid environments and application in order to develop grid computing security architecture. (4 Marks)
[Author Note: Same Question could be asked as:
Q. Explain Grid Computing Security.
OR
Prepare a list of constraints that are required to develop Grid Computing Security.
Answer:
To develop security architecture, following constraints are taken from the characteristics of grid environment and application.

  • Single Sign-on: A user should authenticate once and they should be able to acquire resources, use them, and release them and to commu-nicate internally without any further authentication,
  • Protection of Credentials: User passwords, private keys, etc. should be protected.
  • Interoperability with local security solutions: Access to local resources should have local security policy at a local level. Despite of modifying every local resource there is an inter-domain security server for pro-viding security to local resource.
  • Exportability: The code should be exportable i.e. they cannot use a large amount of encryption at a time. There should be a minimum communication at a time.
  • Support for secure group communication: In a communication there are number of processes which coordinate their activities. This coor-dination must be secure and for this there is no such security policy.
    Support for multiple implementations, There should be a security policy which should provide security to multiple sources based on public and private key cryptography.

Question 4.
(a) Once the complete business of a bank is captured by technology 3 and processes are 6 automated in Core Banking System [CBS], the data of the bank, customer, management and staff are completely dependent on the Data Centre. From a risk assessment point of view, it is critical to ensure that the bank can impart training to its staff in the core areas of technology for efficient risk management. Explain any six common IT risks related to CBS. (6 Marks)
Answer:
Some of the common IT risks related to CBS are as follows:

  1. Access Controls: Designing and monitoring access control is an extremely challenging task. Bank environments are subject to all types of attacks; thus, a strong access control system is a crucial part of a bank’s overall security plan. Access control, however, does vary between branch networks and head office locations.
  2. User Identity Management: This could be a serious issue. Some Banks may have more than 5000 users interacting with the CBS at once.
  3. Authorization process: Anybody with access to the CBS, including the customer himself, can enter data directly. What is the authorization process? If the process is not robust, it can lead to unauthorized access to the customer information.
  4. Authentication procedures: Usernames and Passwords, Personal Identification Number (PIN), One Time Password (OTP) are some of the most commonly used authentication methods. However, these may be inadequate and hence the user entering the transaction may not be determinable or traceable.
  5. Maintaining response time: Maintaining the interfacing software and ensuring optimum response time and up time can be challenging.
  6. Several software interfaces across diverse networks: A Data Centre can have as many as 75-100 different interfaces and application software. A data center must also contain adequate infrastructure, such as power distribution and supplemental power subsystems, including electrical switching; uninterruptible power supplies; backup generators and so on. Lapse in any of these may lead to real-time data loss.
  7. Ownership of Data/process: Data resides at the Data Centre. Establish clear ownership.
  8. Incident handling procedures: Incident handling procedures are used to address and manage the aftermath of a security breach or cyber-attack. However, these at times, may not be adequate considering the need for real-time risk management.
  9. Change Management: Though Change management reduces the risk that a new system or other change will be rejected by the users; however, at the same time, it requires changes at application level and data level of the database- Master files, transaction files and reporting software.

(b) Public cloud is the cloud infrastructure that is provisioned for open use by the general public. Explain any four characteristics of public cloud. (4 Marks)
Answer:
Characteristics of Public Cloud

  • Highly Scalable: The resources in the public cloud are large in number and the service providers make sure that all requests are granted. Hence public clouds are scalable.
  • Affordable: The cloud is offered to the public on a pay-as-you-go basis; hence the user has to pay only for what he or she is using (using on a per-hour basis). And this does not involve any cost related to the deployment.
  • Less Secure: Since it is offered by a third party and they have full control over the cloud, the public cloud is less secure out of all the other deployment models.
  • Highly Available: It is highly available because anybody from any part of the world can access the public cloud with proper permission, and this is not possible in other models as geographical or other access restrictions might be there.
  • Stringent SLAs: As the service provider’s business reputation and customer strength are totally dependent on the cloud services, the follow the SLAs strictly and violations are avoided.

Question 5.
(a) Enterprise Risk Management [ERM] framework consists of inte-grated components 6 that are derived from the way management runs a business and are integrated with the management process. Define any six components of ERM framework. (6 Marks)
Answer:
ERM framework consists of eight interrelated components that are derived from the way management runs a business, and are integrated with the management process. These components are as follows:
1. Internal Environment:

  • The internal environment encompasses the tone of an organization, and sets the basis for how risk is viewed and addressed by an entity’s people, including risk management philosophy and risk appetite, integrity and ethical values, and the environment in which they operate.
  • Management sets a philosophy regarding risk and establishes a risk appetite.
  • The internal environment sets the foundation for how risk and control are viewed and addressed by an entity’s people.

2. Risk Assessment:

  • Identified risks are analyzed to form a basis for determining how they should be managed.
  • Risks are associated with related objectives that may be affected.
  • Risks are assessed on both an inherent & a residual basis, and the assessment considers both risk likelihood and impact.

3. Control Activities:

  • Policies and procedures are established and executed to help ensure that the risk responses management selected, are effectively carried out.

4. Information and Communication:

  • Relevant information is identified, captured and communicated in a form and time frame that enable people to carry out their responsibilities.
  • Information is needed at all levels of an entity for identifying, assessing and responding to risk.
  • Effective communication also should occur in a broader sense, flowing down, across and up the entity.
  • Personnel need to receive clear communications regarding their role and responsibilities.

5. Monitoring:

  • The entire ERM process should be monitored, and modifications made as necessary.
  • In this way, the system can react dynamically, changing as con-ditions warrant.
  • Monitoring is accomplished through ongoing managem ent activi-ties, separate evaluations of the ERM processes or a combination of the both.

6. Objective Setting:

  • Objectives should be set before management can identify events potentially affecting their achievement.
  • ERM ensures that management has a process in place to set objectives and that the chosen objectives support and align with the entity’s mission/vision and are consistent with the entity’s risk appetite.

7. Event Identification:

  • Potential events that might have an impact on the entity should be identified.
  • Event identification includes identifying factors – internal and external – that influence how potential events may affect strategy implementation and achievement of objectives. ;
  • It includes distinguishing between potential events that represent risks, those representing opportunities and those that may be both.
  • Opportunities are channelled back to management’s strategy or objective-setting processes.

8. Risk Response:

  • Management selects an approach or set of actions to align assessed risks with the entity’s risk tolerance and risk appetite, in the context of the strategy and objectives.
  • Personnel identify and evaluate possible responses to risks, including avoiding, accepting, reducing and sharing risk.

(b) (i) Define any two information system controls based on objectives of controls. (2 Marks)
Answer:
(A) Preventive Controls:

  1. These controls prevent errors, omissions, or security incidents from occurring.
  2. In other words, Preventive Controls are those inputs, which are designed to prevent an error, omission or malicious act occurring.
  3. Some of the examples of Preventive Controls are as follows:
    • Employing qualified personnel;
    • Segregation of duties;
    • Access control;
    • Documentation;
    • Training and retraining of staff;
    • Firewalls;
    • Anti-virus software (sometimes this acts like a corrective control also), etc.,
    • Passwords.
    • Vaccination against diseases;
    • prescribing appropriate books for a course;
    • Authorization of transaction;
    • Validation, edit checks in the application;

(B) Detective Controls:

  1. These controls are designed to detect errors, omissions or malicious acts that occur and report the occurrence.
  2. In other words, Detective Controls detect errors or incidents that elude preventive controls.
  3. Examples:
    • Cash counts;
    • Bank reconciliation;
    • review of payroll reports;
    • Compare transactions on reports to source documents;
    • Monitor actual expenditures against budget;
    • Check points in production jobs;
    • Duplicate checking of calculations; (past-due accounts report);
    • The internal audit functions;
    • Intrusion Detection System;

(C) Corrective Controls:

  1. It is desirable to correct errors, omissions, or incidents once they have been detected.
  2. Corrective controls are designed to reduce the impact or correct an error once it has been detected.
  3. Examples:
    • Submit corrective journal entries after discovering an error;
    • A Business Continuity Plan (BCP);
    • Contingency planning;
    • Backup procedure;
    • Rerun procedures;
    • Change Input value to an application system; and
    • Investigate budget variance and report violations.

(b) Name any four activities executed by the Operating System. (2 Marks)
Answer:
A variety of activities are executed by Operating systems which include:

  1. Memory Management: Memory Management features of Operating System allow controlling how memory is accessed and maximize available memory & storage.
  2. Task Management: This facilitates a user to work with more than one application at a time ie. multitasking and allows more than one user to use the system ie. time sharing.
  3. Networking Capability: Operating systems can provide systems with features & capabilities to help connect computer networks like Linux & Windows 8
  4. Logical Access Security: Operating systems provide logical security by establishing a procedure for identification & authentication using a User ID and Password.
  5. File management: The operating system keeps a track of where each file is stored and who can access it, based on which it provides the file retrieval.
  6. Performing hardware functions: Operating System acts as an interme-diary between the application program and the hardware by obtaining input from keyboards, retrieve data from disk and display output on monitors.
  7. User Interfaces: Nowadays, Operating Systems are Graphic User Interface (GUI) based which uses icons and menus like in the case of Windows.
  8. Hardware Independence:
    • Operating system provides Application Program Interfaces (API),
    • which can be used by application developers to create application software,
    • thus obviating the need to understand the inner workings of OS and hardware. Thus, OS gives us hardware independence.

OR

Write short note on Cryptography. (2 Marks)
Answer:
Cryptography:
It deals with programs for transforming data into cipher text that are meaningless to anyone, who does not possess the authentication to access the respective system resource or file.
A cryptographic technique encrypts data (clear text) into cryptograms (cipher text) and its strength depends on the time and cost to decipher the cipher text by a cryptanalyst.

Three techniques of cryptography are:

  • Transposition (permute the order of characters within a set of data),
  • Substitution (replace text with a key-text) and
  • Product cipher (combination of transposition and substitution).

Section B: Strategic Management

Question 6.
ABC Ltd., is a beverage manufacturing company. It chiefly manufac-tures soft drinks. The 5 products are priced on the lower side which has made the company a leader in the business. Currently it is holding 35 percent market share.

The R & D of company developed a formula for manufacturing sugar free beverages. On successful trail and approval by the competent authorities, company was granted to manufacture sugar free beverages. This company is the pioneer to launch sugar free beverages which are sold at a relatively higher prices. These products product has proved profitable for the company.

Identify the strategy employed by the company ABC Ltd., and mention what measure could be adopted by the company to achieve the employed strategy. (5 Marks)
Answer:
Strategy adopted by Company ABC Ltd. is Differentiation Strategy since ABC Ltd is the pioneer to launch sugar free beverages which are sold at a relatively higher prices.

This strategy is aimed at broad mass market and involves the creation of a product or service that is perceived by the customers as unique. The uniqueness can be associated with product design, brand image, features, technology, dealer network or customer service. Because of differentiation, the business can charge a premium for its product.

To achieve differentiation, following are the measures that could be adopted by an organization to incorporate:

  1. Offer utility for the customers and match the products with their tastes and preferences.
  2. Elevate the performance of the product.
  3. Offer the promise of high quality product/service for buyer satisfac-tion.
  4. Rapid product innovation.
  5. Taking steps for enhancing image and its brand value.
  6. Fixing product prices based on the unique features of the product and buying capacity of the customer.

Question 7.
(a) Draw “Divisional Structure” with the help of a diagram. Also, give advantages and disadvantages of this structure in brief. (5 Marks)
Answer:
EIS SM CA Inter Question Paper Nov 2020 1
A divisional structure has some clear advantages.

  1. First and perhaps foremost accountability is clear. That is, divisional managers can be held responsible for sales and profit levels.
  2. Because a divisional structure is based on extensive delegation of authority, managers and employees can easily see the results of their good or bad performances.
  3. As a result, employee morale is generally higher in a divisional struc-ture than it is in centralized structure.
  4. it creates career development opportunities for managers,
  5. allows local control of local situations,
  6. leads to a competitive climate within an organization, and allows new businesses and products In be added easily.

Limitations of Divisional Structure/Design:

  1. Perhaps the most important limitation is that a divisional structure is costly, for a number of reasons.
    • First, each division requires functional specialists who must be paid.
    • Second, there exists some duplication of staff services, facilities, and personnel; for instance, functional specialists are also needed centrally (at headquarters) to coordinate divisional activities.
    • Third, managers must be well qualified because the divisional design forces delegation of authority better-qualified individuals requires higher salaries.
  2. It requires an elaborate, headquarters-driven control system.
  3. Finally, certain regions, products, or customers may sometimes receive special treatment, and It may be difficult to maintain consistent, company wide practices.

(b) What is Strategic control? Kindly explain the statement that ‘premise control is a tool for systematic and continuous monitoring of the environment. (5 Marks)
Answer:
Strategic Control: According to Schendel and Hofer “Strategic control focuses on the dual questions of whether:

  1. the strategy is being implemented as planned; and
  2. the results produced by the strategy are those intended.”

There is often a time gap between the stages of strategy formulation and its implementation. A strategy might be affected on account of changes in internal and external environments of organisation. There is a need for warning systems to track a strategy as it is being implemented. Strategic control is the process of evaluating strategy as it is formulated and imple-mented. It is directed towards identifying problems and changes in premises and making necessary adjustments.

There are four types of strategic control. Premise control is one of them.

PREMISE CONTROL: A strategy is formed on the basis of certain as-sumptions or premises about the complex and turbulent organizational environment. Over a period of time these premises may not remain valid. Premise control is a tool for systematic and continuous monitoring of the environment to verify the validity and accuracy of the premises on which the strategy has been built. It primarily involves monitoring two types of factors:

  1. Environmental factors such as economic (inflation, liquidity, interest rates), technology, social and legal-regulatory.
  2. Industry factors such as competitors, suppliers, substitutes.

It is neither feasible nor desirable to control all types of premises in the same manner. Different premises may require different amount of control. Thus, managers are required to select those premises that are likely
to change and would severely impact the functioning of the organization and its strategy.

Question 8.
(a) Discuss the guidelines for selection of Research and Development, expertise by an organization. (5 Marks)
Answer:
A critical question is whether a firm should develop research and development expertise internally or outside to external agencies. The fol-lowing guidelines can be used to help make this decision:

  1. If the rate of technical progress is slow, the rate of market growth is moderate, and there are significant barriers to possible new entrants, then in-house R&D is the preferred solution. The reason is that R&D, if successful, will result in a temporary product or process monopoly that the company can exploit.
  2. If technology is changing rapidly and the market is growing slowly, then a major effort in R&D may be very risky, because it may lead to the development of an ultimately obsolete technology or one for which there is no market.
  3. If technology is changing slowly but the market is growing quickly, there generally is not enough time for in-house development. The prescribed approach is to obtain R&D expertise on an exclusive or non-exclusive basis from an outside firm.
  4. If both technical progress and market growth are fast, R&D expertise should be obtained through acquisition of a well-established firm in the industry.

(b) Why companies should go global? Mention any five reasons. (5 Marks)
Answer:
There are several reasons why companies go global. These are dis-cussed as follows:

  • The first and foremost reason is need to grow. It is basic need of organisations. Often finding opportunities in the other parts of the globe organisation extend their businesses and globalise.
  • There is rapid shrinking of time and distance across the globe thanks to faster communication, speedier transportation, growing financial flows and rapid technological changes.
  • It is being realised that the domestic markets are no longer adequate and rich. Japanese have flooded the U.S. market with automobiles and electronics because the home market was not large enough to absorb whatever was produced.
  • There can be varied other reasons such as need for reliable or cheaper source of raw-materials, cheap labour, etc.
    For Example: Hyundai got competent engineers at lower cost, industry friendly Maharashtra Govt, which allowed them to setup a unit in India which supplies spare parts for all Hyundai Cars across the world. Companies often set up overseas plants to reduce high transportation costs.
  • Companies often set up overseas plants to reduce high transportation costs.
    For Example: Making a car in Korea & exporting it in Europe & America is expensive & time consuming therefore India as a manufacturing hub for Hyundai proved to be better place.
  • When exporting organisations find foreign markets to open up or grow big, they may naturally look at overseas manufacturing plants and sales branches to generate higher sales and better cash flow.
    For Example: Hyundai cars made by Korea, sold in India were highly demanded and Hyundai decided to setup a plant here.
  • The rise of services to constitute the largest single sector in the world economy; and regional economic integration, which has involved both the world’s largest economies as well as certain developing economies.
  • The apparent and real collapse of international trade barriers redefines the roles of state and industry. The trend is towards increased privatization of manufacturing and services sectors, less government interference in business decisions and more dependence on the value-added sector to gain market place competitiveness. The trade tariffs and custom barriers are getting lowered, resulting in increased flow of business.
  • Globalization has made companies in different countries to form strate-gic alliances to ward off (to prevent from) economic and technological threats and leverage their respective comparative and competitive advantages.

Question 9.
(a) State factors of human resource that have a strong influence on employee competence. (5 Marks)
Answer:
Human resource management has been accepted as a strategic partner in the formulation of organization’s strategies and in the implementation of such strategies through human resource planning, employment, training, appraisal and reward systems.

The following points should be kept in mind:

  1. Recruitment and selection: The workforce will be more competent if a firm can successfully identify, attract, and select the most competent applicants.
  2. Training: The workforce will be more competent if employees are well trained to perform their jobs properly.
  3. Appraisal of performance: The performance appraisal is to identify any performance deficiencies experienced by employees due to lack of competence. Such deficiencies, once identified, can often be solved through counseling, coaching or training.
  4. Compensation: A firm can usually increase the competency of its workforce by offering pay and benefit packages that are more attractive than those of their competitors. This practice enables organizations to attract and retain the most capable people.

(b) What is Strategic Vision? Describe the elements of Strategic Vision. (5 Marks)
Answer:

  • Strategic Management is defined as a dynamic process of formulation, implementation, evaluation, and control of strategies to realize the organization’s strategic intent.
  • Strategic intent refers to purposes of what the organization strives for.
  • Senior managers must define “what they want to do” and “why they want to do”.
  • “ Why they want to do” represents strategic intent of the firm.
  • Strategic intent can be understood as the philosophical base of stra-tegic management. It implies the purposes, which an organization endeavours to achieving.
  • Strategic intent gives an idea of what the organization desires to attain in future.

Elements of Strategic Intent are:

1. Vision: Vision implies the blueprint of the company’s future position. It describes where the organization wants to land. It depicts the orga-nization’s aspirations and provides a glimpse of what the organization would like to become in future. Every sub-system of the organization is required to follow its vision.

2. Mission: Mission delineates the firm’s business, its goals and ways to reach the goals. It explains the reason for the existence of the firm in the society. It is designed to help potential shareholders and investors understand the purpose of the company. A mission statement helps to identify, ‘what business the company undertakes.’ It defines the present capabilities, activities, customer focus and role in society.

3. Business Definition: It seeks to explain the business undertaken by the firm, with respect to the customer needs, target markets, and alternative technologies. With the help of business definition, one can ascertain the strategic business choices. Organizational restructuring also depends upon the business definition.

4. Business Model: Business model, as the name implies is a strategy for the effective operation of the business, ascertaining sources of income, desired customer base, and financial details. Rival firms, operating in the same industry rely on the different business model due to their strategic choice.

5. Goals and Objectives:

  • These are the base of measurement.
  • Goals are the end results, that the organization attempts to achieve.
  • On the other hand, objectives are time-based measurable targets, which help in the accomplishment of goals. These are the end results which are to be attained with the help of an overall plan, over the particular period.
  • However, in practice, no distinction is made between goals and objectives and both the terms are used interchangeably.

The vision, mission, business definition, and business model explain the philosophy of the organization but the goals and objectives represent the results to be achieved in multiple areas of business.

Question 10.
(a) “There is a need for Strategic Management for Government and Medical Organization too.” Comments. (5 Marks)
Answer:

  1. Organizations can be classified as commercial and non-commercial on the basis of the interest they have.
  2. Typically, a Government or Medical organization may function without any commercial objectives.
  3. A commercial organization has profit as its main aim.
  4. We can find many organizations around us, which do not have any commercial objective of making profits.
    (a) Their genesis may be for social, charitable, or educational purposes.
    (b) The strategic-management process is being used effectively by countless non-profit governmental organizations.
    (c) Many non-profit and governmental organizations outperform private firms and corporations on:

    •  innovativeness,
    • motivation,
    • productivity, and
    • human resource
      compared to for-profit firms, non-profit and governmental organizations often function as a monopoly, produce a product or service that offers little or no measurability of performance, and are totally dependent on outside financing.
      (d) Especially for these organizations, strategic management provides an excellent vehicle for developing and justifying requests for needed financial support.

(b) Briefly describe the meaning of Divestment and Liquidation strategy and establish differences between the two. (5 Marks)
Answer:
DIVESTMENT STRATEGY:

  1. Divestment strategy involves the sale or liquidation of a portion of
    • business,
    • or a major division,
    • profit centre or SBU.
  2. Divestment is usually a part of rehabilitation or restructuring plan and is adopted when a turnaround has been attempted but has proved to be unsuccessful.
  3. The option of a turnaround may even be ignored if it is obvious that divestment is the only answer.

Liquidation Strategy:

  1. A retrenchment strategy considered the most extreme and unattractive is liquidation strategy, which involves closing down a firm and selling its assets.
  2. It is considered as the last resort because it leads to serious conse-quences such as:
    • loss of employment for workers and other employees,
    • termination of opportunities where a firm could pursue any future activities,
    • stigma of failure. (stigma in hindi means “Kalank”, in English “social disgrace”)
  3. Many small-scale units, proprietorship firms, and partnership ventures liquidate frequently but medium-and large-sized companies rarely liquidate in India.
  4. The company management, government, banks and financial insti-tutions, trade unions, suppliers and creditors, and other agencies are extremely reluctant to take a decision, or ask, for liquidation.
  5. Selling assets for implementing a liquidation strategy may also be difficult as buyers are difficult to find.

OR
Write a short note on requirement of Strategy Audit. What are the basic activities of Strategy Audit? (5 Marks)
Answer:
REQUIREMENTS OF STRATEGY AUDIT:
A strategy audit is needed under the following conditions:

  • When the performance indicators reflect that a strategy is not working properly or is not producing desired outcomes.
  • When the goals and objectives of the strategy are not being accomplished.
  • When a major change takes place in the external environment of the organization.
  • When the top management plans:

(a) to fine-tune the existing strategies and introduce new strategies and
(b) to ensure that a strategy that has worked in the past continues to be in-tune with subtle internal and external changes that may have occurred since the formulation of strategies.
Adequate and timely feedback is the cornerstone of effective strategy audit.
Strategy audit can be no better than the information on which it is based.

Basic Activities Of Strategy Audit:
Strategy Audit includes three basic activities:

  1. Examining the underlying bases of a firm’s strategy,
  2. Comparing expected results with actual results, and
  3. Taking corrective actions to ensure that performance conforms to plans.

Nature, Objective and Scope of Audit – CA Inter Audit Notes

Nature, Objective and Scope of Audit – CA Inter Audit Notes is designed strictly as per the latest syllabus and exam pattern.

Nature, Objective and Scope of Audit – CA Inter Auditing Notes

Question 1.
“An auditis independent examination of financial information of any entity, whether profit oriented or not, and irrespective of its size or legal form, when such an examination is conducted with a view to expressing an opinion thereon.”
Explain stating clearly how the person conducting this task should take care to ensure that financial statements would not mislead anybody. [MTP-Oct. 19]
Or
The person conducting audit should take care to ensure thatfinancial statements would notmislead anybody. Explain stating clearly the meaning of Auditing. [RTP-May 20]
Answer:
Meaning of Audit:
“An audit is independent examination of financial information of any entity, whether profit oriented or not, and irrespective of its size or legal form, when such an examination is conducted with a view to expressing an opinion thereon.” From this definition, following main points emerge:

  • Audit is Independent examination of Financial information.
  • Audit may be carried out of all entities, may be profit oriented or not and irrespective of its size or legal form. For example, listed company engaged in business and Sec. 8 company which is a non-profit organisation, both are required to get the accounts audited under Companies Act, 2013.
  • The objective of the audit is to express an opinion on the financial statements.

Points to be ensured that F.S. not misled anybody:
Auditor engaged to perform the task of performing audit need to ensure the following:
(a) Ledger balances agree with the entries made in the book of account.
(b) Sufficient and Appropriate evidences are available for entries made in books of account.
(c) All transactions are being recorded in books of account, i.e. there is no omission.
(d) Information contained in the financial statements is clear and unambiguous.
(e) Amounts shown in financial statements are properly classified, described and disclosures are made in conformity with applicable Accounting Standards.
(f) Financial statements reflect true and fair view of financial results and financial position.

Nature, Objective and Scope of Audit – CA Inter Audit Notes

Question 2.
The objective of an audit of financial statements, prepared within a framework of recognised accounting policies and practices and relevant statutory requirements, if any, is to enable an auditor to express an opinion on such financial statements.
Or
State the objectives of Audit according to SA 200 [RTP-May 20J
Answer:
Objectives of Audit:
(a) The objective of an audit of financial statements, prepared within a framework of recognised accounting policies and practices and relevant statutory requirements, if any, is to enable an auditor to express an opinion on such financial statements.
(b) The auditor’s opinion helps determination of the true and fair view of the financial position and operating results of an enterprise.
(c) The user, however, should not assume that the auditor’s opinion is an assurance as to the future viability of the enterprise or the efficiency or effectiveness with which management has conducted the affairs of the enterprise.
(d) Auditor should review and assess the conclusions drawn from the audit evidence obtained and from his knowledge of business of the entity as the basis for the expression of his opinion on the financial information.

Question 3.
List the points that merit consideration in regard to scope of audit.
Answer:
Points to be considered in determining Scope of Audit:

  1. Audit should cover the examination of all aspects of an entity relevant to financial statements.
  2. Auditor should assess the sufficiency and appropriateness of the information contained in the accounting records and other source data. For this purpose, auditor should
    • evaluate accounting systems and internal controls.
    • perform necessary tests, enquiries and other verification procedure of accounting transactions and account balances.
  3. To determine whether the information is properly disclosed in the financial statements, audit may involve
    (a) comparing the financial statements with the underlying records.
    (b) considering the judgments used by management in preparing the financial statements.
  4. Auditor is not expected to perform duties which fall outside the scope of his competence.
  5. Limitations, if any, on the scope of audit that impair the auditor’s ability to express an unmodified opinion should be set out in his report.

Question 4.
State briefly six important aspects to be considered by an auditor while conducting an audit.
State the matters which the statutory auditor should look into before framing an opinion on accounts on finalisation of audit of accounts. Discuss overall audit approach.
Or
State the principal aspects to be covered in an audit concerning financial statement of account.
[Nov. 15 (5 Marks)]
Or
GST & Co., a firm of Chartered Accountants has been appointed to audit the accounts of XYZ Ltd. The partner wanted to cover principal aspects while conducting its audit of financial statements. Advise those principal aspects.
Or
Discuss: Principal aspects to be considered by an auditor while conductingan audit of final statements of accounts. [May 18 (5 Marks)]
Or
SWM is proprietorship firm engaged in the manufacturing of different kind of yarns. It sells its finished products both in the domestic as well as in the international market. The company is making total turnover of ₹ 3 0 crores. It has also availed cash credit limit of ₹ 3 crores from Dena Bank. In the year 2020-21. Proprietor of the firm is worried about the financial position of the company and is under the impression that since he is out of India, therefore firm might not run well. He approaches an Internal Auditor about as to what would be covered in Audit. Advise regarding principal aspects (any four) to be covered in getting accounts audited. [MTP-March 19]
Answer:
Aspects to be covered in Audit:
1. Examination of Accounting System & Internal Control

  • To ascertain whether it is appropriate for the business and helps in proper recording of all the transactions.
  • To determine the Nature, Timing and Extent (NTE) of Audit Procedures to be performed.

2. Reviewing the system & procedures
To find out whether they are adequate and comprehensive.

3. Vouching of the transactions

  • To ensure authenticity and validity of transactions.
  • To check the arithmetical accuracy of the books of account.
  • To ascertain proper distinction into capital and revenue items.

4. Verification of Assets & Liabilities
To ensure existence and valuation of the assets and liabilities appearing in the balance sheet.

5. Statutory Compliances
In case of entities governed by some law, rules or regulations, for example in case of audit of a company incorporated under Companies Act, 2013.

6. Expression of Opinion

  • On true and fair view of state of Affairs as reflected by Balance Sheet.
  • On true and fair view of Financial Results as reflected by Statement of Profit and Loss.
  • On true and fair view of Cash Flows as reflected by Cash Flow Statement.

7. Reporting on Other matters
As required by the law governing the entity.

Nature, Objective and Scope of Audit – CA Inter Audit Notes

Question 5.
The duties of the auditor are limited to verification of the arithmetical accuracy of the books of the accounts. Comment.
Answer:
Auditor’s Duties:
Statement that duties of the auditor are limited to verification of the arithmetical accuracy of the books of the accounts is not correct, as besides ensuring the arithmetical accuracy of the books of the accounts, auditor is also supposed to cover a number of other aspects in the audit.

Aspects to be covered in the audit in addition to verification of arithmetical accuracy:
1. Examination of Accounting System & Internal Control

  • To ascertain whether it is appropriate for the business and helps in proper recording of all the transactions.
  • To determine the Nature, Timing and Extent (NTE) of Audit Procedures to be performed.

2. Reviewing the system & procedures
To find out whether they are adequate and comprehensive.

3. Vouching of the transactions

  • To ensure authenticity and validity of transactions.
  • To check the arithmetical accuracy of the books of account.
  • To ascertain proper distinction into capital and revenue items.

4. Verification of Assets & Liabilities
To ensure existence and valuation of the assets and liabilities appearing in the balance sheet.

5. Statutory Compliances
In case of entities governed by some law, rules or regulations, for example in case of audit of a company incorporated under Companies Act, 2013.

6. Expression of Opinion

  • On true and fair view of state of Affairs as reflected by Balance Sheet.
  • On true and fair view of Financial Results as reflected by Statement of Profit and Loss.
  • On true and fair view of Cash Flows as reflected by Cash Flow Statement.

7. Reporting on Other matters
As required by the law governing the entity.

Question 6.
Discuss the types of audits required under law. [Nov. 11 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Audit required under law:
(a) Companies governed by the Companies Act, 2013;
(b) Banking companies governed by the Banking Regulation Act, 1949;
(c) Electricity supply companies governed by the Electricity Supply Act, 1948;
(d) Co-operative societies registered under the Co-operative Societies Act, 1912;
(e) Public and charitable trusts registered under various Religious and Endowment Acts;
(f) Corporations set up under an Act of Parliament or State Legislature such as the LIC of India.
(g) Specified entities under various sections of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

Question 7.
What is the importance of having the accounts audited by independent professional auditors? [May 01 (8 Marks)]
Or
What are the advantages of Independent audit. [May 12 (8 Marks)]
Or
Discuss the following: Advantages of Independent Auditor. [May 15(5 Marks)]
Or
RAG is proprietorship firm engaged in the manufacturing of textile and handloom products. It sells its finished products both in the domestic as well as in the international market. The company is making total turnover of Rs. 30 crores. It has also availed cash credit limit of Rs. 5 crores from Canara Bank. In the year 2020-21, proprietor of the firm is worried about the financial position of the company and is under the impression that since he is out of India, therefore firm might run into losses. He approaches a CA about advantages of getting his accounts audited throughout the year so that he may not suffer due to accounting weaknesses. Advise regarding advantages of getting accounts audited. [MTP-March 18, Oct. 18]
Or
The chief utility of audit lies in reliable financial statements on the basis of which the state of affairs may be easy to understand. Apart from this obvious utility, there are other advantages of audit. Some or all of these are of considerable value even to those enterprises and organisations where audit is not compulsory. Explain. [RTP-Nov. 18]
Answer:
Advantage of Audit of Financial Statement:
1. Protect the interest of fund providers: It safeguards the financial interests of persons who are not associated with the management of the organisation e.g. partners or shareholders.
2. Moral check on employees: It acts as a moral check on employees from committing defalcations or embezzlement.
3. Settlement of Taxes, etc: Auditing statements of accounts are helpful in settling of taxes, negotiating loans and for determining the purchase consideration for a business.
4. Settlement of Trade Disputes: Audited statements are useful for settling trade disputes for higher wages or bonus.
5. Detection of Wastages: Audited statements also help in detection of wastages and losses and shows the different ways by which these might be checked especially those that occurred due to absence or inadequacy of internal checks or internal control measures.
6. Proper maintenance of books of account: Independent audit ascertains whether the necessary books of account and allied records have been properly kept and helps the client in making good deficiencies or inadequacies in this respect.
7. Appraisal of controls: As an appraisal function, audit reviews the existence and operations of various controls in the organisations and reports weaknesses, inadequacies etc.
8. Admission/retirement of Partner: Audited accounts are of great help in the settlement of accounts at the time of admission or death of the partner.
9. Grant of License: Government may require audited and certified statements before it gives assistance or issues the license for a particular trade.

Nature, Objective and Scope of Audit – CA Inter Audit Notes

Question 8.
Discuss Limitations of audit. [May 11 (8 Marks)]
Or
“The process of auditing is such that it suffers from certain limitations”. Discuss.
Or
ABC Ltd. Requested the auditor to provide for absolute assurance in respect of its ten branches scattered in Mumbai and confirm that financial statements are free from material misstatements due to fraud or error. Advise.
Or
The auditor is not expected to, and cannot, reduce audit risk to zero and cannot therefore obtain absolute assurance that the financial statements are free from material misstatement due to fraud or error. This is because there are inherent limitations of an audit. Explain. [RTP-Nov. 18]
Answer:
Inherent Limitations of Audit:
As per SA 200 “Overall Objectives of the Independent Auditor and the Conduct of an Audit in accordance with Standards on Auditing” the auditor is not expected to, and cannot, reduce audit risk to zero and cannot therefore obtain absolute assurance that the financial statements are free from material misstatement due to fraud or error. This is because there are inherent limitations of an audit, which result in most of the audit evidence on which the auditor draws conclusions and bases the auditor’s opinion being persuasive rather than conclusive.

The inherent limitations of an audit arise from:
1. The Nature of Financial Reporting
The preparation of financial statements involves judgment by management in applying the requirements of the entity’s applicable FRF to the facts and circumstances of the entity. Consequently, some financial statement items are subject to an inherent level of variability which cannot be eliminated by the application of additional auditing procedures.

2. Nature of Audit Procedures
There are practical and legal limitations on the auditor’s ability to obtain audit evidence. For example:

  • Management & others do not provide complete information intentionally/unintentionally.
  • Audit procedures used to gather audit evidence may be ineffective against fraud detection.
  • Audit is not an official investigation into alleged wrongdoings.

3. Timeliness of Financial Reporting & the Balance between Benefit & Cost

  • User expectation that the auditor will form an opinion on the F. S. within a reasonable period of time and at a reasonable cost.
  • It results into use of Test checking and putting most of efforts over the areas having risk of material misstatement with corresponding less efforts in other areas.

4. Other Matters that Affect the Limitations of an Audit
In the case of certain assertions or subject matters, the potential effects of the limitations on the auditor’s ability to detect material misstatements are particularly significant. Such assertions or subject matters include:
(a) Fraud, particularly fraud involving senior management or collusion.
(b) The existence and completeness of related party relationships and transactions.
(c) The occurrence of non-compliance with laws and regulations.
(d) Future events or conditions that may cause an entity to cease to continue as a going concern.

Question 9.
There are practical and legal limitations on the auditor’s ability to obtain audit evidence. Explain with examples. [RTP-May 20, MTP-Oct. 20]
Answer:
Audit limitations as to the nature of audit procedures:
There are practical and legal limitations on the auditor’s ability to obtain audit evidence. For example:
1. There is the possibility that management or others may not provide, intentionally or unintentionally, the complete information that is relevant to the preparation and presentation of the financial statements or that has been requested by the auditor.
2. Fraud may involve sophisticated and carefully organised schemes designed to conceal it. Therefore, audit procedures used to gather audit evidence may be ineffective for detecting an intentional misstatement that involves, for example, collusion to falsify documentation which may cause the auditor to believe that audit evidence is valid when it is not. The auditor is neither trained as nor expected to be an expert in the authentication of documents.
3. An audit is not an official investigation into alleged wrongdoing. Accordingly, the auditor is not given specific legal powers, such as the power of search, which may be necessary for such an investigation.

Question 10.
In case of certain subject matters,limitations on the auditor’s ability to detect material misstatements | are particularly significant. Explain such assertions or subject matters. [RTP-May 20]
Answer:
Other Matters that Affect the Limitations of an Audit
In the case of certain assertions or subject matters, the potential effects of the limitations on the auditor’s ability to detect material misstatements are particularly significant. Such assertions or subject matters include:
(a) Fraud, particularly fraud involving senior management or collusion.
(b) The existence and completeness of related party relationships and transactions.
(c) The occurrence of non-compliance with laws and regulations.
(d) Future events or conditions that may cause an entity to cease to continue as a going concern.

Question 11.
DEF & Co. Chartered Accountants successfully carried out the audit of Shree Garments for the fi¬nancial year 2020-21. After the completion of the audit, there were found material misstatements due to fraud in the financial statements which were not noticed and reported by the auditor. Man¬agement alleges that it is failure on the part of auditor. Comment. [MTP-Oct. 20]
Answer:
Management allegation as to auditor’s failure to detect material misstatements:
As per SA 200 “Overall Objectives of the Independent Auditor and the Conduct of an Audit in accordance with Standards on Auditing’’ the auditor is not expected to, and cannot, reduce audit risk to zero and cannot therefore obtain absolute assurance that the financial statements are free from material misstatement due to fraud or error. This is because there are inherent limitations of an audit, which result in most of the audit evidence on which the auditor draws conclusions and bases the auditor’s opinion being persuasive rather than conclusive.

As per SA – 240, the responsibility for the prevention and detection of fraud and error rests with management through the implementation of an adequate system of internal control. Such a system reduces but does not eliminate the possibility of fraud and error. Auditor’s responsibility for failure to detect fraud and error can arise only due to proven negligence.

The relevant provisions in this regard are:
(a) In forming his opinion, the auditor carries out procedures designed to obtain evidence that will provide reasonable assurance that the financial information is properly stated in all material respects.
(b) Due to the inherent limitations of an audit there is a possibility that material misstatements of the financial information resulting from fraud or error may not be detected. An auditor cannot be charged for non-adherence of basic principles in the following circumstances:

  • subsequent discovery of material misstatement of the financial information resulting from fraud or error;
  • failure to disclose the affairs of the company kept out of books and concealed from him.

Unless it is proved that procedures undertaken by auditor in the circumstances are inadequate and improper.
Thus, if any misstatement has been detected after the completion of the audit, the same by itself cannot mean that the auditor did not perform his duty properly.
If the auditor can prove with the help of his papers (documentation] that he has followed adequate procedures necessary for the proper conduct of an audit, he cannot be held responsible for the same.

Nature, Objective and Scope of Audit – CA Inter Audit Notes

Question 12.
The matter of difficulty, time, or cost involved is not in itself a valid basis for the auditor to omit an audit procedure for which there is no alternative or to be satisfied with audit evidence that is less than persuasive. Explain. [RTP-May 18]
Answer:
Omission of Audit procedure due to difficulty, time or cost constraint:

  • The matter of difficulty, time, or cost involved is not in itself a valid basis for the auditor to omit an audit procedure for which there is no alternative or to be satisfied with audit evidence that is less than persuasive.
  • Appropriate planning assists in making sufficient time and resources available for the conduct of the audit. Notwithstanding this, the relevance of information, and thereby its value, tends to diminish over time, and there is a balance to be struck between the reliability of information and its cost.
  • There is an expectation by users of financial statements that the auditor will form an opinion on the financial statements within a reasonable period of time and at a reasonable cost, recognising that it is impracticable to address all information that may exist or to pursue every matter exhaustively on the assumption that information is in error or fraudulent until proved otherwise.

Question 13.
The relationship between auditing and law is very close one. Discuss. [MTP – Oct. 19]
Answer:
Relationship of Auditing and Law:

  • Auditing involves examination of various transactions from the view point of whether or not these have been properly entered into as per the requirements of law, in particular, when an entity is governed by any law, for example companies.
  • It necessitates that an auditor should have a good knowledge of business and corporate laws affecting the entity. He should be familiar with the law of contracts, negotiable instruments, etc.
  • In analysing the impact of various transactions particularly from the accounting aspect, an auditor ought to have good knowledge about the direct as well as indirect tax laws.

Question 14.
Discuss the following: The discipline of behavioural science is closely linked with the subject of auditing. [Nov. 13 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Relationship of Auditing with behavioural science:
The discipline of behavioural science is closely linked with the subject of auditing. The knowledge of human behaviour is indeed very essential for an auditor so as to effectively discharge his duties, because of below mentioned aspects:

  • While performing audit, auditor is required to interact with a lot of people in the organisation.
  • Management auditor is expected to deal with human beings rather than financial figures.
  • One of the basic elements in designing the internal control system is personnel.
  • Internal control system in an organisation cannot work until and unless the people who are working in the organisation are competent and honest.

Question 15.
“Discipline of Statistics and Mathematics has come closer quite to auditing”. Explain.
Answer:
Relationship of Auditing with Statistics and Mathematics:

  • While performing audit, auditor examines the transaction on test checking basis, wherein auditor is required to select the samples.
  • Discipline of statistics plays an important role as the auditor is also expected to have the knowledge of statistical sampling so as to arrive at meaningful conclusions.
  • The knowledge of mathematics is also required on the part of auditor particularly at the time of verification of inventories.

Question 16.
Both accounting and auditing are closely related with each other. Explain. [RTP-Nov. 20]
Answer:
Relationship between accounting and auditing:

  • Accounting and auditing are closely related with each other as auditing reviews the financial statements which are nothing but a result of the overall accounting process.
  • Auditing begins when accounting ends.
  • It requires that the auditor must have a thorough and sound knowledge of generally accepted principles of accounting before he can review the financial statements.

Question 17.
The objective of the IAASB is to serve the public interest by setting high quality auditing standards and by facilitating the convergence of international and national standards, thereby enhancing the quality and uniformity of practice throughout the world and strengthening public confidence in the global auditing and assurance profession. State how this objective is achieved. [MTP-March 18, March 19]
Or
The IAASB functions as an independent standard-setting body under the auspices of IFAC. Explain stating the objective of IAASB and also how it achieves those objectives. [RTP-May 19]
Answer:
Role of International Auditing & Assurance Standard Board (IAASB)
The IAASB functions as an independent standard-setting body under the auspices of IFAC. The objective of the IAASB is to serve the public interest by setting high quality auditing standards and by facilitating the convergence of international and national standards, thereby enhancing the quality and uniformity of practice throughout the world and strengthening public confidence in the global auditing and assurance profession. The IAASB achieves this objective by:
(a) Establishing high quality auditing standards and guidance for financial statement audits that are generally accepted and recognized by investors, auditors, governments, banking regulators, securities regulators and other key stakeholders across the world;
(b) Establishing high quality standards and guidance for other types of assurance services on both financial and non-financial matters;
(c) Establishing high quality standards and guidance for other related services;
(d) Establishing high quality standards for quality control covering the scope of services addressed by the IAASB; and
(e) Publishing other pronouncements on auditing and assurance matters, thereby advancing public understanding of the roles and responsibility of professional auditors and assurance service providers.

Nature, Objective and Scope of Audit – CA Inter Audit Notes

Question 18.
Explain the Auditing Standard setting process of AASB of ICAI.
Answer:
Auditing Standards Setting Process:
The Auditing and Assurance Standards Board (AASB) of the Institute formulates the auditing standards. The steps followed in formulating auditing standards are:

  • AASB identifies the areas where auditing standards need to be formulated and the priority in regard to their selection.
  • In the preparation of the auditing standards, the Board is normally, assisted by study groups comprising of a cross section of members of the Institute.
  • On the basis of the work of the study groups, an Exposure Draft of the proposed auditing standard is prepared by the Board and issued for comments of the members.
  • After taking into the comments received, the draft of the proposed auditing standard is finalised by the Board and submitted to the Council of the Institute.
  • The Council considers the final draft of the proposed auditing standard and, if necessary, modifies the same in consultation with the Board. The auditing standard is then issued under the authority of the Council.
  • While formulating the auditing standards, the Board also takes into consideration the applicable laws, customs, usages and business environment in the country.

Question 19.
What are the objectives and functions of Auditing and Assurance Standard Board (AASB)? Explain. [May 15 (6 Marks)]
Answer:
Objectives and Functions of AASB:

  • To review the existing and emerging auditing practices worldwide and identify areas in which Standards on Quality Control, Engagement Standards and Statements on Auditing need to be developed.
  • To formulate Engagement Standards, Standards on Quality Control and Statements on Auditing so that these may be issued under the authority of the Council of the Institute.
  • To review the existing Standards and Statements on Auditing to assess their relevance in the changed conditions and to undertake their revision, if necessary.
  • To develop Guidance Notes on issues arising out of any Standard, auditing issues pertaining to any specific industry or on generic issues, so that those may be issued under the authority of the Council of the Institute.
  • To review the existing Guidance Notes to assess their relevance in the changed circumstances and to undertake their revision, if necessary.
  • To formulate General Clarifications, where necessary, on issues arising from Standards.
  • To formulate and issue Technical Guides, Practice Manuals, Studies and other papers under its own authority for guidance of professional accountants in the cases felt appropriate by the Board.

Question 20.
Discuss the following: Standards collectively known as the Engagement Standards issued by AASB under the authority of Council of ICAI. [May 12 (5 Marks)]
Or
State the Standards issued by AASB which are collectively known as engagement standards. [Nov. 15 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Engagement Standards issued by AASB:
Preface to Standards on Quality Control, Auditing, Review, Other Assurance and Related Service categorises the Standards based on the nature of service being provided by a member. It, therefore, introduces an umbrella concept of Engagement Standards.

The term “Engagement Standards” comprises the following Standards:

  • Standards on Auditing (SAs): These standards are to be applied in the audit of historical financial information.
  • Standards on Review Engagements (SREs): These standards are to be applied in the review of historical financial information.
  • Standards on Assurance Engagements (SAEs): These standards are to be applied in assurance engagements, engagements dealing with subject matter other than historical financial information.
  • Standards on Related Services (SRRs): These standards are to be applied to engagements involving application of agreed upon procedures to information and other related services such as compilation engagements.

Question 21.
Mention any ten title of standards on auditing and the date from which it comes into force.
Answer:
Title of Standards of Auditing and their effective date:

Number of Stan­dards Name of Standard of Auditing Effective Date
SA 200 (Revised) Overall Objectives of the Independent Auditor and the Conduct of an Audit in Accordance with Standards on Auditing 01.04.2010
SA 210 (Revised) Agreeing the Terms of Audit Engagements 01.04.2010
SA 220 (Revised) Quality Control for an Audit of Financial Statements 01.04.2010
SA 230 (Revised) Audit Documentation 01.04.2009
SA 240 (Revised) The Auditor’s Responsibilities Relating to Fraud in an Audit of Financial Statements 01.04.2009
SA 300 (Revised) Planning an Audit of Financial Statements 01.04.2008
SA 315 Identifying and Assessing the Risk of material Misstate­ments through understating the Entity and its Environ­ment 01.04.2008
SA 500 (Revised) Audit Evidence 01.04.2009
SA 501 (Revised) Audit Evidence – Specific Considerations for Selected Items 01.04.2010
SA 505 (Revised) External Confirmations 01.04.2010
SA 510 (Revised) Initial Audit Engagements – Opening balances 01.04.2010
SA 520 (Revised) Analytical Procedures 01.04.2010
SA 610 (Revised) Using the work of Internal Auditors 01.04.2016
SA 620 (Revised) Using the Work of an Auditor’s Expert 01.04.2010

Nature, Objective and Scope of Audit – CA Inter Audit Notes

Question 22.
Discuss the following: “Statements” and “Guidance Notes” of ICAI Whether mandatory or recommandatory. [May 14 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement and Guidance Notes – Level of authority and degree of compliance:

Statements Guidance Notes
Purpose Statements are issued with a view to securing compliance by members on matters which in the opinion of the council of the institute are critical for the proper discharge of their functions. Guidance Notes are designed to provide guidance to members on matters which may arise in the course of their profes­sional work and on which they may desire assistance.
Compli­ance Compliance is Mandatory in Nature. Compliance is recommendatory in nature, except a few guidance notes in case of which the Council has specifically stated that they should be considered as manda­tory on members while discharging their attest function.
Examples Preface on Standards on Quality Control. Auditing, Review, Other Assurance and related Services. Guidance Note on Audit of Invento­ries. Guidance Note on Audit of Invest­ments.
Level of Authority/ Duties of Members Examine whether ‘Statements’ relating to accounting matters are complied with in the presentation of F.S. In the event of any deviation from such ‘Statements’, to make adequate disclosures in their audit reports so that the users of F.S. may be aware of such deviations. Ensure that the ‘Statements’ relating to auditing matters, are followed in the audit of financial information covered by their audit reports. If, for any reason, a member, has not been able to perform an audit in accordance with such ‘Statements’ his report should draw attention to the material departures there from. Examine whether the recommen­dations in a guidance note relating to an accounting matter have been followed or not. If the same have not been followed, consider whether keeping in view the circumstances of the case, a disclosure in his report is necessary. Follow recommendations in a guidance note relating to auditing except where he is satisfied that in the circumstances ofthe case, it may not be necessary to do so.

Question 23.
State briefly the Qualities of Auditors. [Nov. 04 (4 Marks)]
Or
Lord Justice Lindley in the course of the judgment in the famous London & General Bank case had succinctly summed up the overall view of what an auditor should be as regards the personal qualities. Explain stating also the qualities of Auditor. [RTP-May 19]
Answer:
Qualities of Auditor
Lord Justice Lindley in the course of the judgment in the famous London & General Bank case had succinctly summed up the overall view of what an auditor should be as regards the personal qualities. He said, “an auditor must be honest that is, he must not certify what he does not believe to be true and must take reasonable care and skill before he believes that what he certifies is true”.

(A) Technical Qualities: Auditor must have sound knowledge of followings:

  • Accountancy – its principles, procedures, techniques and standards (AS).
  • Auditing – its principles, procedures, techniques and standards (SA).
  • Direct and Indirect Taxation Laws.
  • General Principles of Law of contracts and partnership.
  • Corporate Laws.
  • Client Nature of Business.

(B) Personal Qualities: Apart from the technical qualities, the auditor should also possess certain personal qualities mentioned below:

  • Objectivity, Integrity and Independence.
  • Confidentiality of client information.
  • Effective Communication skills.
  • Tactful approach in dealing with clients.
  • Clear-headedness and commonsense.
  • Reliability and trust.

Question 24.
The firm’s system of quality control should include policies and procedures addressing each element. Explain. [RTF-Nov. 18, MTP – Oct. 19]
Answer:
Elements of a System of Quality Control:
As per SQC 1 “Quality Control for Firms that perform Audits and Reviews of Historical Financial Information/and Other Assurance and Related Services Engagements”, the firm’s system of quality control should include policies and procedures addressing each of the following elements:
(a) Leadership responsibilities for quality within the firm.
(b) Ethical requirements.
(c) Acceptance and continuance of client relationships and specific engagements.
(d) Human resources.
(e) Engagement performance.
(f) Monitoring.
(g) The quality control policies and procedures should be documented and communicated to the firm’s personnel.

Question 25.
As per SA 22 0, the engagement partner shall take responsibility for the overall quality on each audit engagement to which that partner is assigned. While taking responsibility for the overall quality on each audit engagement, analyse and explain the emphasis of the actions of the engagement partner and appropriate messages to the other members of the engagement team. Also define engagement partner. [MTP-Aug. 18]
Or
The engagement partner shall take the responsibility for the overall quality on each audit engage¬ment to which that partner is assigned. Discuss with reference to SA 220 “Quality Control for an audit of financial statement”. [Nov. 19 (3 Marks)]
Or
As per SA 220 “Quality Control for an Audit of Financial Statements”, the engagement partner shall take responsibility for the overall quality on each audit engagement to which that partner is .assigned. Explain clearly stating the meaning of engagement partner and also the actions of the engagement partner and appropriate messages to the other members of the engagement team, in taking responsibility for the overall quality on each audit engagement. [RTP-Nov. 20]
Answer:
Leadership Responsibilities for Quality on Audits:
As per SA 220 “Quality Control for an Audit of Financial Statements” the engagement partner shall take responsibility for the overall quality on each audit engagement to which that partner is assigned.

As a part of this responsibility Engagement Partner should emphasizes the following to the Engagement Team (ET):

  • Compliance with professional Standards and legal requirements.
  • Compliance with firm’s Quality Control Policies and procedures as applicable.
  • Issuance of appropriate audit report.
  • Ability to raise concerns without fear.
  • Quality is essential & indispensable in engagement performance.

Meaning of Engagement Partner:
The partner or other person in the firm who is a member of the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India and is in full time practice and is responsible for the engagement and its performance, and for the report that is issued on behalf of the firm, and who, where required, has the appropriate authority from a professional, legal or regulatory body.

Nature, Objective and Scope of Audit – CA Inter Audit Notes

Question 26.
Comment as an auditor on the following situations: Mr. X, a partner in X & Co., a firm of a Chartered Accountants, died on 31-3-2020 after completing routine audit work of XYZ Company Ltd. Mr. Y another partner of the firm of Chartered Accountants signed the financial statements of XYZ Com¬pany Ltd., without reviewing the finalization work done by the assistants. [Nov. 10 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Review of Work performed by others:
As per SA 220, “Quality Control for an Audit of Financial Statements”, The engagement partner shall take responsibility for reviews being performed in accordance with the firm’s review policies and procedures.

Review procedures consists of the considerations, whether,

  • the work has been performed in accordance with professional standards and regulatory and legal requirements;
  • significant matters have been raised for further consideration;
  • appropriate consultations have taken place and the resulting conclusions have been documented and implemented;
  • the work performed supports the conclusions reached and is appropriately documented;
  • the evidence obtained is sufficient and appropriate to support the auditor’s report; and
  • the objectives of the engagement procedures have been achieved.

When the auditor delegates work to assistants or uses work performed by other auditors/ experts he will continue to be responsible for forming and expressing his opinion on the financial statements. However, he will be entitled to rely on the work performed by others, provided he exercises adequate skill and care and is not aware of any reason to believe that he should not have so relied.

The auditor should carefully direct, supervise and review work delegated to assistants. He should obtain reasonable assurance that work performed by other auditors/experts and assistants is adequate for his purpose.

In the instant case, Mr. X, a partner of the firm had completed routine audit work and died on 31 March, 2018. Mr. Y another partner of the firm has signed the financial statement of XYZ Company Ltd., without reviewing the finalization work done by the assistants. Mr. Y will be fully responsible for negligence, he cannot take the shelter that Mr. X had done the work.
Conclusion: Mr. Y has negligently performed his duties.

Question 27.
Mention any four information which assists the auditor in accepting and continuing of relationship with the client as per SA 220. [May 15 (5 Marks)]
Or
As per SA 220, “Quality Control for an Audit of Financial Statements” the auditor should obtain information considered necessary in the circumstances before accepting an engagement with a new client, when deciding whether to continue an existing engagement and when considering acceptance of a new engagement with an existing client. Explain [RTP-May 18]
Or
CA Raj, an engagement partner wants to take decision, regarding acceptance and continuance of an audit engagement. Which information, he should obtain before accepting an engagement? [May 19 (3 Marks)]
Answer:
Information assisting auditor in accepting and continuing of relationship with the client:
As per SA 220 “Quality Control for an Audit of F.S.” the information which assists the auditor in accepting and continuing of relationship with the client may include the following:

  • The Integrity of the principal owners, key management and TCWG of the entity;
  • Competency of engagement team to perform the audit engagement and availability of necessary capabilities, including time and resources;
  • Compliance with relevant ethical requirements by firm and the engagement team; and
  • Significant matters that have arisen during the current or previous audit engagement, and their implications for continuing the relationship.

Question 28.
The firm should establish policies and procedures designed to provide it with reasonable assurance that the policies and procedures relating to the system of quality control are relevant, adequate, operating effectively and complied with in practice. Such policies and procedures should include an ongoing consideration and evaluation of the firm’s system of quality control, including a periodic inspection of a selection of completed engagements. Explain in the above context the purpose of monitoring compliance with quality control policies and procedures. [RTP-Nov. 19, Nov. 20]
Answer:
Purpose of monitoring compliance with quality control policies and procedures

  • As per SQC 1 “Quality Control for Firms that perform Audits and Reviews of Historical Financial Information, and Other Assurance and Related Services Engagements”, the firm should establish policies and procedures designed to provide it with reasonable assurance that the policies and procedures relating to the system of quality control are relevant, adequate, operating effectively and complied with in practice.
  • Such policies and procedures should include an ongoing consideration and evaluation of the firm’s system of quality control, including a periodic inspection of a selection of completed engagements.

The purpose of monitoring compliance with quality control policies and procedures is to provide an evaluation of:
(a) Adherence to professional standards and regulatory and legal requirements;
(b) Whether the quality control system has been appropriately designed and effectively implemented; and
(c) Whether the firm’s quality control policies and procedures have been appropriately applied, so that reports that are issued by the firm or engagement partners are appropriate in the circumstances.

Question 29.
“Independence of auditors must not only exist in fact, but should also appear to exist to all reason¬able persons”. Discuss highlighting the advantages of an independent audit.
Answer:
Concept of Independent Audit:
As per Guidance Note of the ICAI on “Independence of Auditors” independence implies that the judgment of a person is not subordinate to the wishes or directions of another person who might have engaged him. “Independence of auditors must not only exist in fact, but should also appear to exist to all reasonable persons”. The auditor has to conduct himself in such a way that no reasonable person, can doubt his objectivity and integrity. In fact, the word independent as a prefix in audit proposition in itself enshrines the concept of independence of an auditor and it is thus, considered fundamental concept in the theory of auditing. The relationship between the auditor and the client should be such that firstly, he himself is satisfied about his client and then it is understood by others that the independence of the auditor is not affected.

Advantages of Independent Audit:

  • Protect the interest of fund providers: It safeguards the financial interests of persons who are not associated with the management of the organisation e.g. partners or shareholders.
  • Moral check on employees: It acts as a moral check on employees from committing defalcations or embezzlement.
  • Settlement of Taxes, etc: Auditing statements of accounts are helpful in settling of taxes, negotiating loans and for determining the purchase consideration for a business.
  • Settlement of Trade Disputes: Audited statements are useful for settling trade disputes for higher wages or bonus.
  • Detection of Wastages: Audited statements also help in detection of wastages and losses and shows the different ways by which these might be checked especially those that occurred due to absence or inadequacy of internal checks or internal control measures.
  • Proper maintenance of books of account: Independent audit ascertains whether the necessary books of account and allied records have been properly kept and helps the client in making good deficiencies or inadequacies in this respect.
  • Appraisal of controls: As an appraisal function, audit reviews the existence and operations of various controls in the organisations and reports weaknesses, inadequacies etc.
  • Admission/retirement of Partner: Audited accounts are of great help in the settlement of accounts at the time of admission or death of the partner.
  • Grant of License: Government may require audited and certified statements before it gives assistance or issues the license for a particular trade.

Question 30.
Write short note on: Auditor’s Independence. [May 07 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
As per Guidance Note of the ICAI on “Independence of Auditors” independence implies that the judgment of a person is not subordinate to the wishes or directions of another person who might have engaged him. “Independence of auditors must not only exist in fact, but should also appear to exist to all reasonable persons”. The auditor has to conduct himself in such a way that no reasonable person, can doubt his objectivity and integrity. In fact, the word independent as a prefix in audit proposition in itself enshrines the concept of independence of an auditor and it is thus, considered fundamental concept in the theory of auditing. The relationship between the auditor and the client should be such that firstly, he himself is satisfied about his client and then it is understood by others that the independence of the auditor is not affected.

Nature, Objective and Scope of Audit – CA Inter Audit Notes

Question 31.
The Code of Ethics for Professional Accountants, prepared by the International Federation of Accountants (IFAC) identifies five types of threats. Explain.
Or
The auditor should be straightforward, honest and sincere in his approach to his professional work. He must be fair and must not allow prejudice or bias to override his objectivity. He should maintain an impartial attitude and both be and appear to be free of any interest which might be regarded as being incompatible with integrity and objectivity. Many different circumstances, or combination of circumstances, may be relevant and accordingly it is impossible to define every situation that creates threats to independence and specify the appropriate mitigating action that should be taken.
In addition, the nature of assurance engagements may differ and consequently different threats may exist requiring the application of different safeguards.
Explain stating clearly the five types of threats as contained in Code of Ethics for Professional Accountants, prepared by the International Federation of Accountants (IFAC). [MTP-Oct. 18]
Answer:
Threats to Independence:
1. Self-interest threats
It may occur as a result of the financial or other interests of a professional accountant or of a relative. Examples are:

  • direct or indirect financial interest in a client,
  • loan or guarantee to or from the concerned client,
  • undue dependence on a client’s fees,
  • close business relationship with an audit client,
  • potential employment with the client, and
  • contingent fees for the audit engagement.

2. Self-review threats
It may occur when a previous judgment needs to be re-evaluated by the professional accountant responsible for that judgment. Instances, where such threats may arise, are:
(a) when an auditor having recently been a director or senior officer of the company, and
(b) when auditors perform services that are themselves subject matters of audit.

3. Advocacy threats
It may occur when a professional accountant promotes a position or opinion to the point that subsequent objectivity may be compromised.
For example, an auditor dealing with shares or securities of the audited company, or becomes the client’s advocate in litigation and third-party disputes.

4. Familiarity threats
It may occur when, because of a relationship, a professional accountant becomes too sympathetic to the interests of others. This can occur in many ways:

  • close relative of the audit team working in a senior position in the client company,
  • former partner of the audit firm being a director or senior employee of the client,
  • long association between specific auditors and their specific client counterparts, and
  • acceptance of significant gifts or hospitality from the client company, its directors or employees.

5. Intimidation threats
It may occur when a professional accountant may be deterred from acting objectively by threats, actual or perceived.

Question 32.
Write a note on “Self-review threats”. [RTP-Nov. 19]
Answer:
Self Review Threats:
It may occur when a previous judgment needs to be re-evaluated by the professional accountant responsible for that judgment. Instances where such threats may arise are:
(a) when an auditor having recently been a director or senior officer of the company, and
(b) when auditors perform services that are themselves subject matters of audit.

Question 33.
Familiarity threats are self-evident, and occur when auditors form relationships with the client where they end up being too sympathetic to the client’s interests. Explain. [MTP-April 19]
Answer:
Familiarity threats
It may occur when, because of a relationship, a professional accountant becomes too sympathetic to the interests of others. This can occur in many ways:

  • close relative of the audit team working in a senior position in the client company,
  • former partner of the audit firm being a director or senior employee of the client,
  • long association between specific auditors and their specific client counterparts, and
  • acceptance of significant gifts or hospitality from the client company, its directors or employees.

Question 34.
The Chartered Accountant has a responsibility to remain independent by taking into account the context in which they practice, the threats to independence and the safeguards available to elimi¬nate the threats. State the guiding principles in this regard. [RTP-Nov. 19, MTP-May20]
Or
Describe the guiding principles which the auditor should take into account which serves as the safeguards to eliminate the threats to independence. [Nov. 20 (4 Marks)]
Answer:
Safeguards to Independence
(a) Auditors should always be and appears to be independent of the entities that they are auditing.
(b) Auditor should abide himself with the key fundamental principles are integrity, objectivity and professional scepticism.
(c) Auditor should consider threats to independence before accepting any audit assignment.
(d) In case of existence of any threats to independence, auditor should not accept the engagement or put in place safeguards that eliminate them.
(e) If necessary safeguards cannot be put in place due to circumstances, auditor should withdraw.

Nature, Objective and Scope of Audit – CA Inter Audit Notes

Question 35.
Explain the Overall Objectives of Independent auditor. [RTP-May 19]
Answer:
Overall Objectives Independent Auditor:
SA 200 “Overall Objectives of the Independent Auditor and Conduct of Audit in accordance with SAs” states that in conducting an audit of financial statements, the overall objectives of the auditor are:
(a) To obtain reasonable assurance about whether the F. S. as a whole are free from material misstatement, whether due to fraud or error, thereby enabling the auditor to express an opinion on whether the F.S. are prepared, in all material respects, in accordance with an applicable FRF, and
(b) To report on the F.S. and communicate as required by the SAs, in accordance with the auditor’s findings.
(c) In all cases when reasonable assurance cannot be obtained and a qualified opinion in the auditor’s report is insufficient, the SAs require that the auditor disclaim an opinion or withdraw from the engagement.

Question 36.
Comment on the following: “The Auditor shall comply with relevant ethical requirements including independence”. [MTP-April 19]
Or
Discuss prerequisites and fundamental principles to be possessed by an auditor. [May 11 (8 Marks)]
Or
Relevant ethical requirements ordinarily comprise the Code of Ethics for Professional Accountants related to an audit of financial statements. Discuss with reference to those fundamental principles of professional ethics. [RTP-May 19]
Or
The auditor shall comply with relevant ethical requirements, including those pertaining to independence, relating to financial statement audit engagements. Relevant ethical requirements ordinarily comprise the Code of Ethics for Professional Accountants (1ESBA Code) related to an audit of financial statements. The Code establishes the fundamental principles of professional ethics relevant to the auditor when conducting an audit of financial statements. Explain.
[MTP-May 20]
Answer:
Compliance of Ethical requirements:
(a) As per SA 200 “Overall Objectives ofthe Independent Auditor and Conduct of Auditin accordance with SAs” the auditor shall comply with relevant ethical requirements, including independence.

(b) Relevant ethical requirements ordinarily comprise the Code of Ethics issued by the ICAI. The fundamental principles are:

  • Integrity;
  • Objectivity;
  • Professional competence and due care;
  • Confidentiality; and
  • Professional behaviour.

(c) Independence comprises both independence of mind and independence of appearance.

(d Independence enhances the auditor’s ability to act with integrity to be objective and to maintain an attitude of professional skepticism.

Question 37.
SA 200 requires that the auditor shall and perform an audit with professional skepticism. Explain the statement.
Or
Discuss with reference to SAs: The auditor is responsible for maintainingan attitude of professional skepticism throughout the audit. Do you agree with the statement. [May 14 (6 Marks)]
Or
The auditor shall plan and perform an audit with professional skepticism recognizing that circum¬stances may exist that cause the financial statement to be materially misstated. Discuss any four examples of professional skepticism. [Nov. 19 (4 Marks)]
Or
Professional skepticism refers to an attitude that includes a questioning mind, being alert to con¬ditions which may indicate possible misstatement due to error or fraud, and a critical assessment of audit evidence. The auditor shall plan and perform an audit with professional skepticism recog¬nising that circumstances may exist that cause the financial statements to be materially misstated. Explain giving examples. [RTP-Nov. 20]
Answer:
Professional Skepticism:
(a) SA200 “Overall Objectives ofthe Independent Auditor and Conduct of Audit in accordance with SAs” requires that the auditor shall plan and perform an audit with professional skepticism.

(b) Meaning of Professional Skepticism: An attitude that includes a questioning mind, being alert to conditions which may indicate possible misstatement due to error or fraud, and a critical assessment of audit evidence.

(c) Professional Skepticism Reduces risk of:

  • Overlooking unusual circumstances,
  • Over generalising when drawing conclusions from audit observations.
  • Using inappropriate assumptions in determining N, T, E of audit procedures & evaluating the results thereof.

(d) Professional skepticism includes being alter to:

  • Contradictory audit evidence.
  • Questions on reliability of documents.
  • Conditions indicating possible frauds.
  • Circumstances suggesting need for audit procedures in addition to those suggested in SAs.

Nature, Objective and Scope of Audit – CA Inter Audit Notes

Question 38.
Comment on the following: “The auditor shall exercise professional judgment in planning and performing an audit of financial statements.
Or
“Professional judgment is essential to the proper conduct of an audit.” Discuss. [Nov. 18 (5 Marks)]
Answer:
Professional Judgment:
(a) SA 200 “Overall Objectives of the Independent Auditor and Conduct of Audit in accordance with SAs” requires that the auditor shall exercise professional judgment in planning and performing an audit of financial statements.
(b) Meaning of Professional Judgment: The application of relevant training, knowledge and experience, within the context provided by auditing, accounting and ethical standards, in making informed decisions about the courses of action that are appropriate in the circumstances of the audit engagement.
(c) Exercise of professional judgment depends on facts & circumstances known to the auditor.
(d) Professional Judgment is to be exercised throughout the audit and to be appropriately documented.
(e) Professional Judgment is important when deciding about:

  • Materiality & audit risk.
  • NTE of audit procedures.
  • Evaluating sufficiency & appropriateness of audit procedures.
  • Evaluating management judgment in applying applicable FRF.
  • Drawing conclusions based on audit evidence.

Question 39.
“Independence of mind and independence in appearance are interlinked perspectives of Indepen¬dence of auditors.” Explain. [May 19 (3 Marks)]
Or
There are two interlinked perspectives of independence of auditors, one, independence of mind; and two, independence in appearance. Explain. [MTP-Oct. 20]
Answer:
Independence of Auditors:

  • As per SA 200 “Overall Objectives of the Independent Auditor and Conduct of Audit in accordance with SAs” the auditor shall comply with relevant ethical requirements, including independence.
  • Independence comprises both independence of mind and independence of appearance.
  • In the case of an audit engagement it is in the public interest and, therefore, required by the Code of Ethics, that the auditor be independent of the entity subject to the audit. The Code describes independence as comprising both independence of mind and independence in appearance.
  • The auditor’s independence from the entity safeguards the auditor’s ability to form an audit opinion without being affected by influences that might compromise that opinion.
  • Independence of mind implies the state of mind that permits the provision of an opinion without being affected by influences allowing an individual to act with integrity, and exercise objectivity and professional skepticism.
  • Independence in appearance implies the avoidance of facts and circumstances that are so significant that a third party would reasonably conclude an auditor’s integrity, objectivity or professional skepticism had been compromised.
  • Independence enhances the auditor’s ability to act with integrity, to be objective and to maintain an attitude of professional skepticism.

Question 40.
What is an audit engagement letter? What are the principal contents of audit engagement letter.
Or
What is the purpose of a Letter of Engagement? What are the important contents of a Letter of Engagement? [May 17 (6 Marks)]
Answer:
Purposes of letter of engagement:
SA 210 “Agreeing the terms of Audit Engagement” deals with the auditor’s responsibilities in agreeing the terms of the audit engagement with management and TCWG.

The agreed terms of the audit engagement shall be recorded in an audit engagement letter or other suitable form of written agreement and shall include:

  • The objective and scope of the audit of the F.S.;
  • The responsibilities of the auditor;
  • The responsibilities of management;
  • Identification of the applicable FRF for the preparation of the F.S.; and
  • Reference to the expected form and content of any reports to be issued by the auditor and a statement that there may be circumstances in which a report may differ from its expected form and content.

So the main purpose of letter of engagement is to ensure a common understanding of the terms of audit engagement between the auditor and management and TCWG.

Question 41.
Write short note on: Preconditions of an audit.
Answer:
Preconditions for an Audit:
As per SA 210 “Agreeing the terms of Audit Engagement” before accepting an audit engagement auditor is required to ensure existence of preconditions.
Accordingly, Pre-conditions to be examined are:
(a) Determine whether the financial reporting framework to be applied in the preparation of the financial statements is acceptable; and

(b) Obtain the agreement of management that it acknowledges and understands its responsibilities for followings:

  • the preparation of the F.S. in accordance with the applicable FRF.
  • exercising necessary internal control to enable the preparation of F.S. that are free from material misstatement, whether due to fraud or error.
  • to provide the auditor with:
    (a) Access to all relevant information such as records, documentation and other matters;
    (b) Additional information that the auditor may request from management for the purpose of the audit; and
    (c) Unrestricted access to persons within the entity from whom the auditor determines it necessary to obtain audit evidence.

Question 42.
Comment on the following: “It is not mandatory to send a new engagement letter in recurring audit, but sometimes it becomes mandatory to send new letter.” Explain those situations where new engagement letter is to be sent. [Nov. 11 [5 Marks}]
Or
indicate the factors which make it appropriate for an auditor to send a new engagement letter for a recurring audit. [Nov. 14 (5 Marks}!
Or
‘P’ an auditor decides not to send a new engagement letter to G Ltd. every year. Whether he is right in his approach. State the circumstances where sendingnew engagement letter, would be appropriate [NOV. 15 (5 Marks}]
Answer:
Engagement Letter in case of Recurring Audit:
SA 210 “Agreeing the Terms of Audit Engagement” provides that in case of recurring audits, the auditor shall assess whether circumstances require revision in terms of the audit engagement and whether there is a need to remind the entity of the existing terms of the audit engagement.

The auditor may decide not to send a new audit engagement letter or other written agreement each period. However, the following factors may make it appropriate to revise the terms of the audit engagement or to remind the entity of existing terms:

  • Any indication that the entity misunderstands the objective and scope of the audit.
  • Any revised or special terms of the audit engagement.
  • A recent change of senior management.
  • A significant change in ownership.
  • A significant change in nature or size of the entity’s business.
  • A change in legal or regulatory requirements.
  • A change in the financial reporting framework adopted in the preparation of the F.S.
  • A change in other reporting requirements.

Nature, Objective and Scope of Audit – CA Inter Audit Notes

Question 43.
X, a Chartered Accountant was engaged by PQR & Co. Ltd. for auditing their accounts. He seht his letter of engagement to the Board of Directors, which was accepted by the Company. In the course of audit of the company, the auditor was unable to obtain appropriate sufficient audit evidence regarding receivables. The client requested for a change in the terms of engagement. Offer your comments in this regard. [Nov. 09 (5 Marks)]
Or
“An auditor who before the completion of the engagement is requested to change the engagement to one which provides a lower level of assurance should consider the appropriateness of doing so.” Discuss.
Answer:
Acceptance of Changes in terms of engagement:
SA 210 “Agreeingthe terms of Audit Engagement” deals with the auditor’s responsibilities in agreeing
the terms of the audit engagement with management and TCWG.
(a) The auditor shall not agree to a change in the terms of the audit engagement where there is no reasonable justification for doing so.

(b) If prior to completing the audit engagement, the auditor is requested to change the audit engagement to an engagement that conveys a lower level of assurance, the auditor shall determine whether there is reasonable justification for doing so.

(c) If the terms of the audit engagement are changed, the auditor and management shall agree on and record the new terms of the engagement in an engagement letter or other suitable form of written agreement.

(d) If the auditor is unable to agree to a change of the terms of the audit engagement and is not permitted by management to continue the original audit engagement, the auditor shall:

  • Withdraw from the audit engagement where possible under applicable law or regulation; and
  • Determine whether there is any obligation, either contractual or otherwise, to report the circumstances to other parties, such as TCWG, owners or regulators.

Question 44.
An auditor who, before the completion of the engagement, is requested to change the engagement to one which provides a lower level of assurance, should consider the appropriateness of doing so. Explain stating the factors based on which client can request the auditor to change the engagement. [RTP-Nov. 19]
Answer:
Factors based on which client can request the auditor to change the engagement:
SA 210 “Agreeing the terms of Audit Engagement” deals with the auditor’s responsibilities in agreeing the terms of the audit engagement with management and TCWG. Accordingly.

  • A request from the entity for the auditor to change the terms of the audit engagement may result from
    (a) a change in circumstances affecting the need for the service,
    (b) a misunderstanding as to the nature of an audit as originally requested or
    (c) a restriction on the scope of the audit engagement, whether imposed by management or caused by other circumstances.
  • The auditor, considers the justification given for the request, particularly the implications of a restriction on the scope of the audit engagement.
  • If the auditor concludes that there is reasonable justification to change the audit engagement to a review or a related service, the audit work performed to the date of change may be relevant to the changed engagement; however, the work required to be performed and the report to be issued would be those appropriate to the revised engagement.

Objective Type Questions (True/False, Correct/Incorrect)

Question 1.
Auditing implies systematic, critical and special examination of the records of a business for a specific purpose.
Answer:
Statement is False.

  • Auditing involves examination of financial information contained in financial statements to express an opinion on their true and fair view.
  • Systematic, Critical and Special examination of the records of a business for a specific purpose is termed as investigation.

Question 2.
The purpose of an audit is to enhance the degree of confidence of intended users in the financial statements.
Answer:
Statement is correct.

  • As per SA 200 “Overall Objectives of the Independent Auditor and the Conduct of an Audit in Accordance with Standards on Auditing”, the purpose of an audit is to enhance the degree of confidence of intended users in the financial statements.
  • This is achieved by the expression of an opinion by the auditor on whether the financial statements are prepared, in all material respects, in accordance with an applicable financial reporting framework.

Question 3.
Auditing is legally obligatory for all types of business organisations.
Answer:
Statement is False.

  • Auditing is not legally obligatory for all types of business organisations.
  • Examples of such organisations are Proprietorship entities, Partnership Firms, HUF.

Nature, Objective and Scope of Audit – CA Inter Audit Notes

Question 4.
Auditor’s Opinion is an assurance as to the future viability of the enterprise or the efficiency or effectiveness with which management has conducted the affairs of the enterprise.
Answer:
Statement is False.

  • SA 200 “Overall Objectives of an Independent Auditor and Conduct of an Audit in accordance with Standards on Auditing” specifically provides that the auditors opinion cannot be assumed as an assurance as to the future viability of the enterprise or the efficiency or effectiveness with which management has conducted the affairs of the enterprise.
  • The objective of an audit of financial statements, prepared within a framework of recognised accounting policies and practices and relevant statutory requirements, if any, is to enable an auditor to express an opinion on such financial statements.

Question 5.
To maintain an adequate accounting system incorporating various controls is the responsibility of Management.
Answer:
Statement is True.

  • SA 200 “Overall Objectives of an Independent Auditor and Conduct of an Audit in accordance with Standards on Auditing” specifically provides that the management and, where appropriate, TCWG have responsibility for the preparation and presentation of the F.S. in accordance with the applicable FRF;
  • This responsibility includes the design, implementation and maintenance of internal control relevant to the preparation and presentation of F.S. that are free from material misstatement, whether due to fraud or error.

Question 6.
The term independence implies that the auditor should respect the confidentiality of client infor¬mation.
Answer:
Statement is False.

  • To respect the confidentiality of client information is one of the ethical requirements an auditor must possess in terms of SA 200.
  • The term independence implies that the auditor must be and appear to be free of any interest which is incompatible with his integrity.

Question 7.
Auditor is able to obtain only reasonable assurance due to inherent limitation of audit.
Answer:
Statement is True, auditor is able to obtain reasonable assurance only due to following limitations of audit;

  • Use of Judgment.
  • Use of Test Checking.
  • Inherent Limitations of internal control.
  • Persuasive nature of audit evidence.

Question 8.
An unqualified opinion in audit report is a guarantee as to the future viability of the company.
Answer:
Statement is false.

  • SA 200 “Overall Objectives of an Independent Auditor and Conduct of an Audit in accordance with Standards on Auditing” specifically provides that the auditors opinion cannot be assumed as an assurance as to the future viability of the enterprise or the efficiency or effectiveness with which management has conducted the affairs of the enterprise.
  • An unqualified opinion implies that based on the audit evidence collected, auditor is reasonable assured that financial statements are free from material misstatements.

Question 9.
The audit engagement letter is sent by the client to auditor, [MTP-Oct. 20]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.
As per SA 210 “Agreeing the Terms of Audit Engagements”, the Audit engagement letter is sent by the auditor to his client.

Nature, Objective and Scope of Audit – CA Inter Audit Notes

Question 10.
Guidance Notes are mandatory in Nature.
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.

  • Guidance notes are designed to provide guidance to members on matters which may arise in the course of their professional work and on which they may desire assistance.
  • Guidance Notes are recommendatory in nature.

Question 11.
The auditor is not expected to, and cannot, reduce audit risk to zero and cannot therefore obtain absolute assurance that the financial statements are free from material misstatement due to fraud or error.
Answer:
Statement is correct.

  • As per SA 200 “Overall Objectives of the Independent Auditor and the Conduct of an Audit in Accordance with Standards on Auditing”, the auditor is not expected to, and cannot, reduce audit risk to zero and cannot therefore obtain absolute assurance that the financial statements are free from material misstatement due to fraud or error.
  • This is because there are inherent limitations of an audit, which result in most of the audit evidence on which the auditor draws conclusions and bases the auditor’s opinion being persuasive rather than conclusive.

Question 12.
The Auditor compares the entries in the hooks of account with vouchers and if two agrees, his work is done. [May 10 (2 Marks]]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.
Auditor responsibility is not restricted to comparing the books of account with vouchers only, but also to determine reliability of annual statement of accounts along with the truth and fairness.

Question 13.
The primary objective of an audit is to detect fraud and error in the financial statements. [Nov. 14 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.

  • Primary objective of an audit is to express an opinion on true and fair view of financial statements.
  • Prevention and detection of fraud is primarily the responsibility of the management.

Question 14.
The basic objective of audit does not change with reference to nature, size or form of the entity. [May 15, Nov. 17 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is correct.

  • Basic objective of auditing is to express an opinion on true and fair view of financial statements.
  • Any change in the nature, size or form of an entity does not change the basic objective of the audit.

Question 15.
An auditor has nothing to do with prudence or profitability of a company. [May 16 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is correct.
As per SA 200 “Overall Objectives of the Independent Auditor and Conduct of Audit in accordance with SAs” the auditor’s opinion does not assure, the future viability of the entity nor the efficiency or effectiveness with which management has conducted the affairs of the entity.

Question 16.
Engagement letter need not be entered for each year of the period of auditor’s appointment. [Nov. 17 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.

  • As per SA 210 “Agreeing the Terms of Audit Engagement” in case of recurring audits, the auditor shall assess whether circumstances require revision in terms of the audit engagement and whether there is a need to remind the entity of the existing terms of the audit engagement.
  • The auditor may decide not to send a new audit engagement letter or other written agreement each period. However, certain factors like change in law, nature of business of client, management etc. may make it appropriate to revise the terms of the audit engagement or to remind the entity of existing terms.

Question 17.
The objective of audit is to obtain absolute assurance and to report on the financial statements. [RTP-May 18, MTP-April 19]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.
Objective of audit is to express an opinion on true and fair view of the financial statements. In this reference. SA-200 “Overall Objectives of the Independent Auditor and conduct of audit in accordance with Standards on Auditing” provides that in conducting an audit of financial statements, the overall objectives of the auditor are:
(a) To obtain reasonable assurance about whether the financial statements as a whole are free from material misstatement; and
(b) To report on the financial statements, and communicate as required by the SAs, in accordance with the auditor’s findings.

Question 18.
An Auditor is considered to lack independence if the partner of the audit firm deals with shares and securities of the audited entity. [May 18(2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is correct.

  • As per SA 200 “Overall objectives of the Independent Auditor and Conduct of an Audit in accordance with standards on Auditing” auditor is required to comply with ethical requirements including independence. Independence comprises both independence of mind and independence of appearance.
  • Self-interest threat to independence may occur if auditor or his relative is having any financial or other interests in the entity.

Question 19.
The preparation of financial statements does not involve judgment by management in applying the requirements of the entity’s applicable financial reporting framework to the facts and circumstances of the entity. [RTP-Nov. 18, May 19]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.

  • The preparation of financial statements involves judgment by management in applying the requirements of the entity’s applicable financial reporting framework to the facts and circumstances of the entity.
  • In addition, many financial statement items involve subjective decisions or assessments or a degree of uncertainty, and there may be a range of acceptable interpretations or judgments that may be made.

Nature, Objective and Scope of Audit – CA Inter Audit Notes

Question 20.
Audit procedures used to gather audit evidence may be effective for detecting an intentional mis¬statement. [RTP-Nov. 18, May 19]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.

  • Fraud may involve sophisticated and carefully organised schemes designed to conceal it. Therefore, audit procedures used to gather audit evidence may be ineffective for detecting an intentional misstatement that involves, for example, collusion to falsify documentation which may cause the auditor to believe that audit evidence is valid when it is not.
  • The auditor is neither trained as nor expected to be an expert in the authentication of documents.

Question 21.
An audit is an official investigation into alleged wrongdoing. [RTP-Nov. 18, May 19]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.

  • An audit is not an official investigation into alleged wrongdoing.
  • Accordingly, the auditor is not given specific legal powers, such as the power of search, which may be necessary for such an investigation.

Question 22.
The matter of difficulty, time, or cost involved is in itself a valid basis for the auditor to omit an audit procedure for which there is no alternative. [RTP-Nov. 18, May 19]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.

  • The matter of difficulty, time, or cost involved is not in itself a valid basis for the auditor to omit an audit procedure for which there is no alternative.
  • Appropriate planning assists in making sufficient time and resources available for the conduct of the audit. Notwithstanding this, the relevance of information, and thereby its value, tends to diminish over time, and there is a balance to be struck between the reliability of information and its cost.

Question 23.
Judgmental matters are transactions that are unusual due to either its size or nature and that therefore occur infrequently. [Nov. 18 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.

  • Judgment in the context of audit is the application of relevanttraining, knowledge and experience, within the context provided by auditing, accounting and ethical standards, in making informed decisions about the courses of action that are appropriate in the circumstances of the audit engagement.
  • Significant risks often relate to significant non-routine transactions or judgmental matters. Non¬routine transactions are transactions that are unusual, due to either size or nature, and that therefore occur infrequently. Judgmental matters may include the development of accounting estimates for which there is significant measurement uncertainty. Thus judgmental matters are not always unusual due to their size or nature.

Question 24.
Management of the organisation is solely responsible for the compliance of auditing standards while preparing financial statements. [Nov. 18 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.

  • Responsibility for the compliance of Auditing Standards is of Auditor. While carrying out the audit, auditor is required to ensure that audit is been performed in accordance with Standards on Auditing and appropriate Report is issued.
  • Management is responsible for the compliance of Accounting Standards.

Question 25.
Engagement partner refers to the partner or other person in the firm who is responsible for the audit engagement. [MTP-April 19]
Answer:
Statement is correct.
As per SA 220 “Quality control for an Audit of Financial Statements”, Engagement partner refers to the partner or other person in the firm who is responsible for the audit engagement and its performance, and for the auditor’s report that is issued on behalf of the firm, and who, where required, has the appropriate authority from a professional, legal or regulatory body.

Question 26.
There is no need to put the nature of engagement to writing. [MTP-April 19]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.

  • As required by SA 210, terms of audit engagement need to be recorded in writing.
  • It is important, both for the auditor and client, that each party should be clear about the nature of the engagement. It must be reduced to writing and should exactly specify the scope of the work.

Question 27.
Preconditions foranaudit have notbeen defined in SA 210 “Agreeing the Terms of AuditEngagements.” [RTP-Nov. 19]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.
As per SA 210 “Agreeing the Terms of Audit Engagements”, preconditions for an audit may be defined as the use by management of an acceptable financial reporting framework in the preparation of the financial statements and the agreement of managementand, where appropriate, those charged with governance to the premise on which an audit is conducted.

Question 28.
SA 210 does not require the auditor to agree management’s responsibilities in an engagement letter or other suitable form of written agreement. [RTP-May 20]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.
SA 210 requires the auditor to agree management’s responsibilities in an engagement letter or other suitable form of written agreement.

Question 29.
The auditor is expected to and can reduce audit risk to zero. [MTP-May 20]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.

  • As per SA 200 “Overall Objectives of the Independent Auditor and the Conduct of an Audit in Accordance with Standards on Auditing”, the auditor is not expected to, and cannot, reduce audit risk to zero and cannot therefore obtain absolute assurance that the financial statements are free from material misstatement due to fraud or error.
  • This is because there are inherent limitations of an audit, which result in most of the audit evidence on which the auditor draws conclusions and bases the auditor’s opinion being persuasive rather than conclusive.

Question 30.
It is important for the auditor that each party should be clear about the nature of the engagement. [MTP-May 20]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.

  • It is important, both for the auditor and client, that each party should be clear about the nature of the engagement.
  • It must be reduced to writing and should exactly specify the scope of the work.

Nature, Objective and Scope of Audit – CA Inter Audit Notes

Question 31.
Even if law or regulation prescribes sufficient details of the terms of the audit engagement the auditor should record them in a written agreement. [Nov. 20 (2 Marks)]
Answer:
Statement is incorrect.
If law or regulation prescribes in sufficient detail the terms of the audit engagement referred above, the auditor need not record them in a written agreement, except for the fact that such law or regulation applies and that management acknowledges and understands its responsibilities.

Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – CA Inter Advanced Accounting Study Material is designed strictly as per the latest syllabus and exam pattern.

Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – CA Inter Advanced Accounting Study Material

Theory Questions

Question 1.
Explain ‘Employee’s stock option plan. (Nov. 2009) (2 Marks)
Answer:
‘Employee Stock Option Plan’ is a plan in which option is given for a specified period, to employees of a company, which gives such directors, officers or employees the right, but not the obligation, to purchase or subscribe, the shares of the enterprise at a fixed or determinable price.

Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Basic Questions On Esop – Expense Computation

Question 2.
PQ Ltd. grants 100 stock options to each of its 1,000 employees on 1-4-2015, conditional upon the employee remaining in the company for 2 years. The fair value of the option is ₹ 18 on the grant date and the exercise price is ₹ 55 per share. The other information is given as under:

  1. Number of employees expected to satisfy service condition are 930 in the 1st year and 850 in the 2nd year.
  2. 40 employees left the company in the 1st year of service and 880 employees have actually completed 2 year vesting period.

You are required to compute ESOP cost to be amortized by PQ Ltd. in the years 2015-2016 and 2016-2017.
Answer:
Calculation of ESOP cost to be amortized
Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 1

Question 3.
At the beginning of year 1, the enterprise grants 1,000 stock options to each member of its sales team, conditional upon the employees remaining in the employment of the enterprise for three years, and the team selling more than 50,000 units of a particular product over the three-year period. The fair value of the stock options is ₹ 15 per option at the date of grant.

During year 2, the enterprise increases the sales target to 1,00,000 units. By the end of year 3, the enterprise has sold 55,000 units, and the stock options do not vest.

Twelve members of the sales team have remained in service for the three-year period. You are required to examine and give comment in light of the relevant Guidance Note that whether the company should recognise the expenses on the base of options granted or not.

Also state will your answer differ if, instead of modifying the performance target, the enterprise had increased the number of years of service required for the stock options to vest from three years to ten years.
Answer:
Paragraph 19 of the Guidance Note on Share Based Payments

Analysis:
For a performance condition that is not a market condition, the en-terprise to recognize the services received during the vesting period based on the best available estimate of the number of shares or stock options expected to vest and to revise that estimate, if necessary, if subsequent information indicates that the number of shares or stock options expected to vest differs from previous estimates. On vesting date, the enterprise revises the estimate to equal the number of instruments that ultimately vested.

Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

However, paragraph 24 of the Guidance Note requires, irrespective of any modifications to the terms and conditions on which the instruments were granted, or a cancellation or settlement of that grant of instruments, the enterprise to recognize, as a minimum, the services received, measured at the grant date fair value of the instruments granted, unless those instruments do not vest because of failure to satisfy a vesting condition (other than a market condition) that was specified at grant date.

Furthermore, paragraph 26(c) of the Guidance Note
If the enterprise modifies the vesting conditions in a manner that is not beneficial to the employee, the enterprise does not take the modified vesting conditions into account when applying the requirements for treatment of vesting conditions as specified in Guidance Note.

Conclusion:
Therefore, because the modification to the performance condition made it less likely that the stock options will vest, which was not beneficial to the employee, the enterprise takes no account of the modified performance condition when recognizing the services received. Instead, it continues to recognize the services received over the three-year period based on the original vesting conditions. Hence, the enterprise ultimately recognizes cumulative remuneration expense of ₹ 1,80,000 over the three-year period (12 employees × 1,000 options × ₹ 15).

The same result would have occurred if, instead of modifying the performance target, the enterprise had increased the number of years of service required for the stock options to vest from three years to ten years.

Because such a modification would make it less likely that the options will vest, which would not be beneficial to the employees, the enterprise would take no account of the modified service condition when recognizing the services received. Instead, it would recognize the services received from the twelve employees who remained in service over the original three-year vesting period.

Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Basic Questions on Esop – Journal Entries

Question 4.
X Co. Ltd. has its share capital divided into equity shares of ₹ 10 each. On 1.1.20X1 it granted 20,000 employees’ stock option at ₹ 50 per share when the market price was ₹ 120 per share. The options were to be exercised between 15th March, 20X2 and 31st March, 20X2. The employees exercised their options for 16,000 shares only and the remaining options lapsed. The company closes its books on 31st March every year. Show Journal entries (with narration) as would appear in the books of the company up to 31st March, 20X2.
Answer:
In the books of X Co. Ltd. Journal Entries
Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 2

Working Notes:

  1. No entry is passed when Stock Options are granted to employees. Hence, no entry will be passed on 1st April 20X1;
  2. Market Price = ₹ 120 per share whereas stock option price = ₹ 50, Hence, the difference ₹ 120 . ₹ 50 = ₹ 70 per share is equivalent to employee cost or employee compensation expense and will be charged to P/L Account as such for the number of options exercised i.e., 16,000 shares.

Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Question 5.
On 1st April, 20X1, a company offered 100 shares to each of its 500 employees at ₹ 50 per share. The employees are given a year to accept the offer. The shares issued under the plan shall be subject to lock-in on transfer for three years from the grant date. The market price of shares of the company on the pant date is ₹ 60 per share. Due to post-vesting restrictions on transfer, the fair value of shares issued under the plan is estimated at ₹ 56 per share.

On 31st March, 20X2, 400 employees accepted the offer and paid ₹ 50 per share purchased. Nominal value of each share is ₹ 10.
Record the issue of share in the books of the company under the aforesaid plan.
Answer:
Fair value of an option = ₹ 56 – ₹ 50 = ₹ 6
Number of shares issued = 400 employees × 100 shares/employee = 40,000 shares
Fair value of ESOP = 40,000 shares × ₹ 6 = ₹ 2,40,000
Vesting period = 1 month
Expenses recognized in 20X1 – X2 = ₹ 2,40,000
Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 3

Question 6.
A company has its share capital divided into shares of ₹ 10 each. On 1-1-20X1, it granted 5,000 employees stock options at ₹ 50, when the market price was ₹ 140. The options were to be exercised between 1-3-20X2 to 31-03- 20X2. The employees exercised their options for 4,800 shares only; remaining options lapsed. Pass the necessary journal entries for the year ended 31-3- 20X2, with regard to employees’ stock options.
Answer:
Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 21

Working Note:

  1. Employee Compensation Expenses = Discount between Market Price and option price = ₹ 140 – ₹ 50 = ₹ 90 per share = ₹ 90 × 4,800 = ₹ 4,32,000 in total.
  2. Securities Premium Account = ₹ 50 – ₹ 10 = ₹ 40 per share + ₹ 90 per share on account of discount of option price over market price = ₹ 130 per share = ₹ 130 × 4,800 = ₹ 6,24,000 in total.

Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Question 7.
A Company has its share capital divided into shares of ₹ 70 each. On 1st April 2010, it granted 20,000 employees’ stock options at ₹ 40, when the market price was ₹ 730. The options were to be exercised between 1st January 2011 to 15th March 2011. The employees exercised their options for 18,000 shares only; the remaining options lapsed. The company closes its books on 31st March every year. Pass Journal entries with regard to employees’ stock options. (May 2011) (5 Marks)
Answer:
Journal Entries
Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 4

Question 8.
A company has its share capital divided into shares of ₹ 10 each. On 1-4-2010, it granted 5,000 employees stock option at ? 50, when the market price was ₹ 140. The options were to be exercised between 1-12-2010 to 28-22011. The employees exercised their options for 4,800 shares only; remaining options lapsed. Pass the necessary journal entries for the year ended 31-3-2011, with regard to employees’ stock option. (Nov. 2011) (4 Marks)
Answer:
In the books of Company Journal Entries
Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 5

Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Question 9.
On 1st April, 2012, a company offered 100 shares to each of its 400 employees at ₹ 25 per share. The employees are given a month to accept the shares. The shares issued under the plan shall be subject to lock-in to transfer for three years from the grant date i.e. 30th April, 2012. The market price of shares of the company on the grant date is ₹ 30 per share. Due to post-vesting restrictions on transfer, the fair value of shares issued under the plan is estimated at ₹ 28 per share. (May 2012) (4 Marks)
Answer:
Fair value of an option = ₹ 28 – ₹ 25 = ₹ 3
Number of employees accepting the offer = 400 employees × 50% = 200 employees
Number of shares issued = 200 employees × 100 shares/employee = 20,000 shares
Fair value of ESPP = 20,000 shares × ₹ 3 = ₹ 60,000
Expenses recognized in 2012-13 = ₹ 60,000
Journal Entry
Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 22

Question 10.
Arihant Limited has its share capital divided into equity shares of ₹ 10 each. On 1-10-2012, it granted 20,000 employees stock option at ₹ 50 per share, when the market price was ₹ 120 per share. The options were to be exercised between 10th December, 2012 and 31st March, 2013. The employees exercised their options for 16,000 shares only and the remaining options lapsed. The company closes its books on 31st March every year. Show Journal Entries (with narration) as would appear in the books of the company upto 31st March, 2013. (May 2013) (4 Marks)
Answer:
Journal Entries in the books of Arihant Ltd.
Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 6

Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Question 11.
J Ltd. has its share capital divided into equity shares of ₹ 10 each. On 1.1.2018 it granted 5,000 employee stock options at ₹ 30 per share, when the market price was ₹ 50 per share. The options were to be exercised between 15th March, 2018 and 31st March, 2018. The employees exercised their options for 3,600 shares only and the remaining options lapsed. The company closes its books on 31st March every year. You are required to prepare journal entries (with narration) as would appear in the books of the company up to 31st March, 2018.
Answer:
Journal Entries in the books of J Ltd.
Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 7

Working Notes:

  1. No entry is passed when stock options are granted to employees. Hence, no entry will be passed on 1st January 2018;
  2. Market Price = ₹ 50 per share and stock option price = ₹ 30, Hence, the difference ₹ 50 – ₹ 30 = ₹ 20 per share is equivalent to employee cost or employee compensation expense and will be charged to P&L Account as such for the number of options exercised i.c. 3,600 shares.

Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Question 12.
Suvidhi Ltd. offered 50 shares to each of its 1500 employees on 1st April 2017 for ₹ 30. Option would be exercisable within a year it is vested. The shares issued under the plan shall be subject to lock-in on transfer for three years from the grant date. The market price of shares of the company is ₹ 50 per share on grant date. Due to post vesting restrictions on transfer, the fair value of shares issued under the plan is estimated at ₹ 38 per share.

On 31st March, 2018, 1200 employees accepted the offer and paid ₹ 30 per share purchased. Nominal value of each share is ₹ 10.
Record the issue of shares in the books of the company under the aforesaid plan. (May 2018 – New Course) (5 Marks)
Answer:
Journal Entries in the books of Suvidhi Ltd.
Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 8

Working Note:
Fair value of an option = ₹ 38 – ₹ 30 = ₹ 8
Number of shares issued = 1,200 employees × 50 shares/employee = 60,000 shares
Fair value of ESOP which will be recognized as expenses in the year 2017-2018
= 60,000 shares × ₹ 8 = ₹ 4,80,000
Vesting period = 1 year
Expenses recognized in 2017-2018 = ₹ 4,80,000

Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Question 13.
A company has its share capital divided into shares of ₹ 10 each. On 1-1-20X1, it granted 5,000 employees stock options at ₹ 50, when the market price was ₹ 140. The options were to be exercised between 1-3-20X2 to 31-03-20X2. The employees exercised their options for 4,800 shares only; remaining options lapsed. You are required to prepare the necessary journal entries for the year ended 31-3-20X2, with regard to employees’ stock options.
Answer:
In the books of Company Journal Entries
Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 9

Working Note:

  1. Employee Compensation Expenses = Discount between Market Price and option price = ₹ 140 – ₹ 50 = ₹ 90 per share = ₹ 90 × 4,800 = ₹ 4,32,000 in total.
  2. Securities Premium Account = ₹ 50 – ₹ 10 = ₹ 40 per share + ₹ 90 per share on account of discount of option price over market price = ₹ 130 per share = ₹ 130 × 4,800 = ₹ 6,24,000 in total.

Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Question 14.
A company has its share capital divided into shares of ₹ 10 each. On 1-1-20X1, it granted 5,000 employees stock options at ₹ 50, when the market price was ₹ 140. The options were to be exercised between 1-3-20X2 to 31-03-20X2. The employees exercised their options for 4,800 shares only; remaining options lapsed. Pass the necessary journal entries for the year ended 31-3-20X2, with regard to employees’ stock options.
Answer:
Journal Entries in the books of company
Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 10

Working Note:

  1. Employee Compensation Expenses = Discount between Market Price and option price = ₹ 140 – ₹ 50 = ₹ 90 per share = ₹ 90 × 4,800 = ₹ 4,32,000/- in total.
  2. Securities Premium Account = ₹ 50 – ₹ 10 = ₹ 40 per share + ₹ 90 per share on account of discount of option price over market price = ₹ 130 per share = ₹ 130 × 4,800 = ₹ 6,24,000/- in total.

Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Question 15.
Lucky Ltd. grants 100 stock options to each of its 1,500 employees on 1-4-2014 for ₹ 40, depending upon the employees at the time of vesting of options. Options would be exercisable within a year it is vested. The market price of the share is ₹? 70 each. These options will vest at the end of year 1 if the earning of Lucky Ltd. is 15%, or it will vest at the end of the year 2 if the average earning of two years is 13% or lastly it will vest at the end of the third year if the average earning of 3 years will be 10% 8,000, unvested options lapsed on 31-3-2015. 6,000 unvested options lapsed on 31-3-2016 and finally 4,000 unvested options lapsed on 31-3-2017.

The earnings of Lucky Ltd. for the three financial years ended on 31st March, 2015; 2016 and 2017 are 14%, 10% and 8% respectively.

1,250 employees exercised their vested options within a year and remaining options were unexercised at the end of the contractual life.

You are required to give the necessary journal entries for the above and also prepare the statement showing compensation expense to be recognized at the end of each year. (November 2018 – New Course) (10 Marks)
Answer:
Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 11
Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 12

Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Working Note:
Statement showing compensation expense to be recognized at the end of:
Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 13
*It is assumed that each share is of ₹ 10 each and Lucky Ltd. expects all the options to be vested after deducting actual lapses during the year.

Questions On Espp

Question 16.
On 1st April, 2013, a company offered 100 shares to each of its 500 employees at ₹ 50 per share. The employees are given a month to accept the offer. The shares issued under the plan shall be subject to lock-in on transfer for three years from the grant date. The market price of shares of the company on the grant date is ₹ 60 per share. Due to post-vesting restrictions on transfer, the fair value of shares issued under the plan is estimated at ₹ 56 per share. On 30th April, 2013,400 employees accepted the offer and paid ₹ 50 per share purchased. Nominal value of each share is ₹ 10.

Record the issue of shares in the books of the company under the aforesaid plan.
Answer:
Fair value of an option = ₹ 56 – ₹ 50 = ₹ 6
Number of shares issued = 400 employees × 100 shares/employee = 40,000 shares
Fair value of ESPP = 40,000 shares × ₹ 6 = ₹ 2,40,000
Vesting period = 1 month
Expenses recognized in 2013-14 = ₹ 2,40,000
Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 14

Advanced Questions on Esop

Question 17.
The following particulars in respect of stock options granted by a company are available:

Grant date April 1,2008
Number of employees covered 300
Vesting condition: Continuous employment upto 31/03/11 100
Nominal value per share (₹) 10
Exercise price per share (₹) 40
Fair value of option per share on grant date (₹) 20
Exercise date July 31, 2011

The number of options to vest per employee shall depend on company’s average annual earning after tax during vesting period as per the table below:

Average annual earning after tax Number of options per employee
Less than ₹ 100 crores Nil
₹ 100 crores to less than ? 120 crores 30
₹ 120 crores to less than ? 150 crores 45
Above ₹ 150 crores 60

Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Position on 31/03/09
(a) The company expects to earn ₹ 115 crores after tax on an average per year during vesting period.
(b) Number of employees expected to be entitled to option = 280
Position on 31 /03/10
(a) The company expects to earn ₹ 130 crores after tax on an average per year during vesting period.
(b) Number of employees expected to be entitled to option = 270
Position on 31 /03/11
(a) The company earned ₹ 128 crores after tax on an average per year during vesting period.
(b) Number of employees entitled to option = 275
Position on July 31, 2011
Number of employees exercising option = 265
Compute expenses to be recognised in each year and value of options forfeited.
Answer:
(A) Computation of expenses to be recognized in each year

Year Calculation Expense for Period (₹) Cumulative expense (₹)
2008-09 (280 × 30) options × ₹ 20 × 1/3 56,000 56,000
2009-10 [(270 × 45) options × ₹ 20 × 2/3] – 56,000 1,06,000 1,62,000
2010-11 [(275 × 45) options × ₹ 20 × 3/3] – 1,62,000 85,500 2,47,500

(B) Value of option forfeited as on July 31, 2011
Fair value of option per share = ₹ 20
Number of shares not subscribed = (275 – 265) × 45 = 450
Value of options forfeited = 450 × ₹ 20 = ₹ 9,000.

Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Question 18.
The following particulars in respect of stock options granted by a company are available:
tableee
The options will vest to employees serving continuously for 3 years from vesting date, provided the share price is ₹ 70 or above at the end of 2013-14.

The estimates of number of employees satisfying the condition of continuous employment were 48 on 31 /03/12,47 on 31 / 03/13. The number of employees actually satisfying the condition of continuous employment was 45.

The share price at the end of 2013-14 was ₹ 68.

Compute expenses to recognise in each year and show important accounts in books of the company.
Answer:
The vesting of options is subject to satisfaction of two conditions viz. service condition of continuous employment for 3 years and market condition that the share price at the end of 2013-14 is not less than ₹ 70. Since the share price on 31 /03 /14 was ₹ 68, the actual vesting shall be nil. Despite this, the company should recognise value of option over 3-vear vesting period from 2011-12 to 2013-14.

Year 2011-12
Fair value of option per share = ₹ 9
Number of shares expected to vest under the scheme = 48 × 1,000 = 48,000
Fair value = 48,000 × ₹ 9 = ₹ 4,32,000
Expected vesting period = 3 years
Value of option recognised as expense in 2011-12 = ₹ 4,32,000/3 = ₹ 1,44,000

Year 2012-13
Fair value of option per share = ₹ 9
Number of shares expected to vest under the scheme = 47 × 1,000 = 47,000
Fair value = 47,000 × ₹ 9 = 2 4,23,000 Expected vesting period = 3 years
Cumulative value of option to recognise as expense in 2011-12 and 2012-13 = (₹ 4,23,000/3) × 2 = ₹ 2,82,000
Value of option recognised as expense in 2011-12 = ₹ 1,44,000
Value of option recognised as expense in 2012-13 = ₹ 2,82,000 – ₹ 1,44,000 = ₹ 1,38,000

Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Year 2013-14
Fair value of option per share = ₹ 9
Number of shares actually vested under the scheme = 45 × 1,000 = 45,000
Fair value = 45,000 × ₹ 9 = 2 4,05,000
Vesting period = 3 years
Cumulative value of option to recognise as expense in 2011-12, 2012-13 and 2013-14 = ₹ 4,05,000
Value of option recognised as expense in 2011-12 and 2012-13 = ₹ 2,82,000
Value of option recognised as expense in 2013-14 =₹ 4,05,000 – ₹ 2,82,000 = ₹ 1,23,000

Employees’ Compensation A/c
Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 15

ESOP Outstanding A/c
Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 16

Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Question 19.
X Ltd. granted 500 stock options to its employees on 1.4.2011 at ₹ 50 per share. The vesting period is 2 years and the maximum exercise period is one year. Market price on that date is ₹ 140 per share. All the options were exercised on 30.06.2014. Pass journal entries giving suitable narrations, if the face value of equity share is t 10 per share. (Nov. 2014) (8 Marks)
Answer:
Journal entries in the books of X Ltd.
Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 17
Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 18

Working. Note:
1. Total employees compensation expenses
= 500 × (₹ 140 – ₹ 50) = ₹ 45,000

2. Employees compensation expense has been written off during 21/2 years on straight line basis as under:
Ist Year = ₹ 18,000 (for full year)
IInd Year = ₹ 18,000 (for full year)
IIIrd Year = ₹ 9,000 (for half year)

Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

Question 20.
You are provided with the following details in respect of ABC Limited:

  1. 10,000 equity shares of nominal value of ₹ 10 each (under ESOP) were issued on 31st March, 2014;
  2. Exercise price of equity shares granted under ESOP was ₹ 160 per share;
  3. Market price of share was ₹ 400 each on the date of the grant;
  4. Vesting of shares was in the ratio of 30%, 60% and 100% after 1 year, 2 year and 3 year respectively from the date of grant;
  5. Vested options can be exercised up to 1 year from the date of vesting;
  6. The number of shares expired and exercised are as under:
Years ended
Particulars 31.03.2015 31.03.2016 31.03.2017
Vested Options Lapsed during the year 200 600
Unvested Options Lapsed during the year 400 600 1,000
Options Exercised during the year 2,500 2,000

From the above details you are required to calculate:

  1. Employee Compensation Expense for the year ending 31 st March, 2015, 31st March, 2016 and 31st March, 2017
  2. Balance of Employee Stock Option Outstanding Account as on 31st March, 2015, 31st March, 2016 and 31st March, 2017
    Entries relating to ESOP lapsed and options exercised were passed at the end of the respective financial year. (Nov. 2017) (8 Marks)

Answer:
(i) Computation of Employee Compensation Expense (Refer Working Note)

Vesting Date as on 31st March Cost to be recognized in the year ending on 31st March
2015 2016 2017
Grade I (30%) 6,24,000
Grade II (30%) 2,88,000 2,88,000
Grade III (40%) 2,40,000 2,40,000 2,40,000
Cost for the year 11,52,000 5,28,000 2,40,000
Cumulative cost 11,52,000 16,80,000 19,20,000

Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material

(ii) Balance of ESOP Outstanding Account
Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 19

Working Note:
Determination of number of options expected to vest under each group
Accounting for Employee Stock Option Plans – Advanced Accounts CA Inter Study Material 20
Total compensation expense of ₹ 19,20,000, determined at the grant date, is attributed to 3 years.

Nature, Objective and Scope of Audit – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Students should practice these Nature, Objective and Scope of Audit – CA Inter Audit MCQ based on the latest syllabus.

Nature, Objective and Scope of Audit – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 1.
Objective of Audit is to :
(a) safeguarding of assets
(b) prevention and detection of fraud and error
(c) compliance of laws and regulations
(d) express an opinion on financial Statements
Answer:
(d) express an opinion on financial Statements

Question 2.
As per SA-200 “Overall Objectives of the Indepen¬dent Auditor”, in conducting an audit of financial statements, the overall objectives of the auditor is:
(a) to obtain reasonable assurance about whether the financial statements as a whole are free from material misstatement and to report on the financial statements, and communicate as required by the SAs, in accordance with the auditor’s findings
(b) to guide the management as to design, implemen-tation and maintenance of internal controls which are necessary to obtain reasonable assurance that financial statements are free from material mis-statements
(c) to communication with Those Charged with Gover-nance, the weaknesses identified during the course of audit
(d) to ensure compliance of laws and regulations that are applicable over the entity
Answer:
(a) to obtain reasonable assurance about whether the financial statements as a whole are free from material misstatement and to report on the financial statements, and communicate as required by the SAs, in accordance with the auditor’s findings

Question 3.
Which of the following is an example of Voluntary Audit?
(a) Audit of companies governed by Companies Act, 2013
(b) Audit of Individuals under Section 44AB of Income Tax Act, 1961
(c) Audit of companies under Section 44AB of Income Tax Act, 1961
(d) Audit of Individuals on the directives of Government for the purpose of sanction of grants
Answer:
(d) Audit of Individuals on the directives of Government for the purpose of sanction of grants

Nature, Objective and Scope of Audit – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 4.
Which of the following is not an inherent limita¬tion of audit?
(a) Nature of Financial Reporting
(b) Nature of Audit procedures
(c) Nature and Size of Business Entity
(d) Existence of related party transactions
Answer:
(c) Nature and Size of Business Entity

Question 5.
The IAASB functions as an independent standard-setting body under the auspices of :
(a) International Federation of Auditors
(b) International Federation of Accountants
(c) Auditing Practices Committee
(d) International Ethical Standard Board of Accountants
Answer:
(b) International Federation of Accountants

Question 6.
As per SQC-1, which of the following element is not part of the firm’s system of quality control:
(a) Leadership responsibilities for quality within the firm
(b) Ethical requirements including independence
(c) Preparation of financial statements in compliance of applicable Financial reporting Framework
(d) Acceptance and continuance of client relationships and specific engagements
Answer:
(c) Preparation of financial statements in compliance of applicable Financial reporting Framework

Question 7.
SQC1 requires the firm to obtain information be-fore accepting an engagement. Which of the following information will not assist the engagement partner in determining whether the decisions regarding the acceptance and continuance of audit engagements are appropriate:
(a) The integrity of the principal owners, key management and those charged with governance of the entity;
(b) Whether the engagement team is competent to perform the audit engagement and has the necessary capabilities, including time and resources;
(c) Whether the firm and the engagement team can comply with relevant ethical requirements;
(d) Whether the firm and the engagement partner are able to communicate with the TCWG
Answer:
(d) Whether the firm and the engagement partner are able to communicate with the TCWG

Question 8.
SQC1 “Quality Control for Firms that perform Audits and Review of Historical Financial Information, and other Assurance and related services”, requires firms to establish policies and procedures for the timely completion of the assembly of audit files. An appropriate time limit within which to complete the assembly of the Final audit File is
(a) Ordinarily not more than 60 days after the date of the auditor’s report
(b) Ordinarily not more than 30 days after the date of the auditor’s report
(c) Ordinarily not more than 90 days after the date of the auditor’s report
(d) Ordinarily not more than 120 days after the date of the auditor’s report
Answer:
(a) Ordinarily not more than 60 days after the date of the auditor’s report

Question 9.
SQC 1 requires firms to establish policies and procedures for the retention of
(a) Audit File
(b) Engagement documentation
(c) Final Audit file
(d) Audit Documentation
Answer:
(b) Engagement documentation

Question 10.
SQC 1 requires firms to establish policies and procedures for the retention of engagement documentation. The retention period for audit engagements ordinarily is:
(a) No shorter than eight years from the date of the auditor’s report, or, if later, the date of the group auditor’s report
(b) No shorter than six years from the date of the auditor’s report, or, if later, the date of the group auditor’s report
(c) No shorter than seven years from the date of the auditor’s report, or, if later, the date of the group auditor’s report
(d) No shorter than ten years from the date of the auditor’s report, or, if later, the date of the group auditor’s report
Answer:
(c) No shorter than seven years from the date of the auditor’s report, or, if later, the date of the group auditor’s report

Question 11.
As per SA 210 “Agreeing the Terms of Audit Engagements”, preconditions for an audit may be defined as the use by management of an acceptable financial reporting framework in the preparation of the financial statements and the agreement of managementand, where appropriate, those charged with governance to the premise on which an audit is conducted. In order to establish whether the precon-ditions for an audit are present, the auditor shall:
(a) determine whether the audit can be performed in accordance with Quality Control and Engagement Standards
(b) determine whether the financial reporting framework is acceptable
(c) determine whether the audit can be performed in accordance with legal and regulatory requirements
(d) determine whether policies and procedures as followed for internal control are acceptable
Answer:
(b) determine whether the financial reporting framework is acceptable

Nature, Objective and Scope of Audit – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 12.
The agreed terms of the audit engagement shall be recorded in an audit engagement letter which shall include the following except-
(a) Responsibilities of the auditor
(b) Description of methods to be followed for obtaining audit evidence
(c) Responsibilities of management
(d) Objective and scope of the audit of the financial statements
Answer:
(b) Description of methods to be followed for obtaining audit evidence

Question 13.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) Auditing implies systematic, critical and special examination of the records of a business for a specific purpose
(b) The purpose of an audit is to enhance the degree of confidence of intended users in the financial statements
(c) Auditing is legally obligatory for all types of business organisations
(d) Auditor’s Opinion is an assurance as to the future viability of the enterprise or the efficiency or effec-tiveness with which management has conducted the affairs of the enterprise
Answer:
(b) The purpose of an audit is to enhance the degree of confidence of intended users in the financial statements

Question 14.
Which of the following is not an advantage of independent audit?
(a) Settlement of Taxes
(b) Protection of Interest of Stakeholders
(c) Guarantee as to future viability of the entity
(d) Moral Check on employees
Answer:
(c) Guarantee as to future viability of the entity

Question 15.
Threats occur when, because of a relationship, a professional accountant becomes too sympathetic to the interests of others, are known as:
(a) Self-interest threats
(b) Self-review threats
(c) Familiarity threats
(d) Intimidation threats
Answer:
(c) Familiarity threats

Question 16.
Loan or guarantee to or from the concerned client is an example of –
(a) Self-review threats
(b) Self-interest threats
(c) Advocacy threats
(d) Intimidation threats
Answer:
(b) Self-interest threats

Question 17.
When an auditor deals with shares or securities of the audited company is an example of:
(a) Self-review threats
(b) Self-interest threats
(c) Advocacy threats
(d) Intimidation threats
Answer:
(c) Advocacy threats

Question 18.
Intimidation threats occur:
(a) when a professional accountant may be deterred from acting objectively by threats, actual or per-ceived
(b) whenaprofessional accountant promotes a position or opinion to the point that subsequent objectivity may be compromised
(c) when a previous judgment needs to be re-evaluated by the professional accountant responsible for that judgment
(d) as a result of the financial or other interests of a professional accountant or of a relative
Answer:
(a) when a professional accountant may be deterred from acting objectively by threats, actual or per-ceived

Question 19.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) To maintain an adequate accounting system incorporating various controls is the responsibility of Management
(b) The term independence implies that the auditor should respect the confidentiality of client information
(c) An unqualified opinion in audit report is aguarantee as to the future viability of the company
(d) The audit engagement letter is sent by the client to auditor
Answer:
(a) To maintain an adequate accounting system incorporating various controls is the responsibility of Management

Question 20.
An attitude that includes a questioning mind, beingalertto conditions whichmay indicate possible misstatement due to error or fraud, and a critical assessment of audit evidence, is known as
(a) Professional Judgment
(b) Professional Skepticism
(c) Professional Competence
(d) Professional Behaviour
Answer:
(b) Professional Skepticism

Question 21.
The application of relevant training, knowledge and experience, within the context provided by auditing, accounting and ethical standards, in making informed decisions about the courses of action that are appropriate in the circumstances of the audit engagement, is known as:
(a) Professional Judgment
(b) Professional Skepticism
(c) Professional Competence
(d) Professional Behaviour
Answer:
(a) Professional Judgment

Question 22.
SA 210 deals with:
(a) Agreeing the terms of Review Engagement
(b) Agreeing the terms of Audit Engagement
(c) Agreeing the terms of Compilation Engagement
(d) Agreeingthe terms of Other Assurance Engagement
Answer:
(b) Agreeing the terms of Audit Engagement

Question 23.
Which of the following is incorrect?
(a) Auditor is able to obtain only reasonable assurance due to inherent limitation of audit
(b) The auditor is not expected to, and cannot, reduce audit risk to zero and cannot therefore obtain ab-solute assurance that the financial statements are free from material misstatement due to fraud or error
(c) An Auditor is considered to lack independence if the partner of the audit firm deals with shares and securities of the audited entity
(d) The preparation of financial statements does not involve judgment by management in applying the requirements of the entity’s applicable financial reporting framework to the facts and circumstances of the entity
Answer:
(d) The preparation of financial statements does not involve judgment by management in applying the requirements of the entity’s applicable financial reporting framework to the facts and circumstances of the entity

Question 24.
Which of the following standard requires implementation of quality control procedures while performing an audit engagement:
(a) SQC 1
(b) SA 220
(c) SQC 1 and SA 220
(d) SA 200 and SA 220
Answer:
(b) SA 220

Question 25.
Which of the following aspect is not covered in audit of financial statements:
(a) Examination of Accounting System & Internal Control
(b) Vouching of the transactions
(c) Verification of Assets & Liabilities
(d) Design, implementation and maintenance of internal Control System
Answer:
(d) Design, implementation and maintenance of internal Control System

Question 26.
Which of the following is true?
(a) Management of the organisation is solely responsible for the compliance of auditing standards while preparing financial statements
(b) The matter of difficulty, time, or cost involved is in itself a valid basis for the auditor to omit an audit procedure for which there is no alternative
(c) The basic objective of audit does not change with reference to nature, size or form of the entity
(d) Audit procedures used to gather audit evidence may be effective for detecting an intentional mis-statement
Answer:
(c) The basic objective of audit does not change with reference to nature, size or form of the entity

Question 27.
Standards on Assurance Engagements are to be applied in:
(a) the audit of historical financial information
(b) the review of historical financial information
(c) assurance engagements, engagements dealing with subject matter other than historical financial information
(d) engagements involving application of agreed upon procedures to information and other related services such as compilation engagements
Answer:
(c) assurance engagements, engagements dealing with subject matter other than historical financial information

Nature, Objective and Scope of Audit – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 28.
Ethical requirements are defined as the Code of Ethics issued by the ICAI establishes the fundamen¬tal principles of professional ethics. Which of the following is not specified in Code of Ethics, as such:
(a) Objectivity
(h) Professional competence
(c) Confidentiality
(d) Communication Skills
Answer:
(d) Communication Skills

Question 29.
Which of the following is false?
(a) Engagement letter need to be entered for each year of the period of auditor’s appointment
(b) The objective of auditor is to obtain reasonable assurance and to report on the financial statements
(c) An audit is not an official investigation into alleged wrongdoing
(d) Guidance Notes are recommendatory in Nature
Answer:
(a) Engagement letter need to be entered for each year of the period of auditor’s appointment

Question 30.
In case of recurring audits, the auditor shall assess whether circumstances require revision in terms of the audit engagement and whether there is a need to remind the entity of the existing terms of the audit engagement. Which of the following circumstance do not require revision in the terms of the audit engagement or to remind the entity of existing terms:
(a) significant change of senior management
(b) significant change in ownership
(c) significant change in nature or size of the entity’s business
(d) significant change in engagement ream members
Answer:
(d) significant change in engagement ream members

Question 31.
Judging the significance of a matter requires analysis of the facts and circumstances.
(a) objective
(b) subjective
(c) both subjective and objective
(d) qualitative
Answer:
(a) objective

Question 32.
An important factor in determining the form, content and extent of audit documentation of significant matters is the extent of exercised in performing the work and evaluating the results.
(a) professional skepticism
(b) professional integrity
(c) professional judgment
(d) professional sincerity
Answer:
(c) professional judgment

Question 33.
Standard on Quality Control (SQC) 1 provides that, unless otherwise specified by law or reg¬ulation, audit documentation is the property of
(a) Management.
(b) Those charged with governance.
(c) Management or Those charged with governance.
(d) Auditor.
Answer:
(d) Auditor.

Question 34.
Professional skepticism is necessary to the critical assessment of
(a) audit documentation
(b) audit evidence
(c) audit procedures and techniques
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) audit evidence

Question 35.
As per SA 210 “Agreeing the Terms of Audit Engagements”, the auditor shall agree the terms of the audit engagement with:
(a) Management
(b) Those charged with governance
(c) Management or those charged with governance, as appropriate,
(d) Engagement team members
Answer:
(c) Management or those charged with governance, as appropriate,

Question 36.
The matter of difficulty, time, or cost involved is:
(a) not in itself a valid basis for the auditor to omit an audit procedure for which there is no alternative.
(b) in itself a valid basis for the auditor to omit an audit procedure for which there is no alternative.
(c) not in itself a valid basis for the auditor to omit an audit procedure for which alternative exists.
(d) not in itself a valid basis for the auditor to omit an audit procedure.
Answer:
(a) not in itself a valid basis for the auditor to omit an audit procedure for which there is no alternative.

Question 37.
____________ are self-evident, and occur when auditors form relationships with the client where they end up being too sympathetic to the client’s interests.
(a) Self-review threats
(b) Familiarity threats
(c) Intimidation threats
(d) Advocacy threats
Answer:
(b) Familiarity threats

Nature, Objective and Scope of Audit – CA Inter Audit MCQ

Question 38.
If the auditor concludes that there is reason¬able justification to change the engagement and if the audit work performed complied with the SAs applicable to the changed engagement, the report issued would be appropriate for the revised terms of engagement. In order to avoid confusion, the report would not include reference to:
(a) the original engagement; or any procedures that may have been performed in the original engagement.
(b) the original engagement;
(c) any procedures that may have been performed in the original engagement
(d) the original engagement and any procedures that may have been performed in the original engagement.
Answer:
(a) the original engagement; or any procedures that may have been performed in the original engagement.

Question 39.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) The auditor is not expected to, and cannot, reduce audit risk to zero and cannot therefore obtain ab-solute assurance that the financial statements are free from material misstatement due to fraud or error.
(b) The auditor is expected to and can reduce audit risk to zero and can therefore obtain absolute assurance.
(c) The auditor is not expected to, and cannot, reduce audit risk to zero and cannot therefore obtain reasonable assurance that the financial statements are free from material misstatement due to fraud or error.
(d) The auditor is expected to and can reduce audit risk to zero and can therefore obtain reasonable assurance that the financial statements are free from material misstatement due to fraud or error.
Answer:
(a) The auditor is not expected to, and cannot, reduce audit risk to zero and cannot therefore obtain ab-solute assurance that the financial statements are free from material misstatement due to fraud or error.

Question 40.
Direct financial interest or materially significant indirect financial interest in a client is an example of
(a) Self-review threats
(b) Self-interest threats
(c) Advocacy threats
(d) Intimidation threats
Answer:
(b) Self-interest threats

Question 41.
M/s KYC & Co. is a reputed Audit firm in Mumbai. They are appointed as Statutory Auditors of Blessed Ltd. Which of the below is the responsibility of M/s KYC & Co.
(a) Preparation of financial statements
(b) Designing, implementation and maintenance of internal control system
(c) Reporting on true and fair view of financial statements
(d) Compliance with the applicable law and regulation
Answer:
(c) Reporting on true and fair view of financial statements

Question 42.
Mr. A, auditor and Mr. B, Finance Manager of XYZ Pvt. Ltd. are friends. Mr. A prepares the audit report according to the wishes and directions of Mr. B. In this situation which essential quality of the auditor has been compromised:
(a) Professional Competence
(b) Independence
(c) Professional Skepticism
(d) Due care
Answer:
(b) Independence

Question 43.
Mr. Salman, is an engagement partner of Khan & Co. Chartered Accountants for an audit of Lava Ltd., he died of a stroke on 30.09.2020 after completing the entire routine audit work of Lava Ltd. Mr. Shoaib, one of the partners of Khan & Co. will be signing the accounts of Lava Ltd. What is the course of action to be taken by Mr. Shoaib?
(a) Sign the accounts of Lava Ltd. without reviewing the work of his partner
(b) Sign the balance sheet after reviewing the work of his partner
(c) Withdraw the audit as the person who has per-formed the audit is no more
(d) Issue an adverse report
Answer:
(b) Sign the balance sheet after reviewing the work of his partner